Q: For Fire Suppression

Multiple Choices: Encircle the letter that corresponds to your answer.

1. A rapid, self-sustaining oxidation process accompanied by the
evolution of heat and
light in Varying intensities, or is a chemical reaction in which a substance
combines with oxygen, heat is released and the form of substance is
destroyed.
a. Fire
c. Oxidation
b. Combustion
d. Chemical Reaction
2. Described as a self-sustaining chemical reaction yielding energy or
products that cause
further reactions of the same kind.
a. Fire
c. Oxidation
b. Combustion
d. Chemical Reaction
3. The process of combining a substance with oxygen (usually air) in the
presence of heat.
a. Fire
c. Oxidation
b. Combustion
d. Chemical Reaction
4. A series of reactions that occur in sequence with the result of each
individual reaction
being added to the rest. Also called the Chain Reaction
a. Fire
c. Oxidation
b. Combustion
d. Chemical Reaction
5. Of the three things essential before a fire can occur which one of
the following is not
included?
a. Fuel
c. Wind
b. Oxygen
d. Initial source of heat
6. Whether it be liquid, solid or gas, it is the minimum temperature that
the substance
must be heated in order to sustain combustion.
a. Flash point
c. Ignition Temperature
b. Burning point
d. Temperature
7. It is poisonous and is a normal product of combustion, especially when
the air supply to
the fire is restricted.
a. Carbon monoxide
c. Carbon Dioxide
b. Smoke
d. Gas
8. It is a form of energy caused by the random movement of molecules;
a. Oxygen
c. Heat
b. Fuel
d. Chemical Reaction
9. During the combustion process, it is drawn from the atmospheric air in
order to
completely oxidize the fuel.
a. Flame
c. Heat
b. Oxygen
d. Ignition
10.
Fires involving energized electrical equipment or those which
start in live electrical
wires, equipment electrical appliances and telephone switchboards.
a. Class A Fires
c. Class C Fires
b. Class B Fires
d. Class D Fires
11.
It is the main product of the combustion of carbon. It is not
poisonous but is asphyxiate
which lowers the proportion of oxygen available for breathing.

a. Carbon monoxide
b. Carbon Dioxide

c. Smoke
d. Gas

12.
In fire statistics, the initial source of heat is generally termed
as.
a. Ignition
c. Cause
b. Determinant
d. Primer
13.
This is a term used to describe a transition which occurs in
development of a fire when
for example, most of all of combustible surfaces within a room are heated
above their ignition temperature at the same time.
a. Flash-Over
c. Intensity
b. Starter
d. Ignition
14.

Fires involving flammable liquids and gases (Boil)

a. Class A Fires
c. Class C Fires
b. Class B Fires
d. Class D Fires

15.
Fires involving combustible solid & it leaves ashes and embers
(Ash)
a. Class A Fires
c. Class D Fires
b. Class B Fires
d. Class K Fires
16.

Fires involving metal combustion ding

a. Class B Fires
c. Class D Fires
b. Class C Fires
d. Class K Fires

17.
Fires involving combustible cooking fuels such as vegetable or
animal oil & fats.
a. Class A Fires
c. Class K Fires
b. Class C Fires
d. Class D Fires
18.

The first action after discovery of a fire

a. Pack-up personal belongings
c. To raise the alarm
b. Call an ambulance
d. Run for your life

19.
The term describes a mass movement in a fluid (liquid or a
gas) where fluid at one
temperature and density moves under the influence of through surrounding
fluid at a different temperature and density, mixing with it and gradually
exchanging heat with it until it is all at the same temperature.
a. Radiation
c. Convection
b. Fire
d. Conduction
20.
The term used to describes the transfer of heat energy through a
gas or through light by
electromagnetic waves, which is also called radiated heat;
a. Radiation
c. Convection
b. Fire
d. Conduction
21.
The transfer of heat through point-to-point transmission of heat
energy. It occurs when
a body is heated as a result of direct contact with a heat source;
a. Radiation
c. Conduction
b. Convection
d. Fire
22.
It is the material or substance being oxidized or burned in the
combustion process;
a. Heat
c. Oxygen
b. Fuel
d. Solid
23.

