GATE 2016 Question Papers

GATE 2016
Question
Papers
GATE 2016 General Aptitude GA Set-8
Q. 1 Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.1 The chairman requested the aggrieved shareholders to _________________ him.
(A) bare with (B) bore with (C) bear with (D) bare
Q.2 Identify the correct spelling out of the given options:

(A) Managable (B) Manageable (C) Mangaeble (D) Managible
Q.3 Pick the odd one out in the following:
13, 23, 33, 43, 53

(A) 23 (B) 33 (C) 43 (D) 53
Q.4 R2D2 is a robot. R2D2 can repair aeroplanes. No other robot can repair aeroplanes.
Which of the following can be logically inferred from the above statements?
(A) R2D2 is a robot which can only repair aeroplanes.
(B) R2D2 is the only robot which can repair aeroplanes.
(C) R2D2 is a robot which can repair only aeroplanes.
(D) Only R2D2 is a robot.
Q.5 If |9y6| =3, then y2 4y/3 is .

(A) 0 (B) +1/3 (C) 1/3 (D) undefined
1/3
Q. 6 Q. 10 carry two marks each.

Q.6 The following graph represents the installed capacity for cement production (in tonnes) and the
actual production (in tonnes) of nine cement plants of a cement company. Capacity utilization of a
plant is defined as ratio of actual production of cement to installed capacity. A plant with installed
capacity of at least 200 tonnes is called a large plant and a plant with lesser capacity is called a
small plant. The difference between total production of large plants and small plants, in tonnes is
____.
Q.7 A poll of students appearing for masters in engineering indicated that 60 % of the students believed
that mechanical engineering is a profession unsuitable for women. A research study on women with
masters or higher degrees in mechanical engineering found that 99 % of such women were
successful in their professions.
Which of the following can be logically inferred from the above paragraph?
(A) Many students have misconceptions regarding various engineering disciplines.
(B) Men with advanced degrees in mechanical engineering believe women are well suited to be
mechanical engineers.
(C) Mechanical engineering is a profession well suited for women with masters or higher degrees
in mechanical engineering.
(D) The number of women pursuing higher degrees in mechanical engineering is small.
2/3
Q.8 Sourya committee had proposed the establishment of Sourya Institutes of Technology (SITs) in line
with Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs) to cater to the technological and industrial needs of a
developing country.
Which of the following can be logically inferred from the above sentence?
Based on the proposal,

(i) In the initial years, SIT students will get degrees from IIT.
(ii) SITs will have a distinct national objective.
(iii) SIT like institutions can only be established in consultation with IIT.
(iv) SITs will serve technological needs of a developing country.
(A) (iii) and (iv) only. (B) (i) and (iv) only.
(C) (ii) and (iv) only. (D) (ii) and (iii) only.
Q.9 Shaquille O Neal is a 60% career free throw shooter, meaning that he successfully makes 60 free
throws out of 100 attempts on average. What is the probability that he will successfully
make exactly 6 free throws in 10 attempts?
(A) 0.2508 (B) 0.2816 (C) 0.2934 (D) 0.6000
Q.10 The numeral in the units position of 211870 + 146127 3424 is _____.
END OF THE QUESTION PAPER
3/3
GATE 2016 Aerospace Engineering

Q.1 With increase in airfoil thickness, the critical Mach number for an airfoil is likely to
(A) decrease. (B) increase. (C) remain unchanged. (D) be undefined.
Q.2 Due to a body in potential flow, the velocity at a point A in the flow field is 20 m/s while the free
stream velocity is only 10 m/s. The value of coefficient of pressure (Cp ) at the point A is
_________.
Q.3 Which of the following airfoil will have location of the maximum camber at half chord length from
the leading edge?
(A) NACA 5212 (B) NACA 1225 (C) NACA 2215 (D) NACA 2512
Q.4 For a laminar incompressible flow past a flat plate at zero angle of attack, the variation of skin
friction drag coefficient C f with Reynolds number based on the chord length Re c can be
expressed as
(A) C f Re c
(B) C f Rec
(C) C f 1
Re c
(D) C f 1
Re c
Q.5 Which of the following statement is NOT TRUE across an oblique shock wave?
(A) Static temperature increases, total temperature remains constant.
(B) Static pressure increases, static temperature increases.
(C) Static temperature increases, total pressure decreases.
(D) Static pressure increases, total temperature decreases.
Q.6 For a completely subsonic isentropic flow through a convergent nozzle, which of the following
statement is TRUE?
(A) Pressure at the nozzle exit > back pressure.
(B) Pressure at the nozzle exit < back pressure.
(C) Pressure at the nozzle exit = back pressure.
(D) Pressure at the nozzle exit = total pressure.
Q.7 Which of the following aircraft engines has the highest propulsive efficiency at a cruising Mach
number of less than 0.5?
(A) Turbofan engine (B) Turbojet engine
(C) Turboprop engine (D) Ramjet engine
Q.8 Air, with a Prandtl number of 0.7, flows over a flat plate at a high Reynolds number. Which of the
following statement is TRUE?
(A) Thermal boundary layer is thicker than the velocity boundary layer.
(B) Thermal boundary layer is thinner than the velocity boundary layer.
(C) Thermal boundary layer is as thick as the velocity boundary layer.
(D) There is no relationship between the thicknesses of thermal and velocity boundary layers.
AE 1/9
Q.9 Consider an eigenvalue problem given by Ax= i x. If i represent the eigenvalues of the non-
singular square matrix A, then what will be the eigenvalues of matrix A2?
(A) i (B) i (C) i (D) i

4 2 1/ 2 1/ 4
Q.10 If A and B are both non-singular n n matrices, then which of the following statement is NOT
TRUE. Note: det represents the determinant of a matrix.
(A) det(AB) = det(A)det(B)
(B) det(A+B) = det(A) + det(B)
(C) det(AA-1) = 1
(D) det(AT) = det(A)
Q.11 The total number of material constants that are necessary and sufficient to describe the three
dimensional Hookes law for an isotropic material is ____.
Q.12 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following statements, [a] and [r]:
[a]: In a plane stress problem, the shear strains along the thickness direction of a body are zero but
the normal strain along the thickness is not zero.
[r]: In a plane stress problem, Poisson effect induces the normal strain along the thickness direction
of the body.
(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a].
(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a].
(C) Both [a] and [r] are false.
(D) [a] is true but [r] is false.
Q.13 Consider four thin-walled beams of different open cross-sections, as shown in the cases (i-iv). A
shear force of magnitude F acts vertically downward at the location P in all the beams. In which
of the following case, does the shear force induce bending and twisting?
Case (i) Case (ii) Case (iii) Case (iv)
(A) (i) (B) (ii)

(C) (iii) (D) (iv)
Q.14 The effective stiffness of the spring-mass system as shown in the figure below is ____ N/mm.
Q.15 A structural member supports loads, which produce at a particular point, a state of pure shear stress
of 50 N/mm2. At what angles are the principal planes oriented with respect to the plane of pure
shear?
(A) /6 and 2/3 (B) /4 and 3/4 (C) /4 and /2 (D) /2 and
Q.16 Let x be a positive real number. The function f x x 2 1 has its minima at x=______.
x2

Q.17 The vector u is defined as u ye x xe y , where e x and e y are the unit vectors along x and y

directions, respectively. If the vector is defined as u , then u ______.
Q.18 u 2u
The partial differential equation 2 , where is a positive constant, is
t x
(A) circular. (B) elliptic. (C) hyperbolic. (D) parabolic.
Q.19 Combustion in gas turbine engines is ideally represented as the following process:
(A) Adiabatic (B) Isentropic (C) Isobaric (D) Isochoric
Q.20 For a given chamber pressure, the thrust of a rocket engine is highest when
(A) the rocket is operating at its design altitude.
(B) the rocket is operating in vacuum.
(C) the rocket is operating at sea-level.
(D) there is a normal shock in the rocket nozzle.
Q.21 The damping ratio in phugoid motion for gliders is usually less compared to powered aircraft
because
(A) gliders are unpowered.
(B) gliders are light.
(C) lift to drag ratio is higher for gliders.
(D) gliders fly at low speed.
Q.22 During an aircraft cruising flight, the altitude above the ground is usually measured using
(A) dynamic pressure. (B) static pressure.
(C) radar. (D) laser range finder.
AE 3/9
Q.23 Indicated airspeed is used by a pilot during

(A) take-off. (B) navigation.
(C) setting the engine RPM. (D) setting the elevator angle.
Q.24 The pitch angle and the angle of attack for a fixed wing aircraft are equal during
(A) wings level constant altitude flight.
(B) unaccelerated climb.
(C) unaccelerated descent.
(D) landing.
Q.25 The load factor of an aircraft turning at a constant altitude is 2. The coefficient of lift required for
turning flight as compared to level flight at the same speed will be
(A) same (B) half
(C) double (D) four times

Q.26 An un-mixed turbofan engine with a bypass ratio of 6.0, flies with a velocity of 200 m/s. The core
and the bypass nozzles of the engine, that are both convergent nozzles, operate under choked
condition and have exhaust static temperatures of 580 K and 295 K, respectively. The specific gas
constant and the ratio of specific heats for both the streams are 287 J/kgK and 1.4, respectively. If
the fuel-air ratio is negligible, the thrust per unit mass flow rate generated by the engine is
_______Ns/kg.
Q.27 A single-stage gas turbine operates with an axial absolute flow at the entry and exit from the stage.
The absolute flow angle at the nozzle exit is 70o. The turbine stage generates a specific work of
228 kJ/kg when operating with a mean blade speed of 440 m/s. The absolute velocity at the rotor
entry is
(A) 275.7 m/s (B) 551.5 m/s (C) 1103.0 m/s (D) 1654.5 m/s
Q.28 An axial compressor operates such that it has an inlet and an exit total temperature of 300 K and
430 K, respectively. The isentropic efficiency of the compressor is 85 %. If the ratio of specific
heats is 1.4, then the total pressure ratio across the compressor is ____________.
Q.29 The maximum value of coefficient of lift ( C l ) for a 2D circular cylinder, provided at least one
stagnation point lies on the cylinder surface, is predicted by the potential flow theory to be
(A) /2 (B) (C) 2 (D) 4
AE 4/9
Q.30 The nozzle AB, as shown below, leading to the test section of a low speed subsonic wind tunnel,
has a contraction ratio of 10:1. The pressure difference across the nozzle is maintained at 1000
N/m2 and the density of air is 1.23 kg/m3. Assuming one-dimensional, steady, inviscid flow, the
velocity in the test section as measured at point B is ___________ m/s.
Q.31 dC m
The rate of change of moment coefficient with respect to the angle of attack, , at half chord
d
point of a thin airfoil, as per approximations from the thin airfoil theory is
(A) /4 radian-1 (B) /2 radian-1 (C) radian-1 (D) 2 radian-1
Q.32 An untwisted wing of elliptic planform and aspect ratio 6 consists of thin symmetric airfoil
sections. The coefficient of lift (CL) at 10 o angle of attack assuming inviscid incompressible flow
is
(A) 2/16 (B) 2/12 (C) 2/8 (D) /2
Q.33 A gaseous mixture of air and fuel enters a constant area combustion chamber at a velocity of 100
m/s and at a static temperature of 300 K. The heat release due to combustion is 1000 kJ/kg. The
specific heat at constant pressure of the calorically perfect gas is 1000 J/kgK. The total temperature
of air-fuel mixture after combustion is ______ K.
Q.34 Consider 1-D, steady, inviscid, compressible flow through a convergent nozzle. The total
temperature and total pressure are To , Po respectively. The flow through the nozzle is choked with
o . If the total temperature is increased to 4To , with total pressure remaining
a mass flow rate of m
unchanged, then the mass flow rate through the nozzle
(A) remains unchanged.
o.
(B) becomes half of m
o.
(C) becomes twice of m
o.
(D) becomes four times of m
Q.35 d2y dy
Consider a second order linear ordinary differential equation 2
4 4 y 0 , with the
dx dx
dy
boundary conditions y( 0) 1; 1 . The value of y at x =1 is
dx x 0
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) e (D) e2

Q.36 Consider the following system of linear equations:

2x y + z = 1
3x 3y + 4z = 6
x 2y + 3z = 4
This system of linear equations has
(A) no solution.
(B) one solution.
(C) two solutions.
(D) three solutions.
Q.37 A bar made of linear elastic isotropic material is fixed at one end and subjected to an axial force of
1 kN at the other end. The cross-sectional area of the bar is 100 mm2, length is 100 mm and the
Youngs Modulus is 1 105 N/mm2. The strain energy stored in the bar is ____ Nmm.
Q.38 A cantilever beam-spring system is shown in the figure. The beam is made with a material of
Youngs modulus 1 105 N/mm2 and geometry such that its moment of inertia is 100 mm4 and
length l = 100 mm. It is supported by a spring of stiffness K = 30 N/mm and subjected to a load of
P = 100 N at the point B. The deflection at the point B due to the load P is ____mm.
Q.39 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following statements, [a] and [r],
[a]: Ribs, used in airplane wings, increase the column buckling strength of the longitudinal
stiffeners.
[r]: Ribs distribute concentrated loads into the structure and redistribute stresses around
discontinuities.
(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]
(C) Both [a] and [r] are false
(D) [a] is true but [r] is false
AE 6/9
Q.40 A channel section shown in the figure has uniform thickness. It is subjected to an anticlockwise
torque of 62.5 103 Nmm. The maximum possible thickness of the channel section, such that the
shear stress induced in it does not exceed 100 N/mm2, is ____ mm.
Q.41 The governing differential equation of motion of a damped system is given by

d2x dx
m 2
c kx 0 . If m = 1 kg, c = 2 Ns/m and k = 2 N/m then the frequency of the damped
dt dt
oscillation of this system is ____ rad/s.
Q.42 The two dimensional state of stress in a body is described by the Airys stress function:
x4 x3y x 2y2 xy 3 y4
5 3 7 E . The Airys stress function will satisfy the equilibrium
12 6 2 6 12
and the compatibility requirements if and only if the value of the coefficient E is ____.
Q.43
The value of definite integral x sin x dx

0
is _______.
Q.44 Use Newton-Raphson method to solve the equation: x e 1 . Begin with the initial guess
x
x 0 0.5 . The solution after one step is x _________.
Q.45 A wall of thickness 5 mm is heated by a hot gas flowing along the wall. The gas is at a temperature
of 3000 K, and the convective heat transfer coefficient is 160 W/m2K. The wall thermal
conductivity is 40 W/mK. If the colder side of the wall is held at 500 K, the temperature of the side
exposed to the hot gas is _______ K.
Q.46 A launch vehicle has a main rocket engine with two identical strap-on motors, all of which fire
simultaneously during the operation. The main engine delivers a thrust of 6300 kN with a specific
impulse of 428 s. Each strap-on motor delivers a thrust of 12000 kN with specific impulse of 292 s.
The acceleration due to gravity is 9.81 m/s2. The effective (combined) specific impulse of the
vehicle is _______ s.
Q.47 A substance experiences an entropy change of s 0 in a quasi-steady process. The rise in

temperature (corresponding to the entropy change s ) is highest for the following process:
(A) isenthalpic (B) isobaric (C) isochoric (D) isothermal
Q.48 In a particular rocket engine, helium propellant is heated to 6000 K and 95% of its total enthalpy is
recovered as kinetic energy of the nozzle exhaust. Consider helium to be a calorically perfect gas
with specific heat at constant pressure of 5200 J/kgK. The exhaust velocity for such a rocket for an
optimum expansion is _____ m/s.
Q.49 An aircraft is flying level in the North direction at a velocity of 55 m/s under cross wind from East
to West of 5 m/s. For the given aircraft Cn = 0.012/deg and Cnr = -0.0072/deg, where r is the
rudder deflection and is the side slip angle. The rudder deflection exerted by pilot is __________
degrees.
Q.50 An aircraft weighing 10000 N is flying level at 100 m/s and it is powered by a jet engine. The thrust
required for level flight is 1000 N. The maximum possible thrust produced by the jet engine is 5000
N. The minimum time required to climb 1000 m, when flight speed is 100 m/s, is ________s.
Q.51 The aircraft velocity (m/s) components in body axes are given as [u, v, w] = [100, 10, 10]. The air
velocity (m/s), angle of attack (deg) and sideslip angle (deg) in that order are
(A) [120, 0.1, 0.1] (B) [100, 0.1, 0.1] (C) [100.995, 0.1, 5.73] (D) [100.995, 5.71, 5.68]
Q.52 The Dutch roll motion of the aircraft is described by following relationship
0.26 1

r 4.49 0.76 r
The undamped natural frequency (rad/s) and damping ratio for the Dutch roll motion in that order
are:
(A) 4.68, 1.02 (B) 4.49, 1.02 (C) 2.165, 0.235 (D) 2.165, 1.02
Q.53 A glider weighing 3300 N is flying at 1000 m above sea level. The wing area is 14.1 m2 and the air
density is 1.23 kg/m3. Under zero wind conditions, the velocity for maximum range is __________
m/s.
(deg) CL CD CL/CD
11 1.46 0.0865 16.9
9 1.36 0.0675 20.1
7 1.23 0.0535 22.9
5 1.08 0.0440 24.5
3 0.90 0.0350 25.7
1 0.70 0.0275 25.4
-1 0.49 0.0220 22.2
-3 0.25 0.0180 13.8
Q.54 A rocket, with a total lift-off mass of 10000 kg, moves vertically upward from rest under a constant
gravitational acceleration of 9.81 m/s2. The propellant mass of 8400 kg burns at a constant rate of
1200 kg/s. If the specific impulse of the rocket engine is 240 s, neglecting drag, the burnout
velocity in m/s is
(A) 3933.7 (B) 4314.6 (C) 4245.9 (D) 4383.3
AE 8/9
Q.55 A satellite is injected at an altitude of 350 km above the Earths surface, with a velocity of 8.0 km/s
parallel to the local horizon. (Earth radius=6378 km, E (GM=Gravitational constant Earth mass)
= 3.9861014 m3s-2). The satellite
(A) forms a circular orbit. (B) forms an elliptic orbit.
(C) escapes from Earths gravitational field. (D) falls back to earth.
AE 9/9

Q.1 If I were you, I __________ that laptop. Its much too expensive.
(A) wont buy (B) shant buy
(C) wouldnt buy (D) would buy
Q.2 He turned a deaf ear to my request.
What does the underlined phrasal verb mean?
(A) ignored (B) appreciated (C) twisted (D) returned
Q.3 Choose the most appropriate set of words from the options given below to complete the following
sentence.
_________ ___________ is a will, _________ is a way.
(A) Wear, there, their (B) Were, their, there
(C) Where, there, there (D) Where, their, their
Q.4 (x % of y) + (y % of x) is equivalent to .
(A) 2 % of xy (B) 2 % of (xy/100) (C) xy % of 100 (D) 100 % of xy
Q.5 The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 12. If the new number formed by reversing the digits
is greater than the original number by 54, find the original number.
(A) 39 (B) 57 (C) 66 (D) 93
1/3
Q.6 Two finance companies, P and Q, declared fixed annual rates of interest on the amounts invested
with them. The rates of interest offered by these companies may differ from year to year. Year-wise
annual rates of interest offered by these companies are shown by the line graph provided below.
P Q
10
9.5
9 9
8 8 8 8
7.5
7
6.5 6.5
6
2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006
If the amounts invested in the companies, P and Q, in 2006 are in the ratio 8:9, then the amounts
received after one year as interests from companies P and Q would be in the ratio:
(A) 2:3
(B) 3:4
(C) 6:7
(D) 4:3
Q.7 Today, we consider Ashoka as a great ruler because of the copious evidence he left behind in the
form of stone carved edicts. Historians tend to correlate greatness of a king at his time with the
availability of evidence today.
Which of the following can be logically inferred from the above sentences?
(A) Emperors who do not leave significant sculpted evidence are completely forgotten.
(B) Ashoka produced stone carved edicts to ensure that later historians will respect him.
(C) Statues of kings are a reminder of their greatness.
(D) A kings greatness, as we know him today, is interpreted by historians.
2/3
Q.8 Fact 1: Humans are mammals.

Fact 2: Some humans are engineers.
Fact 3: Engineers build houses.
If the above statements are facts, which of the following can be logically inferred?
I. All mammals build houses.

II. Engineers are mammals.
III. Some humans are not engineers.
(A) II only. (B) III only.
(C) I, II and III. (D) I only.
Q.9 A square pyramid has a base perimeter x, and the slant height is half of the perimeter. What is the
lateral surface area of the pyramid?
2 2 2 2
(A) x (B) 0.75 x (C) 0.50 x (D) 0.25 x
Q.10 Ananth takes 6 hours and Bharath takes 4 hours to read a book. Both started reading copies of the
book at the same time. After how many hours is the number of pages to be read by Ananth, twice
that to be read by Bharath? Assume Ananth and Bharath read all the pages with constant pace.
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
3/3
GATE 2016 Agricultural Engineering (AG)
Common data
Acceleration due to gravity (g) = 9.81 m s-2; Molecular weight of air = 28.97 kg kgmol-1; Universal gas
constant = 8.314 kJ kgmol-1 K-1.
Q.1 5
Eigen values of the matrix are
(A) -6.3 and -2.7 (B) -2.3 and -6.7

(C) 6.3 and 2.7 (D) 2.3 and 6.7
Q.2 With n being a positive integer, the series , for p > 1 is
(A) convergent (B) divergent (C) asymptotic (D) oscillatory
Q.3 The general solution of the differential equation = + is
(A) C =
(B) C =
(C) C =
(D) C =
Q.4 The function is

(A) minimum at x =
(B) maximum at x =
(C) minimum at x =
(D) maximum at x =
Q.5 The function f(x) represents a normal distribution whose standard deviation and mean are 1 and 5,
respectively. The value of f(x) at x = 5 is
(A) 0.0 (B) 0.159 (C) 0.282 (D) 0.398
Q.6 A watershed area of 1851 hectare has maximum distance of 7.12 km from the outlet to the farthest
point on the divide line. The form factor of the watershed is
(A) 2.60 (B) 2.73 (C) 0.365 (D) 0.385
Q.7 The normal annual rainfall for 5 rain guage stations A, B, C, D and E in a watershed were 112.7,
120.4, 118.3, 125.2 and 110.6 cm, respectively. In a particular year, the rain gauge installed at
station C failed to record rainfall. In the same year the rain gauges at stations A, B, D and E
recorded annual rainfall of 114.9, 118.3, 122.6 and 114.5 cm, respectively. The estimated rainfall at
station C in that particular year in cm was __________
AG 1/8
Q.8 Annual average soil loss from a watershed has been measured as 20 Mg ha-1 year-1. Watershed has
8% land slope and 84 m maximum slope length. Assume all other factors same and dimensionless
exponent for slope factor is 0.5. To reduce soil loss from the watershed to 10 Mg ha-1 year-1, the
maximum slope length in m should be ____________
Q.9 In a cropped field, the following data are observed.

Moisture content at field capacity (weight basis) = 36%
Current moisture content (weight basis) = 24%
Bulk density of soil = 1.5 Mg m-3
Effective root zone depth = 0.8 m
Conveyance efficiency = 80%
Application efficiency = 90%
To bring soil moisture content to field capacity, the depth of irrigation in mm will be ______
Q.10 The correct conditions for which the hydraulically efficient rectangular channel will deliver
maximum discharge are
P depth of water is equal to half the breadth of channel
Q depth of water is equal to breadth of channel
R depth of water is equal to twice the breadth of channel
S hydraulic radius is equal to half the depth of water
(A) P and R (B) P and Q
(C) P and S (D) R and S
Q.11 The most suitable hydraulic structure for conveying water from higher elevation to lower elevation
across the earthen bund is
(A) Drop structure (B) Pipe drop structure
(C) Chute spillway (D) Gabion structure
Q.12 Match the following

(P) Waste valve (1) Jet pump
(Q) Plunger (2) Centrifugal pump
(R) Foot valve (3) Reciprocating pump
(S) Nozzle and venturi (4) Hydraulic ram
(A) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1
(B) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1
(C) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2
(D) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
Q.13 The ASAE-SAE standard for tractor 3-point hitches has been categorized as Category I to IV on the
basis of
(A) maximum drawbar power
(B) maximum drawbar pull
(C) brake power of tractor engine
(D) maximum PTO power
AG 2/8
Q.14 A force of 8.0 kN is applied perpendicularly to the axis of a crankpin having circular cross-
sectional area. The allowable shear stress of the crankpin material is 40.0 N mm-2. If the crankpin
fails under double shear, the design diameter of the crankpin in mm is ___________
Q.15 A vertical rotor planter has 8 cells on each rotor. The rolling radius of the ground wheel is 200 mm.
The ratio of rpm of the ground wheel to that of the rotor shaft is 2:3. If the planting is done at a
forward speed of 3.5 km h-1, the plant spacing in the rows in mm will be _____________
Q.16 The effective temperature (ET) scale developed in 1972 on the basis of a human model is
(A) Heart rate (B) Blood pressure
(C) Psychological response (D) Physiological response
Q.17 As per ASAE standards, the diameter of 1000 rpm-PTO shaft with 20 splines is
(A) 30 mm (B) 35 mm (C) 40 mm (D) 45 mm
Q.18 In restrained link operation of three point hitches, the line of pull passes
(A) through the virtual hitch point and bending force exists on lower links
(B) above the virtual hitch point and bending force exists on lower links
(C) below the virtual hitch point and no bending force exists on lower links
(D through the virtual hitch point and tensile force exists on lower links
Q.19 A gear pump discharges 100 L min-1 against a system pressure of 15 MPa. The overall efficiency of
the pump is 0.75. Input power to run the pump in kW is ___________
Q.20 A 2.5 m long pipe is insulated at both ends. It has ID and OD as 50 mm and 56 mm, respectively.
Its log-mean heat transfer area in m2 is ________________
Q.21 In a drying experiment, the constant rate of drying is found to be 3.6 kg water m-2 h-1. Dry bulb
and wet bulb temperatures of the drying air are 75C and 37C, respectively. Latent heats of
vapourization at the dry bulb and the wet bulb temperatures are 2321 and 2414 kJ kg-1, respectively.
Convective heat transfer coefficient in W m-2 K-1 for the drying operation is _____________
Q.22 An air water vapour mixture is at 35C and normal atmospheric pressure with absolute humidity
of 0.02 kg water vapour kg-1 dry air. Its humid volume in m3 kg-1 dry air is _________
AG 3/8
Q.23 A very small particle of diameter dp and density p freely settles at constant velocity in a tank of
depth L containing liquid of viscosity l. The density of the liquid is l where l < p. The velocity
of particle in the liquid can be expressed as
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.24 A high speed tubular ultracentrifuge with bowl radius of 100 mm and height 500 mm rotates at
20000 rpm and settles starch particles (average diameter of 20m) on the wall. The ratio of
centrifugal force to the gravitational force acting on the particle is ______

(P) Wheat milling (1) Rubber rolls
(Q) Paddy dehusking (2) Abrasive emery roll cylinder
(R) Pulse dehusking (3) break and reduction rolls
(S) Spice grinding (4) Hammer mills
(A) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4
(B) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3
(C) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
(D) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2
Q.26 Integration by trapezoidal method of log10 (x) with lower limit of 1 to upper limit of 3 using seven
distinct values (equally covering the whole range) is _______________________
Q.27 The value of the integral, is ______________________
Q.28 Let I, J, and K are unit vectors along the three mutually perpendicular x, y and z axes, respectively.
If f g h is a continuously differentiable vector point function, then curl F is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
AG 4/8
Q.29 The maximum one day rainfall depth at 20 year return period of a city is 150 mm. The probability
of one day rainfall equal to or greater than 150 mm in the same city occurring twice in 20
successive years is__________
Q.30 The back sight of 1.258 m was observed for the bench mark (BM) at reduced level (RL) of 48 m.
The corresponding fore sight on the staff held vertically inverted to the underside of a bridge beam
is 4.645 m. The RL at the underside of the bridge beam in m is
(A) 44.613 (B) 46.936
(C) 51.581 (D) 53.903
Q.31 The observed rainfall of a 12 h duration event is given in the table below. If the phi () index of the
storm is 0.46, the total direct runoff of the event in mm will be __________.
Time (h) 0 2 4 6 8 10 12
Cumulative rainfall (cm) 0 0.64 2.64 5.64 6.00 6.80 10.80
Q.32 If the width of bench terrace is W, drop D and existing land slope S; then for 150% batter slope, the
drop D will be

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.33 A 3 m high retaining wall supports sandy soil of unit weight 18.5 kN m-3. The angle of shearing
resistance () is 30 and the surface of soil is horizontal. The magnitude of the active thrust (in kN
m-1) and its acting point from the top (in m) are
(A) 27.75 and 1 (B) 249.75 and 1
(C) 27.75 and 2 (D) 249.75 and 2
Q.34 A soil has bulk density and particle density of 1.48 Mg m-3 and 2.64 Mg m-3, respectively. The
saturated volumetric moisture content of soil is 36%. The porosity and void ratio of the soil are
(A) 0.36 and 0.56 (B) 0.44 and 0.79
(C) 0.79 and 0.44 (D) 0.56 and 0.36
Q.35 A solid set permanent micro-irrigation system is installed in a vegetable field of 1 ha area. The
spacing between the micro sprinklers is 2.5 m and spacing between laterals is 5 m. The peak
evapotranspiration rate is 10 mm day-1. The application efficiency is 80%. Irrigation system
operates 5 hours in a day. The total operating head of the pump is 30 m. At 65% pump efficiency,
the horse power of the pump is ________
Q.36 The discharge of a centrifugal pump is 25 L s-1 against the delivery head of 10 m. The outlet of the
delivery pipe is submerged. A 200 m long 100 mm diameter pipe is connected with the delivery
end of the pump. The friction factor for the pipe is 0.03. The minor losses in the delivery pipe are
1 m. The pressure at the delivery end of the pump in kPa is __________
AG 5/8
Q.37 In a subsurface drainage system, the peak discharge through tile drain under full flow condition is
given by
. 5 .
where, Q = discharge,m3 s-1, S = drain bed slope and n = Mannings roughness coefficient.
Size of the drain in mm is ________
Q.38 A fully penetrating tube well in a 30 m deep confined aquifer with hydraulic conductivity of
410-4 m s-1 has 50 L s-1 discharge. The drawdown and radius of influence are 5 m and 250 m,
respectively. Diameter of the tube well in mm is ____________
Q.39 An inclined blade cutting tool of 250 mm width is operating at 200 mm cutting depth. The normal
load on the tool and the coefficient of soil-metal friction are 1000 N and 0.3, respectively. The soil
cutting force per unit length of cutting edge is 20 N mm-1. The tool lift angle is 40. The required
specific draft (or unit draft) in kPa is ____________
Q.40 The rated nozzle flow rate and volume median diameter (VMD) of droplets of a hydraulic sprayer
are 1.0 L min-1 and 200 m, respectively at the rated pressure of 500 kPa. If the desired nozzle flow
rate is 1.5 L min-1, the droplet diameter in m will be _________
Q.41 A water pumping system is being driven by a propeller type wind turbine having the power
coefficient of 0.4. The total pumping head and rate of discharge are 20 m and 7.0 L s-1, respectively.
Mean wind velocity is 18 km h-1 and the density of air is 1.2 kg m-3. The required diameter of the
propeller in m is ___________
Q.42 While testing a wheat thresher at the recommended throughput, 80 N m torque is recorded at 750
rpm at the main shaft of the threshing cylinder, which is operated by a 200 mm diameter v-pulley.
The overload factor and unit mass of the v-belt are 1.2 and 0.9 kg m-1, respectively. At the
condition of maximum power transmission, the maximum tension in the v-belt in N is
___________
Q.43 A tractor PTO operated 4-disc rotary mower is harvesting with a forward speed of 3.5 km h-1. The
cutting circle diameter and rpm of each disc are 60 cm and 1400, respectively. The peak cutting
force experienced by each rotary disc is 110 N. The peak overall motion resistance is found to be
3.6 kN. If the overall power conversion efficiency of the tractor is 82%, required peak engine brake
power in kW will be __________
AG 6/8
Q.44 Natural frequency of an undamped operator seat is 5 Hz, and combined weight of the seat and the
operator is 880 N. If there are four springs fitted in parallel below the operator seat, the spring rate
(or stiffness) of each spring in kN m-1 is ____________
Q.45 The intake pressure of a diesel engine is 1 bar and pressure at the end of the compression is 34 bar.
The adiabatic exponent is 1.3 and the expansion ratio is 7. The diesel cycle efficiency in percentage
is __________________
Q.46 In a tractor rear axle differential, the bevel pinion has 12 teeth and bevel/crown gear has 42 teeth.
The input speed and torque of the bevel pinion are 520 rpm and 1200 N m, respectively. There is a
planetary gear between the differential unit and each half axle with 4:1 speed reduction. The left
wheel encounters poor traction when the tractor is moving in straight path that causes 15% drop in
the left axle torque. If the differential efficiency is 0.98, the right axle torque under locked
differential condition in N m will be ______________
Q.47 A tractor weighing 21 kN has 70% static weight on rear axle and its wheel base is 1.8 m. The
drawbar hitch is located 25 cm behind the rear axle centre and 35 cm above the ground level. To
overcome longitudinal instability, the front end loading is provided at a distance of 20 cm ahead of
the front axle centre. It is observed that, there is front-end instability in the tractor due to a pull of
30 kN inclined at 20 downward from the horizontal. A minimum front-end load required to
overcome the instability in N is __________
Q.48 A gasifier uses rice husk as fuel and generates producer gas containing CO 23%, CO2 4.4%,
O2 2.6% and N2 70%; all expressed in mole%. Atomic mass of C, O and N are 12, 16 and 14,
respectively. Average molecular weight of the producer gas in kg kgmol-1 is _________________
Q.49 One hundred kilogram spice is extracted for essential oil using twice the amount of a pure organic
solvent. The extracted solid mass contains 5% residual oil (oil-free solid mass basis). The liquid
extracted mass contains 20% oil. Assume no solvent is retained by the extracted solid mass. Initial
mass of the oil in the spice in kg is ________________
Q.50 Milk sterilization kinetics is based on inactivation of index microorganism, Bacillus

stearothermophilus. The D-values at 121.1C and 139.1C are 1.2 min and 0.019 min, respectively.
For 12 log-cycle reduction of this microorganism at 130C, the processing time in second is
_____________
AG 7/8
Q.51 A circular grain silo with conical bottom, as shown in figure,
is filled with wheat (true density 1200 kg m-3) with porosity of
0.6. Five hundred metric tonne of wheat fills 80% of its
capacity (by volume). The total height (h) of the silo from its
grain outlet end in m is _____________.
Q.52 View factor of a large cylinder of 10 cm in radius and 60 cm in length from a coaxial smaller
cylinder of 5 cm radius and the same length is 0.34. View factor of the larger cylinder of itself
(concave inner surface) is 0.25. The view factor of the larger cylinder with respect to either annular
end is
(A) 0.17 (B) 0.29 (C) ) 0.33 (D) 0.42
Q.53 Mass transfer coefficient for equimolar counter-diffusion of water vapour in air is 0.4 m s-1 (based
on concentration difference). Mass diffusivity of water vapour in air is 3 10-4 m2 s-1. For 100 m
diameter droplet, the Sherwood Number (NSh) is equal to
(A) the mass transfer coefficient
(B) diameter divided by mass diffusivity
(C) one third of the mass transfer coefficient
(D) three times of the mass diffusivity
Q.54 Hot water at 95C is used in a plate heat exchanger for heating 2 kg s-1 fruit juice from 45C to
75C. Specific heat capacity of fruit juice is 3.7 kJ kg-1 K-1. Final temperature of the hot water is
70C. Overall heat transfer coefficient is 1122 W m-2 K-1. Heat transfer area is 12.75 m2. The log-
mean temperature correction factor is ________________
Q.55 In a particle size analysis, the following results are obtained:
Mass of particles, g 2 5 7 4 1
Mean size of particles, m 350 240 200 150 100
Volume-surface mean diameter of the particles in m is ______________________
AG 8/8
GATE 2016 General Aptitude - GA Set-4

Q.1 An apple costs Rs. 10. An onion costs Rs. 8.
Select the most suitable sentence with respect to grammar and usage.
(A) The price of an apple is greater than an onion.
(B) The price of an apple is more than onion.
(C) The price of an apple is greater than that of an onion.
(D) Apples are more costlier than onions.
Q.2 The Buddha said, Holding on to anger is like grasping a hot coal with the intent of throwing it at
someone else; you are the one who gets burnt.
Select the word below which is closest in meaning to the word underlined above.
(A) burning (B) igniting (C) clutching (D) flinging
Q.3 M has a son Q and a daughter R. He has no other children. E is the mother of P and daughter-in-
law of M. How is P related to M?
(A) P is the son-in-law of M. (B) P is the grandchild of M.
(C) P is the daughter-in law of M. (D) P is the grandfather of M.
Q.4 The number that least fits this set: (324, 441, 97 and 64) is ________.
(A) 324 (B) 441 (C) 97 (D) 64
Q.5 It takes 10 s and 15 s, respectively, for two trains travelling at different constant speeds to
completely pass a telegraph post. The length of the first train is 120 m and that of the second train is
150 m. The magnitude of the difference in the speeds of the two trains (in m/s) is ____________.
(A) 2.0 (B) 10.0 (C) 12.0 (D) 22.0
1/3
GATE 2016 General Ap
ptitude - GA Set-44
Q. 6 Q. 10 carry tw
wo marks each.
Q.6 Thee velocity V of a vehiclle along a sttraight line is
i measured in m/s and plotted as shown
s with
resppect to timee in seconds. At the endd of the 7 seconds,
s howw much willl the odomeeter reading
incrrease by (in m)?
(A)) 0 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
Q.7 Thee overwhelm ming numberr of people innfected with h rabies in Inndia has beenn flagged by
y the World
Heaalth Organizzation as a soource of conncern. It is esstimated thatt inoculatingg 70% of petts and stray
doggs against rabbies can leadd to a significcant reductio
on in the num
mber of peoplle infected with
w rabies.
Whhich of the foollowing can be logicallyy inferred from

m the above sentences?
(A)) The numbber of people in India infeected with raabies is high.
(B)) The number of people in other partts of the world who are innfected with rabies is low
w.
(C)) Rabies cann be eradicated in India by

b vaccinatin
ng 70% of strray dogs.
(D)) Stray dogss are the main source of rabies

r worldw
wide.
Q.8 A flat
f is shared by four firstt year underggraduate studdents. They agreed
a to alloow the oldestt of them to
enjoy some exttra space in the flat. Maanu is two months
m olderr than Sravann, who is thhree months
youunger than Trrideep. Pavaan is one monnth older than
n Sravan. Who
W should occcupy the ex xtra space in
the flat?
(A)) Manu (B) Sravan (C) Trideep (D) Pavan
Q.9 Finnd the area boounded by thhe lines 3x+22y=14, 2x-3y

y=5 in the firrst quadrant.
(A)) 14.95 (B) 15.25 (C) 15.70 (D) 20.35
2/33
Q.10 A straight line is fit to a data set (ln x, y). This line intercepts the abscissa at ln x = 0.1 and has a
slope of 0.02. What is the value of y at x = 5 from the fit?
(A) 0.030 (B) 0.014 (C) 0.014 (D) 0.030
3/3
GATE 2016 ARCHITECTURE AND PLANNING

Q.1 Dharahara refers to
(A) Concept of Vastu Shastra
(B) Elevation feature of a Hindu Temple
(C) Heritage tower at Kathmandu
(D) Construction method of Buddhist Architecture
Q.2 Mushroom Column is a typical feature of

(A) Pantheon, Rome (B) Parthenon, Athens
(C) Chrysler Building, New York (D) Johnson Wax Building, Racine
Q.3 AMRUT, the new scheme launched by Government of India, stands for
(A) Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation
(B) Atal Mission for Renewal of Urban Transportation
(C) Atal Mission for Redevelopment of Urban Transportation
(D) Atal Mission for Renewal and Urban Transformation
Q.4 The concept of Dry Garden is associated with

(A) Japanese Garden (B) Chinese Garden (C) Mughal Garden (D) Egyptian Garden
Q.5 The concept of Transit Oriented Development (TOD) refers to

(A) Transit oriented planning in institutional campuses
(B) High density development along a mass transit corridor
(C) Orienting residential blocks towards the transit in a gated community
(D) Spatial design for persons with disabilities along a mass transit corridor
Q.6 The components measuring Human Development Index (HDI) of a nation are
(A) Life expectancy, Education and Per Capita Income
(B) Life expectancy, Economy and Housing
(C) Health, Development and Per Capita Income
(D) Housing, Health and Hygiene
Q.7 As per the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 2010, the extent of
prohibited area beyond the demarcated protected area in meters is
(A) 50 (B) 100 (C) 200 (D) 500
Q.8 In CMYK colour model, K represents the colour

(A) White (B) Black (C) Blue (D) Green
Q.9 Segregation at source is a concept associated with

(A) Solid waste management (B) Disaster management
(C) Traffic management (D) Water management
Q.10 In a flat slab, the load is transferred through

(A) Beam action (B) Membrane action
(C) Plate action (D) Vector action
AR 1/8
Q.11 Map is an
(A) Isometric projection (B) Orthographic projection
(C) Axonometric projection (D) Oblique projection
Q.12 Indore Slum Networking Programme has been planned by

(A) B. V. Doshi (B) Dulal Mukherjee
(C) Anil Laul (D) Himanshu Parikh
Q.13 Volume Zero is a film based on the architectural works of

(A) Peter Eisenman (B) Charles Correa
(C) Daniel Libeskind (D) Roger Angers
Q.14 The unit of Thermal Conductivity of a material is

(A) W/(m K) (B) W/(m2 K)
(C) m K/W (D) m2 K/W
Q.15 A semicircular niche in the wall of a mosque, towards the direction of Mecca is known as
(A) Sahn (B) Minbar (C) Qibla (D) Mihrab
Q.16 As per CPWD Guidelines and Space Standards for Barrier Free Built Environment, the minimum
turning radius for a wheelchair in mm is
(A) 900 (B) 1200 (C) 1500 (D) 1800
Q.17 Summit Curve is a term associated with the design of

(A) Roads and flyovers (B) Escalators and elevators
(C) Tensile fabric structures (D) Geodesic domes
Q.18 As per Census of India 2011, Nagar Panchayat refers to

(A) Rural area surrounded by a growing city
(B) Urban area within a panchayat
(C) Rural area adjacent to a nagar
(D) Urban area with a statutory local government
Q.19 Statutory setback of a building depends on

(A) Building height (B) Property boundary
(C) Width of access road (D) Ground coverage
Q.20 Super plasticizer is added in a concrete mix to

(A) Reduce the water-cement ratio for a given workability
(B) Increase the water-cement ratio for a given workability
(C) Reduce the flow
(D) Reduce the content of coarse aggregate
Q.21 Shodhan House, Ahmedabad was designed by

(A) Anant Raje (B) Le Corbusier
(C) Louis I. Kahn (D) B. V. Doshi
AR 2/8
Q.22 Low-emissivity coating on a glazing unit

(A) Increases the SHGC (B) Increases the VLT
(C) Reduces the SHGC (D) Increases the VLT and SHGC
Q.23 Spatial connectedness in GIS refers to

(A) Tomography (B) Topography (C) Topiary (D) Topology
Q.24 In a residential neighbourhood, the net area of residential plots is 50 percent of the total area. If the
population is 8000, the ratio of net density to gross density of the neighbourhood is ________
Q.25 A hemispherical earth mound of 3 meter diameter is proposed to be constructed in a childrens

park. If the proportion of soil and sand for the construction is 3:2, the estimated volume of soil in
cubic meters is ________
Q.26 Match the ancient cities in Group I with their characteristic features in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P Mohen-jo-daro 1 Agora
Q Babylon 2 Enclosed Court
R Kahun 3 Grid Iron Street Pattern
S Athens 4 Forum
5 Hanging Garden
(A) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-5 (B) P-4, Q-5, R-1, S-2
(C) P-3, Q-5, R-2, S-1 (D) P-4, Q-5, R-2, S-3
Q.27 Match the water purification stages in Group-I with the corresponding items in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P Coagulation 1 Ammonium hydroxide
Q Filtration 2 Sodium Zeolite
R Disinfection 3 Alum
S Softening 4 Sand
5 Chlorine
(A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-5 (B) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2
(C) P-2, Q-3, R-5, S-4 (D) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-2
Q.28 Match the software tools in Group-I with their field of application in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P Radiance 1 Outdoor thermal environment
Q Odeon 2 Construction management
R Rayman 3 Air-flow analysis
S Primavera 4 Acoustical design
5 Lighting analysis
(A) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-1 (B) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-2
(C) P-5, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (D) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-5
AR 3/8
Q.29 Match the street layouts of ancient Indian settlements in Group I with their corresponding types
in Group II
Group-I Group-II
P 1 Nandyavarta
Q 2 Swastika
R 3 Padmaka
S 4 Chaturmukha
5 Karmukha
(A) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-5 (B) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-5
(C) P-4, Q-3, R-5, S-1 (D) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
Q.30 Associate the terms in Group-I with the building hardware in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P Parliamentary 1 Bar
Q Aldrop 2 Lock
R Panic 3 Hinge
S Mortise 4 Bolt
(A) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4 (B) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (D) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
Q.31 Hoop and meridional forces are associated with

(A) Dome (B) Truss
(C) Folded Plate (D) Space Frame
AR 4/8
Q.32 Match the Olympic stadia in Group-I with their Architects in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P Palazzetto dello Sport, Rome 1 Herzog & de Meuron
Q Olympic Arena, Tokyo 2 Frei Otto
R Birds Nest, Beijing 3 Kenzo Tange
S Olympia Stadion, Munich 4 Roger Taillibert
5 P. L. Nervi
(A) P-5, Q-2, R-1, S-4 (B) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-2
(C) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-5 (D) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
Q.33 Match the terms in Group-I with the related terms in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P Acquisition 1 Ownership
Q Planning permission 2 Construction
R Building plan sanction 3 Land cover
S Mutation 4 Land use
5 Land
(A) P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (B) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-2
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-1 (D) P-5, Q-3, R-2, S-4
Q.34 Associate the structural systems of Group-I with buildings in Group-II

Group-I Group-II
P Diagrid 1 Millennium Dome, London
Q Outrigger truss 2 HSBC, Hong Kong
R Suspended floor 3 Taipei 101, Taipei
S Cable stayed 4 Hearst Tower, New York
5 Sears Tower, Chicago
(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-5 (B) P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-1
(C) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1 (D) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
Q.35 Associate the systems in Group-I with their applications in Group-II

Group-I Group-II
P Nisargruna 1 Renewable energy generation
Q Vortex-DEWAT 2 Ground water recharge
R Swale 3 Solid waste management
S BIPV 4 Desalination
5 Waste water treatment
(A) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-3 (B) P-1, Q-2, R-5, S-4
(C) P-3, Q-5, R-2, S-1 (D) P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-1
Q.36 Match the Houses in Group-I with their Architects in Group-II

Group-I Group-II
P Villa Mller, Prague 1 Frank Gehry
Q Farnsworth House, Illinois 2 Frank Lloyd Wright
R Schrder House, Utrecht 3 Adolf Loos
S Dancing House, Prague 4 Mies van der Rohe
5 Gerrit Rietveld
(A) P-5, Q-2, R-4, S-1 (B) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-1
(C) P-3, Q-2, R-5, S-4 (D) P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-3
AR 5/8
Q.37 Match the Books in Group-I with their Authors in Group-II

Group-I Group-II
P Space, Time and Architecture 1 Bill Hillier
Q The Social Logic of Space 2 Christopher Alexander
R Timeless Way of Building 3 Rob Krier
S Form, Space and Order 4 Sigfried Gideon
5 Francis D. K. Ching
(A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-5 (B) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
(C) P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-3 (D) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-5
Q.38 Associate the green rating system in Group-I with the respective country in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P CASBEE 1 UAE
Q Green Mark 2 China
R GRIHA 3 Japan
S Estidama 4 Singapore
5 India
(A) P-2, Q-4, R-5, S-1 (B) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2
(C) P-3, Q-5, R-1, S-2 (D) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-1
Q.39 Match the instruments in Group-I with the corresponding usage in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P Pyranometer 1 Shadow analysis
Q Heliodon 2 Seismic intensity
R Total Station 3 Wind velocity
S Anemometer 4 Solar radiation
5 Land survey
(A) P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-3 (B) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
(C) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-3 (D) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3
Q.40 As per URDPFI guidelines, the number of Equivalent Car Space (ECS) required to accommodate
ten cars, sixteen scooters and forty bicycles will be______________
Q.41 A steel I-beam section is subjected to a bending moment of 96 kN-m. The moment of inertia of the
beam section is 24,000 cm4. The bending stress at 100 mm above the neutral axis of the beam in
MPa will be ____________
Q.42 A room is mechanically ventilated through four air-conditioning ducts. The opening area of each
duct is 0.35 sqm. The air velocity in the duct is 0.5 m/s. The temperature difference between the
ambient air and supply air is 10 C. Volumetric specific heat of air is 1250 J/m3 C. Assuming one
Ton of refrigeration (TR) equals 3.5 kW, the cooling load of the room in TR will be
_____________
AR 6/8
Q.43 A CPM network of a construction project is given in the figure below. The activity durations are
mentioned in weeks. The project completion time in weeks will be _____________
Q.44 For a room with dimensions 4m 3m 3m (LBH), the details of indoor acoustical treatment are
as follows.
Component Wall Ceiling Floor
Percentage area 30 70 40 60 100
Absorption coefficient at 1000 Hz 0.4 0.1 0.6 0.1 0.1
The reverberation time in seconds at 1000 Hz is _______
Q.45 In 2001, the population and work force participation rate of a town were 30,000 and 30 percent
respectively. The work force participation rate in the year 2011 increased to 34 percent. If the
decadal population growth rate was 6 percent, the increase in the number of working people in the
town in 2011 was __________
Q.46 In a 20 storey building with 3m floor to floor height, a passenger lift is hoisted by a steel rope.
Weight of the lift car is 750 kg and ultimate load the steel rope can carry is 39,000 kg. Assuming a
factor of safety of 20 for the steel rope and an average passenger weight of 75 kg, the passenger
capacity of the lift is ____________
Q.47 One litre of acrylic paint can cover 16 sqm of wall area for the first coat and 24 sqm for the second
coat. The walls of a lecture hall measuring 12m 8m 4m (L B H) need to be painted with
two coats of this paint. The hall has total glazed fenestration area of 12 sqm. The number of 4 litre
paint containers required will be __________
Q.48 A 250 mm 250 mm RCC column is reinforced with one percent steel. The permissible
compressive stress of concrete and steel are 8 N/mm2 and 150 N/mm2 respectively. The axial load
carrying capacity of the column in kN is _____________
Q.49 A solar photo-voltaic system is proposed to be installed at the roof top of a hostel. The cost of
installation and the annual maintenance are INR 2,40,000 and INR 6000 respectively. It is expected
to generate 600 kWh of electricity per month. Assume unit price of electricity as INR 5. Ignoring
the discount rate, the payback period of the investment in years is____________
Q.50 A pump is installed in an apartment building to lift water from ground level to the roof top water
tank with the capacity of 10,000 litres. Total head of lift is 18 m and pumping time is 30 minutes to
fill the tank completely. Assuming acceleration due to gravity (g) as 10 m/sec2 and efficiency of the
pump as 80 percent, the power requirement of the pump in kW will be __________
AR 7/8
Q.51 In a housing project, the number of LIG, MIG and HIG units are in the ratio of 1:1:2. The ratio of
areas of the units is 3:5:8. Assume unit cost of construction is same for all the three types. For a no
profit no loss situation, if 10% discount is offered to LIG and MIG units on sale price, extra charge
in percentage payable per HIG unit will be ____________
Q.52 The estimated number of bricks (unit size: 250 mm 125 mm 75 mm) for laying one course of a
250 mm thick brick wall using rat-trap bond for a running length of 3.9 meter will be ___________
Q.53 The difference in invert levels between two pits separated by a distance of 30 meter is one meter.
An intermediate pit is required to be constructed at a distance of 18 meter from the pit at higher
level. Maintaining the same slope, the difference in invert levels of the new pit and the pit at lower
level in mm will be _________
Q.54 A four-storey building with equal areas in each floor is required to be designed on a plot with FAR
of 2.0. If the FAR is increased to 2.2, the percentage increase in ground coverage utilizing full
FAR in both cases will be ___________
Q.55 A lamp source of 3200 candela is mounted on a wall at a height of 2 meter from the work-plane. It
subtends an angle of incidence of 60o with the center of the work plane. The illumination at the
centre of the work plane in Lux is __________
AR 8/8

Q.1 The volume of a sphere of diameter 1 unit is ________ than the volume of a cube of side 1 unit.
(A) least (B) less (C) lesser (D) low
Q.2 The unruly crowd demanded that the accused be _____________ without trial.
(A) hanged (B) hanging (C) hankering (D) hung
Q.3 Choose the statement(s) where the underlined word is used correctly:
(i) A prone is a dried plum.

