Aieee 2009

Solution of AIEEE Papers Imran Khan
AIEEE 2009
Q. 1. Arrange the carbanions , in order of their

decreasing stability:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Sol:
Answer : (4)
Q. 2. In Cannizzaro reaction given below
1. the deprotonation of PhCH2OH
2. the attack of at the carboxyl group
3. the transfer of hydride of the carbonyl group
4. the abstraction of proton from the carboxylic group
Sol.: Cannizzaro reaction involves hydride transfer as the rate limiting step.
Answer : (3)
Q. 3. Two liquids X and Y form an ideal solution. At 300 K, vapour pressure of the solution containing 1 mol
of X and 3 mol of Y is 550 mmHg. At the same temperature, if 1 mol of Y is further added to this solution,
vapour pressure of the solution increases by 10 mmHg. Vapour pressure (in mmHg) of X and Y in their pure
states will be, respectively:
1. 500 and 600
2. 200 and 300
Enjoy Chemistry with IMRAN KHAN

3. 300 and 400
4. 400 and 600
Sol:
Answer : (4)
Q. 4. In a fuel cell, methanol is used as fuel and oxygen gas is used as an oxidizer. The reaction is
; At 298 K standard Gibb’s energies of

formation for CH3OH(l), H2O(l) and CO2(g) are –166.2, –237.2 and –394.4 kJ mol–1 respectively. If standard
enthalpy of combustion of methanol is –726 kJ mol–1, efficiency of the fuel cell will be
1. 97%
2. 80%
3. 87%
4. 90%
Sol:
Answer : (1)
Q. 5. On the basis of the following thermochemical
data:

-343.52 kJ
-22.88 kJ
-228.88 kJ
+228.88 kJ
Q. 6. The half life period of a first order chemical reaction is 6.93 minutes. The time required for the
completion of 99% of the chemical reaction will be (log 2 = 0.301):
1. 460.6 minutes
2. 230.3 minutes
3. 23.03 minutes
4. 46.06 minutes
Sol:
Answer : (4)
Q. 7. Copper crystallises in fcc with a unit cell length of 361 pm. What is the radius of copper atom?
1. 181 pm
2. 108 pm
3. 127 pm
4. 157 pm
Sol:
Answer : (3)
Q. 8. Given The value of standard electrode potential
for the change,
1. -0.270 V
2. –0.072 V

3. (3) 0.385 V
4. (4) 0.770 V
Sol:
Answer : (4)
Q. 9. In which of the following arrangements, the sequence is not strictly according to the property written
against it?
1. B < C < O < N; increasing first ionization enthalpy
2. CO2 < SiO2 < SnO2 < PbO2: increasing oxidising power
3. HF < HCl < HBr < HI: increasing acid strength
4. NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3: increasing basic strength
Sol.: On moving down the group, the basic tendency of hydrides of group 15 decreases.
Answer : (4)
Q. 10. Knowing that the chemistry of lanthanoids (Ln) is dominated by its +3 oxidation state, which of the
following statements isincorrect?
1. Ln (III) hydroxides are mainly basic in character.
2. Because of the large size of the Ln (III) ions the bonding in its compounds is predominantly ionic in
character.
3. The ionic sizes of Ln (III) decrease in general with increasing atomic number.
4. Ln (III) compounds are generally colourless.
Answer : (4)
Q. 11. The set representing the correct order of ionic radius is:

1.
2.
3.
4.
Sol.: On moving down the group, the ionic radius increases. In case of isoelectronic ions, more the charge
on the ion, smaller will be its size.
Answer : (3)
Q. 12. Buna–N synthetic rubber is a copolymer of:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Sol.: Buna–N is a copolymer of buta–1,3–diene and acrylonitrile.
Answer : (4)
Q. 13. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding physiosorption?
1. Enthalpy of adsorption is low and positive.
2. It occurs because of Van der Waal’s forces.
3. More easily liquefiable gases are adsorbed readily.
4. Under high pressure it results into multi molecular layer on adsorbent surface.
Sol.: for adsorption is negative. Adsorption is a spontaneous process, so is negative and in

case of adsorption is also negative.
Answer : (1)

Q. 14. The number of stereoisomers possible for a compound of the molecular
formula Me is:
Sol:
Isomer 1: cis d ; Isomer 2: cis l ; Isomer 3: trans d ; Isomer 4: trans l
Answer : (4)
Q. 15. The two functional groups present in a typical carbohydrate are:
1. –OH and –CHO
2. –OH and –COOH
3. –CHO and –COOH
4.
Sol.: Carbohydrate is a polyhydroxy aldehyde or polyhydroxy ketone or any compound which give these on
hydrolysis. group includes aldehydic as well as ketonic group.
Answer : (4)
Q. 16. Calculate the wavelength (in nanometer) associated with a proton moving
at
1. 14.0 nm
2. 0.032 nm
3. 0.40 nm
4. 2.5 nm

