General Mechanical 1

General Welding Inspection Multiple Choice
1. What is the NACE MR0175?

a. Metals for Sulfide Stress Cracking and Stress Corrosion Cracking Resistant in Sour Oilfield
Environment. (SSC / SCCR).
2. According to NACE MR0175 what is the normal maximum hardness of carbon and low alloy
steels exposed to sour service?
a. 22 HRC Maximum for carbon and low alloy steels according to NACE MR0175.
3. In addition to hardness testing, what is the other main requirement in NACE MR0175:
a. Material must be HIC tested.
4. How would you measure raised face finish?
a. By the comparators gauge.
5. What additional mechanical test is done a material for low temperature:
a. Impact Test
6. Tensile test results typically list three attributes. What they are:
a. % Elongation.
b. Yield Strength.
c. Ultimate strength.
d. All of the above.
7. Can hardness test results be used as guideline for determining tensile strength?
a. Yes.
b. No.
8. Explain the WPS?
a. Is written document which provide the direction to the welder and welding operator.
9. What international standard gives the requirement for quality assurance system?
a. ISO 9001:2008.
10. AWS D1.1 always requires qualification of welding procedures:
a. True.
b. False.
11. Shear wave ultrasonics is the best nondestructive examination method for detecting fine
surface cracks in steel forgings?
a. True.
b. False.
12. Radiography is the best nondestructive examination for detecting side wall lack of fusion in gas
metal arc welding?
a. True.
b. False
13. What is the PQR?
a. Procedure Qualification Record.
b. Welder Performance Test.
c. Welding Procedure.
d. All of the above
Prepared by:
Muhammad Imran Nissoana
Intertek Moody Technical Specialist (Inspection & Expediting)
14. What is the WPQ?
a. Welding Procedure Specification.
b. Welder Performance Qualification.
c. Procedure Qualification Record.
d. None of the above.
15. What is the minimum acceptable mechanical test in a Welder Performance Qualification Test:
a. Guide bend test.
b. Tensile Test.
c. Face bend Test.
16. What American national standard gives pipelines welding procedure and welder qualification
requirements?
a. API 1104
b. ASME Section IX.
c. B31.3.
d. ASME Section VIII.
17. What American national standard gives the welding requirement for structural steel application
a. ASME Section IX.
b. API 1104.
c. AWS D1.1.
d. ASME Section VIII.
18. Generally qualification in the 6G position qualifies a welder in all positions for groove welds:
a. True.
b. False.
19. What is meant by the term Essential Variables in the WPS?
a. A change which will affect the mechanical properties.
20. According to ASME Section IX, procedure qualification is not required when an essential variable
is changed:
a. True.
b. False.
21. Why is preheat so critical in welding alloy steels?
a. To avoid the HICC and to reduce the cooling rate of the weldment.
22. What is the inter-pass Temperature?
a. A Maximum temperature in the section of the previously deposited weld metal,
immediately before the next pass started.
23. What is purpose of the post weld heat treatment?
a. Stress Relief.
24. What is the minimum required tensile value of a 7018 Electrode?
a. 70 KSI / 483 MPA / 70000 PSI.
Prepared by:
25. AWS D1.1 gives requirements for stud welding.
a. True.
b. False.
26. Performing magnetic particle examination using dry powder in the over head position is far and
away the most enjoyable nondestructive examination:
a. True.
b. False.
27. What extra precaution must be taken with low hydrogen electrodes:
a. Proper Storage.
b. Proper Baking / Holding.
c. Care during use.
28. Does AWS D1.1 require a welder to be qualified when pre-qualified weld procedures are used?
a. Yes.
b. No.
29. Name at least 5 attributes / items that you would expect to be contained in a steel material:
a. Material Specification.
b. Chemical Composition.
c. Mechanical Test Result.
d. Heat No.
e. CEV%
f. All of the above
30. What is the mil?
a. Unit.
31. Describes the acronym and welding process for SMAW.
a. Shielded Metal Arc Weld.
32. Describes the acronym and welding process for SAW
a. Submerge Arc Weld.
33. Describes the acronym and welding process for GTAW.
a. Gas Tungsten Arc Weld.
34. Describes the acronym and welding process for GMAW.
a. Gas Metal Arc Weld.
35. Describes the acronym and welding process for FCAW.
a. Flux Core Arc Weld.