(ii) He was lying prone on the floor.
(iii) People who eat a lot of fat are prone to heart disease.
(A) (i) and (iii) only (B) (iii) only (C) (i) and (ii) only (D) (ii) and (iii) only
Q.4 Fact: If it rains, then the field is wet.
Read the following statements:

(i) It rains
(ii) The field is not wet
(iii) The field is wet
(iv) It did not rain
Which one of the options given below is NOT logically possible, based on the given fact?
(A) If (iii), then (iv). (B) If (i), then (iii).
(C) If (i), then (ii). (D) If (ii), then (iv).
Q.5 A window is made up of a square portion and an equilateral triangle portion above it. The base of
the triangular portion coincides with the upper side of the square. If the perimeter of the window is
6 m, the area of the window in m2 is ___________.
(A) 1.43 (B) 2.06 (C) 2.68 (D) 2.88
1/3

Q.6 Students taking an exam are divided into two groups, P and Q such that each group has the same
number of students. The performance of each of the students in a test was evaluated out of 200
marks. It was observed that the mean of group P was 105, while that of group Q was 85. The
standard deviation of group P was 25, while that of group Q was 5. Assuming that the marks were
distributed on a normal distribution, which of the following statements will have the highest
probability of being TRUE?
(A) No student in group Q scored less marks than any student in group P.
(B) No student in group P scored less marks than any student in group Q.
(C) Most students of group Q scored marks in a narrower range than students in group P.
(D) The median of the marks of group P is 100.
Q.7 A smart city integrates all modes of transport, uses clean energy and promotes sustainable use of
resources. It also uses technology to ensure safety and security of the city, something which critics
argue, will lead to a surveillance state.
(i) All smart cities encourage the formation of surveillance states.

(ii) Surveillance is an integral part of a smart city.
(iii) Sustainability and surveillance go hand in hand in a smart city.
(iv) There is a perception that smart cities promote surveillance.
(A) (i) and (iv) only (B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (iv) only (D) (i) only
Q.8 Find the missing sequence in the letter series.
B, FH, LNP, _ _ _ _.
(A) SUWY (B) TUVW (C) TVXZ (D) TWXZ
Q.9 The binary operation is defined as a b = ab+(a+b), where a and b are any two real numbers.
The value of the identity element of this operation, defined as the number x such that a x = a, for
any a, is .
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 10
2/3
| | | |
Q.10 Which of the following curves represents the function = ln | | for | | < 2 ?
Here, represents the abscissa and represents the ordinate.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

3/3
GATE 2016 Biotechnology (BT)

Q.1 Bacteria with two or more flagella at one or both ends are called
(A) amphitrichous (B) peritrichous (C) lophotrichous (D) atrichous
Q.2 Which family of viruses has single stranded DNA?

(A) Herpesviridae (B) Poxviridae (C) Retroviridae (D) Parvoviridae
Q.3 What will be the binding status of regulatory proteins in lac operon when concentrations of both
lactose and glucose are very low in the culture medium?
(A) Only the repressor remains bound to the operator
(B) Only the cyclic AMP-Catabolic Activator Protein (cAMP-CAP) complex remains bound to the
CAP binding site
(C) Neither the repressor nor cAMP-CAP complex remain bound to their respective binding sites
(D) Both the repressor and cAMP-CAP complex remain bound to their respective binding sites
Q.4 Which of the following are TRUE for Treponema pallidum?
P. It is the causative agent of syphilis

Q. It is a spirochete
R. It is a non-motile bacterium
S. It is generally susceptible to penicillin
Choose the correct combination.

(A) P, Q and R only (B) P, Q and S only (C) P, R and S only (D) Q, R and S only
Q.5 In a typical mitotic cell division cycle in eukaryotes, M phase occurs immediately after the
(A) G0 phase (B) S phase (C) G1 phase (D) G2 phase
Q.6 Which one of the following is NOT a therapeutic agent based on nucleic acid for the treatment of
genetic disorders?
(A) Antisense oligonucleotide (B) Ribozyme
(C) Aptamer (D) Avidin
Q.7 ATP biosynthesis takes place utilizing the H+ gradient in mitochondria and chloroplasts. Identify
the correct sites of H+ gradient formation.
(A) Across the outer membrane of mitochondria and across the inner membrane of chloroplast
(B) Across the inner membrane of mitochondria and across the thylakoid membrane of chloroplast
(C) Within the matrix of mitochondria and across the inner membrane of chloroplast
(D) Within the matrix of mitochondria and within the stroma of chloroplast
Q.8 Which one of the following is NOT an algorithm for building phylogenetic trees?
(A) Maximum parsimony (B) Neighbor joining
(C) Maximum likelihood (D) Bootstrap
BT 1/10
Q.9 Cesium chloride density gradient centrifugation is commonly used for the separation of DNA
molecules. The buoyant density, , of a double stranded Cs+DNA is given by the equation
= 1.66 + 0.098XG+C
where XG+C denotes
(A) total number of G and C (B) mole fraction of G+C
(C) number of GC repeats (D) ratio of G+C to A+T content
Q.10 Disaccharide molecules that contain 1 4) glycosidic linkage are

(A) sucrose and maltose (B) sucrose and isomaltose
(C) maltose and isomaltose (D) lactose and cellobiose
Q.11 Junctional diversity of antibody molecules results from

(A) the addition of switch region nucleotides
(B) the addition of N and P nucleotides
(C) the joining of V, D and J segments
(D) mutations in complementarity-determining regions
Q.12 Which one of the following is NOT used for the measurement of cell viability in animal cell
culture?
(A) Trypan blue dye exclusion (B) Tetrazolium (MTT) assay
(C) LDH activity in the culture medium (D) Coulter counter
Q.13 Which one of the following techniques relies on the spin angular momentum of a photon?
(A) CD spectroscopy (B) Fluorescence spectroscopy
(C) IR spectroscopy (D) Raman spectroscopy
Q.14 Which one of the following statements is NOT true?

(A) In competitive inhibition, substrate and inhibitor compete for the same active site of an enzyme
(B) Addition of a large amount of substrate to an enzyme cannot overcome uncompetitive inhibition
(C) A transition state analogue in enzyme catalyzed reaction increases the rate of product formation
(D) In non-competitive inhibition, Km of an enzyme for its substrate remains constant as the
concentration of the inhibitor increases
Q.15 Based on their function, find the ODD one out.

(A) miRNA (B) siRNA (C) shRNA (D) snRNA
Q.16 Prandtl number is the ratio of

(A) thermal diffusivity to momentum diffusivity
(B) mass diffusivity to momentum diffusivity
(C) momentum diffusivity to thermal diffusivity
(D) thermal diffusivity to mass diffusivity
BT 2/10
Q.17 Fed batch cultivation is suitable for which of the following?
P. Processes with substrate inhibition

Q. Processes with product inhibition
R. High cell density cultivation
(A) P and Q only (B) P and R only (C) Q and R only (D) P, Q and R
Q.18 A biological process is involved in the ________ treatment of industrial effluent.

(A) primary (B) secondary (C) tertiary (D) quaternary
Q.19 In dead-end filtration, rate of filtration is

(A) directly proportional to the square root of pressure drop across the filter medium
(B) inversely proportional to the pressure drop across the filter medium
(C) inversely proportional to the viscosity of the solution
(D) inversely proportional to the square of viscosity of the solution
Q.20 The power required for agitation of non-aerated medium in fermentation is ________ kW.
Operating conditions are as follows:

Fermentor diameter = 3 m
Number of impellers = 1
Mixing speed = 300 rpm
Diameter of the Rushton turbine = 1 m
Viscosity of the broth = 0.001 Pa.s
Density of the broth = 1000 kg.m-3
Power number = 5
Q.21 Which one of the following is the most suitable type of impeller for mixing high viscosity
(viscosity > 105 cP) fluids?
(A) Propeller (B) Helical ribbon (C) Paddle (D) Flat blade turbine
Q.22 Runs scored by a batsman in five one-day matches are 55, 75, 67, 88 and 15. The standard
deviation is __________________.
Q.23 The positive Eigen value of the following matrix is ______________.
2 1
5 2

Q.24 The Laplace transform F(s) of the function f(t) = cos (at), where a is constant, is _____________.
s2 a s s
(A) (B) (C) (D)
s2 + a2 s + a2
2
s + a2
2
s a2
2
BT 3/10
Q.25 0.9
dx
The value of the integral (1 x)(2 x)
0
is _____________________.

Q.26 Which combination of the following statements is CORRECT for cyanobacteria?
P. They can perform oxygenic photosynthesis

Q. Usually filamentous forms are involved in nitrogen fixation
R. Nitrogen fixation occurs in heterocysts
S. They cannot grow in a mineral medium exposed to light and air
(A) P, Q and R (B) P, S and R (C) Q, R and S (D) P, Q and S
Q.27 Which set of the following events occurs during the elongation step of translation?
P. Attachment of mRNA with the smaller subunit of ribosome

Q. Loading of correct aminoacyl-tRNA into the A site
R. Formation of a peptide bond between the amino acyl-tRNA in the A site and the peptide
chain that is attached to the peptidyl-tRNA in the P site
S. Dissociation of the ribosomal subunits
T. Translocation of peptidyl-tRNA from the A site to the P site of the ribosome
(A) P, Q and R (B) P, Q and T (C) Q, R and T (D) R, S and T
Q.28 A DNA sequence, 5-ATGGACGTGCTTCCCAAAGCATCGGGC-3, is mutated to obtain
P. 5-ATGGACGTGCTTCaCAAAGCATCGGGC-3
Q. 5-ATGGACGTGCTTCCCgAAAGCATCGGGC-3
R. 5-ATGGACGTGCTTCC-AAAGCATCGGGC-3
S. 5-ATGGACGTGCTTCCCAAtGCATCGGGC-3
T. 5-ATGGACGaGCTTCCCAAAGCATCGGGC-3
[Point mutations are shown in the lower case or - within the sequences]
Which of the above mutant sequences DO NOT have frame-shift?

(A) P, Q and S (B) P, S and T (C) Q, R and S (D) Q, S and T
Q.29 Which of the following events occur during the stationary phase of bacterial growth?
P. Rise in cell number stops

Q. Spore formation in some Gram-positive bacteria such as Bacillus subtilis
R. Cell size increases in some Gram-negative bacteria such as Escherichia coli
S. Growth rate of bacterial cells nearly equals their death rate
T. Decrease in peptidoglycan crosslinking
(A) P, Q and S only (B) P, S and T only (C) Q, R and S only (D) P, R and T only
BT 4/10
Q.30 Select the CORRECT combination of genetic components that are essential for the transfer of T-
DNA segment from Agrobacterium tumefaciens to plant cells.
(A) Border repeat sequences and oncogenes (B) Border repeat sequences and vir genes
(C) Opine biosynthetic genes and vir genes (D) Opine biosynthetic genes and oncogenes
Q.31 Match the secondary metabolites (Column-I) with the corresponding plant species (Column-II).
Column-I Column-II
P. Morphine 1. Datura stramonium
Q. Pyrethrins 2. Catharanthus roseus
R. Scopolamine 3. Papaver somniferum
S. Vincristine 4. Tagetes erecta
(A) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 (B) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
(C) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (D) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
Q.32 A variety of genetic elements are used in the transgenic plant research. Match the genetic elements
(Column-I) with their corresponding source (Column-II).
Column-I Column-II
P. Ubiquitin1 promoter 1. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
Q. Nos transcriptional terminator 2. Streptomyces hygroscopicus
R. bar selection marker gene 3. Escherichia coli
S. gus reporter gene 4. Zea mays
(A) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4 (B) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (D) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
Q.33 Match the type of chromosomal inheritance (Column-I) with the corresponding genetic disease or
trait (Column-II).
Column-I Column-II
P. Autosomal recessive inheritance 1. Huntington disease
Q. Autosomal dominant inheritance 2. Hairy ears
R. X-linked inheritance 3. Cystic fibrosis
S. Y-linked inheritance 4. Hemophilia
(A) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2 (B) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
(C) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 (D) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1
Q.34 A crossing was performed between the genotypes DdEeFfgg and ddEeFfGg. Assuming that the
allelic pairs of all genes assort independently, the proportion of progeny having the genotype
ddeeffgg is expected to be ______________%.
Q.35 The equilibrium potential of a biological membrane for Na+ is 55 mV at 37 C. Concentration of

Na+ inside the cell is 20 mM. Assuming the membrane is permeable to Na+ only, the Na+
concentration outside the membrane will be ______________ mM.
(Faraday constant: 23062 cal.V-1.mol-1, Gas constant: 1.98 cal.mol-1.K-1)
BT 5/10
Q.36 A 1.2 kb DNA fragment was cloned into BamHI and EcoRI sites located on a 2.8 kb cloning vector.
The BamHI and EcoRI sites are adjacent to each other on the vector backbone. The vector contains
an XhoI site located 300 bp upstream of the BamHI site. An internal XhoI site is present in the gene
sequence as shown in the figure. The resultant recombinant plasmid is digested with EcoRI and
XhoI and analyzed through 1% agarose gel electrophoresis. Assuming complete digestion with
EcoRI and XhoI, the DNA fragments (in base pairs) visible on the agarose gel will correspond to:
BamHI EcoRI
XhoI
BamHI XhoI EcoRI
300bp
500bp
Vectorbackbone
2.8kb Insert
1.2kb
(A) 2800, 700 and 500 (B) 2800, 700 and 800
(C) 2500, 700 and 800 (D) 2500, 1200 and 300
Q.37 Find the INCORRECT combination.

(A) Surface immunoglobulins B cell antigen receptor
(B) Affinity maturation isotype switching
(C) Fc region of antibodies binding to complement proteins
(D) Spleen, the secondary lymphoid organ no connection with the lymphatic system
Q.38 Which of the following statement(s) is/are CORRECT for antigen activated effector T cells?
P. CD4+ cells make contact with macrophages and stimulate their microbicidal activity
Q. CD4+ cells make contact with B cells and stimulate them to differentiate into plasma cells
R. CD8+ cells make contact with B cells and stimulate them to differentiate into plasma cells
S. CD8+ cells make contact with virus infected cells and kill them
(A) Q only (B) Q and S only (C) P, Q and S only (D) P, Q, R and S
Q.39 Which one of the following statements regarding G proteins is INCORRECT?

(A) GDP is bound to G protein in the resting stage
(B) GTP bound subunit cannot reassemble with dimer
(C) All G proteins are trimeric
(D) Activation of G protein may result in activation or inhibition of the target enzymes
BT 6/10
Q.40 In animal cell culture, a CO2 enriched atmosphere in the incubator chamber is used to maintain the
culture pH between 6.9 and 7.4. Which one of the following statements is CORRECT?
(A) Higher the bicarbonate concentration in the medium, higher should be the requirement of
gaseous CO2
(B) Lower the bicarbonate concentration in the medium, higher should be the requirement of
gaseous CO2
(C) Higher the bicarbonate concentration in the medium, lower should be the requirement of
gaseous CO2
(D) CO2 requirement is independent of bicarbonate concentration in the medium
Q.41 Choose the CORRECT combination of True (T) and False (F) statements about microcarriers used
in animal cell culture.
P. Higher cell densities can be achieved using microcarriers

Q. Microcarriers increase the surface area for cell growth
R. Microcarriers are used for both anchorage- and nonanchorage-dependent cells
S. Absence of surface charge on microcarriers enhances attachment of cells
(A) P-T, Q-F, R-T and S-F (B) P-T, Q-T, R-F and S-F
(C) P-F, Q-F, R-T and S-T (D) P-F, Q-T, R-F and S-T
Q.42 In an assay of the type II dehydroquinase of molecular mass 18 kDa, it is found that the Vmax of the
enzyme is 0.0134 mol.min-1 when 1.8 g enzyme is added to the assay mixture. If the Km for the
substrate is 25 M, the kcat/Km ratio will be ___________________104 M-1.s-1.
Q.43 The molar extinction coefficients of Trp and Tyr at 280 nm are 5690 and 1280 M-1.cm-1,
respectively. The polypeptide chain of yeast alcohol dehydrogenase (37 kDa) contains 5 Trp and 14
Tyr residues. The absorbance at 280 nm of a 0.32 mg.mL-1 solution of yeast alcohol dehydrogenase
measured in a cuvette of 1 cm pathlength will be ________________.
(Assume that the molar extinction coefficient values for Trp and Tyr apply to these amino acids in
the yeast alcohol dehydrogenase).
Q.44 The activity of lactate dehydrogenase can be measured by monitoring the following reaction:
Pyruvate + NADH Lactate + NAD+
The molar extinction coefficient of NADH at 340 nm is 6220 M-1.cm-1. NAD+ does not absorb at
this wavelength. In an assay, 25 L of a sample of enzyme (containing 5 g protein per mL) was
added to a mixture of pyruvate and NADH to give a total volume of 3 mL in a cuvette of 1 cm
pathlength. The rate of decrease in absorbance at 340 nm was 0.14 min-1. The specific activity of
the enzyme will be _______________ mol.min-1.mg-1.
BT 7/10
Q.45 Analysis of a hexapeptide using enzymatic cleavage reveals the following result:
Amino acid composition of the peptide is: 2R, A,V, S, Y

Trypsin digestion yields two fragments and the compositions are: (R, A, V) and (R, S, Y)
Chymotrypsin digestion yields two fragments and the compositions are: (A, R, V, Y) and
(R, S)
Digestion with carboxypeptidase A yields no cleavage product.
Given: Trypsin cleaves at carboxyl side of R.

Chymotrypsin cleaves at carboxyl side of Y.
Carboxypeptidase A cleaves at amino side of the C-terminal amino acid
(except R and K) of the peptide.
The correct amino acid sequence of the peptide is:

(A) RSYRVA (B) AVRYSR (C) SRYVAR (D) SVRRYA
Q.46 The empirical formula for biomass of an unknown organism is CH1.8O0.5N0.2. To grow this
organism, ethanol (C2H5OH) and ammonia are used as carbon and nitrogen sources, respectively.
Assume no product formation other than biomass. To produce 1 mole of biomass from 1 mole of
ethanol, the number of moles of oxygen required will be _______________.
Q.47 Saccharomyces cerevisiae is cultured in a chemostat (continuous fermentation) at a dilution rate of

0.5 h-1. The feed substrate concentration is 10 g.L-1. The biomass concentration in the chemostat at
steady state will be _____________ g.L-1.
Assumptions: Feed is sterile, maintenance is negligible and maximum biomass yield with respect to
substrate is 0.4 (g biomass per g ethanol).
m s
Microbial growth kinetics is given by =
Ks + s
where is specific growth rate (h ), m = 0.7 h-1, Ks = 0.3 g.L-1 and s is substrate concentration
-1
(g.L-1).
Q.48 Decimal reduction time of bacterial spores is 23 min at 121 C and the death kinetics follow first
order. One liter medium containing 105 spores per mL was sterilized for 10 min at 121 C in a batch
sterilizer. The number of spores in the medium after sterilization (assuming destruction of spores in
heating and cooling period is negligible) will be ___________107.
Q.49 A bioreactor is scaled up based on equal impeller tip speed. Consider the following parameters for
small and large bioreactors:
Parameters Small bioreactor Large bioreactor
Impeller speed N1 N2
Diameter of impeller D1 D2
Power consumption P1 P2
Assuming geometrical similarity and the bioreactors are operated in turbulent regime, what will be
P2/P1?
(A) (D1/D2)2 (B) (D2/D1)2 (C) (D1/D2)5 (D) (D2/D1)5
BT 8/10
Q.50 An enzyme converts substrate A to product B. At a given liquid feed stream of flow rate 25 L.min-1
and feed substrate concentration of 2 mol.L-1, the volume of continuous stirred tank reactor needed
for 95% conversion will be _____________ L.
0.1C A
Given the rate equation: rA =
1 + 0.5C A
where rA is the rate of reaction in mol.L-1.min-1 and CA is the substrate concentration in mol.L-1
Assumptions: Enzyme concentration is contant and does not undergo any deactivation during the
reaction.
Q.51 A protein is to be purified using ion-exchange column chromatography. The relationship between
HETP (Height Equivalent to Theoretical Plate) and the linear liquid velocity of mobile phase is
given by:
A
H= + Bu + C
u
where H is HETP (m) and u is linear liquid velocity of mobile phase (m.s-1). The values of A, B and
C are 310-8 m2.s-1, 3 s and 610-5 m, respectively. The number of theoretical plates based on
minimum HETP for a column of 66 cm length will be ___________.
Q.52 An enzyme is immobilized on the surface of a non-porous spherical particle of 2 mm diameter. The
immobilized enzyme is suspended in a solution having bulk substrate concentration of 10 mM. The
enzyme follows first order kinetics with rate constant 10 s-1 and the external mass transfer
coefficient is 1 cm.s-1. Assume steady state condition wherein rate of enzyme reaction (mmol.L-1.s-1)
at the surface is equal to mass transfer rate (mmol.L-1.s-1). The substrate concentration at the surface
of the immobilized particle will be ________ mM.
Q.53 d2y
y = 0 . The initial conditions for this second order homogeneous differential equation are
dx 2
dy
y(0) = 1 and = 3 at x = 0
dx
The value of y when x = 2 is ___________.
Q.54 The value of determinant A given below is __________ .
5 16 81

A = 0 2 2
0 0 16

BT 9/10
Q.55 Consider the equation
aS
V=
S2
b+S +
c
Given a = 4, b = 1 and c = 9, the positive value of S at which V is maximum, will be _______.
BT 10/10



(i) It rains
(A) 1.43 (B) 2.06 (C) 2.68 (D) 2.88
1/3


B, FH, LNP, _ _ _ _.
any a, is .
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 10
2/3
| | | |
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

3/3
GATE 2016 Chemical Engineering
Q.1 Which one of the following is an iterative technique for solving a system of simultaneous linear
algebraic equations?
(A) Gauss elimination (B) Gauss-Jordan
(C) Gauss-Seidel (D) LU decomposition
Q.2 The Laplace transform of eat sin bt is
(A)
b s a
s a + b2
(B)
s a + b2
2 2
s a (D)
b
s a
(C)
s a b2 b2
2 2
Q.3 What are the modulus r and argument of the complex number 3 + 4i ?
4 3
(A) r = 7, = tan 1 (B) r = 7, = tan 1

3
4
3 4
(C) r = 5, = tan 1 (D) r = 5, = tan 1
4 3
Q.4 A liquid mixture of ethanol and water is flowing as inlet stream P into a stream splitter. It is split
into two streams, Q and R, as shown in the figure below.
Q
P
The flowrate of P, containing 30 mass% of ethanol, is 100 kg/h. What is the least number of
additional specification(s) required to determine the mass flowrates and compositions (mass%) of
the two exit streams?
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
Q.5 The partial molar enthalpy (in kJ/mol) of species 1 in a binary mixture is given by
,where and are the mole fractions of species 1 and 2,
respectively. The partial molar enthalpy (in kJ/mol, rounded off to the first decimal place) of
species 1 at infinite dilution is _______
CH 1/15
Q.6 For a flow through a smooth pipe, the Fanning friction factor is given by Re . in the
turbulent flow regime, where Re is the Reynolds number and is a constant. Water flowing
through a section of this pipe with a velocity 1 m/s results in a frictional pressure drop of 10 kPa.
What will be the pressure drop across this section (in kPa), when the velocity of water is 2 m/s?
(A) 11.5 (B) 20 (C) 34.8 (D) 40
Q.7 In a cyclone separator used for separation of solid particles from a dust laden gas, the separation
factor is defined as the ratio of the centrifugal force to the gravitational force acting on the particle.
Sr denotes the separation factor at a location (near the wall) that is at a radial distance r from the
centre of the cyclone. Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT?
(A) Sr depends on mass of the particle
(B) Sr depends on the acceleration due to gravity
(C) Sr depends on tangential velocity of the particle
(D) Sr depends on the radial location ( r ) of the particle
Q.8 A vertical cylindrical vessel has a layer of kerosene (of density 800 kg/m3) over a layer of water (of
density 1000 kg/m3). L-shaped glass tubes are connected to the column 30 cm apart. The interface
between the two layers lies between the two points at which the L-tubes are connected. The levels
(in cm) to which the liquids rise in the respective tubes are shown in the figure below.
20
Kerosene
30 42
Water
The distance (x in cm, rounded off to the first decimal place) of the interface from the point at
which the lower L-tube is connected is _______
Q.9 A composite wall is made of four different materials of construction in the fashion shown below.
The resistance (in K/W) of each of the sections of the wall is indicated in the diagram.
0.25
Direction of heat flow Direction of heat flow

3 0.7
The overall resistance (in K/W, rounded off to the first decimal place) of the composite wall, in the
direction of heat flow, is _______
CH 2/15
Q.10 Steam at 100oC is condensing on a vertical steel plate. The condensate flow is laminar. The average
Nusselt numbers are Nu1 and Nu2, when the plate temperatures are 10oC and 55oC, respectively.
Assume the physical properties of the fluid and steel to remain constant within the temperature
range of interest. Using Nusselt equations for film-type condensation, what is the value of the ratio
Nu
?
Nu
(A) 0.5 (B) 0.84 (C) 1.19 (D) 1.41
Q.11 A binary liquid mixture of benzene and toluene contains 20 mol% of benzene. At 350 K the vapour
pressures of pure benzene and pure toluene are 92 kPa and 35 kPa, respectively. The mixture
follows Raoults law. The equilibrium vapour phase mole fraction (rounded off to the second
decimal place) of benzene in contact with this liquid mixture at 350 K is _______
Q.12 Match the dimensionless numbers in Group-1 with the ratios in Group-2.
Group-1 Group-2
buoyancyforce
P Biot number I
viscousforce
inernalhermalresisanceofasolid
Q Schmidt number II
boundarylayerhermalresisance
momenumdiffusiviy
R Grashof number III
massdiffusiviy
(A) P-II, Q-I, R-III (B) P-I, Q-III, R-II
(C) P-III, Q-I, R-II (D) P-II, Q-III, R-I
Q.13 For what value of Lewis number, the wet-bulb temperature and adiabatic saturation temperature are
nearly equal?
(A) . (B) 0.5 (C) (D) 2
Q.14 For a non-catalytic homogeneous reaction A B, the rate expression at 300 K is

molm , where is the concentration of A (in mol/m3). Theoretically, the
upper limit for the magnitude of the reaction rate ( in molm , rounded off to the first
decimal place) at 300 K is _______
CH 3/15
Q.15 The variations of the concentrations (CA, CR and CS) for three species (A, R and S) with time, in an
isothermal homogeneous batch reactor are shown in the figure below.
1
Concentration(mol/m3)
0.5
CR,CS
CA
0
t (s)
Select the reaction scheme that correctly represents the above plot. The numbers in the reaction
schemes shown below, represent the first order rate constants in unit of s1.
(A) (B)
R R
A A
S S
(C) (D)
R R
A A
S S
Q.16 Hydrogen iodide decomposes through the reaction 2HI H2 + I2. The value of the universal gas
constant R is 8.314 J mol1K1. The activation energy for the forward reaction is 184000 J mol1.
The ratio (rounded off to the first decimal place) of the forward reaction rate at 600 K to that at 550
K is _______
Q.17 Match the instruments in Group-1 with process variables in Group-2.
Group-1 Group-2
P Conductivity meter I Flow

Q Turbine meter II Pressure
R Piezoresistivity element III Composition
(A) P-II, Q-I, R-III (B) P-II, Q-III, R-I
(C) P-III, Q-II, R-I (D) P-III, Q-I, R-II
CH 4/15
Q.18 What is the order of response exhibited by a U-tube manometer?

(A) Zero order (B) First order
(C) Second order (D) Third order
Q.19 A system exhibits inverse response for a unit step change in the input. Which one of the following
statement must necessarily be satisfied?
(A) The transfer function of the system has at least one negative pole
(B) The transfer function of the system has at least one positive pole
(C) The transfer function of the system has at least one negative zero
(D) The transfer function of the system has at least one positive zero
Q.20 Two design options for a distillation system are being compared based on the total annual cost.
Information available is as follows:
Option P Option Q
Installed cost of the system (Rs in lakhs) 150 120
Cost of cooling water for condenser (Rs in lakhs/year) 6 8
Cost of steam for reboiler (Rs in lakhs/year) 16 20
The annual fixed charge amounts to 12% of the installed cost. Based on the above information,
what is the total annual cost (Rs in lakhs /year) of the better option?
(A) 40 (B) 42.4 (C) 92 (D) 128
Q.21 Standard pipes of different schedule numbers and standard tubes of different BWG numbers are
available in the market. For a pipe / tube of a given nominal diameter, which one of the following
statements is TRUE?
(A) Wall thickness increases with increase in both the schedule number and the BWG number
(B) Wall thickness increases with increase in the schedule number and decreases with increase in
the BWG number
(C) Wall thickness decreases with increase in both the schedule number and the BWG number
(D) Neither the schedule number, nor the BWG number has any relation to wall thickness
Q.22 Terms used in engineering economics have standard definitions and interpretations. Which one of
the following statements is INCORRECT?
(A) The profitability measure return on investment does not consider the time value of money
(B) A cost index is an index value for a given time showing the cost at that time relative to a
certain base time
(C) The six-tenths factor rule is used to estimate the cost of an equipment from the cost of a
similar equipment with a different capacity
(D) Payback period is calculated based on the payback time for the sum of the fixed and the
working capital investment
Q.23 India has no elemental sulphur deposits that can be economically exploited. In India, which one of
the following industries produces elemental sulphur as a by-product?
(A) Coal carbonisation plants (B) Petroleum refineries
(C) Paper and pulp industries (D) Iron and steel making plants
CH 5/15
Q.24 Two paper pulp plants P and Q use the same quality of bamboo as a raw material. The chemicals
used in their digester are as follows:
Plant P Plant Q
NaOH Yes No
Na2S Yes No
Na2CO3 Yes Yes
NaHCO3 No Yes
Na2SO3 No Yes
Which one of the following statements is CORRECT?

(A) Plant P and Plant Q both use the Sulfite process
(B) Plant P and Plant Q both use the Kraft process
(C) Plant P uses Sulfite process
(D) Plant P uses Kraft process
Q.25 Match the industrial processes in Group-1, with the catalyst materials in Group-2.
Group-1 Group-2
P Ethylene polymerisation I Nickel
Q Petroleum feedstock cracking II Vanadium pentoxide
R Oxidation of SO2 to SO3 III Zeolite
S Hydrogenation of oil IV Aluminium triethyl with titanium chloride promoter
(A) P-IV, Q-III, R-II, S-I (B) P-I, Q-IV, R-III, S-II
(C) P-I, Q-II, R-III, S-IV (D) P-II, Q-III, R-IV, S-I
Q.26 A set of simultaneous linear algebraic equations is represented in a matrix form as shown below.
0 0 0 4 13 x1 46
2
5 5 2 10 x2 161
0 0 2 5 3 x3 = 61

0 0 0 4 5 x4 30
2 3 2 1 5 x5 81
The value (rounded off to the nearest integer) of x3 is _______
Q.27 d2y
What is the solution for the second order differential equation + y = 0, with the initial
dx 2
dy
conditions y x =0 = 5 and = 10 ?
dx x=0
(A) y = 5 + 10sin x (B) y = 5cos x 5sin x

(C) y = 5cos x + 10 x (D) y = 5cos x + 10sin x
CH 6/15
Q.28 The model y = mx 2 is to be fit to the data given below.
x 1 2 3
y 2 5 8
Using linear regression, the value (rounded off to the second decimal place) of m is _______
Q.29 The Lagrange mean-value theorem is satisfied for f x = x 3 + 5 , in the interval 1, 4 at a value
(rounded off to the second decimal place) of x equal to _______
Q.30 Values of f x in the interval [0, 4] are given below.
x 0 1 2 3 4
f x 3 10 21 36 55
Using Simpsons 1/3 rule with a step size of 1, the numerical approximation (rounded off to the
4
second decimal place) of f x dx is _______
0
Q.31 A jacketed stirred tank with a provision for heat removal is used to mix sulphuric acid and water in
a steady state flow process. H2SO4 (l) enters at a rate of 4 kg/h at 25oC and H2O (l) enters at a rate
of 6 kg/h at 10oC. The following data are available:
Specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 kJ kg1K1.

Specific heat capacity of aqueous solution of 40 mass% H2SO4 = 2.8 kJ (kg solution)1 K1.
Assume the specific heat capacities to be independent of temperature.
Based on reference states of H2SO4 (l) and H2O (l) at 25oC, the heat of mixing for aqueous solution
of 40 mass% H2SO4 = 650 kJ (kg H2SO4)1.
If the mixed stream leaves at 40oC, what is the rate of heat removal (in kJ/h)?
(A) 1802 (B) 2558 (C) 5702 (D) 6458
Q.32 An ideal gas is adiabatically and irreversibly compressed from 3 bar and 300 K to 6 bar in a closed
system. The work required for the irreversible compression is 1.5 times the work that is required for
reversible compression from the same initial temperature and pressure to the same final pressure.
The molar heat capacity of the gas at constant volume is 30 J mol1 K1 (assumed to be independent
of temperature); universal gas constant, R is 8.314 J mol1 K1; ratio of molar heat capacities is
1.277. The temperature (in K, rounded off to the first decimal place) of the gas at the final state in
the irreversible compression case is _______
CH 7/15
Q.33 A gas obeying the Clausius equation of state is isothermally compressed from 5 MPa to 15 MPa in
a closed system at 400 K. The Clausius equation of state is where P is the pressure, T is
the temperature, is the molar volume and R is the universal gas constant. The parameter b in the
above equation varies with temperature as with m3mol1 and
1 1
. 3
m mol K . The effect of pressure on the molar enthalpy (h) at a constant
temperature is given by . Let hi and hf denote the initial and final molar
enthalpies, respectively. The change in the molar enthalpy (in J mol1, rounded off to the
first decimal place) for this process is _______
Q.34 A binary system at a constant pressure with species 1 and 2 is described by the two-suffix
Margules equation, , where is the molar excess Gibbs free energy, R is the universal
gas constant, T is the temperature and , are the mole fractions of species 1 and 2, respectively.
At a temperature T, = 1 and = 2, where and are the molar Gibbs free energies of pure
species 1 and 2, respectively. At the same temperature, represents the molar Gibbs free energy of
the mixture. For a binary mixture with 40 mole % of species 1, the value (rounded off to the
second decimal place) of is _______
Q.35 Water (density=1000 kg m3) is pumped at a rate of 36 m3/h, from a tank 2 m below the pump, to an
overhead pressurized vessel 10 m above the pump. The pressure values at the point of suction from
the bottom tank and at the discharge point to the overhead vessel are 120 kPa and 240 kPa,
respectively. All pipes in the system have the same diameter. Take acceleration due to gravity,
g = 10 m s2. Neglecting frictional losses, what is the power (in kW) required to deliver the fluid?
(A) 1.2 (B) 2.4 (C) 3.6 (D) 4.8
Q.36 An agitated cylindrical vessel is fitted with baffles and flat blade impellers. The power number for
this system is given by where P is the power consumed for the mixing, is the
density of the fluid, n is the speed of the impeller and D is the diameter of the impeller. The
diameter of the impeller is 1/3rd the diameter of the tank and the height of liquid level is equal to the
tank diameter. The impeller speed to achieve the desired degree of mixing is 4 rpm. In a scaled up
design, the linear dimensions of the equipment are to be doubled, holding the power input per unit
volume constant. Assuming the liquid to be Newtonian and to be independent of Reynolds
number, what is the impeller speed (in rpm) to achieve the same degree of mixing in the scaled up
vessel?
(A) 0.13 (B) 1.26 (C) 2.52 (D) 3.82
Q.37 Consider a rigid solid sphere falling with a constant velocity in a fluid. The following data are
known at the conditions of interest: viscosity of the fluid = 0.1 Pa s, acceleration due to gravity =
10 m s2, density of the particle = 1180 kg m3 and density of the fluid = 1000 kg m3. The diameter
(in mm, rounded off to the second decimal place) of the largest sphere that settles in the Stokes law
regime (Reynolds number 0.1), is _______
CH 8/15
Q.38 The characteristics curve (Head Capacity relationship) of a centrifugal pump is represented by the
equation . . , where is the head developed by the pump (in m) and
Q is the flowrate (in m3/h) through the pump. This pump is to be used for pumping water through a
horizontal pipeline. The frictional head loss piping (in m) is related to the water flowrate (in
m3/h) by the equation . . . The flowrate (in m3
/h, rounded off to the
first decimal place) of water pumped through the above pipeline, is _______
Q.39 Water flows through a smooth circular pipe under turbulent conditions. In the viscous sub-layer, the
velocity varies linearly with the distance from the wall. The Fanning friction factor is defined as,
where is the shear stress at the wall of the pipe, is the density of the fluid and is
the average velocity in the pipe. Water (density = 1000 kg m3, viscosity = 1 103 kg m1 s1) flows
at an average velocity of 1 m s1 through the pipe. For this flow condition, the friction factor f is
0.005. At a distance of 0.05 mm from the wall of the pipe (in the viscous sub-layer), the velocity (in
m s1, rounded off to the third decimal place), is _______
Q.40 In a 1-1 pass shell and tube exchanger, steam is condensing in the shell side at a temperature (Ts) of
135oC and the cold fluid is heated from a temperature (T1) of 20oC to a temperature (T2 ) of 90oC.
The energy balance equation for this heat exchanger is
Ts T1 UA
ln =
p
Ts T2 mc
is the mass flow rate

where U is the overall heat transfer coefficient, A is the heat transfer area, m
of the cold fluid and c p is its specific heat. Tube side fluid is in a turbulent flow and the heat
transfer coefficient can be estimated from the following equation:
Nu = 0.023 (Re)0.8 (Pr)1/3
where Nu is the Nusselt number, Re is the Reynolds number and Pr is the Prandtl number. The
condensing heat transfer coefficient in the shell side is significantly higher than the tube side heat
transfer coefficient. The resistance of the wall to heat transfer is negligible. If only the mass flow
rate of the cold fluid is doubled, what is the outlet temperature (in oC) of the cold fluid at steady
state?
(A) 80.2 (B) 84.2 (C) 87.4 (D) 88.6
CH 9/15
Q.41 In an experimental setup, mineral oil is filled in between the narrow gap of two horizontal smooth
plates. The setup has arrangements to maintain the plates at desired uniform temperatures. At these
temperatures, ONLY the radiative heat flux is negligible. The thermal conductivity of the oil does
not vary perceptibly in this temperature range. Consider four experiments at steady state under
different experimental conditions, as shown in the figure below. The figure shows plate
temperatures and the heat fluxes in the vertical direction.
30C 60C 40C 70C
flux = 39 Wm-2 flux = 26 Wm-2 flux = 42 Wm-2 flux = ? Wm-2
60C 30C 70C 40C
Experiment 1 Experiment 2 Experiment 3 Experiment 4
What is the steady state heat flux (in W m2) with the top plate at 70oC and the bottom plate at
40oC?
(A) 26 (B) 39 (C) 42 (D) 63
Q.42 The space between two hollow concentric spheres of radii 0.1 m and 0.2 m is under vacuum.
Exchange of radiation (uniform in all directions) occurs only between the outer surface (S1) of the
smaller sphere and the inner surface (S2) of the larger sphere. The fraction (rounded off to the
second decimal place) of the radiation energy leaving S2, which reaches S1 is _______
Q.43 A binary distillation column is to be designed using McCabe Thiele method. The distillate contains
90 mol% of the more volatile component. The point of intersection of the q-line with the
equilibrium curve is (0.5, 0.7). The minimum reflux ratio (rounded off to the first decimal place) for
this operation is _______
CH 10/15
GATE
G 2016 Chemical Enggineering
Q.44 Solutte C is extraccted in a batchh process from

m its homogeenous solutionn of A and C,, using solvennt B.
The combined composition off the feed andd the extractin ng solvent is shown in thee figure below w as
pointt M, along with
w the tie linne passing thrrough it. The ends of the ttie line are onn the equilibrrium
curvee.
What is the selectivity for C?