Sol:
Answer: (3)
Q. 17. The bond dissociation energy of B–F in BF3 is 646 kJ mol–1 whereas that of C–F in CF4 is 515 kJ
mol–1. The correct reason for higher B–F bond dissociation energy as compared to that of C–F is
1. lower degree of interaction between B and F in BF3than that between C and F in CF4.
2. smaller size of B atoms as compared to that of C atom.
3. stronger bond between B and F in BF3 as compared to that between C and F in CF4
4. significant interaction between B and F in BF3 whereas there is no possibility of such

interaction between C and F in CF4 .
Sol: Boron in BF3 has a vacant p–orbital, allowing back bonding while carbon in CF4 has no
vacant orbital, so no back bonding is feasible. Thus, B–F bond is stronger than CF4.
Answer: (4)
Q. 18. The major product obtained on interaction of phenol with sodium hydroxide and carbon dioxide is:
1. phthalic acid
2. benzoic acid
3. salicylaldehyde
4. salicylic acid
Sol:
Answer: (4)
Q. 19. Solid Ba(NO3)2 is gradually dissolved in solution. At what concentration of
Ba2+ will a precipitate begin to form?
1.

2.
3.
4.
Sol: Concentration of Ba2+ needed to
precipitate
Answer: (3)
Q. 20. Which one of the following reactions of xenon compounds is not feasible?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Sol: XeF6 reacts violently with water and gets hydrolysed to give highly explosive XeO3.
; Reaction (2) is reverse of this, so it is not feasible.
Answer: (2)
Q. 21. The IUPAC name of neopentane is:
1. 2,2–dimethylbutane
2. 2–methylbutane
3. 2,2-dimethylpropane
4. 2–methylpropane

Sol.:
Answer: (3)
Q. 22. In context with the transition elements, which of the following statements is incorrect?
Once the d5 configuration is exceeded, the tendency to involve all the 3d electrons in bonding
decreases.
In addition to the normal oxidation states, the zero oxidation state is also shown by these elements in
complexes.
In the highest oxidation states, the transition metal show basic character and form cationic complexes.
In the highest oxidation states of the first five transition elements (Sc to Mn), all the 4s and 3d electrons
are used for bonding.
Sol.: In highest oxidation state, the transition metal will form complexes which will have large degree of
covalent character, which shows the acidic behaviour.
Answer: (3)
Q. 23. Which of the following pairs represents linkage isomers?
[PtCl2(NH3)4]Br2 and [PtBr2(NH3)4]Cl2
[Cu(NH3)4][PtCl4] and [Pt(NH3)4] [CuCl4]
[Pd(PPh3)2(NCS)2] and [Pd(PPh3)2(SCN)2]
[Co(NH3)5NO3]SO4 and [Co(NH3)5SO4]NO3
Sol: Linkage isomerism is shown by ambidentate ligands. (SCN– and NCS– are ambidentate groups).
Answer: (3)
Q. 24. In an atom, an electron is moving with a speed of 600 m/s with an accuracy of 0.005%. Certainity with
which the position of the electron can be located
is

1.
2.
3.
4.
Sol:
Answer: (4)
Q. 25. Which of the following on heating with aqueous KOH, produces acetaldehyde?
1. CH3CHCl2
2. CH3COCl
3. CH3CH2Cl
4. CH2ClCH2Cl
Sol:
Answer: (1)
Q. 26. A liquid was mixed with ethanol and a drop of concentrated H2SO4 was added. A compound with a
fruity smell was formed. The liquid was:
1. CH3COOH
2. CH3OH
3. HCHO
4. CH3COCHb3

Sol:
Ethyl acetate (ester) has fruity smell.
Answer: (1)
Q. 27. Using MO theory predict which of the following species has the shortest bond length?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Sol: The bond order of , , and is 1, 3, 2.5 and 1.5 respectively. Since, has highest
bond order, so it has shortest bond length.
Answer: (2)
Q. 28. A binary liquid solution is prepared by mixing n-heptane and ethanol. Which one of the following
statements is correct regarding the behaviour of the solution?
1. n–heptane shows +ve deviation while ethanol shows –ve deviation from Raoult’s Law.
2. The solution formed is an ideal solution.
3. The solution is non-ideal, showing +ve deviation from Raoult’s law.
4. The solution is non-ideal, showing –ve deviation from Raoult’s Law.
Sol: When n–heptane is added to ethanol, the H-bonding interaction between ethanol molecules is
loosened, so weaker interaction among molecules leads to higher vapour pressure. Thus, it forms a non-
ideal solution with positive deviation from Raoult’s law.
Answer: (3)
Q. 29. The alkene that exhibits geometrical isomerism is:
1. 2–methyl–2–butene
2. propene
3. 2–methyl propene
4. 2–butene

