Physics

1.The slit width, when a light of wavelength 6500is incident on a slit, if first minima for red light is at 300
a)
1106m
b)
5.2106m
c)
1.3106m
d)
2.6106m
2.Newton's rings are observed by keeping a spherical surface of 100cm radius on a plane glass plate.
The wave length of light used is 5880.If the diameter of the 15th bright ring is 0.59cm, the diameter of
the 5th ring is
a)
0.226cm
b)
0.446cm
c)
0.336cm
d)
0.556cm
3.The resulting intensity after interference of two coherent waves represented by y1a1cost and y2a2cos2t
will be
a)
a1a2 b)
a1+a2 c)
a12a22
d)
a12+a22
4.In a young's experiment, one of the slit is covered with a transparent sheet of thickness 3.6103cm
due to which position of central fringe shifts to a position originally occupied by 30th bright fringe. The
refractive index of the sheet, if =6000 is
a)
1.5
b)
1.2
c)
1.3
d)
1.7
5.In young's double slit experiment with monochromatic light of wave length 600nm, the distance between
slits is 103m. For changing fringe width by 3105m
a)
the screen is moved away from the slits by 5cm b)
the screen is moved by
5cm towards the slits c)
the screen is moved by 3cm towards the slits
d)
both (a) and (b) are correct
6.When two coherent monochromatic light beams of intensities I and 4I are superimposed, what are the
maximum and minimum possible intensities in the resulting beams?
a)
5I and I b)
5I and 3I
c)
9I and I d)
9I and
3I
7.In young's double slit experiment when violet light of wave length 4358 is used, then 84 fringes are
seen in the field of view, but when sodium light of certain wave length is used, then 62 fringes are seen in
the field of view, the wave length of sodium light is
a)
6893 b)
5904 c)
5523 d)
6429
8.In an interference pattern the position of zeroth order maxima is 4.8mm from a certain point P on the
screen. The fringe width is 0.2mm. The position of second maxima from point P is
a)
5.1 mm b)
5 mm c)
40 mm d)
5.2 mm
9.If young's double slit experiment is performed in water,
a)
the fringe width will decreases b)
the fringe width will increase
c)
the fringe width will remain unchanged d)
there will be no fringe
10.The first diffraction minimum due to single slit diffraction is , for a light of wave length 5000. If the
width of the slit is 1104cm, then the value of is
a)
300
b)
450
c)
600
d)
150
11.2 non-coherent sources emit light beam of intensities I and 4I. The maximum and minimum intensities
in the resulting beam are
a)
9I and 3I
b)
9I and 5I
c)
5I and I d)
5I and 3I
12.Light propagates 2cm distance in glass of refractive index 1.5 in time t0. In the same time t0, light
propagates a distance of 2.25 cm in a medium. The refractive index of the medium is
a)
4/3
b)
3/2
c)
8/3
d)
none of these
13.Two wave fronts are emitted from coherent sources of path difference between them is 2.1 micron.
Face difference between the wave fronts at that point is 7.692 . Wave length of light emitted by source
will be
a)
5386 b)
5400 c)
5460 d)
5892
14.A spherical air bubble in water will act as
a)
convex lens
b)
concave lens c)
glass plate
d)
plano convex lens
15.A concave lens can be used as a simple magnifier if the object lies