(A) 3.5 (B) 7 (C) 10.5 (D) 21
Q.45 At 300oC, the amou unts of acetonne adsorbed aat partial presssures of 10 aand 100 mmH Hg are 0.1 andd 0.4
kg accetone/kg acttivated carbon n, respectivelly. Assume Langmuir
L isothherm describbes the adsorpption
of accetone on actiivated carbon n. What is thee amount of acetone
a adsorrbed (in kg peer kg of activvated
carboon) at a partiaal pressure off 50 mmHg annd 30oC?
(A) 0.23 (B) 0.25 (C) 0.30
0 (D) 0.35
Q.46 Conssider the follo owing two caases for a binnary mixture of ideal gasees A and B underu steady state
s
condditions. In Caase 1, the difffusion of A occurs throuugh non-diffuusing B. In Case C 2, equim
molal
counnter diffusion of A and B occurs.
o In botth the cases, the
t total presssure is 100 kPPa and the paartial
presssures of A at two points seeparated by a distance of 10 1 mm are 100 kPa and 5 kPa.
k Assume that
the Ficks
F first law
w of diffusionn is applicablle. What is th
he ratio of moolar flux of A in Case 1 to that
in Caase 2?
(A) 0.58 (B) 1.08 (C) 1.5
58 (D) 2.18
Q.47 The liquid phase reversible reaaction is carried out

o in an isothhermal CSTR R operating under
u
steaddy state condiitions. The in
nlet stream dooes not contaiin B and the concentrationn of A in the inlet
stream is 10 mol/lit. The conccentrations off A at the reacctor exit, for residence tim
mes of 1 s andd 5 s
are 8 mol/lit andd 5 mol/lit, respectivelyy. Assume the t forward and backwaard reactions are
elemmentary followwing the firstt order rate law. Also asssume that thhe system haas constant molar
m
t forward rreaction (in s1, rounded ooff to the thirrd decimal pllace)
densiity. The rate constant of the
is ________
Q.48 A liquid phase irreversible reaction is carried out in an adiabatic CSTR operating under
steady state conditions. The reaction is elementary and follows the first order rate law. For this
reaction, the figure below shows the conversion (XA) of A as a function of temperature (T) for
different values of the rate of reaction ( in molm s ) denoted by the numbers to the left of
each curve. This figure can be used to determine the rate of the reaction at a particular temperature,
for a given conversion of A.
1.0
0.9
0.8
0.7
0.6 1
2
XA
0.5
5
0.4
10
0.3
20
0.2
50
0.1
0.0
300 325 350 375 400 425 450
T(K)
The inlet stream does not contain B and the concentration of A in the inlet stream is 5 mol/m3. The
molar feed rate of A is 100 mol/s. A steady state energy balance for this CSTR results in the
following relation: where T is the temperature (in K) of the exit stream and XA is
the conversion of A in the CSTR. For an exit conversion of 80 % of A, the volume (in m3, rounded
off to the first decimal place) of CSTR required is _______
CH 12/15
Q.49 A porous pellet with Pt dispersed in it is used to carry out a catalytic reaction. Following two
scenarios are possible.
Scenario 1: Pt present throughout the pores of the pellet is used for catalyzing the reaction.
Scenario 2: Pt present only in the immediate vicinity of the external surface of the pellet is used for
catalyzing the reaction.
At a large value of Thiele modulus, which one of the following statements is TRUE?
(A) Since the reaction rate is much greater than the diffusion rate, Scenario 1 occurs
(B) Since the reaction rate is much greater than the diffusion rate , Scenario 2 occurs
(C) Since the reaction rate is much lower than the diffusion rate, Scenario 1 occurs
(D) Since the reaction rate is much lower than the diffusion rate, Scenario 2 occurs
Q.50 A CSTR has a long inlet pipe. A tracer is injected at the entrance of the pipe. The E-curve obtained
at the exit of the CSTR is shown in the figure below.
0.06
0.05
E (t), 1/minutes
0.04
0.03
0.02
0.01
0.00
0 5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40 45 50 55 60 65 70 75 80
Time (minutes)
Assuming plug flow in the inlet pipe, the ratio (rounded off to the second decimal place) of the
volume of the pipe to that of the CSTR is _______
Q.51 A liquid flows through an equal percentage valve at a rate of 2 m3/h when the valve is 10% open.
When the valve opens to 20% the flowrate increases to 3 m3/h. Assume that the pressure drop
across the valve and the density of the liquid remain constant. When the valve opens to 50%, the
flowrate (in m3/h, rounded off to the second decimal place) is_______
CH 13/15
Q.52 A PI controller with integral time constant of 0.1 min is to be designed to control a process with
transfer function
Assume the transfer functions of the measuring element and the final control element are both unity
, . The gain (rounded off to the first decimal place) of the controller that will
constitute the critical condition for stability of the PI feedback control system is _______
Q.53 For a unit step input, the response of a second order system is
sin
where, is the steady state gain, is the damping coefficient, is the natural period of
oscillation and is the phase lag. The overshoot of the system is exp . For a unit step
input, the response of the system from an initial steady state condition at t = 0 is shown in the figure
below.
450
430
410
390
370
y (t)
350
330
310
290
270
250
0 200 400 600 800 1000 1200
Time, t (minutes)
What is the natural period of oscillation (in seconds) of the system?

(A) 15.9 (B) 50 (C) 63.2 (D) 100
Q.54 A vertical cylindrical tank with a flat roof and bottom is to be constructed for storing 150 m3 of
ethylene glycol. The cost of material and fabrication for the tank wall is Rs 6000 per m2 and the
same for the roof and the tank bottom are Rs 2000 and Rs 4000 per m2, respectively. The cost of
accessories, piping and instruments can be taken as 10% of the cost of the wall. 10% of the volume
of the tank needs to be kept free as vapour space above the liquid storage. What is the optimum
diameter (in m) for the tank?
(A) 3.5 (B) 3.9 (C) 7.5 (D) 7.8
CH 14/15
Q.55 A catalytic reforming plant produces hydrogen and benzene from cyclohexane by de-hydro
aromatisation. In order to increase the production of hydrogen, the owner plans to change the
process to steam reforming of the same feedstock that produces hydrogen and carbon dioxide.
Stoichiometrically, what is the maximum ratio of pure hydrogen produced in the proposed process
to that in the existing process?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 5 (D) 6
CH 15/15

(A) 324 (B) 441 (C) 97 (D) 64
(A) 2.0 (B) 10.0 (C) 12.0 (D) 22.0
1/3
ptitude - GA Set-44
Q. 6 Q. 10 carry tw
wo marks each.
s with
(A)) 0 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
y the World
on in the num
w rabies.

w.

b vaccinatin

r worldw
wide.
Q.8 A flat
n Sravan. Who
the flat?

(A)) 14.95 (B) 15.25 (C) 15.70 (D) 20.35
2/33
(A) 0.030 (B) 0.014 (C) 0.014 (D) 0.030
3/3
GATE 2016 Chemistry

Q.1 [CpMoCl2]2 obeys the 18 electron rule. The correct structure of this compound is
(atomic number of Mo = 42)
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Cl
Cl
Mo Mo
Cl
Cl
Q.2 During oxygen transport by hemerythrin, oxygen is bound as
(A) O2 to one Fe(III) only

(B) HO2 to one Fe(III) only
(C) O22 to one Fe(II) and one Fe(III)
(D) O22 to two Fe(II)
Q.3 Among the following, the most stable isotope to radioactive decay is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Q.4 At pH 7.2 and 10 Torr oxygen partial pressure, the extent of O2 binding is
(A) high for both hemoglobin and myoglobin

(B) high for hemoglobin and low for myoglobin
(C) high for myoglobin and low for hemoglobin
(D) low for both hemoglobin and myoglobin
Q.5 In the first row high-spin transition metal complexes [M(H2O)6]Cl2 with d5 and d7 metal ions, the
d-d transitions are
(A) spin-forbidden for both

(B) spin-allowed for both
(C) spin-forbidden for d5 and spin-allowed for d7
(D) spin-allowed for d5 and spin-forbidden for d7
Q.6 Among the given boranes and heteroboranes, the example which belongs to 'closo' type is
(A) B5H8 (B) [C2B9H11]2 (C) GeC2B9H11 (D) B6H10
CY 1/19
GATE 2016 Chemistry
Q.7 The reaction of P2O5 with HNO3 and HClO4, respectively, gives
(A) NO2 and ClO2

(B) N2O5 and Cl2O6
(C) N2O3 and Cl2O7
(D) N2O5 and Cl2O7
Q.8 When crystals of sodium chloride are heated in the presence of sodium vapor, they turn yellow.
This is due to the formation of
(A) Schottky defects

(B) Frenkel defects
(C) F-centres
(D) H-centres
Q.9 One mole of an ideal gas is compressed from 5 L to 2 L at constant temperature. The change in
entropy, in J K-1, of the gas is ____________. (R = 8.314 J K-1 mol-1)
Q.10 The linear momentum of a particle described by the wavefunction is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Q.11 For an elementary bimolecular gas phase reaction, activation energy is 5.5 kJ mol-1. Enthalpy of
activation, in kJ mol-1, at 300 K is _____________. (R = 8.314 J K-1 mol-1)
CY 2/19
GATE 2016 Chemistry
Q.12 The titration of a strong acid with a strong base is represented by the plot
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Q.13 Of the following inequalities, the criterion/criteria for spontaneity of a chemical reaction is/are
(i) , <0 (ii) , >0 (iii) , >0
(A) (i) only (B) (ii) only (C) (i) and (ii) (D) (i) and (iii)
Q.14 A protein sample consists of an equimolar mixture of ribonuclease (molar mass = 13.7 kg mol1),
hemoglobin (molar mass = 15.5 kg mol1), and myoglobin (molar mass = 17.2 kg mol1). The
statement that is true about the weight-average molar mass ( ), the number-average molar mass
( ), and the polydispersity index (PDI) for this sample is
(A) > = 15.5 kg mol1 and PDI > 1 (B) > = 15.5 kg mol1 and PDI < 1
(C) = 15.5 kg mol1 > and PDI > 1 (D) = 15.5 kg mol1 < and PDI < 1
CY 3/19
GATE 2016 Chemistry
Q.15 The band structure given below represents a
(A) n-type semiconductor formed by doping Si with B

(B) n-type semiconductor formed by doping Si with P
(C) p-type semiconductor formed by doping Si with P
(D) p-type semiconductor formed by doping Si with B
Q.16 The experimental ionization energies of hydrogen and helium atoms in their ground states are,
respectively, 13.6 eV and 24.6 eV. The ground state energy of helium atom, in eV, is
(A) (13.6) 24.6 (B) 4(13.6) 24.6

(C) (13.6) 24.6 (D) 2(13.6) 24.6
Q.17 Ring flipping of the compound in the following conformation leads to
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Q.18 The total number of lines expected (due to spin-spin coupling of proton with fluorine and deuterium
nuclei) in the 1H NMR spectrum of the following compound is __________.
CY 4/19
GATE 2016 Chemistry
Q.19 The compound in 'R' configuration is

(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Q.20 The most suitable reagent for performing the following transformation, is
(A) LiAlH4 (B) H2, Pd/C (C) PPh3, H2O (D) Li, liq. NH3
Q.21 The major product obtained in the following reaction, is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
CY 5/19
GATE 2016 Chemistry
Q.22 The favourable transition state leading to the formation of the product in the following reaction, is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Q.23 The major product of the following reaction, is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
CY 6/19
GATE 2016 Chemistry
Q.24 The major product obtained in the following reaction, is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Q.25 The major product formed in the following reaction, is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
CY 7/19
GATE 2016 Chemistry
Q.26 The Larmor frequency of 1H at 1 Tesla (T) is 42.57 MHz. If the magnetogyric ratios for 1H and 13C
are 26.75 107 rad T-1 s-1 and 6.72 107 rad T-1 s-1, respectively, the Larmor frequency of 13C, in
MHz, at 1 Tesla will be __________.
Q.27 At 1 bar and 298 K, for the process , the G is 200 J mol-1 and the Vm is 2 10-6
3 -1
m mol . The minimum pressure, in bar, at which the process becomes spontaneous at 298 K is
_________. (1 bar = 105 Pa)
Q.28 The reaction, , is first order in both the directions. The forward and reverse rate constants are
4.2 10-4 s-1 and 1.04 10-3 s-1, respectively. The relaxation time for this reaction, in seconds, in a
temperature jump experiment is _____________.
Q.29 Adsorption of CO on charcoal at 273 K follows Langmuir isotherm. A plot of P (kPa) / V (cm3)
versus P (kPa) is linear with a slope of 0.01 and y-intercept of 0.5. The equilibrium constant, K
(kPa-1), for the adsorption is ___________.
Q.30 For the following reaction,
if steady state approximation can be applied on [I], the observed rate constant of product formation,
in L mol-1 s-1, will be __________.
Q.31 The correct set of infra-red spectral bands (in cm-1) for the CO stretching mode of the given
carbonyl complex is
(A) 1827, 1783, 1766

(B) 1973, 1827, 1794
(C) 1833, 1775, 1650
(D) 1960, 1918
Q.32 The 19F NMR spectrum of ClF3 when measured at 60 C will be observed as a
(A) singlet
(B) doublet
(C) doublet and a triplet
(D) doublet of doublet and a doublet of triplet
CY 8/19
GATE 2016 Chemistry
Q.33 Among the given platinum(II) complexes, the one that is thermally the most unstable is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Q.34 The shapes of XeF5+ and XeF5 , respectively, are

(A) pentagonal planar and square pyramidal
(B) pentagonal planar and trigonal bipyramidal
(C) square pyramidal and pentagonal bipyramidal
(D) square pyramidal and pentagonal planar
Q.35 Sodium salts of pseudohalogens X, Y, and Z form colourless solutions in water. Solution of X
decolorizes I3 solution with brisk effervescence. Solution of Y gives an intense red colour on
reaction with Fe3+ solution. Solution of Z gives an intense blue colour on reaction with a solution
containing Fe3+ and Fe2+ ions. The pseudohalogens X, Y, and Z, respectively, are
(A) CN, N3-, and CNS-

(B) N3-, CNS-, and CN
(C) N3-, CN, and CNS-
(D) N3-, CNS, and CNO-
Q.36 On reacting 1.55 g of a diol with an excess of methylmagnesium iodide, 1.12 L (corrected to STP)
of methane gas is liberated. The molecular mass (g mol-1) of the diol is ____________.
CY 9/19
GATE 2016 Chemistry
Q.37 The structure of the compound having the following characteristic spectral data, is
IR: 1690 cm-1;
1
H-NMR: 1.30 (3H, t, J = 7.2 Hz); 2.41 (2H, q, J = 7.2 Hz); 2.32 (3H, s); 7.44 (1H, t, J = 7.0 Hz);
7.57 (1H, dt, J = 7.0, 3.0 Hz); 7.77 (1H, t, J = 3.0 Hz); 7.90 (1H, dt, J = 7.0, 3.0 Hz);
EI Mass: m/z 119 (100%); 57 (80%).
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
CY 10/19
GATE 2016 Chemistry
Q.38 The major products X and Y formed in the following synthetic scheme, are
+
O 1. N , cat. H
H (CH3)2S CH2
benzene (solvent)
X Y
2.
O
3. H+, H2O
4. aq. NaOH, heat
(A)
(B)
O
O
X = Y =
(C)
(D)
CY 11/19
GATE 2016 Chemistry
Q.39 The major products S and T formed in the following synthetic scheme, are
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
CY 12/19
GATE 2016 Chemistry
Q.40 Among the following, the transformation(s) that can be accomplished using umpolung concept
is(are)
(A) (i) and (iii) (B) (ii) and (iv)

(C) (ii) only (D) (i) and (ii)
Q.41 A disaccharide does NOT give a positive test for Tollen's reagent. Upon acidic hydrolysis, it gives
an equimolar mixture of two different monosaccharides, both of which can be oxidized by bromine
water. This disaccharide is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
CY 13/19
GATE 2016 Chemistry
Q.42 The major products M and N in the following reaction sequence are
O LiPPh2 CH3I CH3

H3C H LiI
M N + PPh2 +
H3CO CH3 O
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
CY 14/19
GATE 2016 Chemistry
Q.43 The major products P and Q in the following reaction sequence, are
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.44 The major product formed in the following reaction, is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
CY 15/19
GATE 2016 Chemistry
Q.45 The following synthetic transformation can be achieved using
(A) (p) only

(B) (p) and (q)
(C) (q) and (r)
(D) (r) only
Q.46 Consider a two-state system at thermal equilibrium with equal degeneracy where the excited state is
higher in energy than the ground state by 0.1 eV. The ratio of the population of the excited state to
that of the ground state, at a temperature for which kBT = 0.05 eV, is _________.
Q.47 Of the vibrational modes given below, the IR active mode(s) is(are)
(A) (ii) only (B) (iii) only (C) (i) and (ii) (D) (ii) and (iii)
Q.48 A system is described by the following real wavefunction.
The probability (P) of finding the particle in a region dx around points I, II, and III in the figure
obeys the trend
(A) P(I) > P(II) > P(III) (B) P(II) > P(III) > P(I)
(C) P(II) > P(I) > P(III) (D) P(III) > P(I) > P(II)
CY 16/19
GATE 2016 Chemistry
Q.49 The temperature-composition (T-x) phase diagram of the two-component system made of X and Y
is given below. At a temperature of 288 K and starting at the point P, Y is added until the
composition reaches S. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE?
(A) At P, the solid and liquid are present in almost equal proportions.
(B) At Q, the system is all liquid.
(C) At S, the system has more solid than liquid.
(D) At R, the liquid is pure X.
Q.50 For a system subjected to only P-V work, entropy is given by
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i) and (iv)

(C) (i) only (D) (ii) only
Q.51 According to Irving-Williams series, the number of d electrons for the first row transition metal (M)
ion having the highest overall stability constant (log ) for [M(EDTA)]2- is ________.
Q.52 The magnitude of the difference in the crystal field stabilization energies, in o (ignoring pairing
energy), of [Fe(H2O)6]2+ and [Fe(CN)6]4- is _________.
Q.53 The calculated and observed magnetic moments differ considerably for an aqua complex of a
lanthanide(III) ion as a result of low lying states of high J. The ion, among the following, is
(A) Ce3+ (B) Pr3+ (C) Eu3+ (D) Yb3+
Q. 54. In the electronic spectrum of [CrF6]3-, absorption bands observed at 670, 440, and 290 nm are,
respectively, due to the transitions
(A) 4A2g 4T1g(P), 4

A2g 4T1g(F) and 4
A2g 4T2g
(B) 4A2g 4T1g(P), 4
A2g 4T2g and 4
A2g 4T1g(F)
(C) 4A2g 4T1g(F), 4
A2g 4T1g(P) and 4
A2g 4T2g
(D) 4A2g 4T2g, 4
A2g 4T1g(F) and 4
A2g 4T1g(P)
CY 17/19
GATE 2016 Chemistry
Q. 55. Amongst the following, the group that is bound to the metal ion in coenzyme B12 is
(A) methyl
(B) cyanide
(C) adenosyl
(D) hydroxyl
CY 18/19
GATE 2016 Chemistry
CY 19/19

Q.1 Out of the following four sentences, select the most suitable sentence with respect to grammar and
usage.
(A) I will not leave the place until the minister does not meet me.
(B) I will not leave the place until the minister doesnt meet me.
(C) I will not leave the place until the minister meet me.
(D) I will not leave the place until the minister meets me.
Q.2 A rewording of something written or spoken is a ______________.
(A) paraphrase (B) paradox (C) paradigm (D) paraffin
Q.3 Archimedes said, Give me a lever long enough and a fulcrum on which to place it, and I will move
the world.
The sentence above is an example of a ___________ statement.
(A) figurative (B) collateral
(C) literal (D) figurine
Q.4 If relftaga means carefree, otaga means careful and fertaga means careless, which of the
following could mean aftercare?
(A) zentaga (B) tagafer (C) tagazen (D) relffer
Q.5 A cube is built using 64 cubic blocks of side one unit. After it is built, one cubic block is removed
from every corner of the cube. The resulting surface area of the body (in square units) after the
removal is __________.
(A) 56 (B) 64 (C) 72 (D) 96
1/3

Q.6 A shaving set company sells 4 different types of razors, Elegance, Smooth, Soft and Executive.
Elegance sells at Rs. 48, Smooth at Rs. 63, Soft at Rs. 78 and Executive at Rs. 173 per piece. The
table below shows the numbers of each razor sold in each quarter of a year.
Quarter \ Product Elegance Smooth Soft Executive

Q1 27300 20009 17602 9999
Q2 25222 19392 18445 8942
Q3 28976 22429 19544 10234
Q4 21012 18229 16595 10109
Which product contributes the greatest fraction to the revenue of the company in that year?
(A) Elegance (B) Executive (C) Smooth (D) Soft
Q.7 Indian currency notes show the denomination indicated in at least seventeen languages. If this is not
an indication of the nations diversity, nothing else is.
(A) India is a country of exactly seventeen languages.
(B) Linguistic pluralism is the only indicator of a nations diversity.
(C) Indian currency notes have sufficient space for all the Indian languages.
(D) Linguistic pluralism is strong evidence of Indias diversity.
Q.8 Consider the following statements relating to the level of poker play of four players P, Q, R and S.
I. P always beats Q
II. R always beats S
III. S loses to P only sometimes
IV. R always loses to Q
(i) P is likely to beat all the three other players

(ii) S is the absolute worst player in the set
(A) (i) only (B) (ii) only (C) (i) and (ii) (D) neither (i) nor (ii)
Q.9 If f() = 2 7 + 3 5, which of the following is a factor of f(x)?

(A) (x3+8) (B) (x-1) (C) (2x-5) (D) (x+1)
2/3
Q.10 In a process, the number of cycles to failure decreases exponentially with an increase in load. At a
load of 80 units, it takes 100 cycles for failure. When the load is halved, it takes 10000 cycles for
failure. The load for which the failure will happen in 5000 cycles is ________.
(A) 40.00 (B) 46.02 (C) 60.01 (D) 92.02
3/3
GATE 2016 Civil Engineering Set-1
Q. 1 Q. 25 carry one mark each
Q.1 Newton-Raphson method is to be used to find root of equation 3 + sin = 0. If the initial
trial value for the root is taken as 0.333, the next approximation for the root would be _________
(note: answer up to three decimal)
Q.2 2 2 2
The type of partial differential equation + +3 +2 = 0 is
2 2
(A) elliptic (B) parabolic (C) hyperbolic (D) none of these
Q.3 If the entries in each column of a square matrix add up to 1, then an eigenvalue of is
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 1
Q.4 Type II error in hypothesis testing is

(A) acceptance of the null hypothesis when it is false and should be rejected
(B) rejection of the null hypothesis when it is true and should be accepted
(C) rejection of the null hypothesis when it is false and should be rejected
(D) acceptance of the null hypothesis when it is true and should be accepted
Q.5 u 2u
The solution of the partial differential equation = 2 is of the form
t x
[
(A) C coskt C1e
( k )x
+ C2 e
k x
]
[
(B) Ce kt C1e
( k )x
+ C2 e

k x
]
[
(C) Ce kt C1 cos
k x + C2 sin( k ) x ]
[
(D) C sin kt C1 cos
k x + C 2 sin( k ) x ]
CE(1) 1/14
Q.6 Consider the plane truss with load P as shown in the figure. Let the horizontal and vertical reactions
at the joint B be HB and VB, respectively and VC be the vertical reaction at the joint C.
A G
L
60
L 60
E F
P
L
60 60
B D C
L L
Which one of the following sets gives the correct values of VB, HB and VC?
(A) VB = 0; HB = 0; VC = P
(B) VB = P/2; HB = 0; VC = P/2
(C) VB = P/2; HB = P (sin 60); VC = P/2
(D) VB = P; HB = P (cos 60); VC = 0
Q.7 In shear design of an RC beam, other than the allowable shear strength of concrete c , there is
also an additional check suggested in IS 456-2000 with respect to the maximum permissible shear
stress c max . The check for c max is required to take care of
(A) additional shear resistance from reinforcing steel

(B) additional shear stress that comes from accidental loading
(C) possibility of failure of concrete by diagonal tension
(D) possibility of crushing of concrete by diagonal compression
Q.8 The semi-compact section of a laterally unsupported steel beam has an elastic section modulus,
plastic section modulus and design bending compressive stress of 500 cm3, 650 cm3 and 200 MPa,
respectively. The design flexural capacity (expressed in kNm) of the section is _________
Q.9 Bull's trench kiln is used in the manufacturing of

(A) lime (B) cement (C) bricks (D) none of these
Q.10 The compound which is largely responsible for initial setting and early strength gain of Ordinary
Portland Cement is
(A) C3A (B) C3S (C) C2S (D) C4AF
CE(1) 2/14
Q.11 In the consolidated undrained triaxial test on a saturated soil sample, the pore water pressure is zero
(A) during shearing stage only
(B) at the end of consolidation stage only
(C) both at the end of consolidation and during shearing stages
(D) under none of the above conditions
Q.12 A fine grained soil is found to be plastic in the water content range of 26-48%. As per Indian
Standard Classification System, the soil is classified as
(A) CL (B) CH (C) CL-ML (D) CI
Q.13 A vertical cut is to be made in a soil mass having cohesion c, angle of internal friction , and unit
weight . Considering Ka and Kp as the coefficients of active and passive earth pressures,
respectively, the maximum depth of unsupported excavation is
4c 2c K p 4c K a 4c
(A) (C) (D)
Kp (B)
Ka
Q.14 The direct runoff hydrograph in response to 5 cm rainfall excess in a catchment is shown in the
figure. The area of the catchment (expressed in hectares) is________
1.2
0.8
Discharge (m3/s)
0.6
0.4
0.2
0
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Time (hours)
Q.15 The type of flood routing (Group I) and the equation(s) used for the purpose (Group II) are given
below.
Group I Group II
P Hydrologic flood routing 1. Continuity equation
Q Hydraulic flood routing 2. Momentum equation
3. Energy equation
The correct match is
(A) P - 1; Q - 1, 2 & 3 (B) P - 1; Q - 1 & 2
(C) P - 1 & 2; Q - 1 (D) P - 1 & 2; Q - 1 & 2
Q.16 The pre-jump Froude Number for a particular flow in a horizontal rectangular channel is 10. The
ratio of sequent depths (i.e., post-jump depth to pre-jump depth) is ________
CE(1) 3/14
Q.17 Pre-cursors to photochemical oxidants are

(A) NOX, VOCs and sunlight
(B) SO2, CO2 and sunlight
(C) H2S, CO and sunlight
(D) SO2, NH3 and sunlight
Q.18 Crown corrosion in a reinforced concrete sewer is caused by:

(A) H2S (B) CO2 (C) CH4 (D) NH3
Q.19 It was decided to construct a fabric filter, using bags of 0.45 m diameter and 7.5 m long, for
removing industrial stack gas containing particulates. The expected rate of airflow into the filter is
10 m3/s. If the filtering velocity is 2.0 m/min, the minimum number of bags (rounded to nearest
higher integer) required for continuous cleaning operation is
(A) 27 (B) 29 (C) 31 (D) 32
Q.20 Match the items in Group I with those in Group II and choose the right combination.
Group - I Group - II
P. Activated sludge process 1. Nitrifiers and denitrifiers
Q. Rising of sludge 2. Autotrophic bacteria
R. Conventional nitrification 3. Heterotrophic bacteria
S. Biological nitrogen removal 4. Denitrifiers
(A) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (B) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
(C) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1 (D) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3
Q.21 During a forensic investigation of pavement failure, an engineer reconstructed the graphs P, Q, R
and S, using partial and damaged old reports.
Theoretically plausible correct graphs according to the 'Marshall mixture design output' are
(A) P, Q, R (B) P, Q, S (C) Q, R, S (D) R, S, P
Q.22 In a one-lane one-way homogeneous traffic stream, the observed average headway is 3.0 s. The
flow (expressed in vehicles/hr) in this traffic stream is________
CE(1) 4/14
Q.23 The minimum number of satellites needed for a GPS to determine its position precisely is
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 24
Q.24 The system that uses the Sun as a source of electromagnetic energy and records the naturally
radiated and reflected energy from the object is called
(A) Geographical Information System
(B) Global Positioning System
(C) Passive Remote Sensing
(D) Active Remote Sensing
Q.25 The staff reading taken on a workshop floor using a level is 0.645 m. The inverted staff reading
taken to the bottom of a beam is 2.960 m. The reduced level of the floor is 40.500 m. The reduced
level (expressed in m) of the bottom of the beam is
(A) 44.105 (B) 43.460 (C) 42.815 (D) 41.145
Q. 26 Q. 55 carry two marks each
Q.26 Probability density function of a random variable X is given below
0.25 if 1 5
() =
0 otherwise
P(X 4) is
3 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 2 4 8
Q.27 1 sin
The value of + 0 is
0 1+ 2

(A) 2 (B) (C)
3 (D) 1
2
Q.28 The area of the region bounded by the parabola = 2 + 1 and the straight line + = 3 is
59 9 10 7
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6 2 3 6
CE(1) 5/14
Q.29 The magnitudes of vectors P, Q and R are 100 kN, 250 kN and 150 kN, respectively as shown in
the figure.
P
45
90
R 60
x
The respective values of the magnitude (in kN) and the direction (with respect to the x-axis) of the
resultant vector are
(A) 290.9 and 96.0 (B) 368.1 and 94.7 (C) 330.4 and 118.9 (D) 400.1 and 113.5
Q.30 The respective expressions for complimentary function and particular integral part of the solution
d4y d2y
of the differential equation 4
+ 3 2
= 108 x 2 are
dx dx
[ ]
(A) c1 + c2 x + c3 sin 3 x + c4 cos 3 x and 3 x 12 x + c [ 4 2
]
[ ]
(B) c2 x + c3 sin 3 x + c4 cos 3 x and 5 x 12 x + c [ 4 2
]
[ ]
(C) c1 + c3 sin 3 x + c4 cos 3 x and 3 x 12 x + c[ 4 2
]
[ ]
(D) c1 + c2 x + c3 sin 3 x + c4 cos 3 x and 5 x 12 x + c [ 4 2
]
Q.31 A 3 m long simply supported beam of uniform cross section is subjected to a uniformly distributed
load of w = 20 kN/m in the central 1 m as shown in the figure.
w = 20 kN/m
P EI = 30106 Nm2 Q
1m 1m 1m
If the flexural rigidity (EI) of the beam is 30 x 106 N-m2, the maximum slope (expressed in radians)
of the deformed beam is
(A) 0.681 10-7 (B) 0.943 10-7 (C) 4.310 10-7 (D) 5.910 10-7
CE(1) 6/14
Q.32 Two beams PQ (fixed at P and with a roller support at Q, as shown in Figure I, which allows
vertical movement) and XZ (with a hinge at Y) are shown in the Figures I and II respectively. The
spans of PQ and XZ are L and 2L respectively. Both the beams are under the action of uniformly
distributed load (W) and have the same flexural stiffness, EI (where, E and I respectively denote
modulus of elasticity and moment of inertia about axis of bending). Let the maximum deflection
and maximum rotation be max1 and max1, respectively, in the case of beam PQ and the
corresponding quantities for the beam XZ be max2 and max2, respectively.
P Q
L
Figure I
w w
Hinge
X Y Z
L L
Figure II
Which one of the following relationships is true?
(A) max1 max2 and max1 max2

(B) max1 = max2 and max1 max2
(C) max1 max2 and max1 = max2
(D) max1 = max2 and max1 = max2
Q.33 A plane truss with applied loads is shown in the figure.

20 kN
J 10 kN
K 1m
10 kN H
1m
G L
U V
F M 1m
E N 1m
T S R Q P
2m 2m 2m 2m 2m 2m
The members which do not carry any force are

(A) FT, TG, HU, MP, PL (B) ET, GS, UR, VR, QL
(C) FT, GS, HU, MP, QL (D) MP, PL, HU, FT, UR
CE(1) 7/14
Q.34 A rigid member ACB is shown in the figure. The member is supported at A and B by pinned and
guided roller supports, respectively. A force P acts at C as shown. Let RAh and RBh be the horizontal
reactions at supports A and B, respectively, and RAv be the vertical reaction at support A. Self-
weight of the member may be ignored.
P B
2m
6m
1.5 m 1.5 m
Which one of the following sets gives the correct magnitudes of RAv, RBh and RAh ?
1 2
(A) RAv = 0; RBh = P; and RAh = P
3 3
2 1
(B) RAv = 0; RBh = P; and RAh = P
3 3
3 1.5
(C) RAv = P; RBh = P; and RAh = P
8 8
1.5 1. 5
(D) RAv = P ; RBh = P ; and RAh = P
8 8
Q.35 A reinforced concrete (RC) beam with width of 250 mm and effective depth of 400 mm is
reinforced with Fe415 steel. As per the provisions of IS 456-2000, the minimum and maximum
amount of tensile reinforcement (expressed in mm2) for the section are, respectively
(A) 250 and 3500 (B) 205 and 4000
(C) 270 and 2000 (D) 300 and 2500
Q.36 For M25 concrete with creep coefficient of 1.5, the long-term static modulus of elasticity
(expressed in MPa) as per the provisions of IS:456-2000 is ________
CE(1) 8/14
Q.37 A propped cantilever of span L carries a vertical concentrated load at the mid-span. If the plastic
moment capacity of the section is Mp, the magnitude of the collapse load is
8M p 6M p 4M p 2M p
(A) (B) (C) (D)
L L L L
Q.38 Two plates are connected by fillet welds of size 10 mm and subjected to tension, as shown in the
figure. The thickness of each plate is 12 mm. The yield stress and the ultimate tensile stress of
steel are 250 MPa and 410 MPa, respectively. The welding is done in the workshop (mw = 1.25).
P
100 mm
150 mm
P
As per the Limit State Method of IS 800: 2007, the minimum length (rounded off to the nearest
higher multiple of 5 mm) of each weld to transmit a force P equal to 270 kN (factored) is
(A) 90 mm (B) 105 mm (C) 110 mm (D) 115 mm
Q.39 The Optimistic Time (O), Most likely Time (M) and Pessimistic Time (P) (in days) of the activities
in the critical path are given below in the format O-M-P.
8-10-14 6-8-11 5-7-10 7-12-18

E F G H I
The expected completion time (in days) of the project is _________
Q.40 The porosity (n) and the degree of saturation (S) of a soil sample are 0.7 and 40%, respectively. In a
100 m3 volume of the soil, the volume (expressed in m3) of air is _________
CE(1) 9/14
Q.41 A homogeneous gravity retaining wall supporting a cohesionless backfill is shown in the figure.
The lateral active earth pressure at the bottom of the wall is 40 kPa.
Cohesionless
Gravity
backfill
Retaining
6m
Wall
4m
The minimum weight of the wall (expressed in kN per m length) required to prevent it from
overturning about its toe (Point P) is
(A) 120 (B) 180 (C) 240 (D) 360
Q.42 An undisturbed soil sample was taken from the middle of a clay layer (i.e., 1.5 m below GL), as
shown in figure. The water table was at the top of clay layer. Laboratory test results are as follows:
Natural water content of clay : 25%

Preconsolidation pressure of clay : 60 kPa
Compression index of clay : 0.50
Recompression index of clay : 0.05
Specific gravity of clay : 2.70
Bulk unit weight of sand : 17 kN/m3
A compacted fill of 2.5 m height with unit weight of 20 kN/m3 is placed at the ground level.
GL
1m
Sand
GWT
1m
Clay
Hard stratum
Assuming unit weight of water as10 kN/m3, the ultimate consolidation settlement (expressed in
mm) of the clay layer is ____________
CE(1) 10/14
Q.43 A seepage flow condition is shown in the figure. The saturated unit weight of the soil sat = 18
kN/m3. Using unit weight of water, w = 9.81 kN/m3, the effective vertical stress (expressed in
kN/m2) on plane X-X is ________
3m
1m
5m
Soil
sat = 18 kN/m3
X X
1m
2m
Q.44 A drained triaxial compression test on a saturated clay yielded the effective shear strength
parameters as c' = 15 kPa and ' = 22o. Consolidated Undrained triaxial test on an identical sample
of this clay at a cell pressure of 200 kPa developed a pore water pressure of 150 kPa at failure. The
deviator stress (expressed in kPa) at failure is _________
CE(1) 11/14
Q.45 A concrete gravity dam section is shown in the figure. Assuming unit weight of water as 10 kN/m3
and unit weight of concrete as 24 kN/m3, the uplift force per unit length of the dam (expressed in
kN/m) at PQ is _________
65 m
Drain
holes
5m
P Q
40 m
10 m
Q.46 Seepage is occurring through a porous media shown in the figure. The hydraulic conductivity
values (k1, k2, k3) are in m/day.
Impervious
15 m 10 m
P
3m k1 = 2 k2 = 3 k3 = 1 3m
Q
20 m 10 m 20 m 10 m
The seepage discharge (m3/day per m) through the porous media at section PQ is
7 1 9 3
(A) 12 (B) 2 (C) 16 (D) 4
Q.47 A 4 m wide rectangular channel, having bed slope of 0.001 carries a discharge of 16 m3/s.
Considering Manning's roughness coefficient = 0.012 and g = 10 m/s2, the category of the channel
slope is
(A) horizontal (B) mild (C) critical (D) steep
CE(1) 12/14
Q.48 A sector gate is provided on a spillway as shown in the figure. Assuming g = 10 m/s2, the resultant
force per meter length (expressed in kN/m) on the gate will be __________
Sector gate 5m
30
30
Spillway
Q.49 A hydraulically efficient trapezoidal channel section has a uniform flow depth of 2 m. The bed
width (expressed in m) of the channel is __________
Q.50 Effluent from an industry 'A' has a pH of 4.2. The effluent from another industry 'B' has double the
hydroxyl (OH-) ion concentration than the effluent from industry 'A'. pH of effluent from the
industry 'B' will be __________
Q.51 An electrostatic precipitator (ESP) with 5600 m2 of collector plate area is 96 percent efficient in
treating 185 m3/s of flue gas from a 200 MW thermal power plant. It was found that in order to
achieve 97 percent efficiency, the collector plate area should be 6100 m2. In order to increase the
efficiency to 99 percent, the ESP collector plate area (expressed in m2) would be ______
Q.52 The 2-day and 4-day BOD values of a sewage sample are 100 mg/L and 155 mg/L, respectively.
The value of BOD rate constant (expressed in per day) is _________
Q.53 A two lane, one-way road with radius of 50 m is predominantly carrying lorries with wheelbase of
5 m. The speed of lorries is restricted to be between 60 kmph and 80 kmph. The mechanical
widening and psychological widening required at 60 kmph are designated as ,60 and ,60 ,
respectively. The mechanical widening and psychological widening required at 80 kmph are
designated as ,80 and ,80 , respectively. The correct values of ,60 , ,60 , ,80 ,
,80 , respectively are
(A) 0.89 m, 0.50 m, 1.19 m, and 0.50 m (B) 0.50 m, 0.89 m, 0.50 m, and 1.19 m
(C) 0.50 m, 1.19 m, 0.50 m, and 0.89 m (D) 1.19 m, 0.50 m, 0.89 m, and 0.50 m
CE(1) 13/14
Q.54 While traveling along and against the traffic stream, a moving observer measured the relative flows
as 50 vehicles/hr and 200 vehicles/hr, respectively. The average speeds of the moving observer
while traveling along and against the stream are 20 km/hr and 30 km/hr, respectively. The density
of the traffic stream (expressed in vehicles/km) is _________
Q.55 The vertical angles subtended by the top of a tower T at two instrument stations set up at P and Q,
are shown in the figure. The two stations are in line with the tower and spaced at a distance of 60
m. Readings taken from these two stations on a leveling staff placed at the benchmark (BM =
450.000 m) are also shown in the figure. The reduced level of the top of the tower T (expressed in
m) is _________
T
16.5o
2.555
0.555 10.5o
Q
BM 450.000 P
60 m
CE(1) 14/14

Q.1 Out of the following four sentences, select the most suitable sentence with respect to grammar and
usage.
(A) I will not leave the place until the minister does not meet me.
(B) I will not leave the place until the minister doesnt meet me.
(C) I will not leave the place until the minister meet me.
(D) I will not leave the place until the minister meets me.
Q.2 A rewording of something written or spoken is a ______________.
(A) paraphrase (B) paradox (C) paradigm (D) paraffin
Q.3 Archimedes said, Give me a lever long enough and a fulcrum on which to place it, and I will move
the world.
The sentence above is an example of a ___________ statement.
(A) figurative (B) collateral
(C) literal (D) figurine
Q.4 If relftaga means carefree, otaga means careful and fertaga means careless, which of the
following could mean aftercare?
(A) zentaga (B) tagafer (C) tagazen (D) relffer
Q.5 A cube is built using 64 cubic blocks of side one unit. After it is built, one cubic block is removed
from every corner of the cube. The resulting surface area of the body (in square units) after the
removal is __________.
(A) 56 (B) 64 (C) 72 (D) 96
1/3

Q.6 A shaving set company sells 4 different types of razors, Elegance, Smooth, Soft and Executive.
Elegance sells at Rs. 48, Smooth at Rs. 63, Soft at Rs. 78 and Executive at Rs. 173 per piece. The
table below shows the numbers of each razor sold in each quarter of a year.
Quarter \ Product Elegance Smooth Soft Executive

Q1 27300 20009 17602 9999
Q2 25222 19392 18445 8942
Q3 28976 22429 19544 10234
Q4 21012 18229 16595 10109
Which product contributes the greatest fraction to the revenue of the company in that year?
(A) Elegance (B) Executive (C) Smooth (D) Soft
Q.7 Indian currency notes show the denomination indicated in at least seventeen languages. If this is not
an indication of the nations diversity, nothing else is.
(A) India is a country of exactly seventeen languages.
(B) Linguistic pluralism is the only indicator of a nations diversity.
(C) Indian currency notes have sufficient space for all the Indian languages.
(D) Linguistic pluralism is strong evidence of Indias diversity.
Q.8 Consider the following statements relating to the level of poker play of four players P, Q, R and S.
I. P always beats Q
II. R always beats S
III. S loses to P only sometimes
IV. R always loses to Q
(i) P is likely to beat all the three other players

(ii) S is the absolute worst player in the set
(A) (i) only (B) (ii) only (C) (i) and (ii) (D) neither (i) nor (ii)
Q.9 If f() = 2 7 + 3 5, which of the following is a factor of f(x)?

(A) (x3+8) (B) (x-1) (C) (2x-5) (D) (x+1)
2/3
Q.10 In a process, the number of cycles to failure decreases exponentially with an increase in load. At a
load of 80 units, it takes 100 cycles for failure. When the load is halved, it takes 10000 cycles for
failure. The load for which the failure will happen in 5000 cycles is ________.
(A) 40.00 (B) 46.02 (C) 60.01 (D) 92.02
3/3
GATE 2016 COMPUTER SCIENCE AND INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY
Q. 1 - Q. 25 carry one mark each.
Q.1 Let p, q, r, s represent the following propositions.
p: x {8, 9, 10, 11, 12}

q: x is a composite number
r: x is a perfect square
s: x is a prime number
The integer x 2 which satisfies ((p q) (r s)) is .
Q.2 Let an be the number of n-bit strings that do NOT contain two consecutive 1s. Which one of
the following is the recurrence relation for an ?
(A) an = an1 + 2an2
(B) an = an1 + an2
(C) an = 2an1 + an2
(D) an = 2an1 + 2an2
Q.3
sin(x 4)
lim = .
x4 x4
Q.4 A probability density function on the interval [a, 1] is given by 1/x2 and outside this interval
the value of the function is zero. The value of a is .

Q.5 Two eigenvalues of a 3 3 real matrix P are (2 + 1) and 3. The determinant of P is
.
CS(Set A) 1/17
Q.6 Consider the Boolean operator # with the following properties:

x # 0 = x, x # 1 = x,
x # x = 0 and x # x = 1. Then x # y is equivalent to
(A) xy + xy

(B) xy + xy
+ xy
(C) xy
(D) xy + xy
Q.7 The 16-bit 2s complement representation of an integer is 1111 1111 1111 0101; its decimal
representation is .
Q.8 We want to design a synchronous counter that counts the sequence 0-1-0-2-0-3 and then
repeats. The minimum number of J-K flip-flops required to implement this counter is
.
Q.9 A processor can support a maximum memory of 4 GB, where the memory is word-addressable
(a word consists of two bytes). The size of the address bus of the processor is at least
bits.
Q.10 A queue is implemented using an array such that ENQUEUE and DEQUEUE operations are
performed efficiently. Which one of the following statements is CORRECT (n refers to the
number of items in the queue)?
(A) Both operations can be performed in O(1) time
(B) At most one operation can be performed in O(1) time but the worst case time for
the other operation will be (n)
(C) The worst case time complexity for both operations will be (n)
(D) Worst case time complexity for both operations will be (log n)
CS(Set A) 2/17
Q.11 Consider the following directed graph:
b c
a f
d e
The number of different topological orderings of the vertices of the graph is .
Q.12 Consider the following C program.
void f(int, short);

void main()
{
int i = 100;
short s = 12;
short *p = &s;
__________ ; // call to f()
}
Which one of the following expressions, when placed in the blank above, will NOT result in
a type checking error?
(A) f(s,*s)
(B) i = f(i,s)
(C) f(i,*s)
(D) f(i,*p)
CS(Set A) 3/17
Q.13 The worst case running times of Insertion sort, Merge sort and Quick sort, respectively, are:
(A) (n log n), (n log n), and (n2 )
(B) (n2 ), (n2 ), and (n log n)
(C) (n2 ), (n log n), and (n log n)
(D) (n2 ), (n log n), and (n2 )
Q.14 Let G be a weighted connected undirected graph with distinct positive edge weights. If every
edge weight is increased by the same value, then which of the following statements is/are
TRUE?
P: Minimum spanning tree of G does not change

Q: Shortest path between any pair of vertices does not change
(A) P only
(B) Q only
(C) Neither P nor Q
(D) Both P and Q
CS(Set A) 4/17
Q.15 Consider the following C program.
#include<stdio.h>
void mystery(int *ptra, int *ptrb) {
int *temp;
temp = ptrb;
ptrb = ptra;
ptra = temp;
}
int main() {
int a=2016, b=0, c=4, d=42;
mystery(&a, &b);
if (a < c)
mystery(&c, &a);
mystery(&a, &d);
printf("%d\n", a);
}
The output of the program is .
Q.16 Which of the following languages is generated by the given grammar?
S aS | bS |
(A) {an bm | n, m 0}
(B) {w {a, b} | w has equal number of as and bs }
(C) {an | n 0} {bn | n 0} {an bn | n 0}
(D) {a, b}
CS(Set A) 5/17
Q.17 Which of the following decision problems are undecidable?
I. Given NFAs N1 and N2 , is L(N1 ) L(N2 ) = ?

II. Given a CFG G = (N, , P, S) and a string x , does x L(G)?
III. Given CFGs G1 and G2 , is L(G1 ) = L(G2 )?
IV. Given a TM M, is L(M) = ?
(A) I and IV only

(B) II and III only
(C) III and IV only
(D) II and IV only
Q.18 Which one of the following regular expressions represents the language: the set of all binary
strings having two consecutive 0s and two consecutive 1s?
(A) (0 + 1) 0011(0 + 1) + (0 + 1) 1100(0 + 1)
(B) (0 + 1) (00(0 + 1) 11 + 11(0 + 1) 00)(0 + 1)
(C) (0 + 1) 00(0 + 1) + (0 + 1) 11(0 + 1)
(D) 00(0 + 1) 11 + 11(0 + 1) 00
Q.19 Consider the following code segment.
x = u - t;
y = x * v;
x = y + w;
y = t - z;
y = x * y;
The minimum number of total variables required to convert the above code segment to static
single assignment form is .
CS(Set A) 6/17
Q.20 Consider an arbitrary set of CPU-bound processes with unequal CPU burst lengths
submitted at the same time to a computer system. Which one of the following process
scheduling algorithms would minimize the average waiting time in the ready queue?
(A) Shortest remaining time first
(B) Round-robin with time quantum less than the shortest CPU burst
(C) Uniform random
(D) Highest priority first with priority proportional to CPU burst length
Q.21 Which of the following is NOT a superkey in a relational schema with attributes
V , W , X, Y , Z and primary key V Y ?
(A) V XY Z
(B) VW XZ
(C) VW XY
(D) VW XY Z
Q.22 Which one of the following is NOT a part of the ACID properties of database transactions?
(A) Atomicity
(B) Consistency
(C) Isolation
(D) Deadlock-freedom
CS(Set A) 7/17
Q.23 A database of research articles in a journal uses the following schema.

