1.

What entries must be made in the technical log

a) Number of passengers, crew and baggage weight
b) Flight time, defects, commanders signature and date
c) All of the above
2. In which document can we find the minimum crew requirement for an aircraft
a) Aircraft registration
b) Certificate of airworthiness
c) None of the above
3. What is the number of load sheet required by the law to be prepared
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
4.

If
a)
b)
c)

you notice an error or omission in the AIP u should?

Inform the NCAA
Inform AIDU
Keep it a secret so everyone screws up

5. Who is an authorized person

a) anybody who desires to help
b) all employees of an airline
c) law enforcement agent or persons authorized by the authority
6. Describe a procedure turn left
a) A desired left turn made during a approach to land, when ATC advises
b) A turn made only when shooting an ILS approach
c) A maneuver involving an initial turn of 45 degrees to the left, followed
after an appropriate interval of time (normally 1min) by a turn of 180
degrees to the right to intercept the designated track
7. Aerodrome elevation as given in the AGA section is
a)
b) The highest point on the maneuvering area
c) The highest point on the landing area
d) The highest point on the aerodrome
8. Emergency distance is defined as?
a) The length of the runway
b) The length of the runway plus stopway
c) The length of the runway plus clearway
9. Private aerodromes may only be used when prior permission is obtained from
a) The CAA
b) NATS
c) The owner
10. If permission is given to operate into a military aerodrome, liability for loss or
damage is the responsibility of
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a) the ministry of defense

b) the civil aviation authority
c) the aircraft operator
11.if a pilot lands at an airport other than the destination specified in the flight
plan, he must inform the ATS at the destination within,
a) 30 mins of the destination ETA
b) 20mins of the destination ETA
c) 15mins of the destination ETA
12. An aircraft shall not be flown in simulated instrument flight condition unless
a) A two letter Morse group in green is displayed
b) The weather is ok
c) A safety pilot occupies the other control sit
13.Flight visibility means
a) The visibility along the runway which may be expected on takeof
b) The minimum horizontal visibility in any direction from the flight deck
c) The visibility forward from the flight deck of an aircraft in flight
14.Aviation regulation requires that crew observe crew flight time limitation, this
can be found in the
a) In the chief pilots office
b) In the operations manual
c) In the office of the DFO
15. When VASIs are being used the aircraft is on the designated glide slope
when
a) The near bars are white and the far bars are red
b) The near bars are red and the far bars are white
c) All bars are white
16. An aircraft is deemed to be in flight when a
a) Flying above another aircraft
b) It first moves under its own power to the moment it comes to a stop after
landing
c) When carrying pax and cargo
17. With reference to VDF bearings which of the following statement is correct
a) Class B bearing are accurate to within 5 degrees
b) Class D bearing are accurate within 30 degrees
c) Class A bearing are accurate within 10 degrees
18. In
a)
b)
c)

a aerodrome call sign the word information denotes

An aerodrome flight information service
An aerodrome air ground communication service
Tower service only, no approach

19.The maximum no of pax that a Nigerian registered transport category aircraft

can carry without requiring cabin crew as crew member
a) 10 pax
b) 19 pax
c) 25 pax
20.When the MAYDAY message is transmitted on the 121.5 MHZ, the message
should be addressed to
a) The ATIS is use
b) Nnamadi Azikiwe International Airport
c) No addressee is required
21. The navigation and identification TST
a) Indicates that Teeside NDB is tuned
b) /nm Suggests that the aids should be used only with caution
c) Indicates that the aid should not be used
22. In the event of a forced landing within Nigeria FIR following a departure from
Kotoka internal airport Accra, passenger and cargo maybe removed from the
aircraft
a) At the discretion of the commander
b) Only in an emergency
c) With the permission of a custom officer or in an emergency
23. A thorough forecast is normally provided at the initial departure briefing only
a) When the planned stop-over period is 1 hour or less
b) When requested
c) When the flight exceeds 400nm
24.Forecast offices normally require prior notice
a) 2 hours for a flight of 400 nm
b) 4 hours for a flight of 400 nm
c) 2 hours for a flight of 600 nm
25. Sigmet are issued to an aircraft in flight when hazardous meteorological
condition are forecast or observed over a specified distance along track
ahead of the aircraft. This distance is
a) 300nm
b) 500nm
c) 1000nm
26.Which of the following statement is correct in respect of phenomena which
would result in the issue of sigmet warning
a) Heavy hail for all aircraft and the additionally any hail
transonic/supersonic aircraft
b) Cumulonimbus cloud for all aircraft
c) Moderate or severe turbulence for all aircraft