a)
beyond f
b)
within the focal length c)
between f and
2f
d)
at 2f
16.For an equilateral prism the angle of minimum deviation is 300. Then the refractive index of the
material of the prism is
a)
1/2
b)
2
c)
2
d)
22
17.Luminous flux is expressed in
a)
Lumen b)
Candela
c)
Weber d)
Lue
18.Light travels through a glass plate of thickness d. If n is the refractive index of glass and c is the
velocity of light in vacuum, the time taken by light to travel through the glass plate is
a)
n/cd
b)
nc/d
c)
nd/c
d)
ndc
19.What is the magnification when an object is placed at 2f of a convex mirror
a)
1/3
b)
2/3
c)
1
d)
3/2
20.A tank is filled with water upto a height of 12.5 cm. The apparent depth of a needle at the bottom of the
tank is (n of water =1.33)
a)
12.5 cm b)
9.4 cm c)
16.6 cm d)
11.17 cm
21.A man under water in a lake is viewing a boy standing on the bank of the lake. Then for him the boy
appears to be
a)
shorter b)
taller c)
of the same size
d)
16 cm
22.A convex mirror placed at a distance of 20 cm from a candle forms a virtual image at the same position
as that formed by a plane mirror at a distance of 12 cm from the candle. What is the focal length of the
convex mirror?
a)
20 cm b)
15 cm c)
10 cm d)
5 cm
23.When light travels from 1 medium to another that remains unaltered is
a)
speed b)
wave length
c)
frequency
d)
intensity
24.The length of a telescope is 100 cm and magnification is 19. The focal length of the objective and eye
piece are
a)
90 cm and 10 cm
b)
85 cm and 1 cm c)
95 cm and 25
cm
d)
None of the above
25.In a compound microscope the object produces a magnification 10 and eyepiece produces a
magnification 5. The overall magnification produced by the compound microscope is
a)
2
b)
5
c)
2
d)
50
26.The colour of the sky is due to
a)
scattering of light
b)
refraction of light
c)
interference of light
d)
reflection of light
27.An object is placed at a distance f/2 from a convex lens of focal length f. The image will be at
a)
3f/2, real and inverted b)
one of the foci, virtual, double the size of the
object c)
f/2, real and inverted
d)
f, virtual and erect
28.Two thin convex lenses of focal length 10 cm and 15 cm are combined together, the focal length of the
combination is
a)
25cm b)
12.5cm c)
15cm d)
6cm
29.The focal length of a convex lens is minimum for
a)
red
b)
violet c)
blue
d)
green
30.A biconvex lens of focal length 20 cm is cut out into two plano-convex lenses. The focal length of each
part is
a)
10 cm b)
20 cm c)
30 cm d)
40 cm
31.The minimum distance between the object and its real image formed by a convex lens of focal length f
is
a)
1.5 f
b)
f
c)
4f
d)
3f
32.The refractive index of prism depends on
a)
angle of the prism
b)
deviation produced by the prism c)
intensity of light d)
wave length of light
33.It is possible to observe total internal reflection when light travels from
a)
air to water
b)
air to glass
c)
water to glass d)
glass to water


34.A concave lens has focal length f. A real object placed at a distance f in front of the lens from the pole
produces an image
a)
at infinity
b)
at f
c)
at f/2 d)
at 2/f
35.The image formed by a plane mirror is
a)
real and same size as the object b)
virtual, same size as the object c)
real and magnified
d)
none of these
36.The limit of resolution of the eye is one minute at a distance x from the eye. Two persons stand with a
lateral separation of 3cms. To see the two persons just resolved by the naked eye, x should be about
a)
20km b)
15km c)
10km d)
30km
37.In the displacement method of measuring the focal length of a convex lens, the length of the images in
the two positions of the lens between the object and the screen is 9cm and 4cm respectively. The length
of the object is
a)
6.25 cm b)
1.5 cm c)
6 cm d)
36 cm
38.The refracting angle of a prism is A and the refractive index of the material of the prism cot A/2, the
angle of minimum deviation is
a)
180-A b)
180-3A c)
90-A d)
180-2A
39.A ray of light travels from vacuum into a medium of refractive index n. The angle of incidence is found
to be twice the angle of refraction. The angle of incidence is
a)
cos1n/2
b)
2cos1n/2
c)
2sin1n d)
2sin1n/2
40.An object placed at distance 'a' from the focus of a convex lens forms its real image at a distance 'b'
from the focus. The focal length of the mirror is
a)
ab
b)
ab
c)
a+b2 d)
ab
41.The distance between a point source of light and a screen is doubled. The intensity of light on the
screen will be
a)
Four times the original value
b)
half of the original value c)
two times the original value
d)
one quarter the original value.
42.From the following which one is used for studying ultra violet light?
a)
prism of crown glass
b)
prism of flint glass
c)
prism of
quartz d)
prism with combination of flint and crown glass
43.Electromagnetic waves are
a)
longitudinal waves
b)
transverse waves
c)
neither
longitudinal nor transverse
d)
stationary waves
44.If there are no atmosphere the average temperature on the surface of the earth would be
a)
lower b)
higher c)
same as now d)
00C
45.displacement current was first produced by
a)
Ampere b)
Henry c)
Maxwell
d)
base
46.Pick out the odd one which has extremely short wave length much shorter than that of visible light and
can be emitted from the nucleus of an atom.
a)
UV radiation
b)
beta radiation c)
radiation
d)
infra red radiation
47.The TV transmission tower in Delhi has a height of 240m. The distance upto when the broadcast can
be received [taking radius of earth to be 6.4106m ]
a)
100 km b)
60 km c)
55 km d)
50 km
48.All the members of electro magnetic spectrum have same
a)
frequency
b)
velocity c)
wave length
d)
wave number
49.Infra red spectrum lies between
a)
radio and micro wave region
b)
visible and UV region c)
micro wave and visible region d)
UV and X-ray region
50.Choose the waves relevant to telecommunications.
a)
ultra violet
b)
visible c)
infra red
d)
micro waves