(VOLUME , N UMBER , S TART PAGE , E ND PAGE , T ITLE , Y EAR , P RICE )
The primary key is (VOLUME , N UMBER , S TART PAGE , E ND PAGE ) and the following
functional dependencies exist in the schema.
(VOLUME , N UMBER , S TART PAGE , E ND PAGE ) T ITLE
(VOLUME , N UMBER ) Y EAR
(VOLUME , N UMBER , S TART PAGE , E ND PAGE ) P RICE
The database is redesigned to use the following schemas.
(VOLUME , N UMBER , S TART PAGE , E ND PAGE , T ITLE , P RICE )
(VOLUME , N UMBER , Y EAR )
Which is the weakest normal form that the new database satisfies, but the old one does not?
(A) 1NF
(B) 2NF
(C) 3NF
(D) BCNF
Q.24 Which one of the following protocols is NOT used to resolve one form of address to another
one?
(A) DNS
(B) ARP
(C) DHCP
(D) RARP
Q.25 Which of the following is/are example(s) of stateful application layer protocols?
(i) HTTP
(ii) FTP
(iii) TCP
(iv) POP3
(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (ii) and (iv) only
(D) (iv) only
CS(Set A) 8/17
Q. 26 - Q. 55 carry two marks each.
Q.26 The coefficient of x12 in (x3 + x4 + x5 + x6 + )3 is .
Q.27 Consider the recurrence relation a1 = 8, an = 6n2 + 2n + an1 . Let a99 = K 104 . The value
of K is .
Q.28 A function f : N+ N+ , defined on the set of positive integers N+ , satisfies the following
properties:
f (n) = f (n/2) if n is even

f (n) = f (n + 5) if n is odd
Let R = {i | j : f ( j) = i} be the set of distinct values that f takes. The maximum possible size
of R is .
Q.29 Consider the following experiment.
Step 1. Flip a fair coin twice.

Step 2. If the outcomes are (TAILS, HEADS) then output Y and stop.
Step 3. If the outcomes are either (HEADS, HEADS) or (HEADS, TAILS ), then output N and
stop.
Step 4. If the outcomes are (TAILS, TAILS), then go to Step 1.
The probability that the output of the experiment is Y is (up to two decimal places)
.
CS(Set A) 9/17
Q.30 Consider the two cascaded 2-to-1 multiplexers as shown in the figure.
0 0 2to1 0 2to1 X
R 1 MUX 1 MUX
s s
P Q
The minimal sum of products form of the output X is

(A) P Q + PQR
+ QR
(B) PQ

(C) PQ + P QR
(D) Q R + PQR
Q.31 The size of the data count register of a DMA controller is 16 bits. The processor needs to
transfer a file of 29,154 kilobytes from disk to main memory. The memory is byte addressable.
The minimum number of times the DMA controller needs to get the control of the system bus
from the processor to transfer the file from the disk to main memory is .
Q.32 The stage delays in a 4-stage pipeline are 800, 500, 400 and 300 picoseconds. The first
stage (with delay 800 picoseconds) is replaced with a functionally equivalent design involving
two stages with respective delays 600 and 350 picoseconds. The throughput increase of the
pipeline is percent.
Q.33 Consider a carry lookahead adder for adding two n-bit integers, built using gates of fan-in at
most two. The time to perform addition using this adder is
(A) (1)
(B) (log(n))

(C) ( n)
(D) (n)
CS(Set A) 10/17
Q.34 The following function computes the maximum value contained in an integer array p[] of size
n (n >= 1).
int max(int *p, int n) {

int a=0, b=n-1;
while (__________) {
if (p[a] <= p[b]) { a = a+1; }
else { b = b-1; }
}
return p[a];
}
The missing loop condition is

(A) a != n
(B) b != 0
(C) b > (a + 1)
(D) b != a
Q.35 What will be the output of the following C program?
void count(int n){

static int d=1;
printf("%d ", n);

printf("%d ", d);
d++;
if(n>1) count(n-1);
printf("%d ", d);
}
void main(){
count(3);
}
(A) 3 1 2 2 1 3 4 4 4
(B) 3 1 2 1 1 1 2 2 2
(C) 3 1 2 2 1 3 4
(D) 3 1 2 1 1 1 2
CS(Set A) 11/17
Q.36 What will be the output of the following pseudo-code when parameters are passed by reference
and dynamic scoping is assumed?
a=3;
void n(x) {x = x * a; print(x);}
void m(y) {a = 1; a = y - a; n(a); print(a);}
void main() {m(a);}
(A) 6, 2
(B) 6, 6
(C) 4, 2
(D) 4, 4
Q.37 An operator delete(i) for a binary heap data structure is to be designed to delete the item in
the i-th node. Assume that the heap is implemented in an array and i refers to the i-th index
of the array. If the heap tree has depth d (number of edges on the path from the root to the
farthest leaf), then what is the time complexity to re-fix the heap efficiently after the removal
of the element?
(A) O(1)
(B) O(d) but not O(1)
(C) O(2d ) but not O(d)
(D) O(d 2d ) but not O(2d )
Q.38 Consider the weighted undirected graph with 4 vertices, where the weight of edge {i, j} is
given by the entry Wi j in the matrix W .

0 2 8 5
2 0 5 8
W = 8

5 0 x
5 8 x 0
The largest possible integer value of x, for which at least one shortest path between some pair
of vertices will contain the edge with weight x is .
Q.39 Let G be a complete undirected graph on 4 vertices, having 6 edges with weights being 1, 2,
3, 4, 5, and 6. The maximum possible weight that a minimum weight spanning tree of G can
have is .
CS(Set A) 12/17
Q.40 G = (V, E) is an undirected simple graph in which each edge has a distinct weight, and e is a
particular edge of G. Which of the following statements about the minimum spanning trees
(MSTs) of G is/are TRUE?
I. If e is the lightest edge of some cycle in G, then every MST of G includes e

II. If e is the heaviest edge of some cycle in G, then every MST of G excludes e
(A) I only (B) II only (C) both I and II (D) neither I nor II
Q.41 Let Q denote a queue containing sixteen numbers and S be an empty stack. Head(Q) returns
the element at the head of the queue Q without removing it from Q. Similarly Top(S) returns
the element at the top of S without removing it from S. Consider the algorithm given below.
while Q is not Empty do

if S is Empty OR Top(S) Head(Q) then
x := Dequeue(Q);
Push(S, x);
else
x := Pop(S);
Enqueue(Q, x);
end
end
The maximum possible number of iterations of the while loop in the algorithm is
.
Q.42 Consider the following context-free grammars:

G1 : S aS|B, B b|bB
G2 : S aA|bB, A aA|B| , B bB|
Which one of the following pairs of languages is generated by G1 and G2 , respectively?
(A) {am bn |m > 0 or n > 0} and {am bn |m > 0 and n > 0}
(B) {am bn |m > 0 and n > 0} and {am bn |m > 0 or n 0}
(C) {am bn |m 0 or n > 0} and {am bn |m > 0 and n > 0}
(D) {am bn |m 0 and n > 0} and {am bn |m > 0 or n > 0}
CS(Set A) 13/17
Q.43 Consider the transition diagram of a PDA given below with input alphabet = {a, b} and
stack alphabet = {X, Z}. Z is the initial stack symbol. Let L denote the language accepted
by the PDA.
a, X/XX
a, Z/XZ b, X/
b, X/ , Z/Z
Which one of the following is TRUE?

(A) L = {an bn |n 0} and is not accepted by any finite automata
(B) L = {an |n 0} {an bn |n 0} and is not accepted by any deterministic PDA
(C) L is not accepted by any Turing machine that halts on every input
(D) L = {an |n 0} {an bn |n 0} and is deterministic context-free
Q.44 Let X be a recursive language and Y be a recursively enumerable but not recursive language.
Let W and Z be two languages such that Y reduces to W , and Z reduces to X (reduction means
the standard many-one reduction). Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
(A) W can be recursively enumerable and Z is recursive.
(B) W can be recursive and Z is recursively enumerable.
(C) W is not recursively enumerable and Z is recursive.
(D) W is not recursively enumerable and Z is not recursive.
Q.45 The attributes of three arithmetic operators in some programming language are given below.
Operator Precedence Associativity Arity
+ High Left Binary
Medium Right Binary
Low Left Binary
The value of the expression 2 5 + 1 7 3 in this language is .
CS(Set A) 14/17
Q.46 Consider the following Syntax Directed Translation Scheme (SDTS), with non-terminals
{S, A} and terminals {a, b}.
S aA { print 1 }
S a { print 2 }
A Sb { print 3 }
Using the above SDTS, the output printed by a bottom-up parser, for the input aab is:
(A) 1 3 2
(B) 2 2 3
(C) 2 3 1
(D) syntax error
Q.47 Consider a computer system with 40-bit virtual addressing and page size of sixteen
kilobytes. If the computer system has a one-level page table per process and each page table
entry requires 48 bits, then the size of the per-process page table is megabytes.
Q.48 Consider a disk queue with requests for I/O to blocks on cylinders 47, 38, 121, 191, 87, 11,
92, 10. The C-LOOK scheduling algorithm is used. The head is initially at cylinder number
63, moving towards larger cylinder numbers on its servicing pass. The cylinders are numbered
from 0 to 199. The total head movement (in number of cylinders) incurred while servicing
these requests is .
Q.49 Consider a computer system with ten physical page frames. The system is provided with
an access sequence (a1 , a2 , . . . , a20 , a1 , a2 , . . . , a20 ), where each ai is a distinct virtual page
number. The difference in the number of page faults between the last-in-first-out page
replacement policy and the optimal page replacement policy is .
CS(Set A) 15/17
Q.50 Consider the following proposed solution for the critical section problem. There are n
processes: P0 . . . Pn1 . In the code, function pmax returns an integer not smaller than any
of its arguments. For all i, t[i] is initialized to zero.
Code for Pi :
do {
c[i]=1; t[i] = pmax(t[0],. . .,t[n-1])+1; c[i]=0;
for every j 6= i in {0,. . .,n-1} {
while (c[j]);
while (t[j] != 0 && t[j]<=t[i]);
}
Critical Section;
t[i]=0;
Remainder Section;
} while (true);
Which one of the following is TRUE about the above solution?

(A) At most one process can be in the critical section at any time
(B) The bounded wait condition is satisfied
(C) The progress condition is satisfied
(D) It cannot cause a deadlock
Q.51 Consider the following two phase locking protocol. Suppose a transaction T accesses (for
read or write operations), a certain set of objects {O1 , . . . , Ok }. This is done in the following
manner:
Step 1. T acquires exclusive locks to O1 , . . . , Ok in increasing order of their addresses.

Step 2. The required operations are performed.
Step 3. All locks are released.
This protocol will

(A) guarantee serializability and deadlock-freedom
(B) guarantee neither serializability nor deadlock-freedom
(C) guarantee serializability but not deadlock-freedom
(D) guarantee deadlock-freedom but not serializability
CS(Set A) 16/17
Q.52 Consider that B wants to send a message m that is digitally signed to A. Let the pair of private
and public keys for A and B be denoted by Kx and Kx+ for x = A, B, respectively. Let Kx (m)
represent the operation of encrypting m with a key Kx and H(m) represent the message digest.
Which one of the following indicates the CORRECT way of sending the message m along
with the digital signature to A?
(A) {m, KB+ (H(m))} (B) {m, KB (H(m))} (C) {m, KA (H(m))} (D) {m, KA+ (m)}
Q.53 An IP datagram of size 1000 bytes arrives at a router. The router has to forward this packet on
a link whose MTU (maximum transmission unit) is 100 bytes. Assume that the size of the IP
header is 20 bytes.
The number of fragments that the IP datagram will be divided into for transmission is
.
Q.54 For a host machine that uses the token bucket algorithm for congestion control, the token
bucket has a capacity of 1 megabyte and the maximum output rate is 20 megabytes per second.
Tokens arrive at a rate to sustain output at a rate of 10 megabytes per second. The token bucket
is currently full and the machine needs to send 12 megabytes of data. The minimum time
required to transmit the data is seconds.
Q.55 A sender uses the Stop-and-Wait ARQ protocol for reliable transmission of frames. Frames
are of size 1000 bytes and the transmission rate at the sender is 80 Kbps (1Kbps = 1000
bits/second). Size of an acknowledgement is 100 bytes and the transmission rate at the receiver
is 8 Kbps. The one-way propagation delay is 100 milliseconds.
Assuming no frame is lost, the sender throughput is bytes/second.
CS(Set A) 17/17

sentence.
_________ ___________ is a will, _________ is a way.
(A) 39 (B) 57 (C) 66 (D) 93
1/3
P Q
10
9.5
9 9
8 8 8 8
7.5
7
6.5 6.5
6
2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006
(A) 2:3
(B) 3:4
(C) 6:7
(D) 4:3
2/3


2 2 2 2
(A) x (B) 0.75 x (C) 0.50 x (D) 0.25 x
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
3/3
GATE 2016 Ecology

Q.1 Different kinds of limbs, such as the wings of birds and bats, and the flippers of turtles, whales and
dolphins, have the same underlying skeletal structure. This is an example of:
(A) Analogy (B) Convergence (C) Homology (D) Genetic drift
Q.2 Forests with a high density of native conifer trees are found in:
(A) Gujarat (B) Haryana
(C) Himachal Pradesh (D) Odisha
Q.3 Ozone layer depletion, since the 1970s, is primarily attributed to:
(A) carbon dioxide (B) chlorofluorocarbons
(C) global warming (D) UV radiation
Q.4 The evolution of the amniotic egg in reptiles allowed them to:
(A) colonize dry terrestrial environments
(B) give birth to live young
(C) lay eggs in water and on land
(D) live in aquatic environments
Q.5 Which of the following phyla are most closely related to chordates ?
(A) Annelida (B) Arthropoda (C) Echinodermata (D) Mollusca
Q.6 Limb lengths were measured for 50 individuals from a population of lizards and the sample
variance was calculated to be 64 cm2. The standard deviation for this sample is ______ cm.
(Use decimal notation, not fractions or percentage)
Q.7 Most terrestrial ecosystems have a pyramidal structure of standing biomass across trophic levels
where biomass of producers > primary consumers > secondary consumers > tertiary consumers.
However, some aquatic ecosystems have an inverted pyramidal structure where the standing
biomass of producers < primary consumers. An explanation for this is:
(A) greater efficiency of primary consumers in aquatic ecosystems
(B) high turnover rates of aquatic producers relative to consumers
(C) low nutrient concentrations in aquatic ecosystems
(D) very high light limitation in aquatic ecosystems
Q.8 In an experiment, a PhD student found that the traits, flower colour and seed size, did not follow
Mendels Law of Independent Assortment. A possible explanation for this observation is:
(A) co-dominance between alleles (B) incomplete dominance
(C) linkage between the traits (D) loci on different chromosomes
Q.9 Which of the following invertebrates has the lowest gut length:body length ratio?
(A) dragonflies (B) grasshoppers (C) leaf hoppers (D) termites
EY 1/11
GATE 2016 Ecology
Q.10 Allopatric speciation occurs when two populations diverge because of geographical separation.
Rates of allopatric speciation are likely to be higher in:
(A) marine organisms with active dispersal
(B) marine organisms with passive dispersal
(C) terrestrial organisms with high dispersal ability
(D) terrestrial organisms with low dispersal ability
Q.11 For nearly 200 years, biogeographers have noted that the tropics have more terrestrial species than
temperate regions. Which of the following is NOT a plausible explanation for this pattern?
(A) Diversification rates are higher in the tropics
(B) Energy inputs are higher in the tropics
(C) There is greater land area in the tropics
(D) Tropical species have greater climatic tolerance
Q.12 If the rate of non-synonymous substitution at a locus exceeds that of synonymous substitution, then:
(A) deleterious mutations are accumulating
(B) evolution is not occurring
(C) genetic drift is operating
(D) selection is operating
Q.13 There are N individuals in a haploid population. At a given locus, there are 2 alleles, AL1 and AL2.
The number of copies of allele AL1 is Z1, and the number of copies of allele AL2 is Z2 in the
population. What is the frequency of allele AL2?
(A) Z1/N (B) Z2/N (C) Z1+Z2 (D) (Z1+Z2)/N
Q.14 According to Hamiltons Rule, an altruistic act will spread in a population due to kin selection,
when B/C > 1/r , where B is the benefit to the recipient, C is the cost to the actor and r is the genetic
relatedness of the recipient to the actor. Given this relationship, a human may forego producing one
of her own offspring to help her full sibling raise offspring, only if it results in at least ______ or
more extra offspring produced by her sibling.
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 8
Q.15 Which of the following is NOT a plant hormone?

(A) Corticosterone (B) Ethylene (C) Jasmonic acid (D) Salicylic acid
Q.16 Among foraging shore birds, feeding rates (F, number of prey items consumed in 5 minutes)
decrease as the number of neighbours (N) increases as follows: F = 10 0.9N. The maximum
feeding rate is ________________. (Use decimal notation, not fractions or percentage)
Q.17 Which of the following is NOT an adaptation to reduce the risk of predation?
(A) Alarm calling (B) Cannibalism
(C) Group living (D) Sentinel behaviour
EY 2/11
GATE 2016 Ecology
Q.18 Which of the following is NOT an example of an evolutionary arms race?

(A) Brood parasite and host interactions
(B) Conflict between parents and offspring
(C) Predator and prey interactions
(D) Recognition between kin
Q.19 The Weber-Fechner law states that the magnitude of a perceived sensation increases as log10 of
stimulus intensity. Let us assume a background stimulus level of 1 unit, which increases to 10 units
in situation P and to 100 units in situation Q. The perceived sensation in situation Q is stronger than
the sensation perceived in situation P by a factor of ______. (Use decimal notation, not fractions or
percentage)
Q.20 Monotremes are unique among mammals because they:

(A) have claws (B) lay eggs
(C) possess hair (D) produce milk
Q.21 The most important reason for a neuron to be myelinated is to:

(A) decrease the possibility of excitation from nearby muscle activity
(B) increase the diameter of the axon to slow down the action potential
(C) increase the speed of an action potential
(D) protect the nerve from physical damage
Q.22 A small isolated population is more likely to undergo speciation than a large population because,
compared to the large population, the small population:
(A) has greater genetic diversity
(B) has a higher mutation rate
(C) is more affected by genetic drift
(D) is more susceptible to gene flow
Q.23 To which of the following families do the important timber species, sal and teak, belong?
(i) Dipterocarpaceae; (ii) Poaceae; (iii) Solanaceae; (iv) Verbenaceae

(A) i and ii (B) i and iv (C) ii and iii (D) iii only
Q.24 The yields of which of these crops are most likely to be reduced by ongoing declines in bee
populations?
(A) coffee (B) rice (C) tea (D) wheat
Q.25 Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane is related to the phenomenon of:

(A) biomagnification in food webs (B) coral bleaching in oceans
(C) the greenhouse effect (D) ozone layer depletion
EY 3/11
GATE 2016 Ecology

Q.26 Here is a data set on wing lengths in cm: 8, 9, 10, 10, 12, 13, 13, 14, 15, 15, 15, 19, 22, 25, 25. For
this sample data set, the mean, median and mode are __________________, _________________,
and _____________________ respectively.
(A) 15, 8 and 25 (B) 15, 14 and 8 (C) 15, 14 and 15 (D) 15, 15 and 15
Q.27 Dragonflies eat plant pollinators. Fish eat dragonfly larvae. A study compared the fitness of plants
growing near ponds with and without fish. Given the above set of trophic interactions in a
community, this study will likely find that:
(A) the fitness of plants is not affected by dragonflies
(B) the fitness of plants is not affected by whether ponds have fish
(C) plants growing near ponds without fish have higher fitness
(D) plants growing near ponds with fish have higher fitness
Q.28 Which of the following statements CANNOT be inferred from the following phylogenetic tree?
(A) Crocodiles are more closely related to birds than to the other reptiles
(B) Fish, lizards and snakes have a common ancestor
(C) Mammals and reptiles have evolved from amphibians
(D) Mammals are more closely related to crocodiles than to amphibians
Q.29 Assume that the abundance of a species in a community is proportional to the size of its niche. As
each new species colonises this community, an existing niche is split. The resultant relative
abundances of species in this community will be most uneven if:
(A) The largest niche is always split when a new species colonises
(B) The niches are split at random, independent of their size
(C) The probability of a niche being split is proportional to its size
(D) The smallest niche is always split when a new species colonises
EY 4/11
GATE 2016 Ecology
Q.30 To study colour preference in bees, a student uses artificial flowers with a sugar reward. She gives
bees a choice between blue round flowers and yellow square flowers of the same size. She finds
that bees choose the blue flowers significantly more often than the yellow flowers and concludes
that bees have a colour preference for blue flowers. However, her friend disagrees and suggests that
she should have done the experiment differently. Which of the following would have been more
appropriate to test for colour preference in bees?
(A) choice between blue round and blue square flowers
(B) choice between blue round and yellow round flowers
(C) choice between yellow round and blue square flowers
(D) choice between yellow round and yellow square flowers
Q.31 Which of the following does NOT form a component of phytohormone action?
(A) recognition of specific proteins
(B) regulation of gene activity
(C) splitting of water molecules
(D) signal transduction across the cell
Q.32 The following three panels show the change in population size over time for two species when they
are found alone and when they are found together. Which kind of interaction best describes the
relationship between the two species?
(A) Amensalism (B) Competition (C) Mutualism (D) Predation
Q.33 Fresh water fish belonging to the family Galaxoidae are found exclusively in the southern parts of
the continents of South America, Africa and Australia. This pattern is explained by the theory
proposed by:
(A) Alfred Russel Wallace (B) Alfred Wegener
(C) Charles Darwin (D) Charles Lyell
EY 5/11
GATE 2016 Ecology
Q.34 Ant species X preys upon ant species Y. A researcher has the following set of observations
regarding the behaviour of species X where aggression signifies a predatory response.
Stimulus Reaction of Species

X individuals
Glass bead coated with surface chemicals extracted from Aggression
Species Y
Washed glass bead No reaction
Freshly immobilised Species Y individual Aggression
Freshly immobilised Species Y individual with surface Aggression
chemicals removed
Which of the following statement(s) are correct regarding the behaviour of Species X?
(i) A glass bead is sufficient to elicit the predatory response.

(ii) Both chemical and non-chemical cues are involved in the predatory response.
(iii) Chemical cues are necessary to elicit the predatory response.
(iv) Chemical cues are sufficient to elicit the predatory response
(A) i, ii (B) ii, iv (C) i, iii (D) iii, iv
Q.35 In the schematic below, the left panel represents climatic zones occupied by two different biomes,
X and Y, along gradients of temperature and precipitation. The right panel depicts the expected
species-area relationships of these two biomes. From the figures below, which of the following are
most likely to be true?
(i) Biome X will show pattern W

(ii) Biome Y will show pattern Z
(iii) Biome X will show pattern Z
(iv) Biome Y will show pattern W
(A) i and ii (B) i and iv (C) ii and iii (D) iii and iv
EY 6/11
GATE 2016 Ecology
Q.36 In many plant and animal communities that are found on islands, the number of species (S) changes
with the area (A) of the island as follows: S = cAz, where 0 <z < 1 and c>0. Which of the following
graphs best represents such a species-area relationship?
Q.37 Males in a population differ in the time they spend displaying to females. A researcher hypothesizes
that predators are responsible for these differences. Males display for longer durations when there
are no predators in the vicinity and for shorter durations when there is a predator nearby. Which of
the following study designs is the most appropriate test of this hypothesis?
(A) Map predator distribution in the area; measure the abundance of females; quantify the natural
variation in male display rates in areas without predators
(B) Measure display rates of males at the beginning of the breeding season; remove all predators
from the study site; then measure male display rates later in the breeding season; repeat for multiple
populations
(C) Measure display rates of males in areas with and without predators; randomly assign males to
two treatments: (i) capture and release back in original area (ii) capture and switch between areas;
measure display rates for all experimental males
(D) Measure display rates of males in areas with and without predators; randomly assign males to
two treatments: (i) addition of females to the area (ii) removal of females from the area; measure
display rates for all experimental males
EY 7/11
GATE 2016 Ecology
Q.38 In Batesian mimicry, a harmless species mimics a harmful or toxic model species. Increasing the
relative abundance of the mimic will:
(A) negatively affect both model and mimic populations
(B) negatively affect the model but not the mimic population
(C) positively affect both model and mimic populations
(D) positively affect the mimic but not the model population
Q.39 There are two alleles at a locus in a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. If the proportion of
the dominant phenotype is 0.99, what proportion of the population is heterozygous? (Use decimal
notation, not fractions or percentage)
Q.40 Haemophilia is a condition resulting from a sex-linked recessive gene in which individuals can
suffer from excessive bleeding due to a blood-clotting disorder. In a human family with three
children, the two sons are afflicted with haemophilia while the parents are normal. The probability
that the daughter has inherited the gene for haemophilia is ______, and the probability that she
is afflicted by haemophilia is ________.
(A) 1/2, 0 (B) 1/2, 1 (C) 1/2, 1/4 (D) 1/4,0
Q.41 Which of the graphs below represents the relationship between population size (N) and population
growth rate (dN/dt) for a population showing exponential growth?
EY 8/11
GATE 2016 Ecology
Q.42 Two islands, P and Q, are similar in habitat and other features. They are 100 and 200 km2 in size
respectively, but have the same number of species. Which of the following statements can
independently explain this observation?
(i) P is closer to the mainland than Q

(ii) P is further away from the mainland than Q
(iii) P has higher speciation rates than Q
(iv) P has lower speciation rates than Q
(A) i and iv (B) i and iii (C) ii and iii (D) ii and iv
Q.43 In reverse sexual selection, variance in mating success is higher in females than in males. In such
species, which of the following is most expected?
(A) Females are the competing sex and males are the choosy sex
(B) Males are the competing sex and females are the choosy sex
(C) Mating is random and both sexes are not choosy
(D) Mating is non-random and both sexes are equally choosy
Q.44 According to the Hamilton-Zuk hypothesis, females prefer males with the most elaborate
ornaments because those ornaments signal parasite resistance. Which of the following is NOT an
assumption of this hypothesis?
(A) Parasites reduce male fitness
(B) Parasite resistance is indicated by male ornamentation
(C) Parasite resistance is genetic
(D) Parasite load is positively correlated with male ornamentation
Q.45 A plant produces flowers that are open through the day and the night. An experimenter places
pollen on the stigmas of freshly opened flowers and covers them after pollination to prevent natural
pollinators from having access to the flowers. When experimental pollination was carried out
during the day, 40% of the flowers yielded fruit. When experimental pollination was carried out
during the night, 80% of the flowers yielded fruit. However, when flowers were kept open to
natural pollination during the day (covered at night), 35% of flowers produced fruit. 20% of flowers
exposed to natural pollination during the night (covered during the day) produced fruit. Which of
the following statements is NOT a plausible explanation of these results ?
(A) night pollinators are low in abundance
(B) night pollinators are abundant
(C) night pollinators are low in pollination efficiency
(D) pollinators are active during the day
Q.46 Sex is determined by temperature in many reptiles, including crocodiles and turtles. While lower
temperatures produce males in turtles, the pattern is the opposite in crocodiles. Due to climate
change, there is an increase in temperatures which results in a change in sex ratios. In small
populations, this change in demography is likely to negatively impact the population growth of:
(A) crocodiles more than turtles
(B) neither of the two species
(C) both species equally
(D) turtles more than crocodiles
Q.47 An unbiased coin is tossed four times. What is the probability of getting at least three "heads" in a
row? (Use decimal notation, not fractions or percentage)
EY 9/11
GATE 2016 Ecology
Q.48 In a study of interactions between plants, ants and caterpillars, the following experimental
treatments were imposed: i) Control (both ants and caterpillars are present); ii) Ant removal; iii)
Caterpillar removal; iv) Ant and caterpillar removal. Plus (+) indicates presence and minus (-)
indicates absence on plants. The results for plant performance (growth) from this experiment are
shown in the figure below. Plant performance in all treatments were significantly different from
each other. Based on these results, which of the following inferences is correct?
Caterpillar (+)
Plant performance
Caterpillar (-)
Ant(+) Ant(-)
(A) In the absence of caterpillars, ants negatively affected plant performance

(B) In the absence of ants, caterpillars positively affected plant performance
(C) In the presence of caterpillars, ants negatively affected plant performance
(D) In the presence of ants, caterpillars positively affected plant performance
Q.49 Both males and females of a fish species show variation in colour. A population of this species
consists of 40% blue females, 20% red females, 20% blue males and 20% red males. A researcher
catches one fish at random from this population. Given that a male fish is caught, the probability
that it is blue is _______. (Use decimal notation, not fractions or percentage)
Q.50 Assume that an asexually propagating fungus has three colors of colonies, white, black and red.
Such variability in color may have originated due to:
(A) germline mutation
(B) heterokaryosis
(C) genetic linkage
(D) sexual cross-over
Q.51 Shannon's index of diversity is calculated using the equation below, where pi is the proportion of
the ith species and ln is natural logarithm. For a community with a given number of species, which
of the following statements is true?
n
H = pi ln( pi )
1
(A) Shannon's index will be highest if all species have equal abundance
(B) Shannon's index will be highest if one species is highly dominant
(C) Shannon's index will be highest if there are many rare species
(D) The relative abundance is irrelevant to Shannon's index
EY 10/11
GATE 2016 Ecology
Q.52 The schematic below shows the relationship between survivorship with age (relative to maximum
lifespan) in Species 1 (dashed line) and Species 2 (solid line). Which of the following inferences is
compatible with this figure?
1 Species 1
Species 2
SURVIVORSHIP
0
0 Max lifespan
AGE
(A) Species 1 is a mouse, Species 2 is an elephant
(B) Species 1 is a rat, Species 2 is a tree shrew
(C) Species 1 is a whale, Species 2 is a mouse
(D) Species 1 is a whale, Species 2 is an elephant
Q.53 A team of conservation biologists, surveying a population of frogs on an island, captured and
marked 312 individuals in the first sample. In a second sampling, 3 days later, the team caught 140
individuals of which 26 were previously marked. The total number of frogs on the island is
estimated to be ________. (Use decimal notation, not fractions or percentage)
Q.54 The following equation represents a hypothetical relationship between fitness (w) and shoot:root
ratio (r) in individuals of a plant species: w = 10r-10r2. At what value of shoot:root ratio (r), do
these plants achieve maximum fitness? (Use decimal notation, not fractions or percentage)
Q.55 The relative abundance of C3 relative to C4 plant species increases with latitude because of the
associated temperature gradient. A study in North America found that at 42 North, C3 plants
become more abundant than C4 plants. Given an increase in mean global temperatures by 10C and
no other changes in environmental conditions, the latitude at which C3 plants become more
abundant:
(A) will move Northwards towards the polar region
(B) will move Southwards towards the equator
(C) will move South of the equator
(D) will not change in response to temperature
EY 11/11

Q.1 The man who is now Municipal Commissioner worked as ____________________.
(A) the security guard at a university
(B) a security guard at the university
(C) a security guard at university
(D) the security guard at the university
Q.2 Nobody knows how the Indian cricket team is going to cope with the difficult and seamer-friendly
wickets in Australia.
Choose the option which is closest in meaning to the underlined phrase in the above sentence.
(A) put up with (B) put in with (C) put down to (D) put up against
Q.3 Find the odd one in the following group of words.
mock, deride, praise, jeer
(A) mock (B) deride (C) praise (D) jeer
Q.4 Pick the odd one from the following options.
(A) CADBE (B) JHKIL (C) XVYWZ (D) ONPMQ
Q.5 In a quadratic function, the value of the product of the roots (, ) is 4. Find the value of
+
+
4 n 2n-1 n-1
(A) n (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 4

Q.6 Among 150 faculty members in an institute, 55 are connected with each other through Facebook
and 85 are connected through WhatsApp. 30 faculty members do not have Facebook or
WhatsApp accounts. The number of faculty members connected only through Facebook accounts
is ______________.
(A) 35 (B) 45 (C) 65 (D) 90
1/3
Q.7 Computers were invented for performing only high-end useful computations. However, it is no
understatement that they have taken over our world today. The internet, for example, is ubiquitous.
Many believe that the internet itself is an unintended consequence of the original invention. With
the advent of mobile computing on our phones, a whole new dimension is now enabled. One is left
wondering if all these developments are good or, more importantly, required.
Which of the statement(s) below is/are logically valid and can be inferred from the above
paragraph?
(i) The author believes that computers are not good for us.
(ii) Mobile computers and the internet are both intended inventions
(A) (i) only (B) (ii) only (C) both (i) and (ii) (D) neither (i) nor (ii)
Q.8 All hill-stations have a lake. Ooty has two lakes.
Which of the statement(s) below is/are logically valid and can be inferred from the above
sentences?
(i) Ooty is not a hill-station.

(ii) No hill-station can have more than one lake.
(A) (i) only (B) (ii) only
(C) both (i) and (ii) (D) neither (i) nor (ii)
Q.9 In a 2 4 rectangle grid shown below, each cell is a rectangle. How many rectangles can be
observed in the grid?
(A) 21 (B) 27 (C) 30 (D) 36
2/3
Q.10
f(x)
Choose the correct expression for f(x) given in the graph.
(A) () = 1 | 1| (B) () = 1 + | 1|
(C) () = 2 | 1| (D) () = 2 + | 1|
3/3
GATE 2016 EE paper Electrical Engineering Set 1 (2nd Stage)

Q.1 The maximum value attained by the function ( ) = ( 1 ) ( 2) in the interval [1, 2] is
_____.
Q.2 Consider a 3 3 matrix with every element being equal to 1. Its only non-zero eigenvalue is ____.
Q.3 The Laplace Transform of ( ) = sin ( 5 ) ( ) is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Q.4 A function ( ) , such that ( 0 ) = 1 and ( 1 ) = 3 , is a solution of the differential equation
+ 2 + = 0 . Then ( 2) is
(A) 5 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 7
Q.5 The value of the integral

2 + 5
( 4 + 5)
over the contour | | = 1 , taken in the anti-clockwise direction, would be
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Q.6
( )
The transfer function of a system is = . The steady state output y(t) is (2 + ) for
( )
the input ( 2 ) . The values of A and , respectively are
(A) , 45 (B) , + 45 (C) 2, 45 (D) 2,+ 45

Q.7
The phase cross-over frequency of the transfer function ( )= in rad/s is
( )
(A) 3 (B)
(C) 3 (D) 3 3

EE 1/15
Q.8 Consider a continuous-time system with input ( ) and output ( ) given by
( ) = ( ) cos( )
This system is
(A) linear and time-invariant
(B) non-linear and time-invariant
(C) linear and time-varying
(D) non-linear and time-varying
Q.9
The value of ( 2 2 ) d , where ( ) is the Dirac delta function, is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Q.10 A temperature in the range of 40 C to 55 C is to be measured with a resolution of 0.1 C. The

minimum number of ADC bits required to get a matching dynamic range of the temperature sensor
is
(A) 8 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 14
Q.11 Consider the following circuit which uses a 2-to-1 multiplexer as shown in the figure below. The
Boolean expression for output F in terms of A and B is
0
Y F
S
1
A
B
(A) A (B) + (C) + (D)
EE 2/15
Q.12 A transistor circuit is given below. The Zener diode breakdown voltage is 5.3 V as shown. Take
base to emitter voltage drop to be 0.6 V. The value of the current gain is _________.
10 V
4.7 k 220
0.5 mA
5.3 V
470
Q.13 In cylindrical coordinate system, the potential produced by a uniform ring charge is given by
= ( , ) , where f is a continuous function of r and z. Let be the resulting electric field. Then
the magnitude of
(A) increases with . (B) is 0. (C) is 3. (D) decreases with .
Q.14 A soft-iron toroid is concentric with a long straight conductor carrying a direct current I. If the
relative permeability r of soft-iron is 100, the ratio of the magnetic flux densities at two adjacent
points located just inside and just outside the toroid, is _______.
Q.15 RA and RB are the input resistances of circuits as shown below. The circuits extend infinitely in the
direction shown. Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
2 2 2
RA
1 1 1
2 2 2
RB
1 1 1 1
(A) RA=RB (B) RA=RB=0 (C) RA< RB (D) RB= RA /(1+RA)
EE 3/15
Q.16 In a constant V/f induction motor drive, the slip at the maximum torque
(A) is directly proportional to the synchronous speed.
(B) remains constant with respect to the synchronous speed.
(C) has an inverse relation with the synchronous speed.
(D) has no relation with the synchronous speed.
Q.17 In the portion of a circuit shown, if the heat generated in 5 resistance is 10 calories per second,
then heat generated by the 4 resistance, in calories per second, is _______.
4 6
Q.18 In the given circuit, the current supplied by the battery, in ampere, is _______.
I1 1 1 I2
1V 1
I2
Q.19 In a 100 bus power system, there are 10 generators. In a particular iteration of Newton Raphson
load flow technique (in polar coordinates), two of the PV buses are converted to PQ type. In this
iteration,
(A) the number of unknown voltage angles increases by two and the number of unknown voltage
magnitudes increases by two.
(B) the number of unknown voltage angles remains unchanged and the number of unknown voltage
magnitudes increases by two.
(C) the number of unknown voltage angles increases by two and the number of unknown voltage
magnitudes decreases by two.
(D) the number of unknown voltage angles remains unchanged and the number of unknown
voltage magnitudes decreases by two.
Q.20 The magnitude of three-phase fault currents at buses A and B of a power system are 10 pu and 8 pu,
respectively. Neglect all resistances in the system and consider the pre-fault system to be unloaded.
The pre-fault voltage at all buses in the system is 1.0 pu. The voltage magnitude at bus B during a
three-phase fault at bus A is 0.8 pu. The voltage magnitude at bus A during a three-phase fault at
bus B, in pu, is ________.
EE 4/15
Q.21 Consider a system consisting of a synchronous generator working at a lagging power factor, a
synchronous motor working at an overexcited condition and a directly grid-connected induction
generator. Consider capacitive VAr to be a source and inductive VAr to be a sink of reactive power.
Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
(A) Synchronous motor and synchronous generator are sources and induction generator is a sink of
reactive power.
(B) Synchronous motor and induction generator are sources and synchronous generator is a sink of
reactive power.
(C) Synchronous motor is a source and induction generator and synchronous generator are sinks of
reactive power.
(D) All are sources of reactive power.
Q.22 A buck converter, as shown in Figure (a) below, is working in steady state. The output voltage and
the inductor current can be assumed to be ripple free. Figure (b) shows the inductor voltage v
during a complete switching interval. Assuming all devices are ideal, the duty cycle of the buck
converter is ________.
vL
M
30V
+ vL - +
+
C R TON TOFF
Vg D Vo
- 0
t
-
20V
TS
(a) (b)
EE 5/15
Q.23 A steady dc current of 100 A is flowing through a power module (S, D) as shown in Figure (a). The
V-I characteristics of the IGBT (S) and the diode (D) are shown in Figures (b) and (c), respectively.
The conduction power loss in the power module (S, D), in watts, is ________.
IS(A) ID (A)
S dV/dI=0.02 V o=0.7V dV/dI=0.01

D
V o=1V
VS(Volt) V D (Volt)
100 A
V-I characteristic of IGBT V-I characteristic of diode
(a) (b) (c)
Q.24 A 4-pole, lap-connected, separately excited dc motor is drawing a steady current of 40 A while
running at 600 rpm. A good approximation for the waveshape of the current in an armature
conductor of the motor is given by
40A
I
10A I
t t
(A) (B)
I 10A
I
10A
T=25ms T=25ms
t
t T=25ms
T=25ms -10A
-10A
(C) (D)
EE 6/15
Q.25 If an ideal transformer has an inductive load element at port 2 as shown in the figure below, the
equivalent inductance at port 1 is
n:1
Port 1 Port 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Q.26 Candidates were asked to come to an interview with 3 pens each. Black, blue, green and red were
the permitted pen colours that the candidate could bring. The probability that a candidate comes
with all 3 pens having the same colour is _____.
Q.27
Let S n
n 0
n
where | | < 1 . The value of in the range 0 < < 1 , such that = 2
is _______.
Q.28 Let the eigenvalues of a 2 x 2 matrix A be 1, -2 with eigenvectors x1 and x2 respectively. Then the
eigenvalues and eigenvectors of the matrix 3 + 4 would, respectively, be
(A) 2, 14; x1, x2 (B) 2, 14; x1+ x2, x1 - x2
(C) 2, 0; x1, x2 (D) 2, 0; x1+ x2, x1- x2
Q.29 Let A be a 4 3 real matrix with rank 2. Which one of the following statement is TRUE?
(A) Rank of is less than 2.
(B) Rank of is equal to 2.
(C) Rank of is greater than 2.
(D) Rank of can be any number between 1 and 3.
EE 7/15
Q.30 Consider the following asymptotic Bode magnitude plot ( is in rad/s).
magnitude (dB)
12 dB
20 dB/dec
- 40 dB/dec
0 dB
8
0.5
Which one of the following transfer functions is best represented by the above Bode magnitude
plot?
(A)
( . )( . )
( . )
(B)
( . )
(C)
( )( )
(D)
( )( )
Q.31 Consider the following state-space representation of a linear time-invariant system.
1 0 1 1
( ) = ( ) , ( ) = ( ) , = and ( 0 ) =
0 2 1 1
The value of ( ) for = log 2 is __________.
Q.32 s3
Loop transfer function of a feedback system is G( s) H ( s) . Take the Nyquist contour in
s ( s 3)
2
the clockwise direction. Then, the Nyquist plot of G ( s ) H ( s ) encircles 1 j 0

(A) once in clockwise direction (B) twice in clockwise direction
(C) once in anticlockwise direction (D) twice in anticlockwise direction
EE 8/15
Q.33 Given the following polynomial equation
+ 5.5 + 8.5 + 3 = 0 ,
the number of roots of the polynomial, which have real parts strictly less than 1, is ________ .
Q.34 Suppose ( ) and ( ) have the Fourier transforms as shown below.
X 1(j) X2(j)
1 1
0.5 0.5
0.3 0.3
1 0 1 2 2 1 0 1
Which one of the following statements is TRUE?

(A) ( ) and ( ) are complex and ( ) ( ) is also complex with nonzero imaginary part
(B) ( ) and ( ) are real and ( ) ( ) is also real
(C) ( ) and ( ) are complex but ( ) ( ) is real
(D) ( ) and ( ) are imaginary but ( ) ( ) is real
Q.35 The output of a continuous-time, linear time-invariant system is denoted by { ( ) } where ( ) is

the input signal. A signal ( ) is called eigen-signal of the system T , when { ( ) } = ( ) ,
where is a complex number, in general, and is called an eigenvalue of T. Suppose the impulse
response of the system T is real and even. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
(A) cos( ) is an eigen-signal but sin( ) is not
(B) cos( ) and sin( ) are both eigen-signals but with different eigenvalues
(C) sin( ) is an eigen-signal but cos( ) is not
(D) cos( ) and si n( ) are both eigen-signals with identical eigenvalues
Q.36 The current state QA QB of a two JK flip-flop system is 00. Assume that the clock rise-time is much
smaller than the delay of the JK flip-flop. The next state of the system is
5V
QA QB
J J
QA
K K
CLK
(A) 00 (B) 01 (C) 11 (D) 10

EE 9/15
Q.37 A 2-bit flash Analog to Digital Converter (ADC) is given below. The input is 0 VIN 3 Volts.
The expression for the LSB of the output B0 as a Boolean function of X2, X1, and X0 is
3V
100
X2
200 B1
Digital
X1 Circuit B0
200
100 X0
VIN
(A) [ ] (B) [ ] (C) [ ] (D) [ ]
Q.38 Two electric charges and 2 are placed at (0,0) and (6,0) on the x-y plane. The equation of the
zero equipotential curve in the x-y plane is
(A) = 2 (B) = 2 (C) + = 2 (D) ( + 2 ) + = 16
Q.39 In the circuit shown, switch S2 has been closed for a long time. At time = 0 switch S1 is closed.
At = 0 , the rate of change of current through the inductor, in amperes per second, is _____.
S1 1 S2
2
3V 1H
3V
Q.40 A three-phase cable is supplying 800 kW and 600 kVAr to an inductive load. It is intended to
supply an additional resistive load of 100 kW through the same cable without increasing the heat
dissipation in the cable, by providing a three-phase bank of capacitors connected in star across the
load. Given the line voltage is 3.3 kV, 50 Hz, the capacitance per phase of the bank, expressed in
microfarads, is ________.
EE 10/15
Q.41 A 30 MVA, 3-phase, 50 Hz, 13.8 kV, star-connected synchronous generator has positive, negative
and zero sequence reactances, 15%, 15% and 5% respectively. A reactance (Xn) is connected
between the neutral of the generator and ground. A double line to ground fault takes place
involving phases b and c, with a fault impedance of j0.1 p.u. The value of Xn (in p.u.) that will
limit the positive sequence generator current to 4270 A is _________.
Q.42 If the star side of the star-delta transformer shown in the figure is excited by a negative sequence
voltage, then
(A) VAB leads Vab by 60

(B) VAB lags Vab by 60
(C) VAB leads Vab by 30
(D) VAB lags Vab by 30
Q.43 A single-phase thyristor-bridge rectifier is fed from a 230 V, 50 Hz, single-phase AC mains. If it is
delivering a constant DC current of 10 A, at firing angle of 30o, then value of the power factor at
AC mains is
(A) 0.87 (B) 0.9 (C) 0.78 (D) 0.45
EE 11/15
Q.44 The switches T1 and T2 in Figure (a) are switched in a complementary fashion with sinusoidal
pulse width modulation technique. The modulating voltage ( ) = 0.8 sin ( 200 ) V and the
triangular carrier voltage ( ) are as shown in Figure (b). The carrier frequency is 5 kHz. The peak
value of the 100 Hz component of the load current (iL), in ampere, is ________ .
+ vc
T1
Vdc/2=250V
iL
1
0.8
t
XL=16 at
100 Hz R=12 T2
+
vm
Vdc/2=250V
(b)
-
(a)
Q.45 The voltage ( ) across and the current ( ) through a semiconductor switch during a turn-ON
transition are shown in figure. The energy dissipated during the turn-ON transition, in mJ, is
_______.
vs 600 V
0
t
50 A
is
100 A
0
t
T1=1s T2=1s
EE 12/15
Q.46 A single-phase 400 V, 50 Hz transformer has an iron loss of 5000 W at the rated condition. When
operated at 200 V, 25 Hz, the iron loss is 2000 W. When operated at 416 V, 52 Hz, the value of the
hysteresis loss divided by the eddy current loss is ______.
Q.47 A DC shunt generator delivers 45 A at a terminal voltage of 220 V. The armature and the shunt
field resistances are 0.01 and 44 respectively. The stray losses are 375 W. The percentage
efficiency of the DC generator is ____________.
Q.48 A three-phase, 50 Hz salient-pole synchronous motor has a per-phase direct-axis reactance (Xd) of
0.8 pu and a per-phase quadrature-axis reactance (Xq) of 0.6 pu. Resistance of the machine is
negligible. It is drawing full-load current at 0.8 pf (leading). When the terminal voltage is 1 pu,
per-phase induced voltage, in pu, is _________.
Q.49 A single-phase, 22 kVA, 2200 V/ 220 V, 50 Hz, distribution transformer is to be connected as an

auto-transformer to get an output voltage of 2420 V. Its maximum kVA rating as an auto-
transformer is
(A) 22 (B) 24.2 (C) 242 (D) 2420
Q.50 A single-phase full-bridge voltage source inverter (VSI) is fed from a 300 V battery. A pulse of
120o duration is used to trigger the appropriate devices in each half-cycle. The rms value of the
fundamental component of the output voltage, in volts, is
(A) 234 (B) 245 (C) 300 (D) 331
Q.51 A single-phase transmission line has two conductors each of 10 mm radius. These are fixed at a
center-to-center distance of 1 m in a horizontal plane. This is now converted to a three-phase
transmission line by introducing a third conductor of the same radius. This conductor is fixed at an
equal distance D from the two single-phase conductors. The three-phase line is fully transposed.
The positive sequence inductance per phase of the three-phase system is to be 5% more than that of
the inductance per conductor of the single-phase system. The distance D, in meters, is _______.
EE 13/15
Q.52 In the circuit shown below, the supply voltage is 10 sin ( 1000 ) volts. The peak value of the steady
state current through the 1 resistor, in amperes, is ______.
4
2F
250F 500mH
1
5
4mH
10sin(1000t)
Q.53 A dc voltage with ripple is given by ( ) = [100 + 10 si n ( ) 5 sin ( 3 ) ] volts.