Is a sudden release of oil and gas from a well, A ________

a. Blasting agent
c. Blowout
b. Explosion
d. Pump out

24.
It is a measurement use in fire of the rate at which heat is
produced.
a. Density
c. Temperature
b. Intensity of Combustion
d. Velocity
25.
Wood, and its products, such as hardboard and fireboard, are the
principal combustible
materials present in the construction of a building.
a. Solids
c. Dusts
b. Combustible Contents
d. Combustible Structure
26.

Liquids classified as non-flammablea. Class II Solvents

c. Class IIIB Solvents
b. CIV Solvents
d. Class IIIA Solvents

27.
Liquid fuel whose flash point is above normal room temperature
37.8C (100F) ex., Oil,
Crude Oil, Diesel.
a. Combustible Liquids
c. Flammable materials
b. Flammable Liquids
d. Combustion
28.
It is a science that deals with the composition and structure of
fire.
a. Chemistry of Fire
c. Chemical Science
b. Fire Science
d. Fire Education
29.
Liquid fuel at or below normal temperature, ex., Gasoline,
Thinner
a. Combustible Liquids
c. Flammable materials
b. Flammable Liquids
d. Combustion
30.
Is a product of the process of oil refining and or the name
suggest, it is liquefied but as
long as it is contained under pressure in a cylinder or tanks.
a. Shellane Gas
c. Gas
b. Gasoline
d. LPG
31.
It Is a device that contains within its chemicals, fluids or
gasses for extinguishing fires,
the means for application of its content for that purpose and is capable of
being readily move from place to place.
a. Fire Extinguisher
c. Fire Nozzle
b. Fire Hose
d. Fire Tools
Q: Fire and Arson Investigation
1. It is the crime of maliciously intent, voluntarily, and willfully setting fire
to the building or other property of another or of burning ones own
property.
a. Arson
c. Accelerant
b. Incendiary
d. Trailer
2. Is a device designed to ignite a fire?
a. Arson
c. Accelerant
b. Incendiary
d. Trailer
3. One of the elements of Arson.
a. Fire Insurance
c. Actual burning
b. Fire fighter
d. Actual insurance
4. The act was done purposely and with intention.
a. Motive
c. Willfulness
b. Malice
d. Intent
5. It denotes hatred or a desire for revenge.
a. Motive
c.Willfulness

b. Malice

d. Intent

6. The purpose or design with which the act is done and involves the will
to do the act.
a. Motive
c. Willfulness
b. Malice
d. Intent
7. The moving cause that induces the commission of the crime.
a. Motive
c. Willfulness
b. Malice
d. Intent
8. Once declared FIRE OUT, who shall take cognizance the responsibilities
of PROTECTING AND SECURING the whole fire scaling/closing the
perimeter with barricade tape (fire lines).
a. Fire Ground Commander (FCG)
c. Fire Arson Investigator
b. Fire Marshal
d. Fire fighter
9. Is the act of identifying, locating and providing evident of guilt of the
accused in court?
a. Criminal investigation
c. Arraignment
b. Prosecution
d. Interview
10.
The complete information or narration of the fire incident as
gathered by the fire investigator is called;
a. DTPO
c. Details of investigation
b. Estimated Damage
d. Fire suppression
11.
The investigation determines clearly how the fire occurred is
called;
a. Cause of fire
c. Fire victim
b. Origin of fire
d. Damage to property
12.
The fire investigation report should be submitted immediately
within 24 hrs upon receive the information is called__________.
a. Spot Investigation Report
c. Final Investigation
b. Initial Investigation Report
d. Progress Investigation
13.
must
a.
b.