CHEMISTRY
Q. 1. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.

Chlorides of both beryllium and aluminium have bridged chloride structures in solid phase.
B2H6.2NH3 is known as 'inorganic benzene'.
Boric acid is a protonic acid.
Beryllium exhibits coordination number of six.

Sol: Becl2 and Alcl3 both have bridged structure in solid phase.
B3N3 H6 is known as inorganic benzene.
Boric acid is Lewis acid.
Beryllium exhibits coordination number of 4

Q. 2.

i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
Sol:

Q. 3. The correct decreasing order of priority for the functional groups of organic compounds in the IUPAC system of
nomenclature is

i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
Sol: The correct decreasing order of priority for the functional group of organic compounds in the IUPAC system of
nomenclature is:

Q. 4. The pKa of a weak acid, HA is 4.80. The pKb of a weak base, BOH, is 4.78. The pH of an aqueous solution of
the corresponding salt, BA, will be
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.

7.01
9.22
9.58
4.79

Sol:

Q. 5.The hydrocarbon which can react with sodium in liquid ammonia is

i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
Sol:

Q. 6.

i.
ii.
iii.

-0.339 V
-0.26 V
0.26 V

iv.

0.339 V

Sol:

Q. 7. Amount of oxalic acid present in a solution can be determined by its titration with KMnO4solution in the
presence of H2SO4. The titration gives unsatisfactory result when carried out in the presence of HCl, because HCl
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.

reduces permanganate to Mn2+.

oxidises oxalic acid to carbon dioxide and water.
gets oxidised by oxalic acid to chlorine.
furnishes H+ ions in addition to those from oxalic acid.

2+
Sol: KMnO4can oxidise HCl along with oxalic acid into Cl2 and itself gets reduced to Mn .

Q. 8. Among the following substituted silanes the one which will give rise to cross linked silicone polymer on
hydrolysis is
i.

R2SiCl2

ii.
iii.
iv.

R3SiCl
R4Si
RSiCl3

Sol:

Correct answer is (4)

Q. 9. Oxidising power of chlorine in aqueous solution can be determined by the parameters indicated below:

The energy involved in the conversion of

i.

850 kJ mol1

ii.
iii.

+120 kJ mol1
+152 kJ mol1

iv.

610 kJ mol

Sol:

Q. 10. Which of the following factors is of no significance for roasting sulphide ores to the oxides and not subjecting
the sulphide ores to carbon reduction directly?
i.
ii.

Metal sulphides are less stable than the corresponding oxides.

CO2is more volatile than CS2.

iii.
iv.

Metal sulphides are thermodynamically more stable than CS2.

CO2is thermodynamically more stable than CS2.