Measurements of this voltage ( ) , made by moving-coil and moving-iron voltmeters, show
readings of V1 and V2 respectively. The value of V2 V1 , in volts, is _________.
Q.54 The circuit below is excited by a sinusoidal source. The value of R, in , for which the admittance
of the circuit becomes a pure conductance at all frequencies is _____________.
100F R
0.02H R
Q.55 In the circuit shown below, the node voltage VA is ___________ V.
EE 14/15
EE 15/15

Q.1 Which of the following is CORRECT with respect to grammar and usage?
Mount Everest is ____________.

(A) the highest peak in the world
(B) highest peak in the world
(C) one of highest peak in the world
(D) one of the highest peak in the world
Q.2 The policeman asked the victim of a theft, What did you ?
(A) loose (B) lose (C) loss (D) louse
Q.3 Despite the new medicines ______________ in treating diabetes, it is not ______________widely.
(A) effectiveness --- prescribed (B) availability --- used
(C) prescription --- available (D) acceptance --- proscribed
Q.4 In a huge pile of apples and oranges, both ripe and unripe mixed together, 15% are unripe fruits. Of
the unripe fruits, 45% are apples. Of the ripe ones, 66% are oranges. If the pile contains a total of
5692000 fruits, how many of them are apples?
(A) 2029198 (B) 2467482 (C) 2789080 (D) 3577422
Q.5 Michael lives 10 km away from where I live. Ahmed lives 5 km away and Susan lives 7 km away
from where I live. Arun is farther away than Ahmed but closer than Susan from where I live. From
the information provided here, what is one possible distance (in km) at which I live from Aruns
place?
(A) 3.00 (B) 4.99 (C) 6.02 (D) 7.01
Q.6 A person moving through a tuberculosis prone zone has a 50% probability of becoming infected.
However, only 30% of infected people develop the disease. What percentage of people moving
through a tuberculosis prone zone remains infected but does not show symptoms of disease?
(A) 15 (B) 33 (C) 35 (D) 37
1/2
Q.7 In a world filled with uncertainty, he was glad to have many good friends. He had always assisted
them in times of need and was confident that they would reciprocate. However, the events of the
last week proved him wrong.
Which of the following inference(s) is/are logically valid and can be inferred from the above
passage?
(i) His friends were always asking him to help them.
(ii) He felt that when in need of help, his friends would let him down.
(iii) He was sure that his friends would help him when in need.
(iv) His friends did not help him last week.
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (iii) and (iv) (C) (iii) only (D) (iv) only
Q.8 Leela is older than her cousin Pavithra. Pavithras brother Shiva is older than Leela. When Pavithra
and Shiva are visiting Leela, all three like to play chess. Pavithra wins more often than Leela does.
Which one of the following statements must be TRUE based on the above?
(A) When Shiva plays chess with Leela and Pavithra, he often loses.
(B) Leela is the oldest of the three.
(C) Shiva is a better chess player than Pavithra.
(D) Pavithra is the youngest of the three.
1 1 1
If and and
Q.9
= = = , the value of abc is .

(A) ()1 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) r+q+s
Q.10 P, Q, R and S are working on a project. Q can finish the task in 25 days, working alone for 12
hours a day. R can finish the task in 50 days, working alone for 12 hours per day. Q worked 12
hours a day but took sick leave in the beginning for two days. R worked 18 hours a day on all days.
What is the ratio of work done by Q and R after 7 days from the start of the project?
(A) 10:11 (B) 11:10 (C) 20:21 (D) 21:20
2/2
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 1)

Q.1 Let M4 = I, (where I denotes the identity matrix) and M I, M2 I and M3 I. Then, for any
natural number k, M1 equals:
(A) M4k + 1 (B) M4k + 2 (C) M4k + 3 (D) M4k
Q.2 The second moment of a Poisson-distributed random variable is 2. The mean of the random
variable is _______
Q.3 Given the following statements about a function : , select the right option:
P: If f(x) is continuous at = 0 , then it is also differentiable at = 0 .

Q: If f(x) is continuous at = 0 , then it may not be differentiable at = 0 .
R: If f(x) is differentiable at = 0 , then it is also continuous at = 0 .
(A) P is true, Q is false, R is false (B) P is false, Q is true, R is true

(C) P is false, Q is true, R is false (D) P is true, Q is false, R is true
Q.4 Which one of the following is a property of the solutions to the Laplace equation: 2 = 0?
(A) The solutions have neither maxima nor minima anywhere except at the boundaries.
(B) The solutions are not separable in the coordinates.
(C) The solutions are not continuous.
(D) The solutions are not dependent on the boundary conditions.
EC (1) 1/17
Q.5 Consider the plot of () versus as shown below.

Suppose () = 5 (). Which one of the following is a graph of ()?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Q.6 Which one of the following is an eigen function of the class of all continuous-time, linear, time-
invariant systems (() denotes the unit-step function)?
(A) 0 () (B) cos (0 )
(C) 0 (D) sin (0 )
Q.7 A continuous-time function x(t) is periodic with period T. The function is sampled uniformly with
a sampling period . In which one of the following cases is the sampled signal periodic?
(A) = 2 (B) = 1.2
(C) Always (D) Never
Q.8 Consider the sequence [] = [] + [], where [] denotes the unit-step sequence and
0 < || < || < 1. The region of convergence (ROC) of the z-transform of [] is
(A) || > || (B) || > || (C) || < || (D) || < || < ||
EC (1) 2/17
Q.9
Consider a two-port network with the transmission matrix: = . If the network is

reciprocal, then
(A) 1 = (B) 2 =
(C) Determinant (T) = 0 (D) Determinant (T) = 1
Q.10 A continuous-time sinusoid of frequency 33 Hz is multiplied with a periodic Dirac impulse train of
frequency 46 Hz. The resulting signal is passed through an ideal analog low-pass filter with a cutoff
frequency of 23 Hz. The fundamental frequency (in Hz) of the output is _________
Q.11 A small percentage of impurity is added to an intrinsic semiconductor at 300 K. Which one of the
following statements is true for the energy band diagram shown in the following figure?
(A) Intrinsic semiconductor doped with pentavalent atoms to form n-type semiconductor
(B) Intrinsic semiconductor doped with trivalent atoms to form n-type semiconductor
(C) Intrinsic semiconductor doped with pentavalent atoms to form p-type semiconductor
(D) Intrinsic semiconductor doped with trivalent atoms to form p-type semiconductor
Q.12 Consider the following statements for a metal oxide semiconductor field effect transistor
(MOSFET):
P: As channel length reduces, OFF-state current increases.

Q: As channel length reduces, output resistance increases.
R: As channel length reduces, threshold voltage remains constant.
S: As channel length reduces, ON current increases.
Which of the above statements are INCORRECT?

(A) P and Q (B) P and S (C) Q and R (D) R and S
EC (1) 3/17
Q.13 Consider the constant current source shown in the figure below. Let represent the current gain of
the transistor.

Vref

The load current 0 through RL is
+1 +1
(A) 0 =
(B) 0 = +1
(C) 0 =
2 (D) 0 = +1 2
EC (1) 4/17
Q.14 The following signal Vi of peak voltage 8 V is applied to the non-inverting terminal of an ideal
opamp. The transistor has VBE = 0.7 V, =100; VLED = 1.5 V, VCC = 10 V and VCC = 10 V.
The number of times the LED glows is ________
EC (1) 5/17
Q.15 Consider the oscillator circuit shown in the figure. The function of the network (shown in dotted
lines) consisting of the 100 k resistor in series with the two diodes connected back-to-back is to:
(A) introduce amplitude stabilization by preventing the op amp from saturating and thus producing
sinusoidal oscillations of fixed amplitude
(B) introduce amplitude stabilization by forcing the opamp to swing between positive and negative
saturation and thus producing square wave oscillations of fixed amplitude
(C) introduce frequency stabilization by forcing the circuit to oscillate at a single frequency
(D) enable the loop gain to take on a value that produces square wave oscillations
EC (1) 6/17
Q.16 The block diagram of a frequency synthesizer consisting of a Phase Locked Loop (PLL) and a
divide-by- counter (comprising 2 , 4, 8, 16 outputs) is sketched below. The
synthesizer is excited with a 5 kHz signal (Input 1). The free-running frequency of the PLL is set to
20 kHz. Assume that the commutator switch makes contacts repeatedly in the order 1-2-3-4.
The corresponding frequencies synthesized are:

(A) 10 kHz, 20 kHz, 40 kHz, 80 kHz
(B) 20 kHz, 40 kHz, 80 kHz, 160 kHz
(C) 80 kHz, 40 kHz, 20 kHz, 10 kHz
(D) 160 kHz, 80 kHz, 40 kHz, 20 kHz
Q.17 The output of the combinational circuit given below is
(A) A+B+C (B) A(B+C) (C) B(C+A) (D) C(A+B)
EC (1) 7/17
Q.18 What is the voltage Vout in the following circuit?

VDD
(A) 0 V (B) (|VT of PMOS| + VT of NMOS) / 2

(C) Switching threshold of inverter (D) VDD
Q.19 Match the inferences X, Y, and Z, about a system, to the corresponding properties of the elements
of first column in Rouths Table of the system characteristic equation.
X: The system is stable P: when all elements are positive

Y: The system is unstable Q: when any one element is zero
Z: The test breaks down R: when there is a change in sign of coefficients
(A) XP, YQ, ZR (B) XQ, YP, ZR

(C) XR, YQ, ZP (D) XP, YR, ZQ
Q.20 A closed-loop control system is stable if the Nyquist plot of the corresponding open-loop transfer
function
(A) encircles the s-plane point (1 + j0) in the counterclockwise direction as many times as the
number of right-half s-plane poles.
(B) encircles the s-plane point (0 j1) in the clockwise direction as many times as the number of
right-half s-plane poles.
(C) encircles the s-plane point (1 + j0) in the counterclockwise direction as many times as the
number of left-half s-plane poles.
(D) encircles the s-plane point (1 + j0) in the counterclockwise direction as many times as the
number of right-half s-plane zeros.
Q.21 Consider binary data transmission at a rate of 56 kbps using baseband binary pulse amplitude
modulation (PAM) that is designed to have a raised-cosine spectrum. The transmission bandwidth
(in kHz) required for a roll-off factor of 0.25 is ________
EC (1) 8/17
Q.22 A superheterodyne receiver operates in the frequency range of 58 MHz 68 MHz. The
intermediate frequency and local oscillator frequency are chosen such that . It is
required that the image frequencies fall outside the 58 MHz 68 MHz band. The minimum
required (in MHz) is ________
Q.23 The amplitude of a sinusoidal carrier is modulated by a single sinusoid to obtain the amplitude
modulated signal () = 5 cos 1600 + 20 cos 1800 + 5 cos 2000. The value of the
modulation index is __________
Q.24 Concentric spherical shells of radii 2 m, 4 m, and 8 m carry uniform surface charge densities of
20 nC/m2, 4 nC/m2 and s, respectively. The value of s (nC/m2) required to ensure that the
at radius 10 m is _________
= 0
electric flux density
Q.25 The propagation constant of a lossy transmission line is (2 + 5) m1 and its characteristic
impedance is (50 + 0) at = 106 rad s1. The values of the line constants L, C, R, G are,
respectively,
(A) L = 200 H/m, C = 0.1 F/m, R = 50 /m, G = 0.02 S/m
(B) L = 250 H/m, C = 0.1 F/m, R = 100 /m, G = 0.04 S/m
(C) L = 200 H/m, C = 0.2 F/m, R = 100 /m, G = 0.02 S/m
(D) L = 250 H/m, C = 0.2 F/m, R = 50 /m, G = 0.04 S/m

1
Q.26 The integral (
2
+ + 10) , where denotes the disc: 2 + 2 4, evaluates to_____
Q.27 A sequence x[n] is specified as
[] 1 1 1
= , for 2.
[ 1] 1 0 0
The initial conditions are x[0] = 1, x[1] = 1, and x[n] = 0 for n < 0. The value of x[12] is ______
Q.28 In the following integral, the contour C encloses the points 2j and 2j
1

2 ( 2)3
The value of the integral is ________

Q.29 The region specified by {( , , ): 3 5, 8 4 , 3 z 4.5} in cylindrical coordinates
has volume of _______
EC (1) 9/17
Q.30 The Laplace transform of the causal periodic square wave of period T shown in the figure below is
1 1
(A) () = (B) () =
1+ /2
1+ 2
1 1
(C) () = (D) () =
(1 ) 1
Q.31 A network consisting of a finite number of linear resistor (R), inductor (L), and capacitor (C)
elements, connected all in series or all in parallel, is excited with a source of the form
3
cos(0 ) , where 0, 0 0.
=1
The source has nonzero impedance. Which one of the following is a possible form of the output
measured across a resistor in the network?
(A) (B)
3 4
cos(0 + ) , where , cos(0 + ) , where 0,

=1 =1
(C) (D)
3 2
cos(0 + ) cos(0 + )
=1 =1
Q.32 A first-order low-pass filter of time constant T is excited with different input signals (with zero
initial conditions up to t = 0). Match the excitation signals X, Y, Z with the corresponding time
responses for t 0:
X: Impulse P: 1 /
Y: Unit step Q: t T(1 / )
Z: Ramp R: /
(A) XR, YQ, ZP (B) XQ, YP, ZR

(C) XR, YP, ZQ (D) XP, YR, ZQ
EC (1) 10/17
Q.33 An AC voltage source V = 10 sin(t) volts is applied to the following network. Assume that R1 = 3
k, R2 = 6 k and R3 = 9 k, and that the diode is ideal.
Irms
RMS current Irms (in mA) through the diode is ________
Q.34 In the circuit shown in the figure,

the maximum power (in watt) delivered to the resistor R is __________
3 k 10 k
100 v0
5V 2 k v0 40 k R
Q.35 Consider the signal

[] = 6 [ + 2] + 3[ + 1] + 8[] + 7[ 1] + 4[ 2] .
If ( ) is the discrete-time Fourier transform of x[n] ,

1
then sin2(2) is equal to _________
EC (1) 11/17
Q.36 Consider a silicon p-n junction with a uniform acceptor doping concentration of 1017 cm3 on the p-
side and a uniform donor doping concentration of 1016 cm3 on the n-side. No external voltage is
applied to the diode. Given: kT/q = 26 mV, ni =1.5 1010 cm3, Si = 120, 0 = 8.85 1014 F/m,
and q = 1.6 1019 C.
The charge per unit junction area (nC cm2) in the depletion region on the p-side is ___________
Q.37 Consider an n-channel metal oxide semiconductor field effect transistor (MOSFET) with a gate-to-

source voltage of 1.8 V. Assume that = 4, = 70 106 AV 2 , the threshold voltage is
0.3V, and the channel length modulation parameter is 0.09 V1. In the saturation region, the drain
conductance (in micro seimens) is ________
Q.38 The figure below shows the doping distribution in a p-type semiconductor in log scale.
The magnitude of the electric field (in kV/cm) in the semiconductor due to non uniform doping
is _________
Q.39 Consider a silicon sample at T = 300 K, with a uniform donor density = 5 1016 cm3,
illuminated uniformly such that the optical generation rate is = 1.5 1020 cm3 1
throughout the sample. The incident radiation is turned off at = 0. Assume low-level injection to
be valid and ignore surface effects. The carrier lifetimes are 0 = 0.1 s and 0 = 0.5 s.
The hole concentration at = 0 and the hole concentration at = 0.3 s, respectively, are
(A) 1.5 1013 cm3 and 7.47 1011 cm3
(B) 1.5 1013 cm3 and 8.23 1011 cm3
(C) 7.5 1013 cm3 and 3.73 1011 cm3
(D) 7.5 1013 cm3 and 4.12 1011 cm3
EC (1) 12/17
Q.40 An ideal opamp has voltage sources V1, V3, V5, , VN-1 connected to the non-inverting input and V2,
V4, V6, , VN connected to the inverting input as shown in the figure below (+VCC = 15 volt,
VCC = 15 volt). The voltages V1, V2, V3, V4, V5, V6, are 1, 1/2, 1/3, 1/4, 1/5, 1/6, volt,
respectively. As N approaches infinity, the output voltage (in volt) is ___________
Q.41 A p-i-n photodiode of responsivity 0.8A/W is connected to the inverting input of an ideal opamp as
shown in the figure, +Vcc = 15 V, Vcc = 15V, Load resistor RL = 10 k. If 10 W of power is
incident on the photodiode, then the value of the photocurrent (in A) through the load is ________
EC (1) 13/17
Q.42 Identify the circuit below.
(A) Binary to Gray code converter (B) Binary to XS3 converter

(C) Gray to Binary converter (D) XS3 to Binary converter
Q.43 The functionality implemented by the circuit below is
(A) 2-to-1 multiplexer (B) 4-to-1 multiplexer

(C) 7-to-1 multiplexer (D) 6-to-1 multiplexer
EC (1) 14/17
Q.44 In an 8085 system, a PUSH operation requires more clock cycles than a POP operation. Which one
of the following options is the correct reason for this?
(A) For POP, the data transceivers remain in the same direction as for instruction fetch (memory to
processor), whereas for PUSH their direction has to be reversed.
(B) Memory write operations are slower than memory read operations in an 8085 based system.
(C) The stack pointer needs to be pre-decremented before writing registers in a PUSH, whereas a
POP operation uses the address already in the stack pointer.
(D) Order of registers has to be interchanged for a PUSH operation, whereas POP uses their natural
order.
Q.45 The open-loop transfer function of a unity-feedback control system is

() = 2 +5+5
The value of K at the breakaway point of the feedback control systems root-locus plot is ________
Q.46 The open-loop transfer function of a unity-feedback control system is given by

() =
( + 2)
For the peak overshoot of the closed-loop system to a unit step input to be 10%, the value of K is
____________
Q.47 The transfer function of a linear time invariant system is given by
H(s) = 2 4 5 3 + 5 2
The number of zeros in the right half of the s-plane is ________
Q.48 Consider a discrete memoryless source with alphabet = {0 , 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 , } and respective

1 1 1 1 1
probabilities of occurrence P = 2 , 4 , 8 , 16 , 32 , . The entropy of the source (in bits) is _______
Q.49 A digital communication system uses a repetition code for channel encoding/decoding. During
transmission, each bit is repeated three times (0 is transmitted as 000, and 1 is transmitted as 111).
It is assumed that the source puts out symbols independently and with equal probability. The
decoder operates as follows: In a block of three received bits, if the number of zeros exceeds the
number of ones, the decoder decides in favor of a 0, and if the number of ones exceeds the number
of zeros, the decoder decides in favor of a 1. Assuming a binary symmetric channel with
crossover probability p = 0.1, the average probability of error is ________
EC (1) 15/17
Q.50 An analog pulse s(t) is transmitted over an additive white Gaussian noise (AWGN) channel. The
received signal is r(t) = s(t) + n(t), where n(t) is additive white Gaussian noise with power spectral

density 0 . The received signal is passed through a filter with impulse response h(t). Let and
2
denote the energies of the pulse s(t) and the filter h(t), respectively. When the signal-to-noise ratio
(SNR) is maximized at the output of the filter (SNRmax), which of the following holds?
2
(A) = ; SNR max = (B) = ; SNR max =
0 20
2 2
(C) > ; SNR max > (D) < ; SNR max =
0 0
Q.51 The current density in a medium is given by

400
= Am2
2( 2 + 4)
The total current and the average current density flowing through the portion of a spherical surface

r = 0.8 m,
12
, 0 2 are given, respectively, by
4
(A) 15.09 A, 12.86 Am-2 (B) 18.73 A, 13.65 Am-2

(C) 12.86 A, 9.23 Am-2 (D) 10.28 A, 7.56 Am-2
Q.52 An antenna pointing in a certain direction has a noise temperature of 50 K. The ambient
temperature is 290 K. The antenna is connected to a pre-amplifier that has a noise figure of 2 dB
and an available gain of 40 dB over an effective bandwidth of 12 MHz. The effective input noise
temperature Te for the amplifier and the noise power Pao at the output of the preamplifier,
respectively, are
(A) Te = 169.36 K and Pao = 3.7310-10 W (B) Te = 170.8 K and Pao = 4.5610-10 W
(C) Te = 182.5 K and Pao = 3.8510-10 W (D) Te = 160.62 K and Pao = 4.610-10 W
Q.53 Two lossless X-band horn antennas are separated by a distance of 200. The amplitude reflection
coefficients at the terminals of the transmitting and receiving antennas are 0.15 and 0.18,
respectively. The maximum directivities of the transmitting and receiving antennas (over the
isotropic antenna) are 18 dB and 22 dB, respectively. Assuming that the input power in the lossless
transmission line connected to the antenna is 2 W, and that the antennas are perfectly aligned and
polarization matched, the power ( in mW) delivered to the load at the receiver is ________
EC (1) 16/17
Q.54 The electric field of a uniform plane wave travelling along the negative z direction is given by the
following equation:
= + 0
This wave is incident upon a receiving antenna placed at the origin and whose radiated electric field
towards the incident wave is given by the following equation:
1
= + 2

The polarization of the incident wave, the polarization of the antenna and losses due to the
polarization mismatch are, respectively,
(A) Linear, Circular (clockwise), 5dB (B) Circular (clockwise), Linear, 5dB
(C) Circular (clockwise), Linear, 3dB (D) Circular (anti clockwise), Linear, 3dB
Q.55 The far-zone power density radiated by a helical antenna is approximated as:
1
=

4
0 2

The radiated power density is symmetrical with respect to and exists only in the upper

hemisphere: 0 ; 0 2; 0 is a constant. The power radiated by the antenna (in
2
watts) and the maximum directivity of the antenna, respectively, are
(A) 1.5C0 , 10dB (B) 1.256C0 , 10dB (C) 1.256C0 , 12dB (D) 1.5C0 , 12dB
EC (1) 17/17


13, 23, 33, 43, 53

(A) 23 (B) 33 (C) 43 (D) 53
Q.5 If |9y6| =3, then y2 4y/3 is .

(A) 0 (B) +1/3 (C) 1/3 (D) undefined
1/3

____.
2/3
developing country.

(A) 0.2508 (B) 0.2816 (C) 0.2934 (D) 0.6000
3/3
GATE 2016 ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS (COMPULSORY) XE-A
A : ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS (COMPULSORY)

Q.1 A company records heights of all employees. Let X and Y denote the errors in the average height of
male and female employees respectively. Assume that ~ (0, 4) and ~ (0, 9) and they are
independent. Then the distribution of = ( + )/2 is
(A) (0, 6.5) (B) (0, 3.25) (C) (0, 2) (D) (0, 1)
Q.2 The volume of the solid obtained by revolving the curve 2 = , 0 1 around -axis is

(A) (B) 2 (C) (D)
2 5
Q.3
Let () be the solution of the initial value problem + 2 = ; (0) = 0. Find the value of

lim ().
Q.4 Which of the following is a quasi-linear partial differential equation?
2
(A) 2 + 2 = 0
2
(B) + = 0

2 2
(C) = 0

4 3
(D) = 0

Q.5 Let () and () be the polynomials of degree 5, generated by Lagrange and Newton
interpolation methods respectively, both passing through given six distinct points on the -plane.
Which of the following is correct?
(A) () ()
(B) () () is a polynomial of degree 1
(C) () () is a polynomial of degree 2
(D) () () is a polynomial of degree 3
XE-A 1/2
GATE 2016 ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS (COMPULSORY) XE-A
Q.6 The Laurent series of () = 1/( 3 4 ) with center at = 0 in the region || > 1 is
(A)
=0
3
(B)
=0 +4
1 (C)
=0

(D)
=0
1

Q.7 The value of the surface integral
F n dS over the sphere given by 2 + 2 + 2 = 1,

where F = 4x i - z k , and n denotes the outward unit normal, is
(A) (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
Q.8 A diagnostic test for a certain disease is 90% accurate. That is, the probability of a person having
(respectively, not having) the disease tested positive (respectively, negative) is 0.9. Fifty percent of
the population has the disease. What is the probability that a randomly chosen person has the
disease given that the person tested negative?
Q.9 1 1
Let = . Which of the following is correct?
0 1
(A) Rank of is 1 and is not diagonalizable
(B) Rank of is 2 and is diagonalizable
(C) 1 is the only eigenvalue and is not diagonalizable
(D) 1 is the only eigenvalue and is diagonalizable
Q.10 Let () = 2 3 3 2 + 69, 5 5. Find the point at which attains the global
maximum.

Q.11 Calculate F dr F dr , where 1 : () = (, 2 ) and 2 : () = , ,
C1 C2
varying from 0 to

1 and F = xy j .
XE-A 2/2



(i) It rains
(A) 1.43 (B) 2.06 (C) 2.68 (D) 2.88
1/3


B, FH, LNP, _ _ _ _.
any a, is .
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 10
2/3
| | | |
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

3/3
GATE 2016 Geology and Geophysics (GG)
Geology: Common Section
Q.1 The first continental red beds appeared in the ______________ Eon.
(A) Proterozoic (B) Archaean (C) Hadean (D) Phanerozoic
Q.2 Which one of the following is a chronostratigraphic unit?

(A) Eon (B) Period (C) Era (D) System
Q.3 _______________ is a well-sorted sandstone containing up to 75% quartz, with rock fragments in
excess of feldspar.
(A) Arkose (B) Lithic arenite (C) Quartz arenite (D) Feldspathic arenite
Q.4 International Geomagnetic Reference Field (IGRF) is used in processing regional magnetic data
(A) to remove the secular variation of the geomagnetic field.
(B) to remove the diurnal variation of the geomagnetic field.
(C) to remove the latitudinal variation of the geomagnetic field.
(D) to remove the terrain effect.
Q.5 Which one of the following layers of the Earth has the largest volume?
(A) Upper Mantle (B) Lower Mantle
(C) Outer core (D) Inner Core
Q.6 The S-wave shadow zone of the Earth ranges from ___________________.
(A) 103 to 180 (B) 103 to 160 (C) 103 to 153 (D) 103 to 143
Q.7 According to Airys model, gravity anomalies for fully isostatically compensated topography are
characterized by
(A) negative Bouguer anomaly and positive free-air anomaly.
(B) positive Bouguer anomaly and negative free-air anomaly.
(C) zero Bouguer anomaly and negative free-air anomaly.
(D) positive Bouguer anomaly and zero free-air anomaly.
GG 1/17
Q.8 Match the metals (listed in Group I) with the localities of their deposits (listed in Group II).
Group I Group II
P. Iron 1. Boula
Q. Zinc 2. Gadag
R. Gold 3. Bellary
S. Chromium 4. Agucha
(A) P-1; Q-2; R-3; S-4

(B) P-4; Q-3; R-1; S-2
(C) P-3; Q-1; R-2; S-4
(D) P-3; Q-4; R-2; S-1
Q.9 In a region, given the palaeomagnetic inclination ( IR ), the palaeolatitude ( R ) can be calculated
using the formula _____________.
(A) cos IR = sin R
(B) tan IR = tan R
(C) tan IR = 2 tan R
(D) sin IR = 2 cos R
Q.10 Which one of the following parent-daughter systems has the longest half life?
(A) 147Sm 143Nd

(B) K Ar
40 40
(C) Rb 87Sr
87
(D) Os Re
187 187
Q.11 For a soil, Liquidity Index = (Natural Water Content X) / Plasticity Index.
Here, X is ____________ .
(A) Shrinkage Limit (B) Plastic Limit (C) Liquid Limit (D) Activity
Q.12 Match the following features (listed in Group I) with the different agents of erosion (listed in Group
II).
Group I Group II
P. Earth pillar 1. River

Q. Fjord 2. Wind
R. Pot hole 3. Glacier
S. Yardang 4. Rain
(A) P-2; Q-4; R-1; S-3
(B) P-2; Q-3; R-4; S-1
(C) P-4; Q-3; R-1; S-2
(D) P-3; Q-1; R-4; S-2
GG 2/17
Q.13 Match the parameters listed in Group I with the units listed in Group II.
Group I Group II
P. Hydraulic conductivity 1. Newton sec./m2

Q. Permeability 2. m/sec.
R. Viscosity 3. m
S. Hydraulic head 4. m2
(A) P-2; Q-4; R-1; S-3
(B) P-1; Q-2; R-4; S-3
(C) P-2; Q-4; R-3; S-1
(D) P-4; Q-2; R-1; S-3
Q.14 In digital remote sensing, land-water contrast is best identified in the ______wavelength band.
(A) ultraviolet (B) near IR (C) middle IR (D) thermal IR
Q.15 Which one of the following rocks has the highest magnetic susceptibility value?
(A) Quartzite (B) Limestone
(C) Gabbro (D) Shale
Q.16 In which one of the following electromagnetic methods is the rate of change of secondary field
recorded?
(A) Very Low Frequency method
(B) Time-domain EM method
(C) Magnetotelluric method
(D) TURAM method
Q.17 A Wenner array with 60 m spacing between current electrodes is placed over an inhomogeneous
ground. If the measured potential difference and current flow in subsurface are 10 mV and 5 mA,
respectively, the apparent resistivity will be _________ m. (Use = 3.14)
Q.18 Which one of the following geophysical methods is most suitable for the exploration of a
horizontally stratified graphite deposit at a depth of 50 m?
(A) Gravity (B) Magnetic (C) Radiometric (D) Electromagnetic
Q.19 Which one of the following logging techniques is most suitable to detect a shale layer sandwiched
between two sandstone layers?
(A) Neutron-Gamma (B) Gamma-Gamma (C) Natural Gamma (D) Sonic
GG 3/17
Q.20 The following schematic diagram is a plan view of three oceanic plates forming a stable triple
junction on a flat earth. Plate A subducts below Plate C normal to the plate boundary, while the
contact between Plates A and B is a transform fault, as indicated. The boundary between Plates B
and C is a _________.
(A) mid-oceanic ridge

(B) subduction zone
(C) sinistral transform fault
(D) dextral transform fault
Q.21 In Gondwanaland reconstructions, much of the present west coast of India is placed adjacent to
______________.
(A) South America (B) Madagascar
(C) Antarctica (D) Australia
Q.22 Two vertically dipping limbs of a fold have perpendicular strikes. The fold can be classified as
___________ .
(A) an antiformal fold (B) a synformal fold
(C) a vertical fold (D) a recumbent fold
Q.23 Match the crystal forms (listed in Group I) with their corresponding number of faces (listed in
Group II).
Group I Group II
P. Cube 1. Two
Q. Tetrahedron 2. Four
R. Pinacoid 3. Six
S. Dodecahedron 4. Twelve
(A) P-4; Q-2; R-3; S-1
(B) P-3; Q-2; R-1; S-4
(C) P-3; Q-4; R-1; S-2
(D) P-1; Q-3; R-4; S-2
GG 4/17
Q.24 Match the rocks in Group I with their essential mineral assemblages in Group II.
Group I Group II
P. Granodiorite 1. Hornblende-plagioclase
Q. Harzburgite 2. Plagioclase-quartz
R. Gabbro 3. Olivine-orthopyroxene
S. Diorite 4. Clinopyroxene-plagioclase
(A) P-2; Q-3; R-4; S-1

(B) P-3; Q-4; R-1; S-2
(C) P-4; Q-1; R-3; S-2
(D) P-1; Q-3; R-2; S-4
Q.25 Which one of the following mineral assemblages is stable under eclogite facies conditions?
(A) Garnet-orthopyroxene-clinopyroxene-plagioclase
(B) Garnet-clinopyroxene-plagioclase-kyanite
(C) Garnet-orthopyroxene-hornblende-plagioclase
(D) Garnet-clinopyroxene-kyanite-quartz
GG 5/17
Geology (Section-1): Optional Section
Q.26 Select the CORRECT statement from the following options.

(A) Hogback is an isolated tableland with sides that are usually steep.
(B) Crevasses are deposits of glacial origin.
(C) Loess comprises pebbles of rocks or minerals with some plane faces formed by wind abrasion.
(D) Loamy soil is a mixture of sand and clay.
Q.27 Match the following patterns (listed in Group I) with their appropriate Cephalopod sutures (listed in
Group II). Arrow gives the direction of aperture.
Group I Group II
P. 1. Ceratitic
Q. 2. Nautilitic
R. 3. Goniatitic
S. 4. Orthoceratitic
(A) P-2; Q-3; R-4; S-1

(B) P-2; Q-1; R-4; S-3
(C) P-4; Q-3; R-1; S-2
(D) P-3; Q-1; R-4; S-2
Q.28 Match the following test composition (listed in Group I) with the microfossil taxa (listed in Group
II)
Group I Group II
P. Organic-walled 1. Radiolaria
Q. Siliceous 2. Conodont
R. Phosphatic 3. Foraminifera
S. Calcareous 4. Acritarch
(A) P-4; Q-3; R-1; S-2

(B) P-2; Q-1; R-4; S-3
(C) P-4; Q-1; R-2; S-3
(D) P-3; Q-4; R-1; S-2
GG 6/17
Q.29 Which one of the following statements is CORRECT?

(A) Movement of the shoreline seaward is transgression.
(B) No movement of the shoreline is transgression.
(C) Movement of the shoreline seaward as a result of sea-level fall is forced regression.
(D) Movement of the shoreline landward is regression.
Q.30 Mud-supported limestone containing greater than 10% allochems is called _____________.
(A) Packstone
(B) Wackestone
(C) Grainstone
(D) Mudstone
Q.31 At a depth of 500 m, the determined in-situ stresses in a rock mass are as follows: maximum
horizontal stress = 20 MPa, minimum horizontal stress = 8 MPa, vertical stress = 13.5 MPa.
Assume principal stress directions are vertical and horizontal. If this compressive stress field leads
to faulting, the plausible fault would be a
(A) normal fault (B) reverse fault (C) strike-slip fault (D) detachment fault
Q.32 The following figure is a litholog showing various fossils found in the rock-strata. Identify the
biozone (Note: The lines denote partial ranges of the fossils given in the figure).
(A) Assemblage Zone (B) Taxon Range Zone

(C) Consecutive Range Zone (D) Acme Zone
Q.33 Which one of the following stratigraphic successions is in the correct chronological order (from
older to younger)?
(A) Iron Ore Group, Older Metamorphic Group, Kolhan Group
(B) Chitradurga Group, Sargur Group, Bababudan Group
(C) Jharol Group, Alwar Group, Ajabgarh Group
(D) Chitravati Group, Papaghni Group, Kurnool Group
GG 7/17
Q.34 Water content and total porosity of a soil are given as 10% and 25%, respectively. Specific gravity
of soil particles is 2.5. The volume of water that should be added to 100 m3 of this soil for full
saturation is _______________m3.
Q.35 In a zone of superposed folding, poles to bedding show a great circle distribution. For such a case,
the fold axes related to the first generation of folding will
(A) also be distributed along the same great circle girdle.
(B) be distributed on a great circle girdle orthogonal to the bedding plane girdle.
(C) show a cluster around the pole to the bedding plane girdle.
(D) show a small circle distribution around the pole to the bedding plane girdle.
Q.36 For horizontal flow in a saturated aquifer, the product of hydraulic conductivity and thickness is
equal to _____
(A) specific yield. (B) transmissivity.
(C) coefficient of storage. (D) seepage force.
Q.37 If a rectangle is deformed into a parallelogram of equal area by simple shear deformation (with
shear strain) parallel to the abscissa, the displacement matrix is _______________.
0 0 1
(A) (B)
1 0 0
0 1
(C) (D)
1 0 0 1
Q.38 If tangent Youngs modulus (at 50% of the uniaxial compressive strength) and modulus ratio of a
rock are given as 60 GPa and 500, respectively, the uniaxial compressive strength of the rock is
_______________ MPa.
Q.39 In a rock sample, the values of (87Sr/86Sr)present and (87Rb/86Sr)present are 0.7125 and 0.2, respectively.
The decay constant () of 87Rb is 1.42 1011 year1, and time before present (t) is 1000 million
years. The value of the initial ratio (87Sr/86Sr)0 is ________.
Q.40 The G0 of a reaction 2 Fe3O4 + 0.5 O2 = 3 Fe2O3 at 300C and 500 bars is 40.657 kilo calories.
The value of the logarithm of oxygen (log ) at that temperature and pressure is ______________.
GG 8/17
Q.41 Match the types of mineralization in Group-I with their appropriate tectonic settings in Group-II.
(VMS stands for volcanogenic massive sulfide)
Group I Group II
P. Cyprus-type VMS 1. Island Arc

Q. Kuroko-type VMS 2. Continental Arc
R. Porphyry copper 3. Intraplate
S. Diamond in Kimberlite 4. Mid Oceanic Ridge
(A) P-1; Q-2; R-3; S-4

(B) P-4; Q-1; R-2; S-3
(C) P-4; Q-2; R-3; S-1
(D) P-2; Q-1; R-4; S-3
Q.42 Clay minerals and Fe-oxide minerals, products of hydrothermal alteration and supergene oxidation,
are good indicators of mineralization. Choose the CORRECT Thematic Mapper (TM) band ratio
images for detection of these minerals.
(A) band ratio 5/7 for clay and 3/1 for Fe-oxide minerals
(B) band ratio 3/1 for clay and 5/7 for Fe-oxide minerals
(C) band ratio 3/7 for clay and 5/1 for Fe-oxide minerals
(D) band ratio 5/1 for clay and 3/7 for Fe-oxide minerals
Q.43 The age range of reservoir rock in Cambay oil field is

_______________.
(A) 34 15 million years (B) 56 34 million years
(C) 65 56 million years (D) 100 65 million years
Q.44 Which one of the following statements is CORRECT in all respects for the amphibole glaucophane,
Na2Mg3Al2Si8O22(OH)2?
(A) Na is in the M4-site, Al is in octahedral coordination and Si is in tetrahedral coordination.
(B) Na is in the A-site, both Al and Si are in tetrahedral coordination.
(C) Na is in the M4-site, Al is partly in octahedral and partly in tetrahedral coordination, Si is in
tetrahedral coordination.
(D) Na is in the A-site, both Al and Si are in octahedral coordination.
Q.45 Choose the CORRECT modern analog of Besshi type VMS (volcanogenic massive sulfide)
deposits (all these are ocean floor rift zones).
(A) 21N East Pacific Rise (EPR) (B) Guaymas Basin
(C) Lau Basin (D) Trans Atlantic Geotraverse (TAG)
Q.46 Which one of the following options is arranged in the CORRECT increasing order of Vickers
micro-hardness?
(A) galena < chalcopyrite < sphalerite < magnetite
(B) sphalerite < galena < magnetite < chalcopyrite
(C) galena < magnetite < chalcopyrite < sphalerite
(D) sphalerite < magnetite < chalcopyrite < galena
GG 9/17
Q.47 The (18O / 16O) of a quartz sample yields a value of 0.0019. The value of 18O of the quartz sample
is _________. (Use the value of the ratio in VSMOW as 0.002005.)
Q.48 The ionic strength of a solution having 0.5 molal NaCl and 0.25 molal CaCl2 is _________ molal.
Q.49 During which stage of coalification is most of the methane gas generated?
(A) Lignite (B) Peat (C) Bituminous (D) Anthracite
Q.50 The figure shows the liquidus phase relations in the forsterite-anorthite-silica system at 1 bar
pressure. From the options below, identify the CORRECT reaction that takes place at the isobaric
invariant point P.
(A) Liquid (at P) = Forsterite + Anorthite + Enstatite

(B) Liquid (at P) + Forsterite = Anorthite + Enstatite
(C) Liquid (at P) + Forsterite + Anorthite = Enstatite
(D) Liquid (at P) = Forsterite + Anorthite + Silica polymorph
Q.51 A garnet peridotite contains 2400 ppm of nickel. After 20% partial melting, a basaltic melt is
generated, leaving a residue comprising 60% olivine, 30% orthopyroxene and 10% clinopyroxene.
Given the KDNi (olivine) = 10, KDNi (orthopyroxene) = 4 and KDNi (clinopyroxene) = 2, the nickel
concentration in the melt, assuming equilibrium batch melting, is ___________ ppm.
Q.52 Which one of the following mineral assemblages is stable in a pelitic rock in the greenschist facies?
(A) Albite-epidote-actinolite-chlorite-quartz
(B) Muscovite-biotite-garnet-quartz
(C) Tremolite-talc-calcite-quartz
(D) Muscovite-biotite-garnet-sillimanite-quartz
GG 10/17
Q.53 Match the co-existing mineral pairs in Group I with the diagnostic metamorphic conditions they are
associated with in Group II.
Group I Group II
P. Talc-phengite 1. Ultrahigh temperature

Q. Cordierite-andalusite 2. Very low temperature
R. Spinel-quartz 3. Ultrahigh pressure
S. Laumontite-wairakite 4. Low pressure, high temperature
(A) P-2; Q-3; R-1; S-4

(B) P-3; Q-4; R-1; S-2
(C) P-4; Q-1; R-2; S-3
(D) P-3; Q-2; R-4; S-1
Q.54 Out of the following symmetry elements, which one is present in all classes of the cubic system?
(A) Four axes of 3-fold symmetry (B) Three axes of 4-fold symmetry
(C) Six axes of 2-fold symmetry (D) Three mirror planes
Q.55 Match the minerals in Group-I with their optical properties in Group-II.
Group I Group II
P. Calcite 1. Uniaxial negative, low birefringence, high relief

Q. Nepheline 2. Uniaxial negative, high birefringence, moderately high relief
R. Apatite 3. Uniaxial positive, low birefringence, low relief
S. Quartz 4. Uniaxial negative, low birefringence, low relief
(A) P-4; Q-2; R-1; S-3

(B) P-3; Q-2; R-4; S-1
(C) P-2; Q-4; R-1; S-3
(D) P-1; Q-3; R-2; S-4
GG 11/17
Section-2 (Geophysics): Optional Section
Q.26 Depth migration is applied to a stacked seismic section. Compared to the stacked section, dipping
events in the migrated section
(A) have a steeper slope and move updip.
(B) remain unchanged.
(C) have a gentler slope and move downdip.
(D) have a steeper slope and move downdip.
Q.27 A monochromatic elastic wave of frequency 20 Hz propagates in a medium with average velocity 3
km/s. For zero offset reflection from horizontal reflectors, the thickness of the vertical first Fresnel
zone is ________ m.
Q.28 The following figure shows a seismic reflection experiment above a reflector that dips 45. The
P-wave velocity in the medium is constant and equal to 2 km/s. The source is kept at location S
and the receiver is kept at location G. The midpoint between S and G is denoted by M and the
depth to the reflector from M is 1 km. The traveltime of the primary reflected arrival recorded at
the receiver is equal to____ seconds.
Q.29 Given a seismic wavelet w = { 6, 4, 2 } and reflectivity series r = { 0, 1, 0 }, the corresponding

seismic trace is ___________.
(A) { 0, 4, 0, 0, 0 } (B) { 0, 2, 4, 6, 0 } (C) { 0, 6, 0, 0, 0 } (D) { 0, 6, 4, 2, 0 }
GG 12/17
Q.30
The time period of the signal s (t ) = sin( t ) + cos( t ) is ______ seconds.
3 2
Q.31 Assertion (a): The inverse of a minimum phase wavelet is causal and stable.
Reason (r): The Z-transform of a minimum phase wavelet has all its zeros outside the unit circle.
(A) (a) is true but (r) is false
(B) (a) is false but (r) is true
(C) Both (a) and (r) are true and (r) is the correct reason for (a)
(D) Both (a) and (r) are true and (r) is not the correct reason for (a)
Q.32 The value of free-air correction (assuming sea level as datum plane) at an elevation of 150 m is
_________ mGal.
Q.33 A spherical cavity of radius 8 m has its centre 15 m below the surface. If the cavity is full of
sediments of density 1.5103 kg/m3 and is in a rock body of density 2.4103 kg/m3, the maximum
value of its gravity anomaly is __________ mGal.
Q.34 Match the items (listed in Group I) with the corresponding corrections applied for reduction of
marine gravity data (listed in Group II).
Group I Group II
P. Effect of rotating homogeneous ellipsoidal Earth 1.Drift correction

Q. Effect of deficit mass from mean sea level to average depth 2. Latitude correction
to ocean floor
R. Effect of relative motion of ship with respect
to revolving Earth 3. Bouguer correction
S. Effect of elastic creep of gravimeter spring system 4. Eotvos correction
and Earth tides
(A) P-4; Q-3; R-1; S-2
(B) P-2; Q-3; R-4; S-1
(C) P-4; Q-1; R-2; S-3
(D) P-3; Q-1; R-4; S-2
Q.35 Which one of the following Natural Remanent Magnetization (NRM) gives a primary, stable
magnetization for igneous rocks?
(A) Depositional Remanent Magnetization (DRM)
(B) Thermo Remanent Magnetization (TRM)
(C) Chemical Remanent Magnetization (CRM)
(D) Isothermal Remanent Magnetization (IRM)
GG 13/17
Q.36 The following figure shows the total magnetic field intensity anomaly above a spherical body
polarized by the present day geomagnetic field. From among the options below, identify the region
in which such an anomaly could be observed.
(A) Equator (B) Latitude 27o (C) North pole (D) South pole
Q.37 Which one of the following is the ray path for the P-wave that converts to S-wave while passing
through the solid inner core?
(A) PKiKP (B) PKIKP (C) pPcP (D) PKJKP
Q.38 Which one of the following statements is CORRECT for the stress drop () of an earthquake?
(A) Large slip on a small fault will cause more stress drop.
(B) Small slip on a large fault will cause more stress drop.
(C) Stress drop is inversely proportional to the slip of the fault.
(D) Stress is directly proportional to the rupture dimension.
Q.39 The energy released by an earthquake of magnitude 7 is ________ times the energy released by an
earthquake of magnitude 4 (use Kanamoris formula).
Q.40 In resistivity logging using a Normal device, the distance between electrodes A and M is 0.40 m.
If 20 mA current generates 10 mV potential, the apparent resistivity of the layer between the
electrodes is _________ m. (Use = 3.14)
Q.41 A cylindrical sandstone core sample of diameter 0.02 m and length 0.04 m is fully saturated with
brine solution of resistivity 0.5 m. The resistance of the saturated sample measured in the
laboratory is 500 . The formation factor of the sample is __________. (Use = 3.14)
Q.42 A Schlumberger array with current electrode separation 50 m and potential electrode separation 5 m
is placed over an inhomogeneous medium. If the measured potential difference is 50 mV and the
computed apparent resistivity is 100 m, then the magnitude of current passing through the
subsurface is _________ mA. (Use = 3.14)
GG 14/17
Q.43 Two horizontal layers have resistivities and thicknesses of 10 m, 5m and 50 m, 10m,
respectively. If the two layers are reduced to a single layer, then the coefficient of electrical
anisotropy will be ________.
Q.44 The five-layer Schlumberger resistivity sounding curve given below represents ________.
(A) HAQ-type (B) HKQ-type (C) HKH-type (D) HAK-type
Q.45 How are the numerical values of the real and imaginary components of the impedance tensor (Z) in
Magnetotelluric (MT) method related over a homogeneous half-space?
(A) Imaginary component is one third of the real component.
(B) Imaginary component is half of the real component.
(C) Imaginary component is equal to the real component.
(D) Imaginary component is twice that of the real component.
Q.46 The strike of a 2-D geological structure is in Y-direction. From the following options, choose the
field components required to compute the apparent resistivity in E-Polarization mode for plane
wave electromagnetic signals.
(A) Ex and Hx (B) Ex and Hy (C) Ey and Hy (D) Ey and Hx
Q.47 Dip angle electromagnetic methods are suitable to delineate

(A) both vertical and horizontal conductors.
(B) horizontal conductors only.
(C) vertical and dipping conductors.
(D) horizontal and dipping conductors.
Q.48 Which one of the following equations is CORRECT for a time invariant field?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
GG 15/17
Q.49 The solution to the Laplace equation in a spherical coordinate system with spherical
symmetry is _______.
A and B are constants and r is the distance of the observation point from the source.
(A) (B)
(C) ln (D)
Q.50 If J is the Jacobian matrix in a geophysical inverse problem, then the addition of the regularization
parameter, , as ( , in finding the inverse leads to
(A) unstable solution with increased parameter resolution

(B) stable solution with increased parameter resolution
(C) unstable solution with decreased parameters resolution
(D) stable solution with decreased parameter resolution
Q.51 The Singular Value Decomposition of a square nonsingular matrix J is given by . The
inverse of matrix J will be
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Q.52 The fraction of a radioactive nuclide remaining after 10 half-lives is closest to
(A) 0.1 (B) 0.01 (C) 0.001 (D) 0.0001
Q.53 The correct relationship between the residual amount P of the parent radionuclide and amount D of
the daughter product in a radioactive decay is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Q.54 Which one of the following resistivity sounding curves exhibits both Equivalence and
Suppression type ambiguities in interpretation of data?
(A) HA-type (B) AH-type (C) HK-type (D) KH-type
GG 16/17
Q.55 For land seismic data acquisition, the following figure is a schematic plot of arrival times of seismic
waves recorded at several detectors placed along the x-axis. The shot is placed at the origin (x=0).
Match the events labeled in the figure (listed in Group I) with their corresponding types (listed in
Group II)
Group I Group II
P. E1 1. Ground roll
Q.E2 2. Direct arrival
R.E3 3. Refracted energy
S. E4 4. Primary reflection
(A) P-3; Q-1; R-2; S-4

(B) P-2; Q-3; R-4; S-1
(C) P-1; Q-4; R-3; S-2
(D) P-4; Q-2; R-1; S-3
GG 17/17

(A) 324 (B) 441 (C) 97 (D) 64
(A) 2.0 (B) 10.0 (C) 12.0 (D) 22.0
1/3
ptitude - GA Set-44
Q. 6 Q. 10 carry tw
wo marks each.
s with
(A)) 0 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
y the World
on in the num
w rabies.

w.

b vaccinatin

r worldw
wide.
Q.8 A flat
n Sravan. Who
the flat?