Sol: Terminal alkenes never show geometrical isomerism and non–terminal alkene with 2 different groups
attached to each atom having restricted rotation is capable of showing geometrical isomerism.
Answer: (4)
Q. 30. Which of the following has an optical isomer?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Sol: Square planar complexes can not show optical isomerism. So, option (2) and (3) are ruled out.
Compound in option (4) i.e. has a plane of symmetry, so it is also optically inactive.
Answer: (1)
AIEEE 2008
. 1. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
i. Chlorides of both beryllium and aluminium have bridged chloride structures in solid phase.
ii. B2H6.2NH3 is known as 'inorganic benzene'.
iii. Boric acid is a protonic acid.
iv. Beryllium exhibits coordination number of six.
Sol: Becl2 and Alcl3 both have bridged structure in solid phase.
B3N3 H6 is known as inorganic benzene.
Boric acid is Lewis acid.
Beryllium exhibits coordination number of 4
Q. 2.
i.
ii.
iii.

iv.
Sol:
Q. 3. The correct decreasing order of priority for the functional groups of organic compounds in the IUPAC
system of nomenclature is
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
Sol: The correct decreasing order of priority for the functional group of organic compounds in the IUPAC
system of nomenclature is:
Q. 4. The pKa of a weak acid, HA is 4.80. The pKb of a weak base, BOH, is 4.78. The pH of an aqueous
solution of the corresponding salt, BA, will be
i. 7.01
ii. 9.22
iii. 9.58
iv. 4.79
Sol:
Q. 5.The hydrocarbon which can react with sodium in liquid ammonia is
i.

ii.
iii.
iv.
Sol:
Q. 6.
i. -0.339 V
ii. -0.26 V
iii. 0.26 V
iv. 0.339 V
Sol:
Q. 7. Amount of oxalic acid present in a solution can be determined by its titration with KMnO4solution in the
presence of H2SO4. The titration gives unsatisfactory result when carried out in the presence of HCl,
because HCl
i. reduces permanganate to Mn2+.

ii. oxidises oxalic acid to carbon dioxide and water.
iii. gets oxidised by oxalic acid to chlorine.
iv. furnishes H+ ions in addition to those from oxalic acid.

Sol: KMnO4can oxidise HCl along with oxalic acid into Cl2 and itself gets reduced to Mn2+.
Q. 8. Among the following substituted silanes the one which will give rise to cross linked silicone polymer on
hydrolysis is
i. R2SiCl2
ii. R3SiCl
iii. R4Si
iv. RSiCl3
Sol:
Correct answer is (4)
Q. 9. Oxidising power of chlorine in aqueous solution can be determined by the parameters indicated below:

The energy involved in the conversion of
i. –850 kJ mol–1
ii. +120 kJ mol–1
iii. +152 kJ mol–1
iv. –610 kJ mol–1
Sol:
Q. 10. Which of the following factors is of no significance for roasting sulphide ores to the oxides and not
subjecting the sulphide ores to carbon reduction directly?
i. Metal sulphides are less stable than the corresponding oxides.

ii. CO2is more volatile than CS2.
iii. Metal sulphides are thermodynamically more stable than CS2.
iv. CO2is thermodynamically more stable than CS2.
Sol:
Hence, CO2 is more stable than CS2 while Ms are more stable than MO.
Q. 11. Four species are listed below:

i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of their acid strength?
(1) (i) < (iii) < (ii) < (iv) (2) (iii) < (i) < (iv) < (ii) (3) (iv) < (ii) < (iii) < (i) (4) (ii) < (iii) < (i) < (iv)
Sol: The increasing order of acidic strength is
Q. 12. Which one of the following constitutes a group of the isoelectronic species?
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
Sol: Isoelectronic species have same number of electrons
Q. 13. Phenol, when it first reacts with concentrated sulphuric acid and then with concentrated nitric acid,
gives
i. p-nitrophenol
ii. nitrobenzene
iii. 2,4,6-trinitrobenzene
iv. o-nitrophenol
Sol:
As, temperature is not mentioned, 0- mitrophenol is the only stable product.