36. Name the three modes for GMAW.
a. Short Circuit.
b. Spray transfer.
c. Globular Transfer.
Prepared by:
37. What is difference between the DCRP and DCEP?
a. DCRP (Direct Current Reverse Polarity) for SMAW & DCEP (Direct Current Straight Polarity)
for GMAW.
38. A welder qualified in the 5G position may weld in what position according to ASME IX.
a. 1G Flat (F).
b. 2G (Horizontal) (F, H).
c. 5G (Overhead) (F, V, O).
d. All of the Above.
39. Explain the reason for specifying a maximum inter-pass temperature when welding austenitic
stainless steel?
a. To avoid the sanitization.
b. To avoid the Solidification Crack.
c. To avoid the hardened.
40. What type of SS filler material is commonly used to join 304 SS to carbon steel or as the first
layer when overlaying CS with SS.?
a. E/ER-309L.
b. E/ER-308.
c. E/ER-316.
41. What is carbon equivalent and what is its importance in welding?
a. CEV is the percentage of carbon content in the material, which will affect the weld-ability.
42. What precautions should be taken prior to welding the base metal in cladded joint?
a. Check the consumable.
b. Atmospheric condition.
43. What is PMI?
a. Positive material Identification (Cross Checking to Identify the Material).
44. Steels containing 0.10% carbon are harder than steels containing 0.50% carbon.
a. True
b. False
45. Assuming there are no discontinuities, the weld metal is stronger than the base material being
joined.
a. True
b. False
46. List some of the important character qualities a good inspector should posses.
a. Good academic background.
b. Good communication skill.
c. Code study.
d. Technical knowledge.
e. All of the above
47. Circumferential seams are always welded before longitudinal seams.
Prepared by:
a. True
b. False
48. E-6010 electrodes are preferred over E-7018 electrodes for vertical down welding.
a. True
b. False
49. Why are shielding gases used during welding?
a. To protect the weldment from atmospheric.
50. What quality of near vision acuity must a welding inspector have?
a. Traditional 20/20 unaided.
b. Not less than 20/20.
c. Jaeger-J. May use corrective glass.
d. Doesnt matter.
51. When weld repairs are required, to whom should you make the report?
a. To the welder whose mark is on the weld.
b. To another welder, better trained.
c. To the welding Forman.
d. To the project Engineer.
52. What Professional attributes is most helpful in performing inspection duties?
a. Being informed, impartial and consistent.
b. Being close friends with welders and superiors.
c. Having Past welding Experience.
53. How can you identify an individual low-hydrogen electrode, which a welder is already
consuming to make a weld?
a. Ask the welder what it was.
b. Read the classification number printed on the covering near the stub end.
c. Ask the welding Forman.
d. All of the above
54. How should low-hydrogen electrodes be stored before use?
a. In their original unopened container.
b. In tool room cribs, properly labeled, ready for quick distribution.
c. In ovens held at temperatures assuring low humidity.
55. What joint fit up should an inspector insist on?
a. Tolerances specified on drawings or specifications.
b. Tight fit of butt joints, to preserve dimensions of the weldment.
c. Whatever gap comes up, if not obviously too big for welder to span.
d. All of above.
56. How should low-hydrogen electrodes out of their container be stored?
a. In their original resealed container.
b. In holding ovens.
Prepared by:
c. In open tool cribs.
57. What is the thermal expansion?
a. The increase in temperature of metal adjacent to the weld.
b. The change in shape of metal as it becomes malleable near the liquid state.
c. The increase in volume of metal due to increased temperature.
58. How is stress induced by the thermal effects of welding?
a. Molten metal is unable to support a load.
b. The welding rod exerts force against the base metal.
c. The lattice structure is distorted by non-uniform heating and cooling of the metal.
59. How is residual stress relieved?
a. Bend the metal back and forth.
b. Drill holes in nonstructural areas.
c. Heat the metal to a designated temperature and quench it with water.
d. Heat the metal to a designated temperature and cooling it uniformly.
60. What is the autogenously welding?
a. Oxyacetylene welding.
b. Sheet metal welding with the short-circuiting mode of SMAW.
c. Welding with no added filler metal.
61. What is the shielding?
a. Shielding is thermal protection from welding process.
b. Shielding is protection from radioactivity present during welding process.
c. Shielding is the technique of blanketing the welding area with gases of fluxes.