(A)) 14.95 (B) 15.25 (C) 15.70 (D) 20.35
2/33
(A) 0.030 (B) 0.014 (C) 0.014 (D) 0.030
3/3
GATE 2016 Instrumentation Engineering - IN

Q.1 A straight line of the form y = mx + c passes through the origin and the point (x, y) = (2, 6). The
value of m is ________ .
Q.2 lim
n

n 2 + n n 2 + 1 is __________________.
Q.3 A voltage V1 is measured 100 times and its average and standard deviation are 100 V and 1.5 V
respectively. A second voltage V2, which is independent of V1, is measured 200 times and its
average and standard deviation are 150 V and 2 V respectively. V3 is computed as: V3 = V1 + V2.
Then the standard deviation of V3 in volt is ____.
Q.4 The vector that is NOT perpendicular to the vectors (i + j + k) and (i + 2j + 3k) is ______.
(A) (i 2j + k) (B) (i + 2j k) (C) (0i + 0j + 0k) (D) (4i +3 j + 5k)
Q.5 In the neighborhood of z = 1, the function f(z) has a power series expansion of the form
() = 1 + (1 ) + (1 )2 +
Then f(z) is
1 1 z 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
z z2 z +1 2z 1
Q.6 Three currents i1, i2 and i3 meet at a node as shown in the figure below. If i1 = 3 cos(t) ampere,
i2 = 4 sin(t) ampere and i3 = I3 cos(t + ) ampere, the value of I3 in ampere is __________.
Q.7 An air cored coil has a Q of 5 at a frequency of 100 kHz. The Q of the coil at 20 kHz (neglecting
skin effect) will be ________.
Q.8 A current i(t) shown in the figure below is passed through a 1 F capacitor that had zero initial
charge. The voltage across the capacitor for t > 2 s in volt is _________
IN 1/12
Q.9 The signal x[n] shown in the figure below is convolved with itself to get y[n]. The value of y[1]
is ________ .
Q.10 In the circuit shown below (v1 + v2) = [1 sin(210000t) + 1 sin(230000t)] V. The RMS value of
the current through the resistor R will be minimum if the value of the capacitor C in microfarad is
______.
( s + 2)
Q.11 If X (s ) , the Laplace transform of signal x(t ) is given by X ( s ) = , then the value
( s + 1)( s + 3) 2
of x(t ) as t is ______.
s 1
Q.12 The number of times the Nyquist plot of G ( s ) = will encircle the origin clockwise is ______.
s +1
Q.13 The value of a0 which will ensure that the polynomial s3 + 3s2 + 2s + a0 has roots on the left half of
the s-plane is
(A) 11 (B) 9 (C) 7 (D) 5
8
Q.14 =
The input i (t ) 2sin(3t + ) is applied to a system whose transfer function G ( s ) = .
s + 10
2
The amplitude of the output of the system is______.
Q.15 The diode D used in the circuit below is ideal. The voltage drop Vab across the 1 k resistor in volt
is _________.
IN 2/12
Q.16 In the circuit given below, the opamp is ideal. The output voltage VO in volt is ____.
Q.17 In the circuit given below, the diodes D1 and D2 have a forward voltage drop of 0.6 V. The opamp
used is ideal. The magnitude of the negative peak value of the output VO in volt is ________.
Q.18 The Boolean expression XY + ( X+ Y )Z is equivalent to

(A) XYZ + XYZ (B) XYZ + XYZ
(C) ( X + Z )( Y+Z ) (D) ( X + Z )( Y + Z )
Q.19 In the digital circuit given below, F is
(A) XY + YZ (B) XY + YZ
(C) XY + YZ (D) XZ + Y
Q.20 A 3 digit DMM has an accuracy specification of 1 % of full scale (accuracy class 1). A reading
of 100.0 mA is obtained on its 200 mA full scale range. The worst case error in the reading in
milliampere is ______ .
IN 3/12
Q.21 A dc potentiometer, shown in figure below, is made by connecting fifteen 10 resistors and a 10
slide wire of length 1000 mm in series. The potentiometer is standardized with the current
Ip = 10.0000 mA. Balance for an unknown voltage is obtained when the dial is in position 11
(11 numbers of the fixed 10 resistor are included) and the slide wire is on the 234th mm position.
The unknown voltage (up to four decimal places) in volt is _______.
Q.22 In the circuit given below, each input terminal of the opamp draws a bias current of 10 nA.
The effect due to these input bias currents on the output voltage VO will be zero, if the
value of R chosen in kilo-ohm is _______.
Q.23 A peizo-electric type pressure sensor has a sensitivity of 1 mV/kPa and a bandwidth of 300 Hz to
300 kHz. For a constant (dc) pressure of 100 kPa, the steady state output of the sensor in mllivolt is
______.
Q.24 The signal m(t) = cos(mt) is SSB (single side-band) modulated with a carrier cos(ct) to get s(t).
The signal obtained by passing s(t) through an ideal envelope detector is
(A) cos(mt) (B) sin(mt)
(C) cos(mt) + sin(mt) (D) 1
IN 4/12
t 3
Q.25 Let s (t ) = rect be a signal passed through an AWGN (additive white Gaussian noise)
3
N
channel with noise power spectral density (PSD) 0 to get v(t ) . If v(t ) is passed through a
2
matched-filter that is matched to s (t ), then output signal-to noise ratio (SNR) of the matched-filter
is
1 2 3 4
(A) (B) (C) (D)
N0 N0 N0 N0
Let f : [ 1, 1] , where f ( x) = 2 x x 10. The minimum value of f ( x) is______.

3 4
Q.26
Q.27 An urn contains 5 red and 7 green balls. A ball is drawn at random and its colour is noted. The
ball is placed back into the urn along with another ball of the same colour. The probability of
getting a red ball in the next draw is
65 67 79 89
(A) (B) (C) (D)
156 156 156 156
2 1 1

Q.28 Consider the matrix A = 2
3 4 whose eigenvalues are 1, 1 and 3. Then Trace of
1 1 2

A 3 A is _______.
3 2
Q.29 The relationship between the force f(t) and the displacement x(t) of a spring-mass system (with a
mass M, viscous damping D and spring constant K) is
d 2 x (t ) d x (t )
M 2
+D + Kx (t ) =
f (t ) .
dt dt
X(s) and F(s) are the Laplace transforms of x(t) and f(t) respectively. With M = 0.1, D = 2, K =10
X ( s)
in appropriate units, the transfer function G ( s ) = is
F ( s)
10 10s 2 s
(A) (B) s 2 + 20 s + 100 (C) (D)
s + 20s + 100
2
s 2 + 20s + 100 s + 20s + 100
2
1 z2 + 1
2 j C z 2 1
Q.30 The value of the integral dz where z is a complex number and C is a unit circle with
center at 1 + 0 j in the complex plane is_____________.
IN 5/12
Q.31 The current IX in the circuit given below in milliampere is __________.
Q.32 In the circuit shown below, V=

S 1010 V , R = 10 and L= 100 . The current IS is in phase
with VS. The magnitude of I S in milliampere is _________.
Q.33 A symmetrical three-phase three-wire RYB system is connected to a balanced delta-connected load.
The RMS values of the line current and line-to-line voltage are 10 A and 400 V respectively. The
power in the system is measured using the two wattmeter method. The first wattmeter connected
between R-line and Y-line reads zero. The reading of the second wattmeter (connected between B-
line and Y-line) in watt is ______.
Q.34 In the strain gauge bridge circuit given below, R1 = R3 = R (1 x) and R2 = R4 = R (1 + x), where
R is 350 . The voltage sources vs and vn represent the dc excitation and the undesired
noise/interference, respectively. The value of capacitor C in microfarad that is required to ensure
that the output across a and b is low-pass filtered with a cutoff frequency of 150 Hz is ________.
IN 6/12
Q.35 The voltage v(t ) shown below is applied to the given circuit. v(t ) = 3 V for t < 0 and v(t ) = 6 V
for t > 0. The value of current i (t ) at t = 1 s, in ampere is _____ .
Q.36 For the periodic signal x(t ) shown below with period T = 8 s, the power in the 10th harmonic is
2
1 4
2 2
1 2 1 4
(A) 0 (B) (C) (D)
2 10 2 10 2 5
301
Q.37 The fundamental period N 0 of the discrete-time sinusoid x[n] = sin n is _______.
4
Q.38 The transfer function G(s) of a system which has the asymptotic Bode plot shown below is
4 s 1
2
4 s + 1
2
(C) 10 4 s + 1 4 s 1
2
(A) 10 (B) 10 (D) 10

s + 100
2
s + 100 s + 100 s 100
2 2 2
IN 7/12
1
Q.39 For the feedback system given below, the transfer function G ( s ) = . The system CANNOT
( s + 1) 2
be stabilized with
3 7
(A) C ( s ) = 1 + (B) C ( s )= 3 +
s s
9 1
(C) C ( s )= 3 + (D) C ( s ) =
s s
Q.40 Match the unit-step responses (1), (2) and (3) with the transfer functions P(s), Q(s) and R(s), given
below.
1
P(s) =
s + 1
2 s 1
Q(s) =
s + 10 ( s + 2)
1
R(s) =
s + 1
2
(A) P(s) (3), Q(s) (2), R(s) (1) (B) P(s) (1), Q(s) (2), R(s) (3)
(C) P(s) (2), Q(s) (1), R(s) (3) (D) P(s) (1), Q(s) (3), R(s) (2)
Q.41 An ideal opamp is used to realize a difference amplifier circuit given below having a gain of 10. If
x = 0.025, the CMRR of the circuit in dB is _______.
IN 8/12
Q.42 In the circuit given below, the opamp is ideal. The input vx is a sinusoid. To ensure vy = vx, the
value of CN in picofarad is _____.
Q.43 In the circuit given below, the opamp is ideal. The value of current IL in microampere is ______.
Q.44 A 4 to 1 multiplexer to realize a Boolean function F (X, Y, Z) is shown in the figure below. The
inputs Y and Z are connected to the selectors of the MUX (Y is more significant). The canonical
sum-of-product expression for F ( X, Y, Z ) is
(A) m ( 2, 3, 4, 7 ) (B) m ( 1, 3, 5, 7)
(C) m ( 0, 2, 4, 6 ) (D) m (2, 3, 5, 6 )
IN 9/12
Q.45 A synchronous counter using two J - K flip flops that goes through the sequence of states:
Q1 Q2 = 00 10 01 11 00 is required. To achieve this, the inputs to the flip flops are
(A) J1 = Q2, K1 = 0 ; J2 = Q1, K2 = Q1 (B) J1 = 1, K1 = 1 ; J2 = Q1 , K2 = Q1

(C) J1 = Q2, K1 = Q2 ; J2 = 1 , K2 = 1 (D) J1 = Q2, K1 = Q2 ; J2 = Q1 , K2 = Q1
Q.46 A 1 Kbyte memory module has to be interfaced with an 8-bit microprocessor that has 16 address
lines. The address lines A0 to A9 of the processor are connected to the corresponding address lines
of the memory module. The active low chip select CS of the memory module is connected to the y5
output of a 3 to 8 decoder with active low outputs. S0, S1, and S2 are the input lines to the decoder,
with S2 as the MSB. The decoder has one active low EN1 and one active high EN 2 enable lines as
shown below. The address range(s) that gets mapped onto this memory module is (are)
(A) 3000H to 33FFH and E000H to E3FFH (B) 1400H to 17FFH

(C) 5300H to 53FFH and A300 H to A3FFH (D) 5800H to 5BFFH and D800 H to DBFFH
Q.47 A coil is tested with a series type Q-meter. Resonance at a particular frequency is obtained with a
capacitance of 110 pF. When the frequency is doubled, the capacitance required for resonance is
20 pF. The distributed capacitance of the coil in pico farad is ______.
IN 10/12
Q.48 The comparators (output = 1, when input 0 and output =0, when input < 0), exclusive-OR gate
and the unity gain low-pass filter given in the circuit are ideal. The logic output voltages of the
exclusive-OR gate are 0 V and 5 V. The cutoff frequency of the low-pass filter is 0.1 Hz. For
V1 = 1 sin (3000t + 36o) V and V2 = 1 sin (3000t) V, the value of VO in volt is ______.
Q.49 A 200 mV full scale dual-slope 3 digit DMM has a reference voltage of 100 mV and a first
integration time of 100 ms. For an input of [100 + 10 Cos(100t)] mV, the conversion time
(without taking the auto-zero phase time into consideration) in millisecond is ______.
Q.50 In the circuit below, the opamp is ideal and the sensor is an RTD whose resistance
R = 1000 (1 + 0.004 ) , where is temperature in C. The output sensitivity in mV/C is ___.
Q.51 The photo diode in the figure below has an active sensing area of 10 mm2, a sensitivity of 0.5 A/W
and a dark current of 1 A. The i-to-v converter has a sensitivity of 100 mV/A. For an input light
intensity of 4 W/m2, the output VO in volt is ____.
IN 11/12
Q.52 The velocity of flow of water (density 1000 kg/m3) in a horizontal pipe is measured using the
PITOT tube shown below. The fluid in the U-tube manometer is mercury with a density of
13534 kg/m3. Assume g = 9.81 m/s2. If the height difference (h) is measured as 94.1 mm, the
velocity of flow of water in m/s is ______.
Q.53 The bandgap in eV of a semiconductor material required to construct an LED that emits peak power
at the wavelength of 620 nm is ______.
(Plank constant h = 4.1356710-15 eV s and speed of light c = 2.998108 m/s).
sin(100 t )
Q.54 The signal m(t ) = is frequency modulated (FM) with an FM modulator of frequency
100 t
deviation constant of 30 kHz/V. Using Carsons rule, the approximate bandwidth of the modulated
wave in kilohertz is ________.
Q.55 A signal m(t) varies from 3.5 V to +3.5 V with an average power of 3 W . The signal is
quantized using a midtread type quantizer and subsequently binary encoded. With the codeword of
length 3, the signal to quantization noise ratio in dB is _______.
IN 12/12


13, 23, 33, 43, 53

(A) 23 (B) 33 (C) 43 (D) 53
Q.5 If |9y6| =3, then y2 4y/3 is .

(A) 0 (B) +1/3 (C) 1/3 (D) undefined
1/3

____.
2/3
developing country.

(A) 0.2508 (B) 0.2816 (C) 0.2934 (D) 0.6000
3/3
GATE 2016 CHEMISTRY (COMPULSORY) XL-H
H : CHEMISTRY ( COMPULSORY)

Q.1 The species having shortest BF bond distance is
(A) BF3 (B) [BF4] (C) H3NBF3 (D) (CH3)2OBF3
Q.2 The total number of chair conformations possible for 1,2-dimethylcyclohexane is _____.
Q.3 A harmful substance persists in the environment for a very long period of time. The
UNACCEPTABLE statement for this fact is
(A) the substance degrades by second-order kinetics
(B) the substance degrades by first-order kinetics
(C) the substance is not biodegradable
(D) the substance has long half-life
Q.4 For an enzyme catalyzed reaction, the plot that correctly represents the relationship between the
rate and temperature is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
XL-H 1/3
Q.5 Combinations of a process and equation are given below. The INCORRECT combination is
(A) Constant pressure heating with no phase change; =

(B) Reversible adiabatic process in a perfect gas; =
(C) Reversible isothermal process in a perfect gas; =
(D) Constant volume heating with no phase change; =
Q.6 The correct comparison of pKa s of [Fe(H2O)6]2+, [Fe(H2O)6]3+, V2O5 and N2O5 is
(A) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ < [Fe(H2O)6]2+ and V2O5 < N2O5
(B) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ < [Fe(H2O)6]2+ and V2O5 = N2O5
(C) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ = [Fe(H2O)6]3+ and N2O5 < V2O5
(D) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ < [Fe(H2O)6]2+ and N2O5 < V2O5
Q.7 Given: The potential energy of two electrons separated by Bohr radius is 27.211 eV. The first Bohr
radius of hydrogen is 0.5292 . The electron makes an orbit of radius 0.5295 around the nucleus
in hydrogen.
The calculated ionization energy (eV) of hydrogen atom is __________.
Q.8 The crystal field stabilization energy (excluding pairing energy, if any) of [CoCl4] 2 in o units
is _________.
Q.9 The correct statement is

(A) TlBr3 is less soluble in water than TlBr
(B) Ag2S is more soluble in water than Ag2O
(C) LiF is less stable than CsF
(D) [Co(NH3)5I]2+ is less stable than [Co(NH3)5F]2+
Q.10 Ferrous sulfate on reaction with potassium hexacyanochromate(III) produces a brick red complex.
The number of unpaired electrons on Fe in the red complex is _________.
XL-H 2/3
Q.11 The major product formed in the following reaction is (ignore product stereochemistry)
COOH I2, NaHCO3
I I
(A)
O (B)
O
O O
COONa+
O
(C) O (D) I
I I
Q.12 When 1.0 g of urea (Molecular Weight = 60) is dissolved in 200 g of solvent S, the freezing point
of S is lowered by 0.25 C. When 1.5 g of a non-electrolyte Y is dissolved in 125 g of S, the
freezing point of S is lowered by 0.20 C. The molecular weight of Y is ___________.
Q.13 The major product formed in the following reaction is
(i) B2H6, diglyme

CH3
(ii) H2O2, HO
CH3 CH3
(A) (B)
OH O
CH3 OH
(C) (D)
CH3
OH
Q.14 For a weak acid at 298 K the molar conductivities (in ohm1 m2 mol1), at infinite dilution and 0.04
mol dm3 are 4.3 103 and 1.0 103, respectively. The degree of dissociation of the acid (0.04
mol dm3) at 298 K is ________.
Q.15 For propene at 298 K, the molar enthalpy of hydrogenation is 124.27 kJ mol1 and the standard
enthalpy of formation is 20.42 kJ mol1. For propane at 298 K, the standard enthalpy of formation
in kJ mol1 is______________.

XL-H 3/3

(A) 324 (B) 441 (C) 97 (D) 64
(A) 2.0 (B) 10.0 (C) 12.0 (D) 22.0
1/3
ptitude - GA Set-44
Q. 6 Q. 10 carry tw
wo marks each.
s with
(A)) 0 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
y the World
on in the num
w rabies.

w.

b vaccinatin

r worldw
wide.
Q.8 A flat
n Sravan. Who
the flat?

(A)) 14.95 (B) 15.25 (C) 15.70 (D) 20.35
2/33
(A) 0.030 (B) 0.014 (C) 0.014 (D) 0.030
3/3
GATE 2016 Mathematics - MA
List of Symbols, Notations and Data

i.i.d. : independent and identically distributed
, Normal distribution with mean and variance , , ,
Expected value mean of the random variable

: the greatest integer less than or equal to

Set of integers
Set of integers modulo n
Set of real numbers
Set of complex numbers
n dimensional Euclidean space
/
Usual metric d on is given by , ,, , , ,,
Normed linear space of all squaresummable real sequences
, Set of all real valued continuous functions on the interval ,
, , :

Conjugate transpose of the matrix M
Transpose of the matrix M
Id : )dentity matrix of appropriate order
Range space of M
Null space of M
: Orthogonal complement of the subspace W

MA 1/16

Q. Let , , be a basis of . Consider the following statements P and Q:
P : , , is a basis of .
Q : , , is a basis of .
Which of the above statements hold TRUE?
A both P and Q B only P
C only Q D Neither P nor Q

Q. Consider the following statements P and Q:
P : )f , then M is singular .

Q : Let S be a diagonalizable matrix. )f T is a matrix such that S + 5 T = Id, then T is
diagonalizable.




P : )f M is an complex matrix, then .
Q : There exists a unitary matrix with an eigenvalue such that || < .



MA 2/16
Q. Consider a real vector space V of dimension n and a nonzero linear transformation

. )f dimension and , for some \ , then
which of the following statements is TRUE?
A determinant | |
B There exists a nontrivial subspace of V such that for all
C T is invertible
D is the only eigenvalue of T

Q.5 Let , , and be a strictly increasing function such that
is connected. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A has exactly one discontinuity

B has exactly two discontinuities
C has infinitely many discontinuities
D is continuous

Q. Let and , . Then,
lim

is equal to _____________________

Q. Maximum , , is equal to _________________

Q. Let , , , such that . Then, the Cauchy problem
, , ,

, on
has a unique solution if
A B
C D

MA 3/16
Q. Let , be the d'Alembert's solution of the initial value problem for the wave
equation

, , , ,
where c is a positive real number and , are smooth odd functions. Then, , is
equal to ___________

Q. Let the probability density function of a random variable X be

otherwise.
Then, the value of c is equal to ________________________

Q. Let V be the set of all solutions of the equation satisfying
, where , are positive real numbers. Then, dimension V is equal to
_____________________

Q. Let , , , where and are
continuous functions. )f and
are two linearly independent solutions of the above equation, then
| | is equal to ____________________

Q. Let be the Legendre polynomial of degree and , where k
is a nonnegative integer. Consider the following statements P and Q:
P : if .
Q : if is an odd integer.



MA 4/16
P : has two linearly independent Frobenius series
solutions near .
Q : has two linearly independent Frobenius series
solutions near .



Q. 5 Let the polynomial be approximated by a polynomial of degree , which
interpolates at , and . Then, the maximum absolute interpolation error
over the interval , is equal to ______________________

Q. Let be a sequence of distinct points in , | | with
lim . Consider the following statements P and Q:

P : There exists a unique analytic function f on , such that for
all n.
Q : There exists an analytic function f on , such that if n is even
and if n is odd.



Q. Let , be a topological space with the cofinite topology. Every infinite subset of
is
A Compact but NOT connected

B Both compact and connected
C NOT compact but connected
D Neither compact nor connected

MA 5/16
Q. Let , and .
Then, dimension is equal to _______________________

Q. Consider , , where , maximum | |, | | . Let be
defined by , and the norm preserving linear extension of to
, . Then, , , is equal to __________________________________

Q. , , is called a shrinking map if | | | | for all
, , and a contraction if there exists an such that
| | | | for all , , .
Which of the following statements is TRUE for the function ?
A is both a shrinking map and a contraction

B is a shrinking map but NOT a contraction
C is NOT a shrinking map but a contraction
D is Neither a shrinking map nor a contraction

Q. Let be the set of all real matrices with the usual norm topology. Consider the
following statements P and Q:
P : The set of all symmetric positive definite matrices in is connected.
Q : The set of all invertible matrices in is compact.



MA 6/16
Q. Let , , ,, be a random sample from the following probability density

function for , ,
;
; ,
otherwise.
(ere and are unknown parameters. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A Maximum likelihood estimator of only exists

B Maximum likelihood estimator of only exists
C Maximum likelihood estimators of both and exist
D Maximum likelihood estimator of Neither nor exists

Q. Suppose X and Y are two random variables such that is a normal random
variable for all , . Consider the following statements P, Q, R and S:
P : X is a standard normal random variable.
Q : The conditional distribution of X given Y is normal.
R : The conditional distribution of X given is normal.
S : has mean .

Which of the above statements ALWAYS hold TRUE?
A both P and Q B both Q and R

C both Q and S D both P and S

P : )f is a normal subgroup of order of the symmetric group , then is
abelian.
Q : )f , , , is the quaternion group, then , is abelian.


Q. 5 Let be a field of order . Then the number of nonzero solutions , of
the equation is equal to _______________________________

MA 7/16

Q. Let | | be oriented in the counterclockwise direction. Let
Then, the value of is equal to __________________________

Q. Let , be a harmonic function and , its
harmonic conjugate. )f , , then | , | is equal to _______________

Q. Let be the triangular path connecting the points , , , and , in the counter
clockwise direction in . Then
is equal to _____________________

Q. Let y be the solution of
| |,

.
Then is equal to
A B
C D

Q. Let X be a random variable with the following cumulative distribution function:

.
Then is equal to ___________________
MA 8/16
Q. Let be the curve which passes through , and intersects each curve of the family
orthogonally. Then also passes through the point
A , B ,
C , D ,

Q. Let be the Fourier series of the
periodic function defined by , . Then

is equal to __________________________

Q. Let be a continuous function on , . )f
then is equal to ________________________

Q. Let and . Then, is equal to
A ln B ln
C ln D ln

Q. 5 For any , \ , , let
, distance , , ,

in imum , , .
Then, || , || is equal to ____________________

Q.
Let and . Then is
equal to _______________________________________
MA 9/16
Q.
Let be a real matrix with eigenvalues , and . )f the eigenvectors
corresponding to and are , , and , , respectively, then the value of

is equal to _________________

Q.
Let and . )f , then
! !
is equal to ________________________

Q. Let the integral , where
.
Consider the following statements P and Q:
P : )f is the value of the integral obtained by the composite trapezoidal rule with
two equal subintervals, then is exact.
Q : )f is the value of the integral obtained by the composite trapezoidal rule with
three equal subintervals, then is exact.



Q. The difference between the least two eigenvalues of the boundary value problem
,

, ,
is equal to ______________________________

Q. The number of roots of the equation cos in the interval , is equal
to ______________
MA 10/16
Q. For the fixed point iteration , , , , , consider the following

statements P and Q:
P : )f then the fixed point iteration converges to for all , .
Q : )f then the fixed point iteration converges to for

all , .



Q. Let be defined by
, ,, , , ,, , .
Then
A
B but bounded
C
D is unbounded

Q. Minimize subject to

, .
Then, the minimum value of is equal to _________________________

Q. 5 Maximize subject to

, , .
Then, the maximum value of is equal to _________________________
MA 11/16
Q. Let , , , be a sequence of i.i.d. random variables with mean . )f N is a

geometric random variable with the probability mass function ;
, , , and it is independent of the 's, then is equal to

_____________________

Q. Let be an exponential random variable with mean and a gamma random
variable with mean and variance . )f and are independently distributed, then
is equal to _________________________

Q. Let , , , be a sequence of i.i.d. uniform , random variables. Then, the value
of
lim ln ln

is equal to ____________________

Q. Let X be a standard normal random variable. Then, | | is equal to

A B

C
D

Q.5 Let , , ,, be a random sample from the probability density function

;

otherwise,
where , are parameters. Consider the following testing problem:
: , versus : , .

Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A Uniformly Most Powerful test does NOT exist

B Uniformly Most Powerful test is of the form , for some
C Uniformly Most Powerful test is of the form , for some
D Uniformly Most Powerful test is of the form , for
some

MA 12/16
Q.5 Let , , , be a sequence of i.i.d. , random variables. Then,

lim | |

is equal to _____________________________

Q.5 Let , , ,, be a random sample from uniform , , for some . )f
Maximum , , ,, , then the UMVUE of is

A B
C D

Q.5 Let , be a random sample from a Poisson random
variable with mean , where , . Then, the maximum likelihood estimator of
is equal to ____________________

Q.5 The remainder when ! is divided by is equal to ____________________________

Q.55 Let be a group whose presentation is
, | , .
Then is isomorphic to
A B
C D
MA 13/16
MA 14/16
MA 15/16
MA 16/16

Q.1 Which of the following is CORRECT with respect to grammar and usage?
Mount Everest is ____________.

(A) the highest peak in the world
(B) highest peak in the world
(C) one of highest peak in the world
(D) one of the highest peak in the world
Q.2 The policeman asked the victim of a theft, What did you ?
(A) loose (B) lose (C) loss (D) louse
Q.3 Despite the new medicines ______________ in treating diabetes, it is not ______________widely.
(A) effectiveness --- prescribed (B) availability --- used
(C) prescription --- available (D) acceptance --- proscribed
Q.4 In a huge pile of apples and oranges, both ripe and unripe mixed together, 15% are unripe fruits. Of
the unripe fruits, 45% are apples. Of the ripe ones, 66% are oranges. If the pile contains a total of
5692000 fruits, how many of them are apples?
(A) 2029198 (B) 2467482 (C) 2789080 (D) 3577422
Q.5 Michael lives 10 km away from where I live. Ahmed lives 5 km away and Susan lives 7 km away
from where I live. Arun is farther away than Ahmed but closer than Susan from where I live. From
the information provided here, what is one possible distance (in km) at which I live from Aruns
place?
(A) 3.00 (B) 4.99 (C) 6.02 (D) 7.01
Q.6 A person moving through a tuberculosis prone zone has a 50% probability of becoming infected.
However, only 30% of infected people develop the disease. What percentage of people moving
through a tuberculosis prone zone remains infected but does not show symptoms of disease?
(A) 15 (B) 33 (C) 35 (D) 37
1/2
Q.7 In a world filled with uncertainty, he was glad to have many good friends. He had always assisted
them in times of need and was confident that they would reciprocate. However, the events of the
last week proved him wrong.
Which of the following inference(s) is/are logically valid and can be inferred from the above
passage?
(i) His friends were always asking him to help them.
(ii) He felt that when in need of help, his friends would let him down.
(iii) He was sure that his friends would help him when in need.
(iv) His friends did not help him last week.
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (iii) and (iv) (C) (iii) only (D) (iv) only
Q.8 Leela is older than her cousin Pavithra. Pavithras brother Shiva is older than Leela. When Pavithra
and Shiva are visiting Leela, all three like to play chess. Pavithra wins more often than Leela does.
Which one of the following statements must be TRUE based on the above?
(A) When Shiva plays chess with Leela and Pavithra, he often loses.
(B) Leela is the oldest of the three.
(C) Shiva is a better chess player than Pavithra.
(D) Pavithra is the youngest of the three.
1 1 1
If and and
Q.9
= = = , the value of abc is .

(A) ()1 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) r+q+s
Q.10 P, Q, R and S are working on a project. Q can finish the task in 25 days, working alone for 12
hours a day. R can finish the task in 50 days, working alone for 12 hours per day. Q worked 12
hours a day but took sick leave in the beginning for two days. R worked 18 hours a day on all days.
What is the ratio of work done by Q and R after 7 days from the start of the project?
(A) 10:11 (B) 11:10 (C) 20:21 (D) 21:20
2/2
GATE 2016 SET-1 Mechanical Engineering (ME)

Q.1 The solution to the system of equations
2 5 2
=
4 3 30
is
(A) 6, 2 (B) 6, 2 (C) 6, 2 (D) 6, 2
Q.2 If is a function defined for all t 0, its Laplace transform F(s) is defined as

(A) 0
d (B) 0
d

(C) 0
d (D) 0
d
Q.3 = , + , is an analytic function of complex variable = + where

= 1. If , =2 , then , may be expressed as
(A) 2 + 2 + constant (B) 2 2 + constant
(C) 2 + 2 + constant (D) 2 + 2 + constant
Q.4 Consider a Poisson distribution for the tossing of a biased coin. The mean for this distribution is .
The standard deviation for this distribution is given by
(A) (B) 2 (C) (D) 1/
Q.5 Solve the equation = 10 cos( ) using the Newton-Raphson method. The initial guess is
= /4. The value of the predicted root after the first iteration, up to second decimal, is ________
Q.6 A rigid ball of weight 100 N is suspended with the help of a string. The ball is pulled by a
horizontal force F such that the string makes an angle of 30 with the vertical. The magnitude of
force F (in N) is __________
30
100 N
ME (Set-1) 1/11
Q.7 A point mass M is released from rest and slides down a spherical bowl (of radius R) from a height
H as shown in the figure below. The surface of the bowl is smooth (no friction). The velocity of the
mass at the bottom of the bowl is
M
R
(A) (B) 2 (C) 2 (D) 0
Q.8 The cross sections of two hollow bars made of the same material are concentric circles as shown in
the figure. It is given that 3 > 1 and 4 > 2 , and that the areas of the cross-sections are the same.
J1 and J2 are the torsional rigidities of the bars on the left and right, respectively. The ratio J2/J1 is
(A) > 1 (B) < 0.5 (C) =1 (D) between 0.5 and 1
Q.9 A cantilever beam having square cross-section of side a is subjected to an end load. If a is increased
by 19%, the tip deflection decreases approximately by
(A) 19% (B) 29% (C) 41% (D) 50%
Q.10 A car is moving on a curved horizontal road of radius 100 m with a speed of 20 m/s. The rotating
masses of the engine have an angular speed of 100 rad/s in clockwise direction when viewed from
the front of the car. The combined moment of inertia of the rotating masses is 10 kg-m2. The
magnitude of the gyroscopic moment (in N-m) is __________
Q.11 A single degree of freedom spring mass system with viscous damping has a spring constant of
10 kN/m. The system is excited by a sinusoidal force of amplitude 100 N. If the damping factor
(ratio) is 0.25, the amplitude of steady state oscillation at resonance is ________mm.
Q.12 The spring constant of a helical compression spring DOES NOT depend on
(A) coil diameter
(B) material strength
(C) number of active turns
(D) wire diameter
ME (Set-1) 2/11
Q.13 The instantaneous stream-wise velocity of a turbulent flow is given as follows:

u( x, y, z, t ) u ( x, y, z) u( x, y, z, t )
The time-average of the fluctuating velocity u ( x, y, z, t ) is
(A) /2 (B) /2 (C) zero (D) /2
Q.14 For a floating body, buoyant force acts at the

(A) centroid of the floating body
(B) center of gravity of the body
(C) centroid of the fluid vertically below the body
(D) centroid of the displaced fluid
Q.15 A plastic sleeve of outer radius r0 = 1 mm covers a wire (radius r = 0.5 mm) carrying electric
current. Thermal conductivity of the plastic is 0.15 W/m-K. The heat transfer coefficient on the
outer surface of the sleeve exposed to air is 25 W/m2-K. Due to the addition of the plastic cover, the
heat transfer from the wire to the ambient will
(A) increase
(B) remain the same
(C) decrease
(D) be zero
Q.16 Which of the following statements are TRUE with respect to heat and work?
(i) They are boundary phenomena
(ii) They are exact differentials
(iii) They are path functions
(A) both (i) and (ii) (B) both (i) and (iii) (C) both (ii) and (iii) (D) only (iii)
Q.17 Propane (C3H8) is burned in an oxygen atmosphere with 10% deficit oxygen with respect to the
stoichiometric requirement. Assuming no hydrocarbons in the products, the volume percentage of
CO in the products is __________
Q.18 Consider two hydraulic turbines having identical specific speed and effective head at the inlet. If
the speed ratio (N1/N2) of the two turbines is 2, then the respective power ratio (P1/P2)
is _____________
Q.19 The INCORRECT statement about regeneration in vapor power cycle is that
(A) it increases the irreversibility by adding the liquid with higher energy content to the steam
generator
(B) heat is exchanged between the expanding fluid in the turbine and the compressed fluid before
heat addition
(C) the principle is similar to the principle of Stirling gas cycle
(D) it is practically implemented by providing feed water heaters
ME (Set-1) 3/11
Q.20 The Jominy test is used to find

(A) Youngs modulus (B) hardenability
(C) yield strength (D) thermal conductivity
Q.21 Under optimal conditions of the process the temperatures experienced by a copper work piece in
fusion welding, brazing and soldering are such that
(A) Twelding > Tsoldering> Tbrazing (B) Tsoldering > Twelding > Tbrazing
(C) Tbrazing >Twelding > Tsoldering (D) Twelding > Tbrazing > Tsoldering
Q.22 The part of a gating system which regulates the rate of pouring of molten metal is
(A) pouring basin (B) runner (C) choke (D) ingate
Q.23 The non-traditional machining process that essentially requires vacuum is

(A) electron beam machining (B) electro chemical machining
(C) electro chemical discharge machining (D) electro discharge machining
Q.24 In an orthogonal cutting process the tool used has rake angle of zero degree. The measured cutting
force and thrust force are 500 N and 250 N, respectively. The coefficient of friction between the
tool and the chip is _________
Q.25 Match the following:

P. Feeler gauge I. Radius of an object
Q. Fillet gauge II. Diameter within limits by comparison
R. Snap gauge III. Clearance or gap between components
S. Cylindrical plug gauge IV. Inside diameter of straight hole
(A) PIII, QI, RII, SIV (B) PIII, QII, RI, SIV
(C) PIV, QII, RI, SIII (D) PIV, QI, RII, SIII
Q.26 Consider the function = 2 3

3 2
in the domain [1, 2]. The global minimum of ( )
is ____________

Q.27 If = ( ) satisfies the boundary value problem + 9 = 0, 0 = 0, /2 = 2, then
/4 is ________
ME (Set-1) 4/11

sin
2
d
+2 +2

evaluated using contour integration and the residue theorem is
(A) sin(1)/e (B) cos(1)/e (C) sin(1)/e (D) cos(1)/e
Q.29 Gauss-Seidel method is used to solve the following equations (as per the given order):
1 +2 2 +3 3 = 5
2 1+3 2+ 3 =1
3 1+2 2+ 3 =3
Assuming initial guess as 1 = 2 = 3 = 0, the value of 3 after the first iteration is __________
Q.30 A block of mass m rests on an inclined plane and is attached by a string to the wall as shown in the
figure. The coefficient of static friction between the plane and the block is 0.25. The string can
withstand a maximum force of 20 N. The maximum value of the mass (m) for which the string will
not break and the block will be in static equilibrium is ____________ kg.
Take cosand sin
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s2
Q.31 A two-member truss PQR is supporting a load W. The axial forces in members PQ and QR are
respectively
L
P Q
30
60
W
R
(A) 2 tensile and 3 compressive

(B) 3 tensile and 2 compressive
(C) 3 compressive and 2 tensile
(D) 2 compressive and 3 tensile
ME (Set-1) 5/11
Q.32 A horizontal bar with a constant cross-section is subjected to loading as shown in the figure. The
Youngs moduli for the sections AB and BC are 3E and E, respectively.
For the deflection at C to be zero, the ratio P/F is ____________
Q.33 The figure shows cross-section of a beam subjected to bending. The area moment of inertia
(in mm4) of this cross-section about its base is __________
10
R4 R4
8 All dimensions are in mm
10
10
Q.34 A simply-supported beam of length 3L is subjected to the loading shown in the figure.
P P
L L L
A
It is given that P = 1 N, L = 1 m and Youngs modulus E = 200 GPa. The cross-section is a square
with dimension 10 mm 10 mm. The bending stress (in Pa) at the point A located at the top surface
of the beam at a distance of 1.5L from the left end is _____________
(Indicate compressive stress by a negative sign and tensile stress by a positive sign.)
Q.35 A slider crank mechanism with crank radius 200 mm and connecting rod length 800 mm is shown.
The crank is rotating at 600 rpm in the counterclockwise direction. In the configuration shown, the
crank makes an angle of 90 with the sliding direction of the slider, and a force of 5 kN is acting on
the slider. Neglecting the inertia forces, the turning moment on the crank (in kN-m) is __________
800 mm
200 mm 90
5 kN
ME (Set-1) 6/11
Q.36 In the gear train shown, gear 3 is carried on arm 5. Gear 3 meshes with gear 2 and gear 4. The
number of teeth on gear 2, 3, and 4 are 60, 20, and 100, respectively. If gear 2 is fixed and gear 4
rotates with an angular velocity of 100 rpm in the counterclockwise direction, the angular speed of
arm 5 (in rpm) is
4
2
3
5
(A) 166.7 counterclockwise (B) 166.7 clockwise

(C) 62.5 counterclockwise (D) 62.5 clockwise
Q.37 A solid disc with radius a is connected to a spring at a point d above the center of the disc. The
other end of the spring is fixed to the vertical wall. The disc is free to roll without slipping on the
ground. The mass of the disc is M and the spring constant is K. The polar moment of inertia for the
disc about its centre is J = 2 /2.
M, J
K
d
a
The natural frequency of this system in rad/s is given by

2 ( + )2 2 2 ( + )2 ( + )2
(A) (B) 3
(C) (D)
3 2 2 2
Q.38 The principal stresses at a point inside a solid object are 1 = 100 MPa, 2 = 100 MPa and 3 = 0
MPa. The yield strength of the material is 200 MPa. The factor of safety calculated using Tresca
(maximum shear stress) theory is nT and the factor of safety calculated using von Mises (maximum
distortional energy) theory is nV. Which one of the following relations is TRUE?
(A) nT = ( 3/2)nV
(B) nT = ( 3)nV
(C) nT = nV
(D) nV = ( 3)nT
ME (Set-1) 7/11
Q.39 An inverted U-tube manometer is used to measure the pressure difference between two pipes A and
B, as shown in the figure. Pipe A is carrying oil (specific gravity = 0.8) and pipe B is carrying
water. The densities of air and water are 1.16 kg/m3 and 1000 kg/m3, respectively. The pressure
difference between pipes A and B is __________kPa.
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s2.
Q.40 Oil (kinematic viscosity, = 1.0 105 m2/s) flows through a pipe of 0.5 m diameter with a
velocity of 10 m/s. Water (kinematic viscosity, = 0.89 106 m2/s) is flowing through a model
pipe of diameter 20 mm. For satisfying the dynamic similarity, the velocity of water (in m/s)
is __________
Q.41 A steady laminar boundary layer is formed over a flat plate as shown in the figure. The free stream
velocity of the fluid is Uo.. The velocity profile at the inlet a-b is uniform, while that at a
2
downstream location c-d is given by = 2

.
y

b d Uo
Uo
a c
The ratio of the mass flow rate, , leaving through the horizontal section b-d to that entering
through the vertical section a-b is ___________
Q.42 A steel ball of 10 mm diameter at 1000 K is required to be cooled to 350 K by immersing it in a

water environment at 300 K. The convective heat transfer coefficient is 1000 W/m2-K. Thermal
conductivity of steel is 40 W/m-K. The time constant for the cooling process is 16 s. The time
required (in s) to reach the final temperature is __________
ME (Set-1) 8/11
Q.43 An infinitely long furnace of 0.5 m 0. 4 m cross-section is shown in the figure below. Consider
all surfaces of the furnace to be black. The top and bottom walls are maintained at temperature
T1 = T3 = 927 oC while the side walls are at temperature T2 = T4 = 527 oC. The view factor, F1-2 is
0.26. The net radiation heat loss or gain on side 1 is_________ W/m.
Stefan-Boltzmann constant = 5.67 108 W/m2-K4
Q.44 A fluid (Prandtl number, Pr = 1) at 500 K flows over a flat plate of 1.5 m length, maintained at
300 K. The velocity of the fluid is 10 m/s. Assuming kinematic viscosity, = 30 106 m2/s, the
thermal boundary layer thickness (in mm) at 0.5 m from the leading edge is __________
Q.45 For water at 25 C, d s /d s = 0.189 kPa/K ( s is the saturation pressure in kPa and s is the
saturation temperature in K) and the specific volume of dry saturated vapour is 43.38 m3/kg.
Assume that the specific volume of liquid is negligible in comparison with that of vapour. Using
the Clausius-Clapeyron equation, an estimate of the enthalpy of evaporation of water at 25 C
(in kJ/kg) is __________
Q.46 An ideal gas undergoes a reversible process in which the pressure varies linearly with volume. The
conditions at the start (subscript 1) and at the end (subscript 2) of the process with usual notation
are: 1 = 100 kPa, 1 = 0.2 m3 and 3
2 = 200 kPa, 2 = 0.1 m and the gas constant,
R = 0.275 kJ/kg-K. The magnitude of the work required for the process (in kJ) is ________
Q.47 In a steam power plant operating on an ideal Rankine cycle, superheated steam enters the turbine at
3 MPa and 350 oC. The condenser pressure is 75 kPa. The thermal efficiency of the cycle is
________ percent.
Given data:
For saturated liquid, at P = 75 kPa, h f 384.39 kJ/kg, v f 0.001037 m3/kg, sf = 1.213 kJ/kg-K
At 75 kPa, hfg = 2278.6 kJ/kg, sfg = 6.2434 kJ/kg-K
At P = 3 MPa and T = 350 oC (superheated steam), h 3115.3 kJ/kg, s 6.7428 kJ/kg-K
ME (Set-1) 9/11
Q.48 A hypothetical engineering stress-strain curve shown in the figure has three straight lines PQ, QR,
RS with coordinates P(0,0), Q(0.2,100), R(0.6,140) and S(0.8,130). 'Q' is the yield point, 'R' is the
UTS point and 'S' the fracture point.
160 (0.6, 140)
Engg. Stress (MPa)

140 (0.8, 130)
120 R
(0.2, 100) S
100
80
Q
60
40
20 P
(0, 0)
0
0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 1
Engg. Strain (%)
The toughness of the material (in MJ/m3) is __________
Q.49 Heat is removed from a molten metal of mass 2 kg at a constant rate of 10 kW till it is completely
solidified. The cooling curve is shown in the figure.
1100
Temperature (K)
(0s, 1023K)
1000
900 (20s, 873K)
(10s, 873K)
800
700
600 (30s, 600K)
500
0 10 20 30 40
Time (s)
Assuming uniform temperature throughout the volume of the metal during solidification, the latent
heat of fusion of the metal (in kJ/kg) is __________
Q.50 0.14 0.7 0.4