Q. 14. The ionization enthalpy of hydrogen atom is 1.312 × 106 J mol-1. The energy required to excite the
electron in the atom from n = 1 to n = 2 is
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
Sol:
Q. 15. The organic chloro compound, which shows complete stereochemical inversion during a SN2
reaction, is
i. (CH3)2CHCl
ii. CH3Cl
iii. (C2H5)2CHCl
iv. (CH3)3CCl
Sol: Primary halides show inversion during SN2 reaction more than secondary while secondary show more
than tertiary.
Q. 16. Toluene is nitrated and the resulting product is reduced with tin and hydrochloric acid. The product so
obtained is diazotized and then heated with cuprous bromide. The reaction mixture so formed contains
i. mixture of o-; and p-bromoanilines

ii. mixture of o- and m-bromotoluenes
iii. mixture of o- and p-bromotoluenes
iv. mixture of o- and p-dibromobenzenes
Sol:

Q. 17. In the following sequence of reactions, the alkene affords the compound 'B'
The compound B is
i. CH3CH2COCH3
ii. CH3CHO
iii. CH3CH2CHO
iv. CH3COCH3
Sol:
Correct answer is (2)
Q. 18. Which one of the following pairs of species have the same bond order?
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
Sol: The species which have the same number of total electrons will have the same bond order.
CN- and NO+ each have 14 electrons and they will have same bond order.

Q. 19. At 800C, the vapour pressure of pure liquid 'A' is 520 mm Hg and that of pure liquid 'B' is 1000 mm
Hg. If a mixture solution of 'A' and 'B' boils at 800C and 1 atm pressure, the amount of 'A' in the mixture is (1
atm = 760 mm Hg)
i. 48 mol percent
ii. 50 mol percent
iii. 52 mol percent
iv. 34 mol percent
Sol:
Q. 20. For a reaction , rate of disappearance of 'A' is related to the rate of appearance of 'B'
by the expression
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
Sol:

Q. 21. The equilibrium constants for the reactions

respectively are in the ratio of 1 : 9. If the degree of dissociation of X and Z be equal then the ratio of total
pressures at these equilibria is
1:3
1:9
1 : 36
1:1
Sol:

Q. 22. In context with the industrial preparation of hydrogen from water gas (CO + H2), which of the following
is the correct statement?
H2 is removed through occlusion with Pd.
CO is oxidised to CO2 with steam in the presence of a catalyst followed by absorption of CO2in alkali.
CO and H2are fractionally separated using differences in their densities.
CO is removed by absorption in aqueous Cu2Cl2solution.
Sol:
Q. 23. In which of the following octahedral complexes of Co (atomic number 27), will the magnitude of
be the highest?
Sol: Magnitude of will be heighest with the strongest ligand. In the given context CN- is the strongest
ligand and would lead to a greater seperatin between t2g and cg orbitals.
Q. 24. The coordination number and the oxidation state of the element 'E' in the
complex (where (en) is ethylene diamine) are, respectively,
4 and 3
6 and 3

6 and 2
4 and 2
Sol: Ethyldiamine and oxalateion are both bidentate legends. Co-ordination number of E in the complex.
Q. 25. Identify the wrong statement in the following:
i. Ozone layer does not permit infrared radiation from the sun to reach the earth.
ii. Acid rain is mostly because of oxides of nitrogen and sulphur.
iii. Chlorofluorocarbons are responsible for ozone layer depletion.
iv. Greenhouse effect is responsible for global warming.
Sol: Ozone layer does not permit the ultraviolet radiation from the sum to the earth.
Q. 26. Larger number of oxidation states are exhibited by the actinoids than those by lanthanoids, the main
reason being
i. more energy difference between 5f and 6d than between 4f and 5d orbitals.

ii. more reactive nature of the actinoids than the lanthanoids.
iii. 4f orbitals more diffused than the 5f orbitals.
iv. lesser energy difference between 5f and 6d than between 4f and 5d orbitals.
Sol: The energy difference between 5 f and 6d is very less than that between 4f and 5d orbitals. Therefore,
in actinoids, the electron can be removed from 5f and 6d both. So, they exhibit more number of oridation
state.
Q. 27. In a compound, atoms of element Y form ccp lattice and those of element X occupy 2/3rd of
tetrahedral voids. The formula of the compound will be
i. X2 Y
ii. X3 Y4
iii. X4 Y3
iv. X2 Y3
Sol:

Q. 28. Gold numbers of protective colloids (A), (B), (C) and (D) are 0.50, 0.01, 0.10 and 0.005, respectively.
The correct order of their protective powers is
i. (A) < (C) < (B) < (D)

ii. (B) < (D) < (A) < (C)
iii. (D) < (A) < (C) < (B)
iv. (C) < (B) < (D) < (A)
Sol: If the gold number of a protective coil is less then its protective power is good.
0.005 < 0.01 < 0.10 < 0.50
or, (A) < (C) < (B) < (D)
Q. 29. The vapour pressure of water at 200C is 17.5 mm Hg. If 18 g of glucose (C6H12O6) is added to 178.2 g
of water at 200C, the vapour pressure of the resulting solution will be
i. 16.500 mm Hg
ii. 17.325 mm Hg
iii. 17.675 mm Hg
iv. 15.750 mm Hg
Sol:

Q. 30. Bakelite is obtained from phenol by reacting with
i. CH3COCH3
ii. HCHO
iii. (CH2OH)2
iv. CH3CHO
Sol:
Q. 31. The absolute configuration of is
i. R, S
ii. S, R
iii. S, S
iv. R, R
Sol: The absolute configuration is

Q. 32. For the following three reactions a, b, c, equilibrium constants are given:
a.
b.
c.
Which of the following relations is correct?
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
Sol:
Q. 33. Standard entropy of X2, Y2 and XY3 are 60, 40 and 50 JK-1mol-1, respectively. For the
reaction, , to be at equilibrium, the temperature will be
i. 750 K
ii. 1000 K
iii. 1250 K
iv. 500 K

Sol:
Q. 34. The electrophile, attacks the benzene ring to generate the intermediate complex. Of the
following, which complex is of lowest energy?
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
Sol: complex formed by the attack of electrophile on benzene is the more stable than that formed by
the attack of electrophile on nitrobenzene at any one of the three given positions.
Q. 35. Glucose are

i. anomers
ii. enantiomers
iii. conformers
iv. epimers
Sol:
AIEEE 2007
Q. 1. The energies of activation for forward and reverse reactions
for respectively. The presence of a catalyst

lowers the activation energy of both (forward and reverse) reactions by 100 kJ mol–1. The enthalpy change
of the reaction in the presence of catalyst will be (in kJ mol–1)
a. 300
b. 120
c. 280
d. 20
Sol: Enthalpy change of a reaction is not affected by the presence of a catalyst as it lowers the activation
energy of the forward and reverse reaction by the same
amount . None of the options given is correct but

option (4) can be treated as correct in terms of magnitude. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 2. The cell, , was allowed to be completely
discharged at 298 K. The relative concentration of ZnocellE
a. antilog (24.08)
b. 37.3
c.
d.
Sol:
Correct choice: (3)

Q. 3. The pKa of a weak acid (HA) is 4.5. The pOH of an aqueous buffered solution of HA in which 50% of
the acid is ionized is
a. 4.5
b. 2.5
c. 9.5
d. 7.0
Sol: If the given weak acid is 50% ionized, then its conjugate base will have the concentration same as that
of weak acid.
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 4. Consider the reaction, When concentration of B alone was doubled, the

half−life did not change. When the concentration of A alone was doubled, the rate increased by two times.
The unit of rate constant for this reaction is
a.
b. no unit
c.
d.
Sol: The reaction would be first order with respect to A and first order with respect to B. The overall order of
the reaction is 2.
Correct choice: (1)
Q. 5.. Identify the incorrect statement among the following:
a. d−Block elements show irregular and erratic chemical properties among themselves .
b. La and Lu have partially filled d orbitals and no other partially filled orbitals.
c. The chemistry of various lanthanoids is very similar.
d. 4f and 5f orbitals are equally shielded.

Sol: 4f orbital electrons are shielded more than 5f orbital electrons.

Correct choice: (4)
Q. 6. Which one of the following has a square planar geometry?
a.
b.
c.
d.
(Atomic numbers: Co = 27, Ni = 28, Fe = 26, Pt = 78)

Sol: Platinum(+II) only forms square planar complex. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 7. Which of the following molecules is expected to rotate the plane of plane − polarised light?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol: Compound (1) does not have any plane of symmetry as well as centre of symmetry so it rotates the
plane of plane−polarised light. Compound (2), (3) and (4) have a plane of symmetry, so they all are optically
inactive.
Correct choice: (1)
Q. 8. The secondary structure of protein refers to:
a. helical backbone.
b. hydrophobic interactions.
c. sequence of amino acids.
d. fixed configuration of the polypeptide backbone.

Sol: Secondary structure of a protein refers to the fixed configuration of the polypeptide skeleton. helix
structure results only when intramolecular H−bonds are formed between of one amino acid residue
and N−H of fourth amino acid residue in polypeptide chain. pleated structure is formed when
intermolecular H−bond is formed between of one polypeptide chain with N−H of the other chain.
Correct choice: (4)
Q. 9. Which of the following reactions will yield 2,2−dibromopropane?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol:
Correct choice: (1)
Q. 10. In the chemical reaction, the

compounds (A) and (B) are respectively:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol: This is carbylamine reaction.