Sol:

Hence, CO2 is more stable than CS2 while Ms are more stable than MO.

Q. 11. Four species are listed below:

i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of their acid strength?
(1) (i) < (iii) < (ii) < (iv) (2) (iii) < (i) < (iv) < (ii) (3) (iv) < (ii) < (iii) < (i) (4) (ii) < (iii) < (i) < (iv)
Sol: The increasing order of acidic strength is

Q. 12. Which one of the following constitutes a group of the isoelectronic species?

i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
Sol: Isoelectronic species have same number of electrons

Q. 13. Phenol, when it first reacts with concentrated sulphuric acid and then with concentrated nitric acid, gives
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.

p-nitrophenol
nitrobenzene
2,4,6-trinitrobenzene
o-nitrophenol

Sol:

As, temperature is not mentioned, 0- mitrophenol is the only stable product.

Q. 14. The ionization enthalpy of hydrogen atom is 1.312 106 J mol-1. The energy required to excite the electron in
the atom from n = 1 to n = 2 is

i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
Sol:

Q. 15. The organic chloro compound, which shows complete stereochemical inversion during a SN2 reaction, is
i.
ii.
iii.

(CH3)2CHCl
CH3Cl
(C2H5)2CHCl

iv.

(CH3)3CCl

Sol: Primary halides show inversion during SN2 reaction more than secondary while secondary show more than
tertiary.

Q. 16. Toluene is nitrated and the resulting product is reduced with tin and hydrochloric acid. The product so obtained
is diazotized and then heated with cuprous bromide. The reaction mixture so formed contains
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.

mixture of o-; and p-bromoanilines

mixture of o- and m-bromotoluenes
mixture of o- and p-bromotoluenes
mixture of o- and p-dibromobenzenes

Sol:

Q. 17. In the following sequence of reactions, the alkene affords the compound 'B'

The compound B is
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.

CH3CH2COCH3
CH3CHO
CH3CH2CHO
CH3COCH3

Sol:

Correct answer is (2)

Q. 18. Which one of the following pairs of species have the same bond order?

i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
Sol: The species which have the same number of total electrons will have the same bond order.
+
CN and NO each have 14 electrons and they will have same bond order.

Q. 19. At 800C, the vapour pressure of pure liquid 'A' is 520 mm Hg and that of pure liquid 'B' is 1000 mm Hg. If a
0
mixture solution of 'A' and 'B' boils at 80 C and 1 atm pressure, the amount of 'A' in the mixture is (1 atm = 760 mm
Hg)

i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
Sol:

48 mol percent
50 mol percent
52 mol percent
34 mol percent

Q. 20. For a reaction

, rate of disappearance of 'A' is related to the rate of appearance of 'B' by the

expression

i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
Sol:

Q. 21. The equilibrium constants

for the reactions

respectively are

in the ratio of 1 : 9. If the degree of dissociation of X and Z be equal then the ratio of total pressures at these equilibria
is
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.

1:3
1:9
1 : 36
1:1

Sol:

Q. 22. In context with the industrial preparation of hydrogen from water gas (CO + H2), which of the following is the
correct statement?
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
Sol:

H2 is removed through occlusion with Pd.

CO is oxidised to CO2 with steam in the presence of a catalyst followed by absorption of CO2in alkali.
CO and H2are fractionally separated using differences in their densities.
CO is removed by absorption in aqueous Cu2Cl2solution.