The tool life equation for HSS tool is = Constant. The tool life (T) of 30 min is
obtained using the following cutting conditions:
V = 45 m/min, f = 0.35 mm, d = 2.0 mm
If speed (V), feed (f) and depth of cut (d) are increased individually by 25%, the tool life (in min) is
(A) 0.15 (B) 1.06 (C) 22. 50 (D) 30.0
Q.51 A cylindrical job with diameter of 200 mm and height of 100 mm is to be cast using modulus
method of riser design. Assume that the bottom surface of cylindrical riser does not contribute as
cooling surface. If the diameter of the riser is equal to its height, then the height of the riser (in mm)
is
(A) 150 (B) 200 (C) 100 (D) 125
Q.52 A 300 mm thick slab is being cold rolled using roll of 600 mm diameter. If the coefficient of
friction is 0.08, the maximum possible reduction (in mm) is __________
ME (Set-1) 10/11
Q.53 The figure below represents a triangle PQR with initial coordinates of the vertices as P(1,3),
Q(4,5) and R(5,3.5). The triangle is rotated in the X-Y plane about the vertex P by angle in
clockwise direction. If sin = 0.6 and cos = 0.8, the new coordinates of the vertex Q are
(A) (4.6, 2.8) (B) (3.2, 4.6) (C) (7.9, 5.5) (D) (5.5, 7.9)
Q.54 The annual demand for an item is 10,000 units. The unit cost is Rs. 100 and inventory carrying
charges are 14.4% of the unit cost per annum. The cost of one procurement is Rs. 2000. The time
between two consecutive orders to meet the above demand is _______ month(s).
Q.55 Maximize Z=15X1 + 20X2

subject to
12X1 + 4X2 36
12X1 6X2 24
X1, X2 0
The above linear programming problem has
(A) infeasible solution (B) unbounded solution
(C) alternative optimum solutions (D) degenerate solution
ME (Set-1) 11/11

sentence.
_________ ___________ is a will, _________ is a way.
(A) 39 (B) 57 (C) 66 (D) 93
1/3
P Q
10
9.5
9 9
8 8 8 8
7.5
7
6.5 6.5
6
2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006
(A) 2:3
(B) 3:4
(C) 6:7
(D) 4:3
2/3


2 2 2 2
(A) x (B) 0.75 x (C) 0.50 x (D) 0.25 x
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
3/3
GATE 2016 MT
Useful Data:
Gas constant (R) 8.314 J.mol-1K-1
Acceleration due to gravity (g) 9.81 m2.s-1
Atomic weight of oxygen 16 g.mol-1
Atomic weight of silicon 28 g.mol-1
Atomic weight of iron 56 g.mol-1
Q.1 For the transformation shown below, if one of the eigenvalues is 6, the other eigenvalue of
the matrix is ______
Q.2 The solution of the differential equation
is
(A) C (B) C
(C) (D)
[where, C, C1 and C2 are constants]
Q.3 If , the divergence of is

(A)
(B)
(C) 5
(D) 0
Q.4 The first law of thermodynamics can be stated as

(A) dE = Q W
(B) dQ = dE W
(C) W = dQ + dE
(D) dW = Q E
[where, E, Q and W denote internal energy, heat and work, respectively]
Q.5 In a typical Ellingham diagram for the oxides, the C + O2 = CO2 line is nearly horizontal
because
(A) The slope of the line is equal to the enthalpy change at standard state, which is
approximately zero in this case
(B) The slope of the line is equal to the entropy change at standard state, which is
approximately zero in this case
(C) CO2 shows non-ideal behaviour
(D) CO2 is a gaseous oxide
MT 1/12
GATE 2016 MT
Q.6 Activation energy of a chemical reaction, homogeneous or heterogeneous, is graphically

estimated from a plot between
(A) k versus T (B) 1/k versus T
(C) 1/k versus ln T (D) ln k versus 1/T
[where, k is the rate constant and T is the absolute temperature]
Q.7 The passive film in stainless steel forms above the

(A) Primary passive potential
(B) Breakdown potential
(C) Trans-passive potential
(D) Pitting potential
Q.8 During the roasting of a sulfide ore of a metal M, the possible solid phases are M, MS, MO
and MSO4. Assuming that both SO2 and O2 are always present in the roaster, the solid
phases that can co-exist at thermodynamic equilibrium are
(A) M, MS, MO, MSO4
(B) M, MO, MSO4
(C) MS, MO, MSO4
(D) M, MSO4
Q.9 Match the entities in Column I with the corresponding processes in Column II.
Column I Column II
[P] Xanthate salts [1] Extraction of Al
[Q] Thiobacillus Ferrooxidans [2] Flotation
[R] Hydrocyclone [3] Classification
[S] Anode effect [4] Bacterial Leaching
(A) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1
(B) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
(D) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
Q.10 A sub-lance is used to monitor composition and temperature in

(A) BOF (B) Ladle refining furnace
(C) Continuous casting mould (D) Blast furnace
Q.11 The chemical formula of wstite is

(A) FeS2
(B) Fe2O3
(C) Fe3O4
(D) Fe1-xO
Q.12 The lattice parameter of face-centered cubic iron (-Fe) is 0.3571 nm. The radius (in nm) of
the octahedral void in -Fe is ___________
MT 2/12
GATE 2016 MT
Q.13 For an ideal hexagonal-closed packed structure, the c/a ratio and packing efficiency
respectively are
(A) 1.633 and 52% (B) 1.633 and 74%
(C) 1.733 and 68% (D) 1.733 and 74%
Q.14 A schematic of X-ray diffraction pattern of a single phase cubic polycrystal is given below.
The miller indices of peak A is
110
Intensity(a.u.)
211
200 A
(A) 210 (B) 220

(C) 222 (D) 310
Q.15 Which of the following cooling curves (shown in schematic) in an eutectoid steel will
produce 50% bainitic structure?
Austenite
Ac1
Pearlite
Temperature
Bainite
Ms
S R Q P
Martensite
time
(A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) S
MT 3/12
GATE 2016 MT
Q.16 The Burgers vector of a dislocation in a cubic crystal (with lattice parameter a) is
and dislocation line is along [112] direction. The angle (in degrees) between the dislocation
line and its Burgers vector is_______
Q.17 For the tensile stress-strain curve of a material shown in the schematic, the resilience (in
MPa) is _________
200
180
160
Stress,MPa 510
140
120
100
360
80
60
40
20
0
0.010.01
0.00 0.02 0.03 0.04 0.05 0.1
0.06
Strain
Q.18 A plastically deformed metal crystal at low temperature exhibits wavy slip line pattern due
to
(A) Dislocation pile-up
(B) Large number of slip systems
(C) Low stacking fault energy
(D) Dislocation climb
Q.19 Creep resistance decreases due to

(A) Small grain size
(B) Fine dispersoid size
(C) Low stacking fault energy
(D) High melting point
Q.20 The operation NOT associated with casting is

(A) Gating (B) Fettling
(C) Stack Moulding (D) Calendaring
MT 4/12
GATE 2016 MT
Q.21 Of the following welding processes
[P] Laser Beam Welding

[Q] Submerged Arc Welding
[R] Metal Inert Gas Welding
the width of the heat-affected zone in decreasing order is

(A) P > Q > R (B) Q > R > P
(C) R > P > Q (D) P > R > Q
Q.22 Railway tracks are typically manufactured using

(A) Forging (B) Extrusion
(C) Deep Drawing (D) Rolling
Q.23 For dye-penetrant test, identify the CORRECT statement

(A) Pre- and post-cleaning of parts are not required
(B) Internal defects can be detected
(C) Surface oxides helps in crack identification
(D) Dye with low contact angle is required
Q.24 Aluminium powder having an apparent density of 810 kg.m-3 is compacted in a cylindrical
die at 600 MPa. The density of the as-pressed aluminium compact is 1755 kg.m-3. If the
height of the as-pressed compact is 12 mm, the fill height (in mm) required is
___________
Q.25 A rolling mill has a roll diameter of 200 mm. If coefficient of friction is 0.1, then the
maximum possible reduction (in mm) during rolling of a 250 mm thick plate is
___________
Q.26 A hot body cools according to the following equation
where, T is the instantaneous temperature at time t, and the constant c = 0.05 s-1. Reduce
the differential equation into its finite difference form using forward difference. For
maintaining numerical stability, the maximum value of the time step t (in seconds) is
________
Q.27 Solve the equation e using Newton-Raphson method. Starting with an initial guess
value x0 = 0, the value of x after the first iteration is ____________
Q.28 A coin is tossed three times. It is known that out of the three tosses, one is a HEAD. The
probability of the other two tosses also being HEADs is _____________
MT 5/12
GATE 2016 MT
Q.29 The vector parallel to the plane 3x 2y + z = 1 is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) 3
/2
x sinx dx = __________
0
Q.31 The grain sizes (in m) measured at five locations in an alloy sample are: 16, 14, 18, 15
and 13. The mean, median and standard deviation of grain sizes respectively are (in m)
(A) 15.2, 15 and 1.7
(B) 15.2, 15 and 1.9
(C) 15.8, 15 and 1.9
(D) 15.2, 16 and 1.7
Q.32 The change of standard state from pure liquid to 1 wt.% for Si dissolved in liquid Fe at
1873 K is expressed as
Si (liq.) = Si (1 wt.%)
Given that the activity coefficient of Si at infinite dilution in Fe is 10-3, the standard Gibbs
free energy change (in kJ) for this equilibrium is_____________
Q.33 The following experimental data are available for a hypothetical binary liquid system A-B
at 1073 K
Atom fraction of A 0.2 0.4 0.5 0.7 1.0

Partial pressure of A (bar) 0.01 0.04 0.06 0.07 0.08
When the atom fraction of A is 0.4, the activity of A in the liquid is ______________
MT 6/12
GATE 2016 MT
Q.34 The lining of a box-type furnace is made up of a refractory layer and steel plate as shown in
the figure. Steady state temperature at the surface of the refractory is 1273 K and that at the
outer steel surface is 473 K. If the steady-state heat flux through the refractory-steel plate
composite is 1600 W.m-2, and heat flow is along x-direction, the thermal contact resistance
(W-1.m2.K) between refractory and steel is _____________
refractory
steel plate
1273 K 473 K
Furnace Ambient
x
Given data:
Thermal conductivity of refractory = 1.2 W.m-1K-1
Thickness of refractory lining = 80 mm
Thermal conductivity of steel = 32 W.m-1K-1
Thickness of steel plate = 4 mm
Q.35 The height of a liquid metal column in a cylindrical vessel is 3.2 m. At time t=0, liquid
metal is drained out from the vessel through a small nozzle located at the base of the vessel.
Neglecting frictional losses, the initial mass flow rate (in kg.s-1) through the
nozzle is ________________
Given data:
Density of liquid metal = 7000 kg.m-3
Nozzle diameter = 30 mm
Nozzle discharge coefficient = 0.80
Q.36 Match entities listed in Column I with their correct dimensions given in Column II:
Column I Column II
[P] Drag coefficient [1] ML-1T-1
[Q] Mass transfer coefficient [2] ML-2T-1
[R] Viscosity [3] M0 L0T0
[S] Mass flux [4] M0LT-1
(A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (B) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
(C) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3 (D) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
Q.37 Direct Reduced Iron (DRI) produced from a gas based process contains Fe, FeO, C and
remainder being gangue. The chemical composition of DRI is: Total Fe = 92 wt.% and
Metallic Fe = 84 wt.%. The weight percent of FeO in DRI is _________________
MT 7/12
GATE 2016 MT
Q.38 Mould heat flux (qm) for billet casters is expressed (in SI unit) as a function of distance
below the meniscus (z)
z
q m (z) = 2.67 0.33 10
6
( 0 z Lm )
Uc
If mould length (Lm) is 0.8 m and casting speed (Uc) is 0.2 m.s-1, the average mould flux
(in MW.m-2) is ________________
Q.39 In BOF steelmaking, 5 metric ton of lime containing 90 wt.% CaO is used to refine 100
metric ton of hot metal containing 93.2 wt.% Fe. The slag produced during refining
contains 40 wt.% CaO and 22 wt.% FeO. Neglecting material losses, the yield of Fe (in %)
is _________________
Q.40 In vacuum degassing of steel, 14 ppm of dissolved nitrogen is in equilibrium with 1 mbar
of nitrogen gas at 1873 K. At the same temperature, if the pressure is lowered to 0.7 mbar,
the equilibrium nitrogen content (in ppm) is _____________
Q.41 During isothermal phase transformation (in solid-state), fraction transformed is measured at
two different transformation times:
___________________________________________
Transformation Time, t (s) Fraction Transformed, f
___________________________________________
75 0.11
150 0.37
____________________________________________
Assuming Avrami kinetics [f = 1 exp (ktn)], the fraction transformed in

300 seconds is _______________
Q.42 Zinc oxide is reduced at a constant temperature in a closed reactor using ZnO(s) and C(s)
as the only starting materials. The following reactions are assumed to be at thermodynamic
equilibrium:
ZnO(s) + C(s) = Zn(g) + CO(g)

2CO(g) = CO2(g) + C(s)
Assume ideal gas behaviour. Based on mole balance, the relationship applicable to the
system at equilibrium is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) .5
MT 8/12
GATE 2016 MT
Q.43 The critical nucleus size (in nm) when copper melt is under-cooled by 100 K is
Given data:
Melting point: 1356 K
Density: 8900 kg.m-3
Solid-liquid interfacial energy: 0.5 Jm-2
Latent heat of freezing: 13000 J.mol-1
Molar volume: 710-6 m-3mol-1
(A) 0.36 (B) 1.55 (C) 3.65 (D) 7.30
Q.44 The density and corresponding crystallinity of two poly-propylene material are given
below
________________________________________
Density, kg.m-3 Crystallinity, %
________________________________________
904 62.8
895 54.4
_________________________________________
The density of totally amorphous poly-propylene (in kg.m-3) is:
(A) 723 (B) 841 (C) 905 (D) 956
MT 9/12
GATE 2016 MT
Q.45 A simplified energy band-diagram of an intrinsic semiconductor at thermal equilibrium

(300 K) is shown. In the accompanying table, which one of the four columns correctly
represents the listed parameters? Assume same effective mass for electrons and holes.
Vacuum
level
Electron Energy(E) E2
Fermi
level E1
Parameter Energy-difference
Column 1 Column 2 Column 3 Column 4
Band-gap E2 E1 E2 E1
Electron affinity E1/2 E2 E1 E2/2 E2 (E1/2)
Work function E1 + E2 E2 (E1/2) E1 E2/2 E2 + (E1/2)
(A) Column 1 (B) Column 2 (C) Column 3 (D) Column 4
Q.46 A binary phase diagram is shown in the schematic.
L
+L +L

Temperature
61.9
18.3 97.8
A Wt%B B
Upon complete solidification of a binary alloy system A-B, the fraction of pro-eutectic -
phase present is 0.50. The alloy composition in terms of wt%. B is _________________
MT 10/12
GATE 2016 MT
Q.47 Fatigue behaviour of an aluminium alloy is shown in the S-N plot. A piston rod made of
this material is subjected to: (i) 1000 cycles at 420 MPa, followed by (ii) 1000 cycles at
300 MPa. Using Miners rule of cumulative damage, the remaining fatigue life (in terms of
number of cycles) at stress of 250 MPa is _______________
800
600
420MPa
400
300MPa
S,MPa
200 250MPa
2000 5000 8800

0
0 2000 4000 6000 8000 10000
N
Q.48 A glass plate has two parallel cracks. One of them is an internal crack of length 5 m and
the other is a surface crack of length 3 m. A tensile stress is applied perpendicular to the
crack surfaces. The fracture stress (in MPa) is ___________
Given data (for glass plate):

Youngs Modulus = 70 GPa
Surface energy per unit area = 1 J.m-2
Q.49 A tensile stress is applied along the [100] direction in a FCC metal crystal. The critical
resolved shear stress is 6 MPa. The tensile stress (in MPa) required for initiating slip on the
(111) slip plane is_____________
Q.50 For a bcc metal the ratio of the surface energy per unit area of the (100) plane to that of the
(110) plane is ______________
Q.51 For a polymer reinforced with 40 vol.% glass fiber, the elastic modulus (in GPa) along the
transverse direction is
(A) 5.6 (B) 8.1
(C) 30.1 (D) 43.4
[Eglass fiber = 70 GPa; Epolymer = 3.5 GPa]

MT 11/12
GATE 2016 MT
Q.52 In a sand-mould, a sprue of 0.25 m height and a top cross-section area of 2.2 m2 is provided
to maintain the melt flow rate at 4 m3.s-1. To prevent aspiration of molten metal, the
maximum cross-section area (in m2) at the base of the sprue is ____________
Q.53 For casting a cylindrical aluminum bloom having a length of 1000 mm and diameter of
750 mm, the approximate solidification time (in minutes) estimated using Chvorinovs rule
is
(A) 45 (B) 316 (C) 440 (D) 620
[The mould constant is 2 s/mm2]
Q.54 A liquid phase sintered SiC-Ni composite has a solid-solid grain boundary energy (SiC-SiC)
of 0.80 J.m-2 and a solid-liquid (SiC-Ni) interfacial energy of 0.45 J.m-2. For a SiC grain size
of 20 m, the average interparticle (SiC-SiC) neck size (in m) is:
(A) 3.03 (B) 4.28 (C) 9.16 (D) 18.32
Q.55 Match the deformation processes in Column I with the corresponding stress states listed in
Column II
Column I Column II
[P] Wire Drawing [1] Direct Compression
[Q] Forging [2] Indirect Compression
[R] Stretch Forming [3] Tension
[S] Cutting [4] Shear
(A) P-1; Q-2; R-3; S-4 (B) P-1; Q-2; R-4; S-3
(C) P-2; Q-1; R-3; S-4 (D) P-2; Q-1; R-4; S-3
MT 12/12



(i) It rains
(A) 1.43 (B) 2.06 (C) 2.68 (D) 2.88
1/3


B, FH, LNP, _ _ _ _.
any a, is .
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 10
2/3
| | | |
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

3/3
GATE 2016 Mining Engineering (MN)

Q.1 The differential of the equation, x + y = 1, with respect to x is
2 2
(A) x y (B) x y (C) y x (D) y x
Q.2 If [ A][ B] = [ I ] then
(A) [ B] = [ A]T (B) [ A] = [ B]T (C) [ B] = [ A]1 (D) [ B] = [ A]
Q.3 X 4 + C is the general integral of
(A) 3 x 3 dx 1 3
x dx (D) 4 x 3 dx
3
4
(B) x dx (C)
Q.4 Sinh (x) is
e x e x e x e x e x + e x e x + e x
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 2 2 4
Q.5 Identify the correct statement.

NONEL is used for surface connection of the blast holes in order to
(A) achieve better water resistance over detonating fuse
(B) have a precise delay timing
(C) provide noiseless shock front movement
(D) avoid deflagration
Q.6 Identify the pattern of surface blasting given in the figure. The values of delay time, in ms,
are given against each blasthole.
100 75 50 25 25 50 75 100
50 25 0 0 0 0 25 50
(A) V- cut
(B) extended V- cut
(C) row to row
(D) en echelon
MN 1/14
Q.7 Identify the initiation sequence which is NOT possible for surface blasting.
(A) Detonating fuse NonelElectronic detonator
(B) Electric detonatorNonelDetonating fuse
(C) Electric detonator Detonating fuse Nonel
(D) Electronic detonator Detonating fuse Nonel
Q.8 Parallel holes at right angles to the face with some holes uncharged are associated with the
following shot hole pattern
(A) drag cut (B) wedge cut (C) pyramid cut (D) burn cut
Q.9 Bieniawskis Rock Mass Rating considers the parameters: RQD, spacing of joints, condition of
joints, ground water condition, and
(A) tensile strength
(B) uniaxial compressive strength
(C) shear strength
(D) buckling strength
Q.10 A rockmass is subjected to hydrostatic pressure of 6 MPa. If each of the measured strains
xx = yy = zz , is 2.0 mm/m, then the bulk modulus, in GPa, is _______
Q.11 Identify the uniaxial compressive loading condition from the following four Mohr circles.
(A) (1) (B) (2) (C) (3) (D) (4)
MN 2/14
Q.12 Out of the given stress-strain curves, identify the rock type that is most prone to rock burst.
(1)
(2)

(3)
(4)
0,0
(A) (1) (B) (2) (C) (3) (D) (4)
Q.13 A longwall panel of width 120 m is extracted at a depth of 200 m. Critical subsidence is reached
when the panel length becomes 150 m. If the seam were to be worked at a depth of 300 m, critical
subsidence would be observed at a panel length, in m, of _______.
Q.14 The support system followed along the goaf edge in a depillaring panel is
(A) rope stitching
(B) cable bolting
(C) wooden/steel chock
(D) hydraulic prop
Q.15 Which one of the following ropes CANNOT be an effective cable bolt?
(A) locked coil wire rope
(B) Langs lay wire rope
(C) ordinary lay wire rope
(D) bird-caged wire rope
Q.16 In metalliferous mines, the sublevel interval does NOT depend on

(A) capacity of drilling equipment
(B) capacity of loading equipment
(C) strength of rib pillar
(D) strength of wall rock
MN 3/14
Q.17 Jack hammer does NOT contain

(A) pawl and ratchet
(B) gear box
(C) rifle bar
(D) piston
Q.18 0 0
At the inlet of a mine roadway, the dry and wet bulb temperatures of air are 38 C and 29 C ,
0 0
respectively. At the outlet, the corresponding temperatures are 32 C and 29 C , respectively. The
process of heat transfer in the airway is described as
(A) evaporative cooling
(B) sensible cooling
(C) sensible heating
(D) dehumidification
Q.19 Underground coal mines are in principle ventilated by exhausting system, so that
(A) spontaneous heating risk is reduced
(B) fumes can be quickly removed in case of an underground fire
(C) build-up of methane concentration is decreased
(D) cool and fresh intake air can enter underground
Q.20 Identify the WRONG statement.

Pit bottom air lock
(A) prevents the short circuiting of air when the flow is reversed in coal mines
(B) has at least three doors
(C) has at least one door that has provision for latching
(D) all doors are in principle designed to open towards high pressure side of the air
Q.21 Identify the WRONG statement.

The temperature inversion of the atmosphere in surface mines aggravates the problem of
(A) airborne dust
(B) noise
(C) ground vibrations
(D) visibility
Q.22 In a CO self rescuer, the purpose of the calcium bromide and lithium chloride mixture is to
(A) dry the incoming air
(B) convert the CO catalytically to CO2
(C) absorb and thereby neutralise CO
(D) cool the inhaled air from excess exothermic heat due to chemical reaction
MN 4/14
Q.23 IRR of a project is the discount rate at which

(A) profit after tax is zero
(B) written down value of the project is zero
(C) revenue from the project is zero
(D) NPV is zero
Q.24 For the critical path network shown, the slack for the activity b, in months, is
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 13
Q.25 The three axes comprising the numerical codification of resources, as per the UNFC, are
(A) Economic Viability, Geological Assessment, Geotechnical Assessment
(B) Geological Assessment, Environmental Assessment, Feasibility Assessment
(C) Feasibility Assessment, Geological Assessment, Mining Assessment
(D) Economic Viability, Geological Assessment, Feasibility Assessment
Q.26 Equations of two planes are z = 4 and z = 4 + 3 x . The included angle between the two planes in
degrees, is ____________

Q.27 A force P = 2i 5 j + 6k acts on a particle. The particle is moved from point A to point B, where

the position vectors of A and B are 6i + j 3k and 4i 3 j 2k respectively. The work done is
____________
Q.28 The value of x in the simultaneous equations is ______________
3x + y + 2 z = 3
2 x 3 y z = 3
x + 2y + z = 4
MN 5/14
Q.29 Two persons P and Q toss an unbiased coin alternately on an understanding that whoever gets the
head first wins. If P starts the game, then the probability of P winning the game is ____________
Q.30 Data pertaining to a surface bench blast is given below:
Burden = 3.0 m Sub-grade drilling = 1.0 m

Spacing = 4.0 m Collar stemming = 4.0 m
Bench height = 10.0 m Air decking length = 1.0 m
Density of rock = 2000 kg/m3 Linear charge concentration = 10 kg/m
The powder factor of the blast, in kg/tonne, is _______
Q.31 Match the following for a typical slurry explosive.
Chemical Purpose
P. Calcium nitrate 1. Cross linking agent

Q. Potassium dichromate 2. Gelling agent
R. TNT 3. Oxidiser
S. Starch 4. Fuel
(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
(B) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1
(C) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
(D) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
Q.32 A 10 m thick coal block is excavated by a contractor at a cost of Rs. 40 per m3 . The excavated
2
area, measured in the mine plan, is found to be 50 cm . If the mine plan has been drawn to a scale
of 1:1000, the payment to be made to the contractor, in lakhs of Rs., is _______
Q.33 Two vertical shafts of a mine have the following parameters:
Shaft ShaftA ShaftB

CollarRL(m) 0.0 0.0
Depth(m) 250 200
Northing(m) 200 100
Easting(m) 100 100
The gradient of the drift connecting the shaft bottoms, in degrees, is_____
MN 6/14
Q.34 For a station A on the Earths surface, as shown in the figure, match the following
P
Equator O
Referencemeridian
L M
Arc Description
Q. MA 1. Longitude
R. LM 2. Co-latitude
S. PA 3. Latitude
(A) Q-2, R-3, S-1

(B) Q-3, R-1, S-2
(C) Q-2, R-1, S-3
(D) Q-3, R-2, S-1
Q.35 Match the following for the prismatic compass shown below
Component Name
P. X1 1. Agate bearing
Q. X2 2. Object vane
R. X3 3. Magnetic needle
S. X4 4. Prism
(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
(B) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4
(C) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
(D) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
Q.36 0
A ladder placed against a frictionless wall at an inclination of 60 with horizontal, is in a state of
limiting equilibrium. The ladder has a length of 13 m and a uniform mass of 4 kg/m. The
coefficient of friction between the ladder and the floor is ______
MN 7/14
Q.37 A cubical rock sample is enclosed between two fixed hard steel plates as shown in the figure below.
The modulus of elasticity and Poissons ratio of the rock are 2 GPa and 0.25, respectively. If the
rock is subjected to the stresses as shown in the figure, the strain in x-direction, in mm/m, is
_______.
10MPa
Rockblock
Steelplate
5Mpa
8MPa
Q.38 In a hydrostatic stress field, point A is in the middle of two circular openings as shown in the
figure. The radial stress, in MPa, at point A is _________.
5MPa
A
5MPa 5MPa
2.5m 2.5m
10m
5MPa
MN 8/14
Q.39 Curves (a) and (b) represent the stress distributions along the length of a full column grouted bolt
shown in the figure. Curves (a) and (b) are
Stress
(a) (b)
Rocksurface
Groutedmaterial
Bolt
0,0 Length
Pickuplength Anchorlength
(A) Tensile stress, Compressive stress

(B) Axial stress, Shear stress
(C) Compressive stress, Tensile stress
(D) Shear stress, Axial stress
Q.40 Match the following mechanical properties with the formulae
Mechanical property Formula

P. Modulus of elasticity 1. c + n tan
Q. Compressive strength 2. lateral / longitudinal
R. Shear Strength 3. /
S. Poissons ratio 4. Fn / r
2
(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4

(B) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
(D) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
Q.41 A skip of 10 tonne capacity hoists ore through a 1000 m deep shaft at a speed of 20 m/s. The skip
2
accelerates and decelerates at 2.0 m/s . The loading and unloading times for the skip are 2.5 min
and 1.5 min, respectively. The maximum hourly capacity of the hoisting system, in tonnes, is
_____________
Q.42 Match the following:
Haulage unit Safety device

P. Friction winder 1. Run-away switch
Q. Drum winder 2. Lilly controller
R. Direct rope haulage 3. Regenerative braking
S. Endless rope haulage 4. Monkey/back catch
(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4

(B) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
(C) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2
(D) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
MN 9/14
Q.43 In the gear assembly shown, the rpm of Gear 1 is 600. The number of teeth in Gear 1, Gear 2, Gear
3, Gear 4, Gear 5 and Gear 6 is 30, 45, 15, 20, 10 and 30, respectively. The rpm of Gear 6 is
______
Q.44 An operating surface mine is proposed to be deepened by 30 m as shown in the figure. If the
density of the ore is 2.4 tonne m3 , the incremental stripping ratio for the deepening, in
m3 tonne , is ______.
Proposedlineofdeepening
Overburden
150m
300
100m 300 30m Ore
30m
300
100m
Q.45 From an openpit sump, mine water is lifted using a 250 m long straight pipeline laid along a
0
gradient of 34 . The pumping rate is 500 gpm (1 gallon = 3.8 litres). Additional head loss due to
pipe friction can be considered to be 10% of head lifted. At an overall efficiency of 70%, the
electric power consumed by the pump, in kW, is __________.
MN 10/14
Q.46 With reference to Coward diagram, match the following in the context of explosibility of a mixture
of normal air and methane.
(O2 %, CH4 %) Mixture status
P. 20.5, 2.4 1. Impossible mixture

Q. 19.0, 9.5 2. Non-explosive
R. 17.0, 19.0 3. Potentially explosive
S. 20.0, 19.5 4. Explosive
(A) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1
(B) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
(C) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
(D) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
Q.47 A U-tube manometer is subjected to differential pressure as shown. If specific gravity of kerosene
is 0.8, the value of P1 P2 , in Pa, is_________.
Q.48 An air stream having an enthalpy of 100 kJ/kgda, is flowing at 20 kgda/s. It is cooled by water at
0
temperature 10 C circulating in a cooling coil at a flow rate of 10.0 l/s. If the return temperature of
0
water is 20 C , the enthalpy of the cooled air, in kJ/kgda, is ___________.
(Specific heat of water: 4.18 kJ kg 0C ; kgda: kg of dry air).
MN 11/14
Q.49 The static pressure characteristic of a mine fan is as shown. If the mine resistance is 0.3 Ns 2 m8 ,
the quantity generated by the fan, in m3 s , is _______.
1000
P (Pa)
0.0 100
Q (m3/s)
Q.50 In the context of ventilation plan symbols, match the following:
Symbol Description
P. 1. Temporary stopping
Q. 2. Regulator
R. R 3. Air-crossing
S. 4. Ventilation stopping
(A) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

(B) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
(C) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2
(D) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
Q.51 A mill concentrate, having 25% copper, is proposed to be sold at Rs. 1,25,000 per tonne. The grade
of the deposit is 0.8% Cu and the overall cost of mining and milling is Rs. 2,520 per tonne of ore.
At a recovery of 75%, the estimated profit, in Rs./tonne of concentrate, is ________.
MN 12/14
Q.52 Copper grade distribution in an ore body has the probability density function, f x , as shown in
the figure. The average grade of the deposit, in % Cu, is ______.
Q.53 The semivariogram shown belongs to a bauxite deposit. The expected difference in the Al2O3 (%)
values between two boreholes separated by a distance of 200 m is _______.
300(%)2
(h)
100(%)2
0.0 300m
Lagdistance
Q.54 A surface mine has 15 identical dumpers and two shovels. For shovel 1, the dumper cycle time is
30 min and the shovel loading time is 5 min. For shovel 2, the dumper cycle time is 32 min and the
shovel loading time is 4.0 min. Based on match factor optimisation (equitable match factor), the
ideal allocation of dumpers to shovel 1 and shovel 2, respectively is
(A) 6, 9 (B) 7, 8 (C) 9, 6 (D) 8, 7
MN 13/14
Q.55 The composited grade value, in %, between the RLs 10 m to 20 m for the following borehole
configuration is __________.
RL=0m
25% 14m
35%
18m
MN 14/14

(A) 324 (B) 441 (C) 97 (D) 64
(A) 2.0 (B) 10.0 (C) 12.0 (D) 22.0
1/3
ptitude - GA Set-44
Q. 6 Q. 10 carry tw
wo marks each.
s with
(A)) 0 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
y the World
on in the num
w rabies.

w.

b vaccinatin

r worldw
wide.
Q.8 A flat
n Sravan. Who
the flat?

(A)) 14.95 (B) 15.25 (C) 15.70 (D) 20.35
2/33
(A) 0.030 (B) 0.014 (C) 0.014 (D) 0.030
3/3
GATE 2016 Petroleum Engineering - PE

Q.1
ex 1
The value of lim is equal to______.
x 0 sin x
Q.2 1
The function f ( x) = is
1+ x
(A) continuous and differentiable.

(B) continuous but not differentiable.
(C) not continuous but differentiable.
(D) not continuous and not differentiable.
Q.3 e
The value of the definite integral 1 (ln x) dx is equal to _____.
Q.4 1 3
For a complex number Z =
+ i , the value of Z6 is
2 2
1 3 1 3
(A) +
2 2 i (B) 1 (C) i (D) 1
2
2
Q.5
The Laplace transform of the function e 2t is
(A)
1
(B)
2
(C)
1
(D) e 2s
2s s s+2
Q.6 Which of the following is preferred fast neutron source in neutron logging?
(A) Americium-Beryllium
(B) Radium-Beryllium
(C) Deuterium-Tritium
(D) Thorium-Beryllium
1/11
Q.7 Using the gamma ray log given in the figure, the shaliness index for point S is __________%.
Q.8 Identify the logging device that is based on the concept of longitudinal and transverse relaxation
times.
(A) Thermal neutron decay

(B) Induced gamma ray spectroscopy
(C) Neutron
(D) Nuclear Magnetic Resonance (NMR)
Q.9 The three main stages of evolution of organic matter in sediments are Catagenesis (C), Diagenesis
(D) and Metagenesis (M). Their chronological order is
(A) D - C - M (B) C - D - M
(C) D - M - C (D) C - M - D
Q.10 For a kick off operation, a directional well has to be drilled for an arc-length of 2500 ft to achieve
an inclination of 50.
The radius of curvature will be ______ ft.
Q.11 Which of the following is the MOST COMMON cause for a fishing job?
(A) Differential sticking (B) Use of oil based mud

(C) Lost circulation (D) Well kick
2/11
Q.12 The figure shows the producing gas oil ratio (GOR) behaviour with time for an oil reservoir under
primary production. At initial reservoir condition, Pb is the bubble point pressure of the crude oil.
PR(t) represents the reservoir pressure at time t. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
(A) PR(t1) > Pb, PR(t2) > Pb (B) PR(t1) > Pb, PR(t2) < Pb
(C) PR(t1) < Pb, PR(t2) > Pb (D) PR(t1) < Pb, PR(t2) < Pb
Q.13 A core, with a length of 10 cm, breadth of 4 cm and width of 4 cm, weighs 282.4 g in its dry form.
The core is then saturated 100% with brine of density 1.1 g/cm3. The brine saturated core weighs
300 g.
The porosity of this core sample is ___________%.
Q.14 A hydraulic line of a subsurface safety valve has a fluid of specific gravity 1.2 to operate the valve.
The valve closing pressure is 1,200 psia and the recommended safety margin is 200 psia.
The maximum depth at which the valve can be positioned is____________ ft.
Q.15 A sucker rod pump unit is designated by C-228D-200-74. Here, D represents
(A) double reduction gear box. (B) diameter of sucker rod.

(C) diameter of plunger. (D) stroke length.
Q.16 The three translational motions for a floating vessel are
(A) Roll-Pitch-Yaw. (B) Heave-Pitch-Sway.

(C) Surge-Sway-Heave. (D) Roll-Sway-Heave.
Q.17 Jack-up rigs are typically used for off-shore drilling when the water depth is in the range
(A) < 25 ft (B) 50 - 500 ft (C) 1000 - 2000 ft (D) > 2000 ft
3/11
Q.18 Interference tests can be used for
I. determining communication between two or more wells.

II. mature oil wells having skin damage.
III. determining permeability in tested wells.
IV. providing inputs for secondary and tertiary oil recovery methods
(A) only I and II (B) only I, II and IV (C) only II, III and IV (D) I, II, III and IV
Q.19 For an effective hydraulically-fractured well, the skin factor would GENERALLY be
(A) negative. (B) positive. (C) zero. (D) indeterminate.
Q.20 The maximum discharge limit of oil and grease in a marine coastal area as per Environmental
(protection) Rules, 1986 in India is
(A) 0.1 mg/L. (B) 20 mg/L. (C) 500 mg/L. (D) 4000 mg/L.
Q.21 Which of the following gases is NOT responsible for global warming?
(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Methane
(C) Water vapour (D) Nitrogen
Q.22 In an oil reservoir flooded with water, the volumetric sweep efficiency is 70%. The connate water
saturation in the reservoir is 0.4 and the residual oil saturation for the water flood is 0.3.
The overall efficiency of the reservoir is ____________ %.
Q.23 Identify the pair of CORRECT statements for surfactant-micellar-polymer flooding.
I. It reduces interfacial tension between crude oil and water.

II. It influences mobility ratio unfavorably.
III. It improves microscopic displacement efficiency.
IV. It increases isothermal compressibility of the crude oil.
(A) I & II (B) I & III
(C) III & IV (D) II & IV
4/11
Q.24 Gas hydrate forms at
(A) low pressure and low temperature conditions.

(B) low pressure and high temperature conditions.
(C) high pressure and low temperature conditions.
(D) high pressure and high temperature conditions.
Q.25 Production of coal bed methane (CBM) is based on
(A) distillation. (B) underground coal gasification.

(C) desorption. (D) coal liquefaction.

Q.26 The divergence of the velocity field V = ( x 2 + y ) i + ( z 2 xy ) j + ( xy ) k at (1, 1, 1) is
_________.
Q.27 For a function f(x), the values of the function in the interval [0, 1] are given in the table below.
x f(x)
0.0 1.0
0.2 1.24
0.4 1.56
0.6 1.96
0.8 2.44
1.0 3.0
1
The value of the integral f ( x) dx according to the trapezoidal rule is ________.

0
Q.28 A box has a total of ten identical sized balls. Seven of these balls are black in colour and the rest
three are red. Three balls are picked from the box one after another without replacement.
The probability that two of the balls are black and one is red is equal to ______.
5/11
Q.29 5 3
Consider the matrix, M = . The normalized eigen-vector corresponding to the smallest
3 5
eigen-value of the matrix M is
3 3 1 1
2 2
(A) 2 (B) 2 (C) (D)
1 1 1 1

2 2 2 2
Q.30 For the differential equation

d2y dy
x2 2
2x + 2 y =
0
dx dx
the general solution is
(A)=y C1 x + C2 e x =
(B) y C1 sin x + C2 cos x
=
(C) y C1 e x + C2 e x =
(D) y C1 x 2 + C2 x
Q.31 The porosities of cubic and hexagonal packings, respectively, are
(A) 47.6% and 25.9%. (B) 39.5% and 29.5%.

(C) 47.6% and 39.5%. (D) 39.5% and 25.9%.
Q.32 In sonic logging, the sonic velocities in the formation and drilling mud are 50,000 ft/s and 500 ft/s,
respectively.
The critical angle is ____ radians.
Q.33 A section of a clean sandstone reservoir was logged and found to have a porosity of 10%. The
cementation (m) and saturation (n) exponents are equal to 2. The constant a in Archies saturation
equation is 1. The formation water resistivity is 0.036 ohm-meter and the formation resistivity is 10
ohm-meter.
The water saturation in the reservoir is______%.
6/11
Q.34 Match the entries in Group 1 with those in Group 2
Group 1 Group 2
P. Blow Out Preventer I. Horizontal well problem
Q. Diamond bit II. Reverse ballooning
R. Tubing elongation III. Well control
S. Eccentricity IV. Crown
V. Ballooning
(A) P-III, Q-IV, R-V, S-II (B) P-V, Q-IV, R-I, S-II
(C) P-III, Q-IV, R-II, S-I (D) P-IV, Q-III, R-V, S-I
Q.35 One thousand sacks of cement are required for cementing a protection casing of setting depth of
12,000 ft (top float collar) and annular capacity of 0.40 ft3 per linear ft. The cementing truck has a
mixing capacity of 20 sacks per min. A 1.15 ft3/cycle capacity rig mud pump having an 18 inch
1
stroke and a 6 inch liner operating at 60 rpm with 90% efficiency is used for the cementing job.
2
The total cementing time is ______________ min.
Q.36 It is desired to increase the density of 200 bbl of 10 ppg mud to 12 ppg mud using API Barite of
density 35 ppg. The final volume is not limited.
[1 bbl = 42 gallons]
The amount of API Barite required is ________ lbm.
Q.37 Using the High Pressure High Temperature (HPHT) filter press data given below, the estimated
API filtration loss is _________ cm3.
Data given: Time (min) Filtrate volume (cm3)

1.0 6.5
7.5 14.0
Q.38 A Differential Liberation Experiment (DLE) and a Constant Composition Expansion (CCE)/Flash
liberation experiment were performed in a laboratory for a crude oil to find the formation volume
factor (Bo) and the dissolved gas oil ratio (Rs). The pressure stages for both experiments were kept
the same. At a pressure less than the bubble point pressure of the crude oil, which of the following
statements is TRUE?
(A) Bo (CCE) > Bo (DLE), Rs (CCE) > Rs (DLE)
(B) Bo (CCE) > Bo (DLE), Rs (CCE) < Rs (DLE)
(C) Bo (CCE) < Bo (DLE), Rs (CCE) > Rs (DLE)
(D) Bo (CCE) < Bo (DLE), Rs (CCE) < Rs (DLE)
7/11
Q.39 The production of a gas well was found to decline exponentially. The observed production rate on
1st January, 2014 was 0.61010 SCF/month and on 1st January, 2015, it was 0.41010 SCF/month.
The economic production limit for the well is estimated to be 0.0021010 SCF/month.
The remaining reserves for the well as on 1st January, 2015 were ______ 1010 SCF.
Q.40 A 30 ft thick gas reservoir has an area of 3,000 acres (1 acre = 43,560 ft2). The porosity of the
reservoir is 15% and the connate water saturation is 20%. Initial reservoir pressure and temperature
are 2,600 psig and 150F (= 610R), respectively. The compressibility factor (Z) at initial
conditions is 0.82. The gas in the reservoir can be produced till it attains the final pressure of
1,000 psig (Z = 0.88) under isothermal conditions.
The gas recovery factor is ______ %.
Q.41 Brine is used to measure the absolute permeability of a core plug. The rock sample is 4 cm long and
its cross-sectional area is 4 cm2. The brine has a viscosity of 2 cp and is flowing at a constant rate of
0.5 cm3/s under a 4 atm pressure differential.
The absolute permeability is _________________ Darcy.
Q.42 An oil well is drilled to cover a circular drainage area of radius 700 ft. The well is completed with a
7 inch production casing. Assume reservoir pressure of 1000 psig, permeability of 50 md, pay zone
thickness of 20 ft, oil viscosity of 3 cp and oil formation volume factor of 1.25 reservoir-bbl/STB.
For a flowing bottom-hole pressure of 500 psig, the primary production rate is _______ STB/day.
Q.43 An Electric Submersible Pump (ESP) is installed at a depth of 1000 ft from the surface. The ESP
gives 20 ft water head per stage. The wellhead requires 100 psi pressure.
Minimum number of stages of the ESP required for this well is _____.
Q.44 The schematic figure shows a two-phase horizontal separator designed for an oil and water system.
The oil specific gravity is 0.8. The oil pad height is ho.
The vertical distance between the oil and the water weirs (h) at steady state is
(A) 0.2 ho (B) 0.8 ho (C) 1.0 ho (D) 1.2 ho
8/11
Q.45 The vertical lift performance (VLP) and the inflow performance relationship (IPR) curves are used
to find the production operating conditions. If Pwf is the flowing bottom-hole pressure and Q is the
oil flow rate, select the CORRECT statement.
(A) Point 3 is absolute open flow, Curve 1 is VLP curve.

(B) Point 2 is at reservoir pressure, Curve 2 is VLP curve.
(C) Point 1 is operating condition, Curve 2 is IPR curve.
(D) Point 2 is absolute open flow, Curve 1 is IPR curve.
Q.46 A ground station has a pump, which delivers a head of 1,000 m water. It is pumping oil of specific
gravity 0.8 into a horizontal pipe of diameter 0.5 m with an average velocity of 2 m/s. The
efficiency of the pump is 80%. Density of water is 1,000 kg/m3 and acceleration due to gravity is
9.8 m/s2.
The power required to operate the pump is _______________ Mega Watts.
Q.47 For a floating vessel, match the CORRECT pairs from Group 1 and Group 2 among the options
given below. (B = Centre of buoyancy; G = Centre of gravity and M = Metacentre)
Group 1 Group 2
P. M is above G I. Stable equilibrium condition
Q. M is below G II. Critically stable condition
R. M is coinciding with G III. Unstable condition
S. B is below G
(A) P-II, Q-III, R-I and S-II (B) P-I, Q-III, R-II and S-I
(C) P-III, Q-I, R-II and S-III (D) P-I, Q-II, R-III and S-I
9/11
Group 1 Group 2
P. Master valve I. Drill stem testing tool
Q. Breather valve II. Heater-treater
R. Tester valve III. Christmas tree
S. Dump valve IV. Positive displacement motor
V. Storage tank
(A) P-III, Q-V, R-II and S-I (B) P-III, Q-V, R-I and S-IV
(C) P-II, Q-III, R-I and S-V (D) P-I, Q-III, R-II and S-IV
Q.49 A 50 ft thick reservoir has a porosity () of 20% and a total isothermal compressibility ( Ct ) of
2.410-5 psi-1. The oil in the reservoir has a viscosity 0.75 cp and formation volume factor of
1.25 reservoir-bbl/STB. A pressure build-up test is carried out on a well of radius 0.50 ft in the
reservoir which was producing at 500 STB/day for 500 hours. The flowing bottom-hole pressure at
the start of build-up test (t = 0) was found to be 3,535 psia. The schematic of the pressure build-up
data is shown in the figure.
The skin factor is ____________________.
Q.50 During a production test in an oil reservoir, the oil production rate is 200 STB/day. The producing
gas oil ratio (GOR) is 800 SCF/STB and dissolved GOR is 200 SCF/STB. The formation volume
factor of gas is 0.01 ft3/SCF and the formation volume factor of oil is 1.2 reservoir-bbl/STB.
3
The down-hole GOR is __________ ft /reservoir-bbl.
10/11
Q.51 A productivity test was conducted on a single-phase crude oil well. The well is capable of
producing 100 STB/day at a flowing bottom-hole pressure of 1000 psig. The 24-hour shut-in static
pressure is found to be 1500 psig.
The maximum oil flow rate (Qmax) is_______ STB/day.
Q.52 An oil well of wellbore radius 0.5 ft is shown to develop a skin due to formation damage. The
damaged zone radius is 2.25 ft around the well. The formation permeability is 300 md and the
permeability of the damaged zone is 100 md.
The effective well bore radius for this well is___________ft.
Q.53 A producing well has a shut-in tubing pressure of 3,950 psig for crude oil of specific gravity 0.69.
[1 g/cm3 = 8.33 ppg]
The kill fluid density for a workover job at 11,600 ft (TVD) is ___________ ppg.
Q.54 For a water-flood operation in a one-dimensional reservoir, the following data are given.
Porosity, = 0.25; Cross-sectional area, A = 25,000 ft2; Horizontal distance between the vertical
production and injection well = 600 ft; Water injection rate, iw = 900 bbl/day; Slope of fractional
flow curve at shock front water saturation = 1.97; Water formation volume factor = 1.0 bbl/STB.
[ 1 bbl = 5.615 ft3 ]
The cumulative water volume injected at breakthrough is __________ 105 bbl.
Q.55 A heavy oil reservoir is being flooded with a line drive (assume one-dimensional flooding). The
fractional flow of water is found to be 0.75 bbl/bbl at water saturation (SW) of 60%. A polymer
solution with twice the viscosity of water is used as displacing phase. Assume the relative
permeability curves for water flooding and polymer flooding are the same.
The fractional flow of polymer solution at a saturation of 60% is _________bbl/bbl.
11/11



(i) It rains
(A) 1.43 (B) 2.06 (C) 2.68 (D) 2.88
1/3


B, FH, LNP, _ _ _ _.
any a, is .
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 10
2/3
| | | |
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

3/3
GATE 2016 Physics

Q.1 dy
Consider the linear differential equation xy. If y 2 at x 0, then the value of y at x=2 is
dx
given by
(A) e 2 (B) 2e 2
(C) e 2 (D) 2e 2
Q.2 Which of the following magnetic vector potentials gives rise to a uniform magnetic field B 0 k ?
(A) B0 z k (B) B0 xj
(C)
B0
2

y i x j (D)
2

B0
y i x j
Q.3 17
The molecule O2 is
(A) Raman active but not NMR (nuclear magnetic resonance) active.
(B) Infrared active and Raman active but not NMR active.
(C) Raman active and NMR active.
(D) Only NMR active.
Q.4 There are four electrons in the 3d shell of an isolated atom. The total magnetic moment of the atom
in units of Bohr magneton is ________.
Q.5 Which of the following transitions is NOT allowed in the case of an atom, according to the electric
dipole radiation selection rule?
(A) 2s-1s (B) 2p-1s (C) 2p-2s (D) 3d-2p
Q.6
In the SU(3) quark model, the triplet of mesons , 0 , has
(A) Isospin = 0 , Strangeness = 0

(B) Isospin = 1 , Strangeness = 0
(C) Isospin = 1/2, Strangeness = +1
(D) Isospin = 1/2, Strangeness = -1
Q.7 The magnitude of the magnetic dipole moment associated with a square shaped loop carrying a
steady current I is m. If this loop is changed to a circular shape with the same current I passing
pm
through it, the magnetic dipole moment becomes . The value of p is ______.