27. When an aircraft diverts to an aerodrome along a route for which no forecast
has been provided, a request for the necessary meteorological information
should be made to
a) The ATS serving the diversion airfield
b) The ATS which the aircraft is working at the time
c) Any ATS in service
28.Marked temperature inversion are issued when
a) The forecaster thinks fit
b) An increase in temperature of 10 c or more exist between the surface and
any point up to 1000ft agl
c) An increase in temperature of 5 c or more exist between the surface and
500 agl
29.Aerodrome warning are issued when
a) Mean surface wind is expected to exceed 43kts
b) Surface wind gust are expected to exceed 34kts
c) Mean surface wind speed is expected to exceed 34kts or if the gust are
expected to exceed 43kts
30.Instrument rating is an important part of a professional pilots license. It is
valid for
a) Six months
b) Twelve months
c) Thirteen months
31.The increment of measuring the RVR
a) 100metres above 800 metres
b) 50metres above 800metres
c) 250metres above 800 metres
32.CAVOK requires that
a) There be no cloud below 5000ft or highest MSA whichever is the greater
b) The be no cloud below 5000 or MSA whichever is the least
c) There be no cloud below the decision height for the approach in question
33. In order to comply with VFR outside controlled airspace, below 3000ft amsl
at an indicated airspeed of 130kts, a fixed wing aircraft must
a) Remain 1000ft horizontally from cloud
b) Remain 1000ft vertically from cloud
c) Maintain a flight visibility of at least 1 nm and remain in sight of the
surface
34.A white cross displayed at the end of a runway means that
a) The runway should be used in an emergency only
b) That the runway is non-useable
c) That the runway should be only with caution

35. When an aircraft is operating under a special VFR clearance the

responsibility of remaining clear of the ground obstructions rest with
a) the aircraft commander
b) ATC
c) Both of the above
36. When operating on the SVFR clearance
a) The aircraft commander must obey the 1500ft rule at all times
b) The aircraft commander maybe required to disregard the 1500ft rule
c) The responsibility of keeping the aircraft clear of the congested area test
solely with ATC
37. The commander of an aircraft which has been given clearance to climb
above the transition altitude may express vertical position in term of flight
level providing that
a) The aircraft is no more than 2000ft below the transition altitude
b) The aircraft is no more than 1000ft below the transition altitude
c) Only when the aircraft is above the transition altitude
38.When flying outside controlled airspace below 3000ft amsl the pilot may use
a) Any desired altimeter setting
b) Only the regional QNH
c) Either the regional QNH or the QNH of an adjacent aerodrome
39.A flight plan must be filed for all flights within controlled airspace in IMC or at
night
a) regardless of the clearance given
b) for all flights other than those operating under SVFR
c) only for IFR flights
40.unless otherwise specified flight plans must be filed
a) 30mins before departure
b) 30min before start clearance or taxi clearance is requested
c) 45mins before departure
41.When a flight plan is filed and the destination aerodrome is not served by
AFTN
a) Details of the flight plan will be passed by NATS to the destination
aerodrome by telephone
b) It is the responsibility of the pilot to give details of the flight to the
destination aerodrome
c) No action is required
42. If having filed a flight plan, the aircraft subsequently lands at an aerodrome
other than the destination aerodrome
a) NATS will inform the planned destination aerodrome
b) The pilot must inform the planned destination aerodrome within 30mins of
landing
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c) The pilot must inform the planned destination aerodrome within 30mins of
his planned ETA at that aerodrome
43.A delay message should be initiated if flight plan has been filed and the flight
departure is subsequently delayed by
a) 30mins
b) 1 hour
c) 2 hours
44. Following what the pilot considers to be an air miss situation, the initial
report should be made
a) By radio to the ATS unit in use
b) By telephone to the NCAA immediately on landing
c) By signal using the AFTN net immediately ion landing
45. An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft should attempt to
establish communication with that aircraft on the following frequency
a) 121.5MHZ
b) 121.5MHZor 243.0MHZ
c) 500KHZ
46. An aircraft has been intercepted, and the intercepting aircraft makes an
abrupt climbing turn through 90degrees or more, this means
a) Follow me
b) I want to play
c) You may proceed
47. A public civil aerodrome may be closed to normal air traffic when the surface
of the landing area is unfit, at times specified by NOTAM and
a) When essential aerodrome facilities are unserviceable
b) When the weather is below limits
c) Without prior notification
48. land after procedure will only be used at civil aerodromes when the runway
is long enough and
a) The second aircraft id able to keep the first aircraft in sight at all times
b) It is daylight hours
c) The condition described at (a) and (b) exists
49.A final call should be made at the completion of a turn onto final approach
and at a range of not more than
a) 2nm
b) 4nm
c) Inside the outer marker
50. One of the certificates issued by NCAA is the airworthiness certificate. This
important certificate when issued is valid for:
a) A period of 24months
b) A period stated on the certificate
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c) Does not expire, but can be revoked