In accordance to BFP SOP No IID 2008-01 Fire Investigation report

be submitted within 30-45 day is;
Spot Investigation Report
c. Progress Report
Initial report
d. Final Investigation

14.
Is the process of determining the origin, cause, and development
of a fire or explosion?
a. Criminal investigation
c. Custodial investigation
b. Fire Investigation
d. Arson investigation
15.
The Progress Investigation Report (PIR) shall be accomplished
within how many days?
a. 7-15 days
c. 25-31 days
b. 16-24 days
d. None of the above
16.
Fire Incident Investigation Report can only be made in such
circumstances that the investigation report cannot be completed for
some reasons independent to the will of the Fire Arson Investigator.
a. True
c. True or false
b. False
d. Partly true
17.
Any recognized investigation body of the government can
INTERCEDE in the conduct of fire and arson investigation even without
formal communication to the concerned office handling the
investigation.
a. True
c. True or False
b. False
d. None of the above

18.
Fire clearance certificate can only be issued to fire incidents
which is Accidental in nature,
a. True
c. Partly true
b. False
d. Partly false
19.
Which shall prevail in the determination of the total damages
incurred in a certain fire incidents?
a. Affidavit of loss from Fire Arson Investigator
b. Affidavit of loss from fire victim
c. Estimated amount of the Fire Arson Investigator
d. None of these
20.
The Fire and Arson Investigators success depends on his ability
to determine correctly.
a. The point of Origin
c. The modus operandi
b. The exact cause of Fire
d. the insurable interest of
the owner
21.

Ante-mortem statement is called;

a. Hearsay
c. Expert witness
e. All of these
b. Regestae
d. Dying declaration

22.
The SOP for the submission of Spot Investigation Report is
address to the head of office;
a. MFM
c. Fire Chief
b. PFM
d. All of these
23.
The Prima Facie evidence of arson is established, the cause is
suspected to be;
a. Intentional
c. Natural
e. All
of these
b. Accidental
d. Undetermined
24.
Form of evidence given in court or disposition by one who has
observed that is testifying the facts;
a. Documentary evidence
c. Testimonial evidence
b. Secondary evidence
d. Real evidence
25.

The cause of fire incident was due to Electrical overloading is;

a. Accidental
c. Intentional
b. Incendiary
d. Natural

26.

The cause of fire incident caused by lightning is called;

a. Accidental
c. Intentional
b. Incendiary
d. Natural

27.
to all
a.
b.
28.

One of the duties of the fire investigator is to conduct interview

witness in form of;
Written exam
c. Physical exam
Question and answer form
d. Neuro exam

In the determination of level; of fire alarm is to be tapped by the;

a. Nozzle man
c. Fire Ground Commander
b. Fire investigator
d. Chief executive

29.
The level of authority to conduct investigation when the amount
of damage of property is below 10,000,000 (not exceeding to 20M) is
a. Level 2 CFM
c. Level 1- MFM e. None of
these
b. Level 4
d. Level 3- DFM/PFM
30.
The level of authority to conduct to conduct investigation when
the amount of damage of property is more than P60,000,000.00 is
within;

a. Level 1
e. RHQ
b. Level 2
31.

c. Level 5- BFP NHQ/C,IID

d. Level 3

The investigator determines where the fire started is called;

a. Cause of fire
c. Origin of Fire
e. None of
these
b. Motives
d. Damages

32.
need
a.
b.

Type of evidence that proves the fact in dispute directly without

of any inference on presumption;
Direct evidence
c. Negative evidence
Positive evidence
d. Cumulative evidence

33.
The form of evidence that which is addressed to the sense of the
Tribunal, such as objects presented to the Court for inspection.
a. Testimonial
c. Secondary evidence
b. Documentary
d. Real evidence
34.
The form of evidence that which is supplied by written
instruments;
a. Real evidence
c. Secondary evidence
b. Testimonial
d. Documentary evidence
35.
One of the Three Is in which the information needed to further
an investigation must be obtained from people who have some
significant knowledge concerning the crime.
a. Information
c. Interrogation
b. Interview
d. Instrumentation
Q: For Fire Safety and Prevention
Objective Type of Test: Select the best answer in the choices below and write
the letter only on the space provided in the left side of the item number.
_____ 1. It is an important activity of any installation, and this consists of the
elimination of fire hazards, the provision of fire-Safety education, and the
training of fire guards, fire watchers and fire brigade fighters.
a. Fire Fighting Course
c.
Fire
Technology
&
Investigation
b. Fire Prevention Program
d. All of them
_____ 2. This term is reserved to describe the fire-resisting property of
structural element and may be used to describe the behavior of a building
material in a fire; it is used to predict how long will resist the effect of a fire
before its fails.
a. Fire Duration
c. Building Resistance
b. Fire Proof
d. Fire Resistance
_____ 3. One of the most effective means of fire protection in a building is
the.
a. Portable Hand Extinguisher
c. Stand Pipes
b. Automatic Sprinkling System
d. Fire Hydrants