Q.8 The total power emitted by a spherical black body of radius R at a temperature T is P1. Let P2 be the
total power emitted by another spherical black body of radius R/2 kept at temperature 2T. The ratio,
P1/P2 is _______. (Give your answer upto two decimal places)
PH 1/10
GATE 2016 Physics
Q.9 The entropy of a system of spins, which may align either in the upward or in the downward
direction, is given by S k B N p ln p (1 p ) ln(1 p ) . Here kB is the Boltzmann constant.
The probability of alignment in the upward direction is p. The value of p, at which the entropy is
maximum, is _______. (Give your answer upto one decimal place)
Q.10 For a system at constant temperature and volume, which of the following statements is correct at
equilibrium?
(A) The Helmholtz free energy attains a local minimum.
(B) The Helmholtz free energy attains a local maximum.
(C) The Gibbs free energy attains a local minimum.
(D) The Gibbs free energy attains a local maximum.
Q.11 atoms of an ideal gas are enclosed in a container of volume . The volume of the container is
changed to 4 , while keeping the total energy constant. The change in the entropy of the gas, in
units of Nk B ln 2 , is _______ , where kB is the Boltzmann constant.
Q.12 Which of the following is an analytic function of z everywhere in the complex plane?
(A) z 2
(B) z *
2
(C) z
2
(D) z
Q.13 In a Youngs double slit experiment using light, the apparatus has two slits of unequal widths.
When only slit-1 is open, the maximum observed intensity on the screen is 4I0. When only slit-2 is
open, the maximum observed intensity is I0 . When both the slits are open, an interference pattern
appears on the screen. The ratio of the intensity of the principal maximum to that of the nearest
minimum is ________.
Q.14 Consider a metal which obeys the Sommerfeld model exactly. If EF is the Fermi energy of the metal
at T = 0 K and RH is its Hall coefficient, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) RH E F 3 / 2 (B) RH E F 2 / 3 (C) RH E F 3 / 2 (D) R H is independent of

EF.
Q.15 A one-dimensional linear chain of atoms contains two types of atoms of masses m1 and m2 (where
m2 > m1), arranged alternately. The distance between successive atoms is the same. Assume that the
harmonic approximation is valid. At the first Brillouin zone boundary, which of the following
statements is correct?
(A) The atoms of mass m2 are at rest in the optical mode, while they vibrate in the acoustical mode.
(B The atoms of mass m1 are at rest in the optical mode, while they vibrate in the acoustical mode.
(C) Both types of atoms vibrate with equal amplitudes in the optical as well as in the acoustical
modes.
(D) Both types of atoms vibrate, but with unequal, non-zero amplitudes in the optical as well as in
the acoustical modes.
Q.16 Which of the following operators is Hermitian?

d d2 d2 d3
(A) (B) (C) i (D)
dx dx 2 dx 2 dx 3
PH 2/10
GATE 2016 Physics
Q.17 The kinetic energy of a particle of rest mass m0 is equal to its rest mass energy. Its momentum in
units of m 0 c , where c is the speed of light in vacuum, is _______. (Give your answer upto two
decimal places)
Q.18 The number density of electrons in the conduction band of a semiconductor at a given temperature
is 2 1019 m 3 . Upon lightly doping this semiconductor with donor impurities, the number density
of conduction electrons at the same temperature becomes 4 10 20 m 3 . The ratio of majority to
minority charge carrier concentration is ________.
Q.19 Two blocks are connected by a spring of spring constant k . One block has mass m and the other
block has mass 2m. If the ratio k/m = 4 s 2 , the angular frequency of vibration of the two block
spring system in s 1 is _______. (Give your answer upto two decimal places)

Q.20 A particle moving under the influence of a central force F (r ) k r (where r is the position
vector of the particle and k is a positive constant) has non-zero angular momentum. Which of the
following curves is a possible orbit for this particle?
(A) A straight line segment passing through the origin.
(B) An ellipse with its center at the origin.
(C) An ellipse with one of the foci at the origin.
(D) A parabola with its vertex at the origin.
Q.21 Consider the reaction 54

25 Mn + e
54
24 Cr + X . The particle X is
(A) (B) e (C) n (D) 0
Q.22 The scattering of particles by a potential can be analyzed by Born approximation. In particular, if
the scattered wave is replaced by an appropriate plane wave, the corresponding Born approximation
is known as the first Born approximation. Such an approximation is valid for
(A) large incident energies and weak scattering potentials.
(B) large incident energies and strong scattering potentials.
(C) small incident energies and weak scattering potentials.
(D) small incident energies and strong scattering potentials.
Q.23 Consider an elastic scattering of particles in l 0 states. If the corresponding phase shift 0 is
90 0 and the magnitude of the incident wave vector is equal to 2 fm-1 then the total scattering
2
cross section in units of fm is _______.

Q.24 A hydrogen atom is in its ground state. In the presence of a uniform electric field E E0 z, the
n
leading order change in its energy is proportional to ( E0 ) . The value of the exponent n is _______.
PH 3/10
GATE 2016 Physics
Q.25 A solid material is found to have a temperature independent magnetic susceptibility, C . Which
of the following statements is correct?
(A) If C is positive, the material is a diamagnet.
(B) If C is positive, the material is a ferromagnet.
(C) If C is negative, the material could be a type I superconductor.
(D) If C is positive, the material could be a type I superconductor.
Q.26 An infinite, conducting slab kept in a horizontal plane carries a uniform charge density .
Another infinite slab of thickness t, made of a linear dielectric material of dielectric constant k, is
kept above the conducting slab. The bound charge density on the upper surface of the dielectric slab
is

(A) (B)
2k k
( k 2) ( k 1)
(C) (D)
2k k
Q.27 The number of spectroscopic terms resulting from the L S coupling of a 3p electron and a 3d
electron is _______.
Q.28 Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

(A) A deuteron can be disintegrated by irradiating it with gamma rays of energy 4 MeV.
(B) A deuteron has no excited states.
(C) A deuteron has no electric quadrupole moment.
(D) The 1S0 state of deuteron cannot be formed.

Q.29 If s1 and s 2 are the spin operators of the two electrons of a He atom, the value of s1 s 2 for the
ground state is
3 2 3 2 1 2
(A) (B) (C) 0 (D)
2 4 4
Q.30 A two-dimensional square rigid box of side L contains six non-interacting electrons at T = 0 K. The
2 2
mass of the electron is m. The ground state energy of the system of electrons, in units of is
2mL2
_______.
Q.31 An alpha particle is accelerated in a cyclotron. It leaves the cyclotron with a kinetic energy of 16
MeV. The potential difference between the D electrodes is 50 kilovolts. The number of revolutions
the alpha particle makes in its spiral path before it leaves the cyclotron is ______.
Q.32 Let be the component of a vector field , which has zero divergence. If / , the
expression for is equal to
(A) j kVi (B) j k Vi (C) j Vi

2
(D) j Vi
2
PH 4/10
GATE 2016 Physics
Q.33 The direction of for a scalar field ( , , ) = + at the point (1, 1,2) is
(A)
j 2k (B)
j 2k (C)
j 2k (D)
j 2k
5 5 5 5
Q.34 x , y and z are the Pauli matrices. The expression 2 x y y x is equal to
(A) 3i z (B) i z (C) i z (D) 3i z
Q.35 A particle of mass = 0.1 kg is initially at rest at origin. It starts moving with a uniform

acceleration a 10 i ms 2 at
= 0. The action of the particle, in units of J-s, at = 2 is
______. (Give your answer upto two decimal places)
Q.36 A periodic function ( ) of period 2 is defined in the interval ( < < ) as:
1, < < 0
( ) =
1, 0 < <
The appropriate Fourier series expansion for ( ) is
(A) f ( x ) 4 / [sin x (sin 3 x ) / 3 (sin 5 x ) / 5 ...]

(B) f ( x ) 4 / [sin x (sin 3 x ) / 3 (sin 5 x ) / 5 ...]
(C) f ( x ) 4 / [cos x (cos 3 x ) / 3 (cos 5 x ) / 5 ...]
(D) f ( x ) 4 / [cos x (cos 3 x ) / 3 (cos 5 x ) / 5 ...]
Q.37 Atoms, which can be assumed to be hard spheres of radius R, are arranged in an fcc lattice with
lattice constant a, such that each atom touches its nearest neighbours. Take the center of one of the
atoms as the origin. Another atom of radius r (assumed to be hard sphere) is to be accommodated at
a position (0, a/2, 0) without distorting the lattice. The maximum value of r/R is ________. (Give
your answer upto two decimal places)
Q.38 In an inertial frame of reference S, an observer finds two events occurring at the same time at co-
ordinates x1 0 and x 2 d . A different inertial frame S moves with velocity v with respect to S
along the positive x-axis. An observer in S also notices these two events and finds them to occur
at times t1 and t 2 and at positions x1 and x 2 , respectively. If t t 2 t1 , x x 2 x1 and
1
, which of the following statements is true ?
v2
1 2
c
(A) t 0, x d (B) t 0, x d
(C) t vd c 2 , x d (D) t vd c 2 , x d
PH 5/10
GATE 2016 Physics
Q.39 The energy vs. wave vector E k relationship near the bottom of a band for a solid can be
approximated as E A(ka) B(ka) , where the lattice constant a = 2.1 . The values of A and
2 4
B are 6.3 10 19 J and 3.2 10 20 J, respectively. At the bottom of the conduction band, the ratio
of the effective mass of the electron to the mass of free electron is _______. (Give your answer
upto two decimal places)
(Take =1.05x10-34 J-s, mass of free electron= 9.1x10-31 kg)
Q.40 The electric field component of a plane electromagnetic wave travelling in vacuum is given by

E ( z , t ) E0 cos(k z t )i . The Poynting vector for the wave is
(A) c 0 / 2 E02 cos 2 (k z t ) j

(B) c 0 2 E 02 cos 2 ( k z t )k
(C) c 0 E0 cos (k z t ) j
2 2
(D) c 0 E0 cos (k z t )k
2 2
Q.41 Consider a system having three energy levels with energies 0, 2 and 3 , with respective
degeneracies of 2, 2 and 3. Four bosons of spin zero have to be accommodated in these levels such
that the total energy of the system is 10 . The number of ways in which it can be done is
________.
Q.42 The Lagrangian of a system is given by

L
1 2 2
2

ml sin 2 2 mgl cos , where m, l and g are constants.
Which of the following is conserved?
(A) sin
2 (B) sin
(C) (D)
sin sin 2
Q.43 Protons and -particles of equal initial momenta are scattered off a gold foil in a Rutherford
scattering experiment. The scattering cross sections for proton on gold and -particle on gold are
p and respectively. The ratio p is ________.
PH 6/10
GATE 2016 Physics
Q.44 For the digital circuit given below, the output X is
X
B
C
(A) A B C (B) A (B C)
(C) A (B C) (D) A (B C)
Q.45 The Fermi energies of two metals X and Y are 5 eV and 7 eV and their Debye temperatures are 170
K and 340 K, respectively. The molar specific heats of these metals at constant volume at low
temperatures can be written as C V X X T AX T 3 and CV Y Y T AY T 3 , where and A
are constants. Assuming that the thermal effective mass of the electrons in the two metals are same,
which of the following is correct?
X 7 AX X 7 AX 1
(A) , 8 (B) ,
Y 5 AY Y 5 AY 8
5 A 1 5 A
(C) X , X (D) X , X 8
Y 7 AY 8 Y 7 AY
Q.46 A two-level system has energies zero and E . The level with zero energy is non-degenerate, while
the level with energy E is triply degenerate. The mean energy of a classical particle in this system
at a temperature T is
Ee E / k BT Ee E / k BT
(A) (B)
1 3e E / k BT 1 e E / k BT
3Ee E / k BT 3Ee E / k BT
(C) (D)
1 e E / k BT 1 3e E / k BT
PH 7/10
GATE 2016 Physics
Q.47 A particle of rest mass M is moving along the positive x-direction. It decays into two photons 1
and 2 as shown in the figure. The energy of 1 is 1 GeV and the energy of 2 is 0.82 GeV. The
value of M (in units of GeV/c2) is ________. (Give your answer upto two decimal places)
Q.48 If x and p are the x components of the position and the momentum operators of a particle
2 2
respectively, the commutator [ x , p ] is
(A) i ( xp px ) (B) 2i ( xp px )
(C) i ( xp px ) (D) 2i ( xp px )
Q.49 The x-y plane is the boundary between free space and a magnetic material with relative
permeability r . The magnetic field in the free space is B x i B z k . The magnetic field in the
magnetic material is
(A) B x i B z k (B) B x i r B z k
(C)
1
B x i B z k (D) r B x i B z k
r

Q.50 Let l, m be the simultaneous eigenstates of L2 and L z . Here L is the angular momentum
operator with Cartesian components ( L x , L y , L z ) , l is the angular momentum quantum number
and m is the azimuthal quantum number. The value of 1,0 ( Lx iL y ) 1,1 is
(A) 0 (B) (C) 2 (D) 3
Q.51 For the parity operator P, which of the following statements is NOT true?
(A) = (B) P 2 P (C) P 2 I (D) =

GATE 2016 Physics
Q.52 For the transistor shown in the figure, assume VBE = 0.7 V and dc = 100. If Vin = 5V, Vout (in Volts)
is _________. (Give your answer upto one decimal place)
Q.53 The state of a system is given by

1 2 2 3 3
where 1 , 2 and 3 form an orthonormal set. The probability of finding the system in the
state 2 is ________. (Give your answer upto two decimal places)
Q.54 According to the nuclear shell model, the respective ground state spin-parity values of 15
O and
8
17
8 O nuclei are

1 1 1 5
(A) , (B) ,
2 2 2 2

3 5 3 1
(C) , (D) ,
2 2 2 2
GATE 2016 Physics
Q.55 A particle of mass m and energy E, moving in the positive x direction, is incident on a step potential
at x = 0, as indicated in the figure. The height of the potential is V0, where V0 > E. At
x x0 , where x0 0 , the probability of finding the electron is 1/e times the probability of finding
2m(V0 E )
it at x = 0. If , the value of x0 is
2
V0
E
x=0 x = x0
2 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 4
PH 10/10

sentence.
_________ ___________ is a will, _________ is a way.
(A) 39 (B) 57 (C) 66 (D) 93
1/3
P Q
10
9.5
9 9
8 8 8 8
7.5
7
6.5 6.5
6
2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006
(A) 2:3
(B) 3:4
(C) 6:7
(D) 4:3
2/3


2 2 2 2
(A) x (B) 0.75 x (C) 0.50 x (D) 0.25 x
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
3/3
GATE 2016 Production and Industrial Engineering (PI)

Q.1 The eigenvalues of the matrix
are
(A) i and i (B) 1 and 1 (C) 0 and 1 (D) 0 and 1
Q.2 The number of solutions of the simultaneous algebraic equations and is
(A) zero (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) infinite
Q.3 At x = 0, the function
sin , ,
is
(A) continuous and differentiable.

(B) not continuous and not differentiable.
(C) not continuous but differentiable.
(D) continuous but not differentiable.
Q.4 For the two functions
, and ,
which one of the following options is correct?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Q.5 The function
is singular at
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Q.6 A fair coin is tossed N times. The probability that head does not turn up in any of the tosses is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
PI 1/13
Q.7 A normal random variable X has the following probability density function
Then d
(A) 0 (B) (C) (D) 1
Q.8 The elastic modulus of a rigid perfectly plastic solid is
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 100 (D) infinity
Q.9 Consider the following statements:
(P) Hardness is the resistance of a material to indentation.

(Q) Elastic modulus is a measure of ductility.
(R) Deflection depends on stiffness.
(S) The total area under the stress-strain curve is a measure of resilience.
Among the above statements, the correct ones are
(A) P and Q only. (B) Q and S only. (C) P and R only. (D) R and S only.
PI 2/13
Q.10 A beam is subjected to an inclined concentrated load as shown in the figure below. Neglect the
weight of the beam.
The correct Free Body Diagram of the beam is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Q.11 Consider a circular cam with a flat face follower as shown in the figure below. The cam is rotated
in the plane of the paper about point P lying 5 mm away from its center. The radius of the cam is 20
mm. The distance (in mm) between the highest and the lowest positions of the flat face follower is
5 mm
(A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 40 (D) 45
PI 3/13
Q.12 A vertical cylindrical tank of 1 m diameter is filled with water up to a height of 5 m from its
bottom. Top surface of water is exposed to atmosphere. A hole of 5 mm2 area forms at the bottom
of the tank. Considering the coefficient of discharge of the hole to be unity and the acceleration due
to gravity to be 10 m/s2, the rate of leakage of water (in litre/min) through the hole from the tank to
the atmosphere, under the given conditions, is _______.
Q.13 The figure below shows an air standard Diesel cycle in p-V diagram. The cut-off ratio is given by:
2 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Q.14 The ratio of press force required to punch a square hole of 30 mm side in a 1 mm thick aluminium
sheet to that needed to punch a square hole of 60 mm side in a 2 mm thick aluminium sheet
is________.
Q.15 Which one of the following is a natural polymer?
(A) Cellulose (B) Nylon (C) Polyester (D) Polyvinyl chloride
Q.16 In powder metallurgy, sintering of the component

(A) increases density and reduces ductility.
(B) increases porosity and reduces density.
(C) increases density and reduces porosity.
(D) increases porosity and reduces brittleness.
Q.17 A single point right handed turning tool is used for straight turning. The feed is 0.25 mm/rev and
the uncut chip thickness is found to be 0.25 mm. The inclination angle of the main cutting edge is
10. The back rake angle (in degrees) is _______.
PI 4/13
Q.18 Consider the following statements.
(P) Electrolyte is used in Electro-chemical machining.

(Q) Electrolyte is used in Electrical discharge machining.
(R) Abrasive-slurry is used in Ultrasonic machining.
(S) Abrasive-slurry is used in Abrasive jet machining.
(A) P and R only (B) Q and S only (C) Q, R and S only (D) P and Q only
Q.19 Consider the following statements.
(P) Computer aided process planning (CAPP) takes input from material requirement plan (MRP).
(Q) Production flow analysis helps in work cell formation.
(R) Group technology takes input from choice of machining or cutting parameters.
Among the above statements, the correct one(s) is (are)
(A) P only (B) Q and R only (C) P and R only (D) Q only
Q.20 The limits of a shaft designated as 100h5 are 100.000 mm and 100.014 mm. Similarly, the limits of
a shaft designated as 100h8 are 100.000 mm and 100.055 mm. If a shaft is designated as 100h6, the
fundamental deviation (in m) for the same is
(A) 22 (B) zero (C) 22 (D) 24
Q.21 The roughness profile of a surface is depicted below.

profile height
2 m
centre-line of
the profile X
2 m
5 mm
The surface roughness parameter Ra (in m) is _______.
PI 5/13
Q.22 The facility layout technique that uses relationship (REL) chart is
(A) CRAFT. (B) Travel chart. (C) Partial Set Covering. (D) ALDEP.
Q.23 For a random variable, X, let be the sample average. The sample size is n. The mean and the
standard deviation of X are and , respectively. The standard deviation of is
(A) (B) (C ) (D)

Q.24 ST and NT denote the standard time and the normal time, respectively, to complete a job.
Allowance , where . Which one of the following relationships is correct?
(A) (B) )
(C ) (D)
Q.25 The throughput rate of a production system is 20 units per hour. The average flow time is 30
minutes and the cycle time is 3 minutes. The average inventory (in units) in the system is
(A) 1.5 (B) 9 (C ) 10 (D) 11.33
Q.26 The range of values of k for which the function
has a local maxima at point x = 0 is
(A) or (B) or
(C) (D)
Q.27
lim is equal to ______.
PI 6/13
Q.28 To solve the equation
sin
by Newton-Raphson method, the initial guess was chosen to be x = 2.0. Consider x in radian only.
The value of x (in radian) obtained after one iteration will be closest to
(A) 8.101 (B) 1.901 (C) 2.099 (D) 12.101
Q.29 In linear gas tungsten arc welding of two plates of the same material, the peak temperature T (in K)
is given as , where q is the heat input per unit length (in J/m) of weld, is the thermal
2
diffusivity (in m /s) of the plate materials and is a constant independent of process parameters
and material types. Two welding cases are given below.
Case I: V = 15 V, I = 200 A, v = 5 mm/s, k = 150 W/mK, = 3000 kg/m3, C = 900 J/kg-K

Case II: V = 15 V, I = 300 A, v = 10 mm/s, k = 50 W/mK, = 8000 kg/m3, C = 450 J/kg-K
where, V is welding voltage, I is welding current, v is welding speed, and k, and C refer to the
thermal conductivity, the density and the specific heat of the plate materials, respectively. Consider
that electrical energy is completely converted to thermal energy. All other conditions remain same.
The ratio of the peak temperature in Case I to that in Case II is
(A) (B) (C) 1 (D) 2
Q.30 A bar of rectangular cross-sectional area of 50 mm2 is pulled from both the sides by equal forces of
100 N as shown in the figure below. The shear stress (in MPa) along the plane making an angle 45o
with the axis, shown as a dashed line in the figure, is ________________.
100 N 100 N
o
45
PI 7/13
Q.31 A 1 m 10 mm 10 mm cantilever beam is subjected to a uniformly distributed load per unit
length of 100 N/m as shown in the figure below. The normal stress (in MPa) due to bending at point
P is ____________.
Point P
100 N/m
1m
Q.32 A thin-walled cylindrical pressure vessel of internal diameter 2 m is designed to withstand an

internal pressure of 500 kPa (gauge). If the allowable normal stress at any point within the
cylindrical portion of the vessel is 100 MPa, the minimum thickness of the plate of the vessel (in
mm) is________.
Q.33 An engine, connected with a flywheel, is designed to operate at an average angular speed of 800
rpm. During operation of the engine, the maximum change in kinetic energy in a cycle is found to
be 6240 J. In order to keep the fluctuation of the angular speed within 1% of its average value, the
moment of inertia (in kg-m2) of the flywheel should be ____________.
Q.34 A 2 m 2 m square opening in a vertical wall is covered with a metallic plate of the same
dimensions as shown in the figure below. Consider the acceleration due to gravity to be 10.0 m/s2.
The force (in kN) exerted by water on the plate is _____.
patm
patm
2m
vertical wall
water
2m 2m2m
square plate
vertical wall
PI 8/13
Q.35 An ideal gas of mass m is contained in a rigid tank of volume V at a pressure p. During a reversible
process its pressure reduces to . Following statements are made regarding the process.
(P) Heat is transferred from the gas.

(Q) Work done by the gas is zero.
(R) Entropy of the gas remains constant.
(S) Entropy of the gas decreases.
(A) P and R only. (B) P, Q and R only. (C) Q and R only. (D) P, Q and S only.
Q.36 A long slender metallic rod of length L is used as a fin. As shown in the figure below, the left end
of the fin is kept at a constant temperature tb. The fin loses heat by convection to the atmosphere
which is at a temperature ta (ta< tb). Four options of temperature profiles are shown. Identify the
correct option.
convection
tb
x x=L
atmosphere at ta
(A) (B)
tb tb
temperature
temperature
ta ta
0 x L 0 L
x
(C) (D)
tb tb
temperature
temperature
ta ta
0 x L 0 L
x
PI 9/13
Q.37 In a fully developed turbulent flow through a circular pipe, a head loss of is observed. The
diameter of the pipe is increased by 10% for the same flow rate and a head loss of is noted.
Assume friction factor for both the cases of pipe flow is the same. The ratio of is closest to
(A) 0.34 (B) 0.62 (C) 0.87 (D) 1.00
Q.38 Two cast iron blocks P and Q, each of 500 mm length, have the same cross-sectional area. Block P
has rectangular cross-section of 100 mm 200 mm. Block Q is of square cross-section. Both P and
Q were cast under the same conditions with all their surfaces enclosed within the mould. The
solidification time of a casting is proportional to the square of the ratio of its volume to its surface
area. The ratio of solidification time of the block P to that of the block Q is ______.
Q.39 A 300 mm long copper wire of uniform cross-section is pulled in tension so that a maximum tensile
stress of 270 MPa is developed within the wire. The entire deformation of the wire remains linearly
elastic. The elastic modulus of copper is 100 GPa. The resultant elongation (in mm) is ________.
Q.40 In a single-pass rolling operation, a 200 mm wide metallic strip is rolled from a thickness 10 mm to
a thickness 6 mm. The roll radius is 100 mm and it rotates at 200 rpm. The roll-strip contact length
is a function of roll radius and, initial and final thickness of the strip. If the average flow stress in
plane strain of the strip material in the roll gap is 500 MPa, the roll separating force (in kN) is
_______.
Q.41 Two solid cylinders of equal diameter have different heights. They are compressed plastically by a
pair of rigid dies to create the same percentage reduction in their respective heights. Consider that
the die-workpiece interface friction is negligible. The ratio of the final diameter of the shorter
cylinder to that of the longer cylinder is __________.
Q.42 Two flat steel sheets, each of 2.5 mm thickness, are being resistance spot welded using a current of
6000 A and weld time of 0.2 s. The contact resistance at the interface between the two sheets is
200 and the specific energy to melt steel is 10109 J/m3. A spherical melt pool of diameter 4
mm is formed at the interface due to the current flow. Consider that electrical energy is completely
converted to thermal energy. The ratio of the heat used for melting to the total resistive heat
generated is ______.
Q.43 A cylindrical bar of 100 mm diameter is orthogonally straight turned with cutting velocity, feed and
depth of cut of 120 m/min, 0.25 mm/rev and 4 mm, respectively. The specific cutting energy of the
work material is 1109 J/m3. Neglect the contribution of feed force towards cutting power. The
main or tangential cutting force (in N) is ________.
PI 10/13
Q.44 A 60 mm wide block of low carbon steel is face milled at a cutting speed of 120 m/min, feed of 0.1
mm/tooth and axial depth of cut of 4 mm. A schematic representation of the face milling process is
shown below. The diameter of the cutter is 120 mm and it has 12 cutting edges. The material
removal rate (in mm3/s) is ______.
120 mm
60 mm
feed
work piece
cutter
schematic representation (top view)
Q.45 In abrasive water jet machining, the velocity of water at the exit of the orifice, before mixing with
abrasives, is 800 m/s. The mass flow rate of water is 3.4 kg/min. The abrasives are added to the
water jet at a rate of 0.6 kg/min with negligible velocity. Assume that at the end of the focusing
tube, abrasive particles and water come out with equal velocity. Consider that there is no air in the
abrasive water jet. Assuming conservation of momentum, the velocity (in m/s) of the abrasive water
jet at the end of the focusing tube is _________.
Q.46 A single axis CNC table is driven by a DC servo motor that is directly coupled to a lead screw of 5
mm pitch. The circular encoder attached to the lead screw generates 1000 voltage pulses per
revolution of the lead screw. The table moves at a constant speed of 6 m/min. The corresponding
frequency (in kHz) of the voltage pulses generated by the circular encoder is_________.
Q.47 A helical gear with involute tooth profile has been machined with a disc-type form gear milling

cutter. The helical gear has 30 teeth and a helix angle of 30 . The module of the gear milling cutter
is 2. The pitch circle diameter (in mm) of the helical gear is_______________.
Q.48 A quality control engineer has collected 5 samples, each of size 30. The numbers of defective items
in the samples are given in the table below.
Sample number I II III IV V

Number of defective items 3 2 4 1 5
The upper three-sigma (3) control limit for the proportion of defective items in any sample is
_____.
PI 11/13
Q.49 A job consists of two work elements, P and Q. Completion time (in minutes) of each work element
was measured. A pilot study involved collecting a sample of 40 observations. The results of this
pilot study are summarized in the table below.
Work element Mean completion time (in minutes) Standard deviation (in minutes)
P 1 0.50
Q 1 0.05
For the main study, the minimum sample size for the sample mean time of any work element to be
within 0.1 minutes of its true mean time with 95% confidence (corresponding standard normal
value, . . is ______________.
Q.50 Consider a system with 10 identical components connected in series. The time to failure of each
component is exponentially distributed with a failure rate of 0.10 per 500 days. The reliability of
the system after 400 days of operation is _____.
Q.51 For a process, the quality loss coefficient is 5. The target value on the dimension to be attained
through the process is 50 mm. If the maximum loss permissible (in monetary terms) is INR 80, the
maximum allowable deviation (in mm) from the target is
(A) (C) 4 (D)

(B)
Q.52 Consider a network with nodes 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6. The nodes are connected with directed arcs as
shown in the table below. The respective costs (in INR) incurred while traversing the directed arcs
are also mentioned.
Directed arcs 1 2 1 3 2 4 2 5 3 2 3 4 35 45 46 56
Cost (in INR) 3 9 3 2 2 4 8 7 2 2
The second shortest path from node 1 to node 6 (i.e. the path that has the second least total cost and
does not use any part of the shortest path) has a total cost (in INR) of
(A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 15 (D) 19
Q.53 Five jobs need to be processed on a single machine. All the jobs are available for processing at time
t = 0. Their respective processing times are given below.
Jobs I II III IV V
Processing times (in minutes) 13 4 7 14 11
The average completion time (in minutes) of jobs as per the Shortest Processing Time rule is
(A) 9.8 (B) 24.2 (C) 49.0 (D) 121.0
PI 12/13
Q.54 Transportation costs (in INR/unit) from factories to respective markets are given in the table below.
The market requirements and factory capacities are also given. Using the North-West Corner
method, the quantity (in units) to be transported from factory R to market II is
Factory Requirements
P Q R S (in units)
I 3 3 2 1 50
Market
II 4 2 5 9 20
III 1 2 1 4 30
Factory Capacity 20 40 30 10
(in units)
(A) 30 (B) 20 (C) 10 (D) 0
Q.55 In a given year, a restaurant earned INR 38,500 in revenues. In that year, total expenses incurred
were INR 30,000 and the depreciation amount was INR 3,200. At 40% tax rate, the net cash flow
(in INR) for that year was _____.
PI 13/13


13, 23, 33, 43, 53

(A) 23 (B) 33 (C) 43 (D) 53
Q.5 If |9y6| =3, then y2 4y/3 is .

(A) 0 (B) +1/3 (C) 1/3 (D) undefined
1/3

____.
2/3
developing country.

(A) 0.2508 (B) 0.2816 (C) 0.2934 (D) 0.6000
3/3
GATE 2016 Textile Engineering and Fibre Science

Q.1 The following partial differential equation + = is of the type
(A) Elliptic (B) Parabolic (C) Hyperbolic (D) Mixed type
Q.2 Which of the following is a multi-step numerical method for solving the ordinary differential
equation?
(A) Euler method (B) Improved Euler method
(C) Runge-Kutta method (D) Adams-Multon method
Q.3 Let be a normally distributed random variable with mean 2 and variance 4. Then, the mean of
is equal to ___________
Q.4
Let = . The determinant of is equal to
(A) (B) (C) (D) 2
Q.5 Which of the following amino acids is responsible for relatively higher wet strength in wool fiber?
(A) Threonine (B) Serine (C) Cystine (D) Tryosine
Q.6 Which one of the following stereo structures of polypropylene is (are) used for commercial fibre
manufacture?
(A) Atactic
(B) Syndiotactic
(C) Isotactic & Syndiotactic
(D) Isotactic
Q.7 Acrylic fibre has high glass transition temperature ( Tg 100oC) primarily due to
(A) Presence of polar side groups
(B) Presence of bulky side groups
(C) High crystallinity
(D) Main chain stiffness
Q.8 In which of the following polymerization methods the rate of reaction is very high and leads to
uncontrolled polymerization ?
(A) Solution polymerization
(B) Suspension polymerization
(C) Bulk polymerization
(D) Emulsion polymerization
Q.9 Which of the following textile strands is the finest?

(A) 30s Ne (B) 30 denier (C) 30 tex (D) 30s Nm
Q.10 In a carding machine, in which of the following zones the fibre alignment is negatively affected to
the maximum extent?
(A) Cylinder to flats carding region (B) Licker-in to cylinder transfer region
(C) Cylinder to doffer transfer region (D) Doffer to calendar roller region
TF 1/7
Q.11 Which of the following is the correct sequence of events which happen in a roller drafting zone?
(A) Fibre elongation-fibre decrimping- fibre sliding
(B) Fibre sliding-fibre elongation-fibre decrimping
(C) Fibre decrimping- fibre sliding- fibre elongation
(D) Fibre decrimping- fibre elongation- fibre sliding
Q.12 In which region of ring spinning, Coriolis force acts?

(A) Lappet to ring cop
(B) Delivery pair of drafting rollers to lappet
(C) Back pair of drafting rollers to delivery pair of drafting rollers
(D) Feed bobbin to back pair of drafting rollers
Q.13 Which of the following shuttleless weaving systems can offer maximum fabric width ?
(A) Air jet (B) Water jet (C) Projectile (D) Rapier
Q.14 The filling yarn density at selvage is doubled in case of

(A) Fringe selvage
(B) Tucked-in selvage
(C) Shuttle selvage
(D) Leno selvage
Q.15 Which of the following shedding mechanisms provides control of individual warp thread during
weaving ?
(A) Crank (B) Tappet (C) Dobby (D) Jacquard
Q.16 The time required (minutes) to wind 10 kg of 40 tex yarn when the winding machine works at
1000 m/min with an efficiency of 90% is ____________
Q.17 The test statistic to be used for carrying out a test of hypothesis on the mean of a normal
distribution with unknown variance is
(A) Z (B) T (C) 2 (D) F
Q.18 If the length of a confidence interval on the mean of a normal distribution with known variance is to
be halved, the sample size must
(A) increase by 2 times
(B) decrease by 2 times
(C) increase by 4 times
(D) decrease by 4 times
TF 2/7
Q.19 A comb sorter diagram of cotton fibres is shown below:

Y
A' B'
C'
M
D'
N
O A B C D X
where OM=0.5 OY, OA=0.25 OC, AN=0.5 AA', and OB=0.25 OD. The effective length is
(A) AA' (B) BB' (C) CC' (D) DD'
Q.20 A fabric specimen of original length 75 mm is stretched to a length of 120 mm and after removal of
the load the length reduces to 95 mm. The elastic recovery (%) of the fabric specimen is ________
Q.21 A sector-shaped, falling-pendulum type apparatus is suitable for measurement of

(A) Elmendorf tear strength
(B) Tongue tear strength
(C) Trapezoidal tear strength
(D) All of them
Q.22 Sodium persulphate is used in

(A) Bleaching (B) Scouring (C) Mercerization (D) Desizing
Q.23 Polyester is dyed with a disperse dye at 100 oC and 120oC till equilibrium is achieved. If D[f] and
D[s] represent the dye in fibre and dye in solution respectively, then the correct choice for the
dyeing isotherms at the two temperature will be
(A) (B)
120oC 120oC
100oC 100oC
D [f]
D [f]
D [s] D [s]
(C) (D)
100oC 100oC
120oC 120oC
D [f]
D [f]
D [s] D [s]
TF 3/7
Q.24 A dye with dischargeability rating of 1 (one) WILL NOT be suitable for
(A) Resist printing (B) Direct printing
(C) Discharge printing (D) Melt transfer printing
Q.25 The enzyme used for biopolishing of cotton is

(A) Cellulase (B) Pectinase (C) Amylase (D) Lipase
Q.26 The eigen values and eigen vectors of are

(A) and , respectively. (B) and , respectively.

(C) and , respectively. (D) and , respectively.
Q.27 Let , , = . The value of + + is equal to _________
Q.28 Let be a continuous type random variable with probability density function

= . When = .7 , the value of is equal to _____________

Q.29 The integrating factor of cos + sin = is

(A) (B) (C) (D)
Q.30 < <

The Fourier series of periodic function = and + = is given
< <
by sin + sin + sin + . Then, the value of + + is equal
to_________
Q.31 Match the fibers listed in Column A with the compounds used in its manufacture listed in Column
B. Choose the right answer from options A, B, C and D.
Column A Column B
P. Polypropylene 1. Carbon disulfide

Q. Polyethylene Terephthalate 2. Water
R. Nylon 6 3. Ziegler Natta catalyst
S. Viscose 4. Antimony trioxide & Antimony triacetate
(A) P-4,Q-1,R-2,S-3 (B) P-3,Q-4,R-2,S-1
(C) P-3,Q-4,R-1,S-2 (D) P-2,Q-1,R-3,S-4
TF 4/7
Q.32 Consider the following assertion [a] and reason [r] and choose the correct alternative from amongst
A, B, C and D.
[a] Both polyester and nylon filaments can be drawn at room temperature to achieve higher
strength, modulus and dimensional stability.
[r] Tg of both polyester and nylon can be lowered to room temperature on absorption of
atmospheric moisture.
(A) [a] is right and [r] is wrong

(B) [a] is right and [r] is right
(C) [a] is wrong and [r] is wrong
(D) [a] is wrong and [r] is right
Q.33 Low pill PET fibres of a given denier can be produced by a combination of any two options listed
below. Choose the right combination from A, B, C and D.
P. Lowering the IV (intrinsic viscosity) of the polymer

Q. Increasing the IV (intrinsic viscosity) of the polymer
R. Increasing the draw ratio
S. Decreasing the draw ratio
(A) P,S (B) P,R (C) Q,S (D) Q,R
Q.34 Which of the following combination of statements from options A, B, C and D is correct ?
1. X-ray Diffraction gives information about crystallinity and crystal size in semicrystalline
polymers.
2. Differential Scanning Calorimetery gives information about Tg, Tm and Tc as well as enthalpy of
melting and crystallization.
3. In Scanning Electron Microscopy the sample has to be coated with silver to make it conducting.
4. Birefringence is a measure of molecular orientation in amorphous phase only.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (B) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(C) 2, 3 and 4 are correct (D) All are correct
Q.35 Match the fibre in Column A with the spinning technique used to manufacture in Column B.
Choose the correct alternative from options A, B, C and D.
Column A Column B
P. Rayon 1. Dry-jet-wet spinning

Q. Aramid ( Kevlar) 2. Gel Spinning
R. Ultra High Molecular weight Polyethylene 3. Melt spinning
S. Polyester 4. Wet Spinning
(A) P-3,Q-1,R-2,S-4 (B) P-1,Q-3,R-4,S-2
(C) P-4,Q-2,R-1,S-3 (D) P-4,Q-1,R-2,S-3
Q.36 If 50 bales of 5 g/inch, 20 bales of 3.5 g/inch and 40 bales of 3.0 g/inch cotton fibres are mixed,
the resultant g/inch of the mixed cotton is __________
Q.37 A rotor with 48 mm diameter running at 90,000 rpm is producing yarn at 140 m/min. The number
of doublings of fibre layers in the rotor is _________
TF 5/7
A, B, C and D.
[a] Compared to ring spun yarns, rotor spun yarns have better evenness for the same yarn count.
[r] Rotor spun yarns have more number of fibres in the yarn cross section compared to ring spun
yarns of same count.
Q.39 The final yarn count required from a ring frame is 36s Ne with 28 TPI. The twist contraction
during spinning is 3%. If the feed roving count is 2s Ne, the mechanical draft required in the ring
frame will be _________
Q.40 The diameter (mm) of a cotton yarn of 50 tex count and 0.45 packing density, assuming cotton fibre
density to be 1.54 g/cm3, is ___________
Q.41 In needle punching process, higher punch density CAN NOT cause
(A) Lower web thickness
(B) Higher change of fabric dimensions
(C) Higher damage of fibres
(D) Higher permeability of fabric
Q.42 Which of the following features IS NOT found in a crepe weave

(A) Highly irregular surface-puckered in appearance
(B) Prominent twill effect on the fabric
(C) Minute spots or seeds spread over the fabric
(D) High twist yarn with controlled shrinkage
Q.43 The crimp% of a square cloth in which thread spacing is equal to the yarn diameter and no jamming
takes place, will be ___________
Q.44 A 38 cm diameter circular knitting machine accommodates 4 needles per cm. The stitch length is 6
mm and wale constant can be assumed to be 42.2. The flat fabric width (cm) in finished - relaxed
form is ___________
Q.45 The least desired feature of fibre in wet laid nonwoven fabric is
(A) High affinity for water (B) Low aspect ratio
(C) High flexural rigidity (D) Low crimpiness
Q.46 The surface area per unit volume (mm-1) of a circular polyester fibre of 1.5 denier fineness and 1.38
g/cm3 density, ignoring the fibre ends, is ____________
Q.47 The fibre packing density in a cotton bale of 170 kg weight and dimensions 1060 mm (L) 530
mm (W) 780 mm (H), assuming cotton fibre density to be 1.54 g/cm3, is __________
Q.48 A cotton yarn with 5% breaking elongation needs to be tested for breaking strength in a tensile
tester at 500 mm gauge length. The clamp speed (mm/min) required to break the specimen in 20 s
is _________
TF 6/7
Q.49 The rotational speed of a card cylinder with locally damaged card clothing is 400 rpm and the sliver
delivery rate is 100 m/min. The wavelength (m) of the periodic mass variation in the card sliver is
_________
Q.50 The flexural rigidity, expressed in 10-4 mgcm, of a fabric test specimen of 100 g/m2 areal density
and 0.40 mm length of overhang determined using a cantilever test with a standard angle of
deflection of 41.5, is ___________
Q.51 The volume strength of 1 molar H2O2 solution will be ___________
A, B, C and D.
[a] In dyeing of polyester with disperse dyes, it is easier to obtain dark shades with solvent dyeing
method than with aqueous dyeing method.
[r] The partition coefficient (D[f]/D[s]) of disperse dyes is much lower in aqueous medium than in a
solvent.
Q.53 A reactive dye is applied on cotton fabric by continuous method. The achieved shade on fabric is
2% on the weight of fabric. The dyebath concentration is 25 gram per litre and the % expression
after padding is 100. The specific gravity of the solution is 1. The fixation % of the dye on the
fabric is __________________________
A, B, C and D.
[a] In resin finishing of cellulosic textiles, usually the curing stage is carried out in hot dry air and
not in steam.
[r] The acid catalyst used in resin formulation is activated in hot air only.
Q.55 Match the printing processes in Column A with print paste components in Column B. Choose the
correct alternative from options A, B, C and D.
Column A Column B
P. Pigment printing 1. Disperse dye

Q. Discharge printing 2. Binder
R. Resist printing 3. High solids content thickener
S. Sublimation transfer printing 4. Sodium formaldehyde sulphoxylate
(A) P-2,Q-3,R-4,S-1 (B) P-2,Q-4,R-3,S-1
(C) P-2,Q-4,R-1,S-3 (D) P-1,Q-4,R-3,S-2
TF 7/7

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GATE 2016

Q. 1 Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.2 Identify the correct spelling out of the given options:

Q.3 Pick the odd one out in the following:

13, 23, 33, 43, 53

(B) R2D2 is the only robot which can repair aeroplanes.

(C) R2D2 is a robot which can repair only aeroplanes.

(D) Only R2D2 is a robot.

Q.5 If |9y6| =3, then y2 4y/3 is .

Q. 6 Q. 10 carry two marks each.

Based on the proposal,

(A) 0.2508 (B) 0.2816 (C) 0.2934 (D) 0.6000

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

Q. 1 Q. 25 carry one mark each.

(A) i (B) i (C) i (D) i

(A) (i) (B) (ii)

Q.23 Indicated airspeed is used by a pilot during

Q. 26 Q. 55 carry two marks each.

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) e (D) e2

Q.36 Consider the following system of linear equations:

Q.41 The governing differential equation of motion of a damped system is given by

The value of definite integral x sin x dx

x 0 0.5 . The solution after one step is x _________.

Q.47 A substance experiences an entropy change of s 0 in a quasi-steady process. The rise in

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

Q. 1 Q. 5 carry one mark each.

(A) wont buy (B) shant buy

(C) wouldnt buy (D) would buy

Q.2 He turned a deaf ear to my request.

What does the underlined phrasal verb mean?

(A) ignored (B) appreciated (C) twisted (D) returned

_________ ___________ is a will, _________ is a way.

(A) Wear, there, their (B) Were, their, there

(C) Where, there, there (D) Where, their, their

(A) 2 % of xy (B) 2 % of (xy/100) (C) xy % of 100 (D) 100 % of xy

(A) 39 (B) 57 (C) 66 (D) 93

Q. 6 Q. 10 carry two marks each.

2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006

(C) Statues of kings are a reminder of their greatness.

(D) A kings greatness, as we know him today, is interpreted by historians.

Q.8 Fact 1: Humans are mammals.

I. All mammals build houses.

(A) II only. (B) III only.

(C) I, II and III. (D) I only.

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

(A) -6.3 and -2.7 (B) -2.3 and -6.7

Q.2 With n being a positive integer, the series , for p > 1 is

(A) convergent (B) divergent (C) asymptotic (D) oscillatory

Q.3 The general solution of the differential equation = + is

Q.4 The function is

Q.9 In a cropped field, the following data are observed.

Q.12 Match the following

Q.25 Match the following

Q. 26 Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.27 The value of the integral, is ______________________

Q.50 Milk sterilization kinetics is based on inactivation of index microorganism, Bacillus

Q.55 In a particle size analysis, the following results are obtained:

Volume-surface mean diameter of the particles in m is ______________________

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

Q. 1 Q. 5 carry one mark each.

(B) The price of an apple is more than onion.

(C) The price of an apple is greater than that of an onion.

(D) Apples are more costlier than onions.

___ _ is a will, _____ is a way.