51. A pilot making an instrument approach by day who has the ground in sight
may
a) Cancel IFR and continue visually
b) Continue visually without informing ATC
c) Carryout the entire procedure on instrument unless he has the aerodrome in
sight and can maintain visual contact
52.What details are given to the metrology officer when requesting flight
forecast
a) Briefing time, alternate, and destination, no. of pax, crew names
b) Period of flight, briefing time, destination and alternate, levels and routes
c) None of the above
53.A pilot of an aircraft wishing to join an airway should file a flight plan and call
at least 10min flying time before the intended joining time, this call should
include:
a) The aircrafts ground speed
b) The aircrafts IAS and Mach Number
c) The aircrafts TAS
54. powered aircraft may cross an airway without ATC clearance providing that
the crossing is made 90degrees to the airway and that the crossing is made
at the bease of the airway whre
a) The lower limit is defined as an altitude
b) The lower limit is defined as a flight level
c) Regardless of how the lower limit of the airway is defined
55. When flying in an advisory airspace separation is given from
a) All aircraft
b) All aircraft using the advisory airspace
c) Only from known traffic
56. The vertical separation standard in use in advisory airspace may also be as
low as
a) 500ft
b) 1000ft
c) 1500ft
57. In broad terms the avionics equipment to be carried by an aircraft operating
under IFR in controlled airspace must include
a) Communication equipment only
b) Communication equipment and either VOR/DME
c) As (b)above but all equipment must be duplicated
58. Following total radio failure on a flight for which a flight plan has been filled,
you have proceeded as per the flight plan, and have entered the holding
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pattern at the destination aerodrome. At the last acknowledged EAT you

commenced a descent in the holding pattern, the ROD to be employed must
be
a) Not less than 300ft per min
b) Not less than 500ft per min
c) 1000ft per min
59. When radar advisory service is ofered to aircraft operating in advisory
airspace avoiding action will be given
a) In order to maintain minimum separation standards at all times
b) Only when requested by the pilot
c) When the controller considers it necessary, or it is requested by the pilot
60.Levels or altitudes assigned by ATC to IFR traffic in the en-route phase will
assure terrain clearance of
a) 1000ft above any obstacle within 10nm of the aircraft
b) 1000ft above any obstacle within 15nm of the aircraft
c) 1500ft above any obstacle within 15nm of the centerline, otherwise 1500ft
above any fixed obstacle within 30nm of the aircraft