_____ 4. It is a term used when taking into account possible causes fire and
relating them to the local hazard of the construct and contents of a building
a. Negligence
c. Risks
b. Intentional
d. None

_____ 5. It is located inside a building from the lowest to the top floor with
water under pressure for use in case of fire.
a. Portable Hand Extinguisher
c. Stand Pipes
b. Automatic Sprinkling System
d. Fire Hydrants
_____6. An act or condition which increases in the probability of the
occurrence of fire or which may hinder, delay, Interfere, obstruct in the
firefighting operation.
a. Fire Hazard
c. Flash point
b. Fire Structure
d. Fire Spread
_____ 7. Has the authority to construct.
a. Building Permit
b. Occupancy Permit

c. Building Official
d. Constructor

_____ 8. Has the authority to use the building.

a. Building Permit
c. Building Official
b. Occupancy Permit
d. Constructor
_____ 9. Has the authority to operate business
a. Building Permit
c. Business Permit
b. Occupancy Permit
d. Businessman
_____ 10. To examine the building structure defect, and its deficiencies or
violation on fire safety.
a. Fire Safety Inspection
c. Occupancy Permit
b. Building Inspection
d. Business
_____ 11. Any act that would remove or neutralize a fire hazarda. Contaminate
c. Preservation
b. Abatement
d. Storage
_____ 12. In business occupancy, the clear width of any corridor or passage
way serving an occupant load of fifty (50) or more shall be not less than_____.
a. 915mm
c. 112mm
b. 70cm
d. 1.12m
_____ 13. Every apartment building of four (4) storeys or more in height, or
more than 12 apartment units shall have a ________.
a. Stand pipe
c. Manual Fire Alarm
b. Automatic fire detection & alarm system d.
Automatic
Kitchen Suppression
_____ 14. Any visual or audible signal produced
the occupants of the building or fire fighting
danger of firea. Fire Alarm
b. Fire Safety

by a device or system to warn

elements on the presence of
c. Fire Exit
d. Fire Call

_____ 15. It is a continuous and unobstructed route of exit from one point of a
building or facility to a public waya. Means of egress
c. Fire Exit
b. Exit doors
d. Fire Plan
_____ 16. It is the occupancy where 50 or more persons (non commercial)
gather for purposes of deliberation, entertainment, amusement, worship or
awaiting transportation. Ex., Movie, houses, auditorium, conference halls,
cockpits, bus terminal and restaurants
a. Mercantile
c. Assembly
b. Educational
d. Industrial

_____ 17. It is occupancy where group of six (6) or more persons gather for
the purpose of receiving instructions.
a. Educational
c. Assembly
b. Residential
d. Mixed Occupancy
_____ 18. Occupancies are those in which sleeping accommodations are
provided for normal residential purposes and include all buildings designed
to provide sleeping accommodations.
a. Educational
c. Assembly
b. Residential
d. Mixed Occupancy
_____ 19. Occupancies include store, markets, and other rooms, buildings, or
structure for the display and/or sale of merchandise.
a. Educational
c. Residential
b. Mercantile
d. Detention & Correctional
_____ 20. Occupancies which shall include those used for purposes such as
correctional institutions, detentions facilities, community residential centers,
training schools, work camps, and substance abuse centers where occupants
are confined or housed under some degree of restraint or security.
a. Educational
c. Residential
b. Mercantile
d.
Detention
&
Correctional
_____ 21. Cooking equipment shall be protected by a _____________ in
accordance with NFA 96, Standard ventilation control and fire protection of
commercial cooking operations.
a. Automatic Kitchen hood Fire Suppression
c. Portable
Fire Protection
b. Anti leak device
d. Ceiling type
protection
_____ 22. Emergency rooms, Operating rooms, Intensive care units, delivery
rooms and other similar facilities shall not be located more than one (1)
storey above or _______ the floor exit discharge.
a. Below
c. 1st Floor
b. 4th Floor
d. 1st & 2nd Floor
_____ 23. Rooms for pre-schoolers, first grade and 2 nd grade pupils shall not
be located ________ or _________ the floor of exit discharge.
a. 1st Floor
c. 3rd Floor
b. Above or Below
d. 2nd Floor
_____ 24. Occupancies include factories that make products of all kinds &
properties which shall include but not limited to product processing,
assembling & disassembling, mixing, packaging, finishing or decorating,
repairing & material recovery. Ex., Laboratories, power plants, factories of all
kinds, gas plants
a. Industrial
c. Business
b. Storage
d. Mercantile
_____ 25. Occupancies include all buildings or structures utilized primarily for
the storage or sheltering of goods, merchandise, products, vehicles, or
animals. Ex., LPG Storage, Cold Storage, Parking garages
a. Industrial
b. Storage