62. Which of the following would be considered shielding?
a. Flux
b. A cooling protective slag.
c. All of the above.
d. None of the above
63. What steels have the best weld-ability?
a. Steels with less than 0.20% carbon content.
b. Steels with about 0.40% carbon content.
c. Free machining steel with high load content.
d. Cast iron.
64. What substances contain hydrogen?
a. Moisture.
b. Oil and greases
c. Rust
Prepared by:
d. All of the above
65. Which way best describes how the presence of hydrogen adversely affects the welding process?
a. It causes porosity.
b. It causes brittleness and cracking.
c. It causes lamination.
66. If the root opening is too close, what corrective action should be taken?
a. Apply more heat in the welding process.
b. Increase the opening by jacking apart, cutting, grinding or gouging before welding.
c. Either a, b and d
67. If accessibility is not available to the back of a joint, what types of discontinuities are most likely
to appear?
a. Porosity and slag inclusion.
b. Incomplete of fusion and burn through.
c. De-lamination and lamellar tears.
68. What is the difference between discontinuities and defects?
a. A defect is a reject-able discontinuity.
b. Discontinuities are in the base metal and defects are in weld metal.
c. No difference
d. A discontinuity is always a reject-table defect.
69. Where does the gas which causes porosity come from?
a. Gas used in the welding process.
b. Gas released from chemical reactions occurring during the welding process.
c. Both a and b.
70. What is the difference between porosity and inclusions?
a. Porosity consists of bubbles in the weld while inclusions are forms of cracks.
b. Porosity is caused by entrapped gas white inclusions are entrapped solid particle.
c. Porosity and inclusion.
71. When can cracking associated with the welding process occur?
a. When applying heat in the welding process.
b. When the weld in cooling off.
c. During the welding.
d. a, b and c.
e. Both a and b.
72. What discontinuity would give rise to a series of re-melted dots beside a weld, resembling a trail
left in striking a match?
a. Linear porosity.
b. Aligned micro-porosity.
Prepared by:
c. An arc strike.
d. Non of the above.
73. What information about discontinuities must acceptable contain?
a. Type of discontinuities which are not permissible.
b. Maximum allowable size of respective discontinuities.
c. Both a and b.
74. When inspecting a fillet weld name one reference you should use to judge whether it is the
proper size?
a. The experience of the inspector.
b. Dimensions specified on the construction drawings.
c. Published ASME codes.
75. What type visual inspection is most effective in eliminating discontinuities?
a. In-process inspection before the weld is completed.
b. Inspection after the weld is completed.
c. Inspection in the repair process.
d. b and c.
76. A nonmagnetic weld has a crack close to the surface which is plugged tightly with slag which
NDE method will reveal.
a. Liquid penetrant.
b. Magnetic particle.
c. Radiography.
d. Both a and b.
77. Which NDE method can detect incomplete fusion?
a. Magnetic Particle.
b. Radiography.
c. Both a and b.
78. Which NDE method is most often automated?
a. Visual
b. Liquid Penetrant.
c. Magnetic Particle.
d. Radiography
e. Eddy current
79. Which NDE method is locating laminations?
a. Radiography.
b. Ultrasonic.
c. Both a and b are equally sensitive to lamination.
Prepared by:
80. What NDE method sometime inspected under ultraviolet light illumination.
a. Liquid Penetrant test.
b. Magnetic Particle Test.
c. Leak Test.
81. A Vendor quote takes precedence over any conflicts with client purchase order, because the
client reviewed the quote and by awarding the order to the vendor, also accepted any conflicts.
a. True.
b. False.
82. PWHT is normally required for carbon steel butt-welds over 1 thick.
a. True.
b. False.
83. Which is the following welding process is typically used when access to the back side of the weld
is not possible?
a. GMAW
b. SAW
c. GTAW
d. FCAW
84. What is the ASME IX P number of A516 grade70 plate?
a. A 516-70 is deal to P 1 (QW/QB-422).
85. Define the 3G welding position.
A. Flat. (1G).
B. Horizontal (2G).
C. Vertical (3G).
D. Over head (4G).
86. List at least for essential variable for SMAW pipe welding.
a. P Number. (Ref. QW.253).
b. F Number.
c. A Number.