Physics
1.Which of the following is not an electro magnetic wave
a)
x-rays b)
alpha-rays
c)
gamma-rays
d)
light rays
2.Electro magnetic waves of wave length ranging from 100to 4000 come under
a)
x-rays b)
UV region
c)
visible region d)
infra-red region
3.Electro magnetic theory suggests that the light consists of
a)
magnetic vector alone b)
electric vector alone
c)
electric
and magnetic vectors perpendicular to each other.
d)
parallel electric and magnetic
vector
4.The frequency of radio waves corresponding to a wave length of 10 m is
a)
3107Hz
b)
3.3108Hz
c)
3109Hz
d)
3107Hz
5.The electromagnetic waves travel with velocity of
a)
sound b)
light
c)
greater than that of light d)
greater than that of sound
6.The existence of EM waves were experimentally confirmed by
a)
Maxwell
b)
Faraday
c)
Hertz d)
Tesla
7.The back emf in a DC motor is maximum when
a)
the motor has picked up maximum speed
b)
the motor has just
started moving c)
the speed of motor is still on increase d)
the motor has
just been switched off
8.AC measuring instrument measures
a)
peak value
b)
rms value
c)
any value
d)
average value
9.The Q-factor of a resonant circuit is equal to
a)
1CWR b)
1WL
c)
CWR d)
fCW
10.In a step-down transformer, the number of turns in
a)
Primary are less
b)
Primary are more
c)
Primary
and secondary equal
d)
secondary are infinite
11.In AC circuits choke is preferred to resistors because
a)
choke coil is cheap
b)
voltage increases
c)
energy
is not wasted d)
current increases
12.A choke is used as resistance in
a)
AC circuits
b)
DC circuits
c)
half-wave rectifier
circuits d)
both AC and DC circuits
13.The frequency of AC mains in India is
a)
110 C/S
b)
50 C/S c)
60 C/S d)
120
C/S
14.A transformer works on
a)
DC only b)
AC only c)
both AC and DC
d)
high voltage only
15.Alternating voltage
a)
is independent of time b)
varies directly with time c)
varies
inversely with time
d)
varies sinusoidaly with time
16.The law of electromagnetic induction have been used in the construction of
a)
electric operator b)
electric motor c)
galvanomet
d)
none of the above
17.Power consumed in an AC circuit become zero if
a)
inductance and resistance are both high b)
inductance and resistance are
both low
c)
inductance very high and resistance negligible d)
inductance low and resistance high


18.The rms value of current (Irms) is
a)
b/2
b)
2Io
c)

d)
2I0
19.In a purely inductive circuit the current
a)
is in phase with the voltage
b)
is out of phase with the voltage c)
eads the voltage by 900 d)
lags behind the voltage by 900
20.A lamp is connected in a series with a capacitor and an ac source, what happens if the capacity of the
capacitor is reduced?
a)
the lamp shines more brightly b)
the lamp shines less brightly
c)
there is no change in the brightness of the lamp d)
brightness may increase or
decrease depending on the frequency of ac
21.A transformer is a device which converts
a)
low voltage low current into high voltage high current
b)
high voltage low
current into low voltage high current
c)
high voltage high current into low voltage low
current d)
electric power into mechanical power
22.The resonant frequency of an LC circuit is
a)
1/2LC b)
12LC c)
12L/C d)
12C/L
23.If the conductance and capacitance are both doubled in LCR circuit, the resonant frequency of the
circuit will
a)
decrease to one half the original value b)
decrease to one-forth the
original value c)
increase to twice the original value
d)
decrease to
twice the original value
24.The power factor in an LCR circuit at resonance is
a)
zero
b)
1
c)
0.8
d)
1/2
25.The power factor in a circuit is unity. Then the impedance of the circuit is
a)
inductive
b)
capertive
c)
partially inductive and
partially conductive
d)
resistive
26.One complete set of negative and positive values of alternating quantities is called
a)
time period
b)
amplitude
c)
frequency
d)
cycle
27.The instantaneous value of an ac is given by 1=5sin(wt+). The rms value of current is
a)
SA
b)
2SA c)
S/2A d)
2.5A
28.Inductive reactance of a coil expressed as
a)
Ampere b)
ohm
c)
volt
d)
weber
29.The average value of alternating current over a complete cycle is
a)
zero
b)
1 rms c)
i/2
d)
i/2
30.A induction may store energy in
a)
Its electric field b)
Its coils c)
Its magnetic field
d)
Both electric and magnetic fields
31.Two different coils have self inductance 8mH and 2mH. The current in both coils are increased at
same constant rate. The ratio of the induced emfs in the coil is
a)
4:1
b)
1:4
c)
1:2
d)
2:1
32.A coil of resistance 5 and inductance 4H is connected to a 10V battery. The energy stored in the coil
a)
0.8J
b)
8J
c)
16J
d)
4J
33.Two coils of self inductance L1and L2are placed close together so that effective flux in one coil is
completely linked with the other. If m is the mutual inductance between them, then
a)
M=L1L2
b)
L1L22 c)
M=(L1+L2)2
d)
M=L1L2
34.The instrument which works on the principle of mutual induction is
a)
galvanometer b)
ammeter
c)
potentiometer d)
transformer
35.What is the self inductance of a coil in which an induced emf of 2V is set up when the current is
charged at the rate of 4AS1
a)
0.5mH b)
0.05H c)
2H
d)
0.5H
36.Lenz's Law is a consequence of law of conservation of
a)
energy only
b)
charge only
c)
momentum only d)
energy and momentum