c. Business
d. Mercantile

_____ 26. It is the occupancy in which the buildings are those used for the
transaction of business other than that covered under mercantile, for the
keeping of accounts and records & similar purposes. Ex., Offices for Lawyers;
Doctors; Dentists & other professionals; General Offices, City/Municipal Halls;
Internal Shops; beauty parlors
a. Industrial
c. Business
b. Storage
d. Mixed Occupancy
_____
27.
Refers
to
two
or
more
classes
of
occupancies
occurring/located/situated/existing in the same building and/or structures so
intermingled that separate safeguards are impracticable. Ex., Mall
a. Industrial
c. Business
b. Storage
d. Mixed Occupancy
_____28. Occupancies which includes building or structures which cannot be
properly classified in any of the preceding occupancy groups. Ex., Towers,
Windowless and underground buildings, piers & water surrounded structures
& immobilized vehicles & vessels; slaughter house
a. Miscellaneous Occupancy
c. Mercantile
b. Storage
d. Industrial
_____ 29. It is the occupancy that is used for purposes of medical or other
treatment or care of persons where such occupants are mostly incapable of
self preservation because of age, physical or mental disability, or because of
security measures not under the occupants control. Ex., Hospitals; nursing
homes; residential custodial care centers such as nurseries, Rehabilitation;
homes for the aged & the like
a. Health Care
c. Educational
b. Miscellaneous Occupancy
d. Residential
_____ 30. The essential component of every procedure carried out by
firefighters and it should be applied to every activity and cannot be
considered as separate activities.
a. Size-up
c. Salvage
b. Safety
d. Rescue
Q: For Administrative matters
1. Section 50, Rule VIII of the Implementing Rules and Regulations of
____________ is
otherwise known as the DILG Act of 1990, stipulates that: The BFP shall have
the power to investigate all causes of fire & if necessary, file the proper
complaint with the City of Provincial prosecutor who has jurisdiction over the
case
a. RA 6975
b. RA 7659
c. RA 9263
d. RA 9514
2. The operational standards in comprehensive Fire & Arson Investigation
and filing of
criminal complaint procedures is called __________
a. SOCO
b. BFP SOP No. IID 2008-01
c. PNP-SOP
d.
IATF
3. The criminal offense of arson is punishable under Revised Penal Code
particularly Article
320 to 326-B as amended by PD 1613, 1744 and Section 10 of RA 7659 is
called _________.
a. Heinous Crime Law
b. Islamic Law
c. IHL
d.
IHRL

4. The New Fire Code of the Phil., is also known as

a. RA 9252
b. RA 9263
c. RA 9514

d. RA 7659

5. An act establishing a comprehensive fire code of the Phil., repealing

Presidential Decree
No. 1185 & for other purposesa. RA 9514
b. RA 9415
c. RA 9154
d. RA 9145
6. The administrative sanctions/penalty shall be governed by the
RA __________,
otherwise known as the Code of Ethics & Professional Standards for
government employees, other pertinent civil service laws, office rules,
regulations & policies, w/o prejudice of filing criminal charges if evidence so
warrants.
a. RA 9263
b. RA 6713
c. RA 6975
d. RA 7659
7. An office that attest BFP Appointmenta. NAPOLCOM
b. CSC
BFP

c. DILG

8. Salary grade of Fire Officer 1 FO1

a. 10
b. 12
c. 11

d.