87. List of at least 3 different type of hardness tests.
a. Brinnel.
b. Rockwell.
c. Vickers.
88. Which of the following weld electrodes are acceptable for overhead position? May include more
than one response.
a. E-6010. (According to ASME II part C Table-1 Electrode classification (a and c is correct).
b. E-6020.
c. E-7014.
d. E-7024.
e. E-7028.
Prepared by:
89. In welding terms what is meant by heat affected zone?

a. HAZ is the portion for base metal that is not melted during the weld (brazing, cutting,
welding. Which can change the microstructure properties during the heat process?
90. When performing tack welding on material that will later be weld using a qualified procedure
that requires a preheat up to 200F does area to be tack welded require preheat even through
the tack weld will be remove later prior to welding?
a. Yes. (According ASME B31.3 Clause 330.1 table)
b. No.
91. When welding high nickel stainless steels, always use a welding rod of lower nickel content than
the base metal.
a. True.
b. False.
92. Is the inspector required to reject a weld when NDE of a completed weld reveals a discontinuity
in the weld material?
a. Yes.
b. No.
93. A cylinder has an OD strapping that measures 10 0. What is the strapping measurement for
45?
94. How many minutes of arc in one degree?
a. 30 deg.
b. 60 deg.
c. 90 deg.
d. 120 deg.
e. 360 deg.
95. To ensure continued accuracy, inspection devices must be periodically.
a. Polished.
b. Corrected.
c. Calibrated.
d. Rust Proofed.
e. All of the above.
96. Dial indicators are adaptable for use with.
a. Height Gauge.
b. Bore Gauges
c. Snap Gauges.
d. Measuring calipers.
97. List two inspection tools or instruments that is typically used to measuring pre-heat?
a. Thermometer.
b. Temple stick (temperature indicating caryons)
c. Pyrometer.
Prepared by:
d. Digital thermometer.
e. Thermocouples.
f. All of the above.
98. When preheating is specified where the area should be measured to ensure proper preheating
has been accomplished.
a. The preheat zone shall extend at least 25mm beyond each edge of the weld. ASME B31.3
330.1.4.
99. What does ASME Section V address?
a. NDE.
100. Name the four basic weld joints.
a. Butt.
b. Lap.
c. Corner.
d. Edge.
101. Where are the toes of a weld?
a. At the foot.
b. Where the root meets the base metal.
c. Junctions of face and base.
d. Internal junction of welds made from opposite sides of a joint.
102. Name at least three types of bevel (groove) preparations suitable for submerged arc
welding, including descriptions of when they are used.
a. Double J.
b. Double V.
c. Single V.
d. Double U.
103. List two types of material where a DC welding machine would be used?
a. Carbon Steel.
b. Stainless Steel.
c. Both a and b.
104. Why is there always a straight face of approximately 3 mm on a bevel?
a. To minimize tendency for burn through by supporting to liquid weld pool.
105. Name four groove weld positions and their position.
a. 1G.
b. 2G.
c. 3G.
d. 4G.
Prepared by:
106. Why does weld-able stainless steel (i.e.316L) contain less carbon than standard grade
stainless steel?
a. To avoid the sensitization.
107. Name two test methods that determine material toughness?
a. Charpy V notch toughness.
b. CTOD (Crack Tip Opening Displacement.
108. A film side penetrameter can be used for :
a. inaccessible welds (unable to hand place a source penetrameter)
b. all welds
c. all castings at any time
d. an alternative to a source-side wire pentrameter
109. A dark image of the "B" on a lighter background is :
a. Acceptable
b. Reject-able
c. Sometimes reject-able
110. One of the procedural requirements for conducting PT is to address the processing
details for :
a. Post-examination cleaning
b. Pre-examination cleaning
c. Apply the penetrant
d. All of the above
111. Non-aqueous developer may be applied to a wet surface.
a. True
b. False
112. The accuracy of a piece of magnetizing equipment that is equipped with an ammeter
shall be verified :
a. Each year
b. Each two years
c. When possible
d. Every 6 months
113. When using fluorescent particles, the examiner shall be in a darkened area for at least
________ minutes prior to performing the examination.
a. 7
b. 10
c. 9
d. 1
114. A wire IQI shall be placed adjacent to the weld, with the wires parallel to the weld.
a. True
b. False
115. A field indicator is composed of _______low carbon steel pie sections, furnace brazed
together.