Correct choice: (4)
Q. 11. The reaction of toluene with Cl2 in presence of FeCl3 gives predominantly:
a. benzoyl chloride
b. benzyl chloride
c. o− and p−chlorotoluene
d. m−chlorotoluene
Sol:

The reaction proceeds by electrophilic substitution mechanism.

Correct choice: (3 )
Q. 12. Presence of a nitro group in a benzene ring
a. activates the ring towards electrophilic substitution.

b. renders the ring basic.
c. deactivates the ring towards nucleophilic substitution.
d. deactivates the ring towards electrophilic substitution.
Sol: −NO2 group in benzene ring shows −I and −R effect, which deactivates the ring towards electrophilic
substitution but activates it towards nucleophilic substitution. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 13. In which of the following ionization processes, the bond order has increased and the magnetic
behaviour has changed?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol:
Correct choice: (2)
Q. 14. The actinoids exhibit more number of oxidation states in general than the lanthanoids. This is
because
a. the 5f orbitals are more buried than the 4f orbitals.

b. there is a similarity between 4f and 5f orbitals in their angular part of the wave function.
c. the actinoids are more reactive than the lanthanoids.

d. the 5f orbitals extend further from the nucleus than the 4f orbitals.
Sol: The actinoids exhibit more number of oxidation states than lanthanoids because they can loose more
number of electrons as the 5f orbital electrons are held less strongly than the 4f orbital electrons. Correct
choice: (4)
Q. 15. Equal masses of methane and oxygen are mixed in an empty container at . The fraction of the
total pressure exerted by oxygen is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol: Let the mass of methane and oxygen be x g each.
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 16. . A 5.25% solution of a substance is isotonic with a 1.5% solution of urea (molar mass = 60 g mol–1) in
the same solvent. If the densities of both the solutions are assumed to be equal to 1.0 g cm–3, molar mass
of the substance will be
a. 90.0 g mol–1
b. 115.0 g mol–1
c. 105.0 g mol–1
d. 210.0 g mol–1
Sol: Since the two solutions are isotonic, their concentrations will be
same. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 17. Assuming that water vapour is an ideal gas, the internal energy change when 1 mol of water is
vapourised at 1 bar pressure and 1000C,(Given: Molar enthalpy of vapourisation of water at 1 bar and 373 K
= 41 kJ mol−1 and R = 8.3 J mol−1K−1) will be:

a. 4.100 kJ mol−1
b. 3.7904 kJ mol−1
c. 37.904 kJ mol−1
d. 41.00 kJ mol−1
Sol:
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 18. In a saturated solution of the sparingly soluble strong electrolyte AgIO3(Molecular mass = 283) the
equilibrium which sets in is If the solubility product constant K

spof AgIO3 at a given temperature is, what is the mass of AgIO3contained in 100 ml of its saturated solution?
a. 28.3 × 10–2 g
b. 2.83 × 10–3 g
c. 1.0 × 10–7 g
d. 1.0 × 10–4 g
Sol:
If ‘s’ is the solubility of AglO3 in a saturated solution, then
Correct choice: (2)
Q. 19. A radioactive element gets spilled over the floor of a room. Its half–life period is 30 days. If the initial
activity is ten times the permissible value, after how many days will it be safe to enter the room?
a. 1000 days
b. 300 days
c. 10 days

d. 100 days
Sol: Let the permissible activity limit of the radioactive element be x, then the initial activity would be 10 x.
Correct choice: (4)
Q. 20. Which one of the following conformations of cyclohexane is chiral?
a. Twist boat
b. Rigid
c. Chair
d. Boat
Sol: Twist boat conformation of cyclohexane is chiral because it has neither plane of symmetry nor centre of
symmetry. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 21. Which of the following is the correct order of decreasing SN2 reactivity?
a. RCH2X > R3CX > R2CHX

b. RCH2X > R2CHX > R3CX
c. R3CX > R2CHX > RCH2X
d. R2CHX > R3CX > RCH2X
(X = a halogen)
Sol: The reactivity of a compound towards SN2 reaction decreases as the crowding at the C–atom
containing leaving group increases. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 22. In a following sequence of reactions,
a. butanal
b. n–butyl alcohol
c. n–propyl alcohol
d. propanal
Sol:

Correct choice: (3)
Q. 23. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers represents the highest energy of an atom?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol: An orbital having higher value of (n + l) has higher energy. Out of the four options given, the value of (n
+ l) is highest if n = 3 and l = 2. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 24. Which of the following hydrogen bonds is the strongest?
a. O–H.…N
b. F–H.…F
c. O–H.…O
d. O–H.…F
Sol: Greater the difference in electronegativity of H–atom and the other electronegative atom with which H is
covalently bonded, stronger is the hydrogen bond. Highest electronegativity difference exists in HF
molecule. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 25. In the reaction,
a. 6 L HCl(aq) is consumed for every 3 L H2(g) produced.