d. 13

9. An appointing authority in the BFP Regional Officea. Chairman PSB b. C, Admin

c. Regional Director d. Fire Chief
10.
Total number of years in the government service either on
temporary or permanent
statusa. Time in grade b. Length of service c. Service d.
Professional
service
11.
Is the personnels specific assignment/designation which is
covered by an appropriate
Order
a. Position
b. Appointment c. Order
d.
Designation
12.
Mandatory training requirement for Fire Officer 1 to possess a
permanent appointmenta. PSBRC/FBRC b. FAIIC
c. PPSC
d. OBC
13.
A training Institute of BFP
a. JNTI
b. FNTI
NCRTI

c. PNTI

d.

14.
Duly designated of the head of BFP at the Municipal Levela. Chief
b. Station Commander c. Municipal Fire Marshal d.
Boss
15.
Temporary appointment issued to BFP personnel should be
renewed by appointing
authoritya. One (1) month before expiration date c. One (1) day before
expiration date
b. On the date of expiration
d. One (1) day after
expiration

16.
The
RA
9263
shall
be
known
as
the
________________________________
a. New Fire Code of the Philippines;
b. the Code of Ethics & Professional Standards for government
employees, other pertinent civil service laws, office rules,
regulations & policies, w/o prejudice of filing criminal charges if
evidence so warrants;
c. BFP and BJMP Professionalization Act of 2008.
d. DILG Act of 1990
17.
The RA 9514 entitled An Act Establishing a Comprehensive Fire
Code of the Philippines, Repealing Presidential Decree No. 1185 and for
other Purposes was signed into Law as approved by Former President
Gloria Macapagal-Arroyo on _____________________?
a. December 19, 2008
c. August26, 1977
b. January 5, 2009
d. January 13, 2009

18.
The Implementing Rules and Regulations (IRR) of the New Fire
Code of the Philippines
was approved by former DILG Secretary Ronaldo V. Puno on
____________________?
a. October 17, 2009
c. June 24, 2009
b. June 19, 2009
d. May 19, 2009
19.
The publication of RA 9514 Implementing Rules and Regulations
in the Manila Times
was published on _____________?
a. October 17, 2009
c. June 24, 2009
b. June 19, 2009
d. May 19, 2009
20.
The qualification standard for height of Female BFP Applicant
must be at least
________,
a. 1.62m
b. 1.60m
c. 1.57 m
d. 1.58 m
21.
The minimum required eligibility for BFP applicants must be a
graduate of baccalaureate
degree with holding of _________________________
a. 2nd Level Eligibility (PRC, CSC Prof, FOE, & PD 907)
b. 1st Level Eligibility (CSC-Sub Prof)
c. Brgy. Eligibility
d. All of the above
22.
The number 1 of Section 7 of the RA 9263 (Professionalization
and Upgrading of
Qualification Standards in the Designation of Uniformed Personnel of the BFP
&BJMP to key positions stated that the Municipal Fire Marshal should have
the rank of _________________, who must have finished at least second year
Bachelors of Laws or earned at least twelve (12) units in a masters degree
program in public administration, management, engineering, public safety,
criminology...
a. Inspector
b. Senior Inspector c. Chief Inspector d.
Superintendent
23.
The
BFP
applicants
who
belong
minorities/communities with height
deficiencies are required to provide ___________

to

the

Cultural

a. Height Waiver
them

b. Age Waiver

c. Waiver

d.

All

of

24.
The Bureau of Fire Protection, referred to as the Fire Bureau, was
created under
___________________ of RA 6975 known as DILG Act of 1990.
a. Rule VIII, Section 49
c. Rule VII, Section 49
b. Rule VIII, Section 50
d. Rule VII, Section 50
25.
At the age of 56, the BFP Personnel is required to file his/her
application for retirement
at the BFP-NHQ and it is called,________________.
a. Compulsory Retirement
c. Optional Retirement
b. Force Retirement
d. Retirement