a. 2
b. 6
c. 10
d. 8
Prepared by:
116. The type and amperage of magnetizing current must be identified on the written MT
procedure.
a. True
b. False
117. Certification of contaminants shall be obtained for all PT materials used on :

a. Carbon steels
b. Ferritic stainless steels
c. Austenitic stainless steels
118. Black light intensity shall be measured with a _______ when conducting fluorescent PT.
a. Dark room meter
b. Photo-meter
c. Black light meter
119. When should a densitometer be calibrated as a minimum?
a. Annually
b. Every 90 days
c. Whenever it is turned on
d. As required by the Examiner
120. The location markers required by ASME V are required to appear as radiographic
images.
a. True
b. False
121. D.C. yokes may be used for detecting subsurface discontinuities, per ASME V?
a. True
b. False
122. When coatings are applied to enhance contrast, the procedure must be demonstrated
that indications can be detected through the coating.
a. True
b. False
123. How many total liquid penetrant techniques are listed in ASME V?
a. 4
b. 6
c. 2
d. 1
124. Prior to examinations, each adjacent surface shall be cleaned within at least _____" of
the area to be examined.
a. 1
b. 1.5
c. 2
d. 3
Prepared by:
125. Water washable penetrant shall be removed with a water spray not exceeding 60 psi
and 1000F.
a. True
b. False
126. The maximum emulsification time shall be :

a. 5 minutes
b. 10 minutes
c. 15 minutes
d. none of the above
127. Densitometers shall be calibrated by verification with a calibrated:
a. Densitometer
b. Step Wedge Comparison Strip
c. Light Meter
d. Transmission monitor
128. When using a hydrophilic emulsifier versus a lipophilic emulsifier and intermediate step
that must be taken is :
a. pre-flooding with emulsifier
b. pre-cleaning with solvent
c. pre-rinsing with water
d. pre-washing with detergent
129. A welded part is to be radio-graphed and is 1" thick, with 1/8" reinforcement. What
ASTM wire set IQI should be used on these radiographs if a source side technique is used :
a. Set A
b. Set B
c. Set C
d. Set D
130. When a PT test cannot be conducted between 500-1250F, what must be done, per ASME
V?
a. The procedure must be qualified.
b. The surface must be re-cleaned
c. The test cannot be conducted
131. The sulphue content of a penetrant is measured to be less than 0.0025g. This material is
acceptable for use on :
a. Nickel-base alloys
b. Carbon steel
c. ferritic steel
d. All of the above
132. All indications are to be evaluated in accordance with :
a. ASME VIII
b. ASME V
c. The referencing Code section
d. The written procedure
133. The scope of the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel, Code, Section V includes:
a. NDE acceptance crtieria
b. How to perform NDE to achieve a desired result
c. Where to do NDE ( i.e. what welds to examine )
Prepared by:
d. Who can be the Authorized inspector?
134. UT equipment is calibrated?
a. Before heat-treatment
b. After completing the examination
c. Prior to visual examination
d. Prior to PT examination
135. What finished surface is required of butt welds for PT examination?
a. Smooth surface prepared by grinding
b. Cosmetically clean acid etched surface
c. A near white blast surface
136. A penetrameter is used on a DWE/DWV. The penetrameter selection is based on:
a. The single wall thickness and weld reinforcement
b. Both wall thicknesses
c. The single wall thickness for Sch 80 pipe
137. A suitable means for applying penetrant.
a. Dipping
b. Brushing
c. Spraying
d. Any or all of the above
138. What materials require the use of tested and certified liquid penetrants as to the
contaminants in the penetrant?
a. Nickel alloys
b. Austenitic stainless steel alloys
c. Ferritic / martensific stainless steel
d. Both a and b, above
139. How shall indications be evaluated, i.e. acceptance standards for RT
a. To ASME V
b. To ASME VIII
c. To B31.3
d. To the referencing Code section
140. Thickness readings may be displayed on?
a. SRT
b. PRT
c. CRT
d. Strip chart recorder
141. How many copies of a procedure must be available to the Manufacturers NDE
Personnel?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
142. How shall Non-destrutive Examination Personnel be qualified?
a. To SNT-TC 1A
b. To CP-189
c. To referencing code requirements
Prepared by:
d. To ACCP rules
143. Which NDE methods are considered "surface" methods?
a. PT
b. RT
c. MT
d. Both A & C above
144. What designation is used to indicate the penetrameter is on the film side?
a. An "F"
b. An " E"
c. A " D"
d. An "FS"
145. What is a shim used for?
a. UT field adquacy
b. RT field direction
c. MT field strength and direction
d. MT field current applications
146. Why must the surface be closely observed during the application of the PT developer?
a. To ensure proper coating application
b. To ensure excess penetrant removal
c. To allow proper characterization of discontinuities
d. To see the "groovy" lines form
147. One of the five magnetization techniques is?
a. Round
b. Circular
c. Shear wave
d. Hall-effect Tangential-field
148. A true UT indication is one which exceeds:
a. 20% of DAC
b. 20% of CAD
c. 20% of DEC
d. 10% of DAC
149. Name one typical discontinuity detectable by the magnetic particle method
a. Lack of penetration
b. interpass lack of fusion
c. Slag inclusions
d. Toe cracks
150. For a DWE/SWV RT Technique, a minimum of ___________________ exposures shall be
made
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
151. When are location markers placed on the film side in SWV for curved surfaces?
a. Concave side is toward the source
b. Source to material distance greater than IR
c. A cobalt source is used
Prepared by:
152. What is the difference between an inspection and an examination per Section V of the
ASME Code?
a. Inspection performed AI
b. Examination performed by manufacturer's personnel
c. There is no difference between the two
153. Geometric un-sharpness is determined by :
a. UG= Fd/D
b. UG=PD/d
c. UG=fd/d
d. UG=ft/d
154. UT Thickness velocities are usually obtained from :
a. Tim's Handy Velocity Book
b. Similar materials
c. Similar product forms
d. Both B & C , above
155. Name one typical discontinuity detectable by the liquid penetrant method
a. I.P. on an NPS 2 girth weld
b. I.F. at the root of an NPS 2 girth weld
c. HAZ surface cracks on a NPS 2 girth weld
d. Slag inclusions on a NPS 8 longitudinal weld
156. What is to done to excess penetrant remaining on the surface after the specified
penetration time thus elapsed?
a. It must be removed
b. It can remain on the part
c. It must be developed
d. It must be removed with water only
157. A ____________________________ is a device used to determine the image quality of
radiograph
a. A step wedge comparison film
b. A densitometer
c. An IQI
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
158. In accordance with Section V, write type pentameters :
a. Can always be used
b. Can be used unless restricted by the referencing Code
c. Can never be used
d. Can be used only with Type 1 film
159. In a radiographic film of a weld, how are the following characteristics measured or
judged?
a. Film sensitivity or quality
b. Film density
160. What is the minimum and maximum allowable density through the image of the
penetrameter for radiographs made with :
a. A 2000 kV tube?
b. Cobalt 60 ( Co60) ?
Prepared by:
161. A single film tehnique was used to make a radiograph using a Cobalt-60 source. The
minimum permitted density inthe area of interest is :
a. 4.0
b. 1.8
c. 2.0
d. 1.3
162. A radiograph is made using an X-ray source, and two films in each film holder. If the film
is to be viewed separately the minimum permitted density would be :
a. 4.0
b. 1.8
c. 2.0
d. 1.3
163. What length of indication is required to demonstrate that a visual examination
procedure is adequate per ASME V?
a. 1/32"
b. 1/16"
c. 3/32"
164. Personnel performing visual examinations to ASME V must have acuity to which of the
following standards, if any?
a. Jaeger Type 2
b. Jaeger Type 1
c. Equivalent to Jaeger Type 1
d. Either b or c, above
165. Visual examination must be conducted when the eye is within ________ " of the piece
to be examined
a. 36
b. 30
c. 24
d. 12
166. An item is designed for 625 psig. The item will be tested at 1.5 x Design pressure. What
should the absolute minimum gauge range be on a test of this pressure, per AXME V Appendix
10?
a. 0-1012 psig
b. 0-1518 psig
c. 0-2025 psig
d. 0-4050 psig
167. The standard test temperature of a part to be bubble tested shall be between:
a. 400 C 1200C
b. 40C 520C
c. 400C 1250C
d. 40C 1250F
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General Welding Inspection Multiple Choice

1. What is the NACE MR0175?

89. In welding terms what is meant by heat affected zone?

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