37.Two blocks A (20kg) lying on a frictionless table are connected by a light string. The system is pulled
horizontally with an acceleration of 2m/s2by a force F on B. The tension in the string is
a)
10N
b)
40N
c)
100N d)
120N
38.A body of mass 2kg collides with a wall with a speed of 100 m/s and rebounds with the same speed. If
the time of contact is 150s, the force exerted on the wall is
a)
8N
b)
2104N c)
4N
d)
104N
39.The mechanical advantage of a system of pulley s is four. The force needed to lift a mass of 100 kg
will be
a)
20kg. Wt
b)
25kg. Wt
c)
5kg. Wt d)
15kg. Wt
40.The distance x covered in time t by a body having initial velocity u and having constant acceleration a
is given by x=ut+12at2. This result follows from
a)
Newton's First Law
b)
Newton's Second Law c)
Newton's Third Law
d)
None of the above
41.A plumb bob is hanging from the ceiling of a car. If the car moves with the acceleration 'a' the angle
made by the string with the vertical is
a)
sin1(ag)
b)
sin1(ga)
c)
tan1(ag)
d)
tan1(ga)
42.A weight W can be just supported on a rough inclined plane by a force F either acting along the plane
or horizontally. If is the angle of friction, then F/W is
a)
tan b)
sec c)
sin d)
cos
43.A 1000 kg lift is supported by a cable that can support 2000kg. The shortest distance in which the lift
can be supported when it is descending with a speed of 2.5 m/s is (g=10m/s2)
a)
5/16m b)
5/32 m c)
1m
d)
2m
44.A body is projected up a 450rough incline. The coefficient of friction is 0.5. Then the retardation of the
block is
a)
g/22
b)
g/2
c)
3g/22 d)
g/2
45.A body takes n times as much time to slide down as 450rough incline as it takes to slide down a
smooth 450incline. The coefficient of friction is
a)
11/n2 b)
1/1n2 c)
11/n2 d)
1/1n2
46.A ball of mass m is thrown upward with a velocity v. If air exerts an average resisting force F, the
velocity with which the ball returns back to the thrower is
a)
vmgmg+F
b)
vFmg+F
c)
vmgFmg+F
d)
vmg+FmgF
47.A ball of mass 0.1kg strikes a wall normally with a speed of 30 m/s and rebounds with a speed of
20m/s. The impulse of the force exerted by the wall on the ball is
a)
1N-S b)
5N-S c)
2N-S d)
3N-S
48.A body kept on a smooth inclined plane having inclination 1 in x will remain stationary relative to the
inclined plane if the plane is given a horizontal acceleration equal to
a)
g/x21 b)
gxx21 c)
x21/gx d)
x31/gx
49.The minimum acceleration with which a fireman can slide down a rope of breaking strength two-third
of his weight is
a)
zero
b)
g/3
c)
3g
d)
g
50.An elevator is moving vertically up with an acceleration 'a'. The force exerted on the floor by a
passenger of mass m is
a)
mg
b)
ma
c)
mg-ma d)
mg+ma