b. 33.6 L H2(g) is produced regardless of temperature and pressure for every mole Al that reacts.
c. 67.2 L H2(g) at STP is produced for every mole Al that reacts.
d. 11.2 L H2(g) at STP is produced for every mole HCl(aq) consumed.
Sol: Given that,

For each mole of Al reacted, 1.5 mol of H2 is formed; and for each mole of HCl(aq) consumed, 0.5 mol or
11.2 L of H2 at STP is formed. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 26. Regular use of which of the following fertilizers increases the acidity of soil?
a. Potassium nitrate

b. Urea
c. Superphosphate of lime
d. Ammonium sulphate
Sol: Ammonium sulphate is a salt of weak base and strong acid. Its aqueous solution is acidic due to
hydrolysis of ammonium ion. It will increase the acidity of soil. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 27. Identify the correct statement regarding a spontaneous process:
a. For a spontaneous process in an isolated system, the change in entropy is positive.

b. Endothermic processes are never spontaneous.
c. Exothermic processes are always spontaneous.
d. Lowering of energy in the reaction process is the only criterion for spontaneity.
Sol: For a process to be spontaneous in an isolated system, the change in entropy is positive. Correct
choice: (1)
Q. 28. Which of the following nuclear reactions will generate an isotope?
a. neutron particle emission

b. positron emission
c. particle emission
d. particle emission
Sol: In a nuclear reaction, an isotope cannot be generated by the emission of positron , particle
or particle because it will change the atomic number of the parent nuclei. An isotope can be generated
when the nuclei of an element are bombarded with slow neutrons e.g., .
Formation of isotope by neutron particle emission is a hypothetical process. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 29. The equivalent conductances of two strong electrolytes at infinite dilution in H2O (where ions move
freely through a solution) at 250C are given
below:
What additional information/quantity one needs to calculate of an aqueous solution of acetic acid?
a.
b.
c. (C) The limiting equivalent conducted of
d.
Sol:

Correct choice: (1)
Q. 30. Which one of the following is the strongest base in aqueous solution?
a. Trimethylamine
b. Aniline
c. Dimethylamine
d. Methylamine
Sol: Aliphatic amines are more basic than aromatic amines and among aliphatic amines, the order of
basicity in aqueous solution is Correct choice: (3)
Q. 31. The compound formed as a result of oxidation of ethyl benzene by KMnO4 is
a. benzophenone
b. acetophenone
c. benzoic acid
d. benzyl alcohol
Sol:
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 32. The IUPAC name of is
a. 1,1–diethyl–2,2–dimethylpentane
b. 4,4–dimethyl–5,5–diethylpentane
c. 5,5–diethyl–4,4–dimethylpentane
d. 3–ethyl–4,4–dimethylheptane
Sol:
IUPAC name of the given compound is: 3–ethyl–4,4–dimethyl heptane.

Correct choice: (4)

Q. 33. Which of the following species exhibits the diamagnetic behaviour?
a.
b.
c.
d. NO
Sol: , and NO are paramagnetic due to the presence of 2, 1 and 1 unpaired electrons
respectively. will have no unpaired electron and is diamagnetic in nature. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 34. The stability of dihalides of Si, Ge, Sn and Pb increases steadily in the sequence
a. GeX2 << SiX2 << SnX2 << PbX2

b. SiX2 << GeX2 << PbX2 << SnX2
c. SiX2 << GeX2 << SnX2 << PbX2
d. PbX2 << SnX2 << GeX2 << SiX2
Sol: The stability of the lower oxidation state increases down the group in group 14. SiX2 << GeX2 <<
SnX2 << PbX2 Correct choice: (3)
Q. 35. Identify the incorrect statement among the following:
a. Ozone reacts with SO2 to give SO3.

b. Silicon reacts with NaOH(aq) in the presence of air to give Na2SiO3 and H2O.
c. Cl2 reacts with excess of NH3 to give N2 and HCl.
d. Br2 reacts with hot and strong NaOH solution to give NaBr, NaBrO4 and H2O.
Sol: O3 + SO2 SO3 + O2

Si + 2NaOH + O2 Na2SiO3 + H2O
3Cl2 + 2NH3 N2 + 6HCl
3Br2 + 6NaOH 5NaBr + NaBrO3 + 3H2O Correct choice: (4)
Q. 36. The charge/size ratio of a cation determines its polarizing power. Which one of the following
sequences represents the increasing order of the polarizing power of the cationic species, K+, Ca2+, Mg2+,
Be2+?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Sol: Greater the charge/size ratio of a cation, size but charge of all those ions is same. Thus, polarising
power of these ions is in the order: K+ has a 1 unit charge less than that
of Ca and its size is larger than that of Ca , thus polarising power of K+ is less than that of Ca2+. So, the
2+ 2+
correct order is
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 37. The density (in g mL–1) of a 3.60 M sulphuric acid solution that is 29%
H2SO4 (Molar mass = 98 g mol–1) by mass will be
a. .64
b. 1.88
c. 1.22
d. 1.45
Sol: Let the mass of solution be x g.
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 38. The first and second dissociation constants of an acid H2A are 1.0 × 10–5 and 5.0 × 10–10 respectively.
The overall dissociation constant of the acid will be
a. 5.0 × 10–5
b. 5.0 × 1015
c. 5.0 × 10–15
d. 0.2 × 105
Sol:
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 39. A mixture of ethyl alcohol and propyl alcohol as vapour pressure of 290 mm at 300 K. The vapour
pressure of propyl alcohol is 200 mm. If the mole fraction of ethyl alcohol is 0.6, its vapour pressure (in mm)
at the same temperature will be
a. 350
b. 300
c. 700
d. 360
Sol:

Correct choice: (1)
Q. 40. In conversion of lime–stone to lime,

The values of and are +179.1 kJ mol–1 and 160.2 J/K respectively at 298 K and 1 bar.
Assuming that and do not change with temperature, temperature above which conversion of
limestone to lime will be spontaneous is
a. 1008 K
b. 1200 K
c. 845 K
d. 1118 K
Sol: The decomposition of CaCO3 to CaO and CO2 would become spontaneous
when would be –ve. But limiting condition can be arrived at when would become
zero.
Correct choice: (4)

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Solution of AIEEE Papers Imran Khan

Q. 1. Arrange the carbanions , in order of their

Q. 2. In Cannizzaro reaction given below

1. the deprotonation of PhCH2OH

2. the attack of at the carboxyl group

3. the transfer of hydride of the carbonyl group

4. the abstraction of proton from the carboxylic group

1. 500 and 600

2. 200 and 300

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3. 300 and 400

4. 400 and 600

; At 298 K standard Gibb’s energies of

Q. 5. On the basis of the following thermochemical

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Q. 8. Given The value of standard electrode potential

for the change,

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1. B < C < O < N; increasing first ionization enthalpy

3. HF < HCl < HBr < HI: increasing acid strength

1. Ln (III) hydroxides are mainly basic in character.

4. Ln (III) compounds are generally colourless.

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Q. 12. Buna–N synthetic rubber is a copolymer of:

Sol.: Buna–N is a copolymer of buta–1,3–diene and acrylonitrile.

Q. 13. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding physiosorption?

1. Enthalpy of adsorption is low and positive.

2. It occurs because of Van der Waal’s forces.

3. More easily liquefiable gases are adsorbed readily.

Sol.: for adsorption is negative. Adsorption is a spontaneous process, so is negative and in

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Q. 14. The number of stereoisomers possible for a compound of the molecular

Isomer 1: cis d ; Isomer 2: cis l ; Isomer 3: trans d ; Isomer 4: trans l

Q. 15. The two functional groups present in a typical carbohydrate are:

1. –OH and –CHO

2. –OH and –COOH

3. –CHO and –COOH

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2. smaller size of B atoms as compared to that of C atom.

4. significant interaction between B and F in BF3 whereas there is no possibility of such

Q. 19. Solid Ba(NO3)2 is gradually dissolved in solution. At what concentration of

Ba2+ will a precipitate begin to form?

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Sol: Concentration of Ba2+ needed to

; Reaction (2) is reverse of this, so it is not feasible.

Q. 21. The IUPAC name of neopentane is:

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Q. 23. Which of the following pairs represents linkage isomers?

[PtCl2(NH3)4]Br2 and [PtBr2(NH3)4]Cl2

[Cu(NH3)4][PtCl4] and [Pt(NH3)4] [CuCl4]

[Pd(PPh3)2(NCS)2] and [Pd(PPh3)2(SCN)2]

[Co(NH3)5NO3]SO4 and [Co(NH3)5SO4]NO3

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2. The solution formed is an ideal solution.

3. The solution is non-ideal, showing +ve deviation from Raoult’s law.

4. The solution is non-ideal, showing –ve deviation from Raoult’s Law.

Q. 29. The alkene that exhibits geometrical isomerism is:

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Q. 30. Which of the following has an optical isomer?

. 1. Which one of the following is the correct statement?

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