07-Insight 2017 Prelims Test Series (Shashidthakur23.Wordpress - Com)

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Prelims 2017 Test 7

SOLUTIONS
1. Many of areas with high ranges of tides are located in the areas of
Alaska, Canada, and northern Europe. Which of the following can
be peculiar reason(s) for the same?
1. They are all located at higher latitudes.
2. The constriction of the oceans due to landmass distribution in
the Northern hemisphere causes high tides.
3. Heavy storm waters coincide with major tidal events.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2 only
1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 3
Solution: b)
Justification: Statement 1: That many of the areas of the world with
high ranges of tides are in the areas of Alaska, Canada, and northern
Europe has created a misconception that the range of tide increases with
increasing latitude (as one moves farther from the equator and closer to
the poles). This is incorrect.
Statement 2: Increased tidal ranges in these areas are created by the
positions and configurations of the continents in the northern
hemisphere. In the higher latitudes of the northern hemisphere, the
continents of North America, Europe, and Asia are pressed closer
together. This constriction of the oceans creates the effect of a higher
range of tides.
In the higher latitudes of the southern hemisphere, in the southern tips
of South America, southern Africa, Australia, and Antarctica, tidal ranges
are not increased. In these areas the continents are not pressed closely
together, there is not a constriction of the oceans, and the tidal ranges
are not increased.
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Q Source: Improvisation: Page 122: Fundamentals of Physical

Geography: 11th NCERT
2. Consider the following about Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation

(APEC).
1. It consists of Pacific Rim economies.
2. It promotes free trade throughout the Asia-Pacific region by
promoting common trade standards across the region.
3. It is an affiliate member of the G-8.
4. All economies have an equal say in APEC and decision-making
is reached by consensus.
5. There are no binding commitments or treaty obligations other
than those agreed voluntarily by member economies on a case
to case basis.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1, 2, 4 and 5 only
3, 4 and 5 only
1, 2 and 5 only
Solution: b)
Justification: Statement 1: Member countries are shown in another
question (diagram).
Statement 2: APEC ensures that goods, services, investment and people
move easily across borders. Members facilitate this trade through faster

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customs procedures at borders; more favorable business climates behind

the border; and aligning regulations and standards across the region.
For example, APEC's initiative to synchronize regulatory systems is a key
step to integrating the Asia-Pacific economy. A product can be more
easily exported with just one set of common standards across all
economies.
Statement 4 and 5: APEC operates as a cooperative, multilateral
economic and trade forum. Member economies participate on the basis
of open dialogue and respect for views of all participants.
In APEC, all economies have an equal say and decision-making is
reached by consensus. There are no binding commitments or treaty
obligations. Commitments are undertaken on a voluntary basis and
capacity building projects help members implement APEC initiatives.
APEC's structure is based on both a "bottom-up" and "top-down"
approach.
Q Source: Syllabus: Asian intergovernmental bodies
3. The TFIx program recently launched by Teach For India (TFI)

intends to
a) Inviting entrepreneurial support in spreading education in India
b) Building public schooling infrastructure using donations
received from both India and abroad
c) Call speakers and educators from all across the globe to share
their experiences in Indian schools
d) Reform the curriculum in major aided private schools
Solution: a)
Learning: TFI is a major NGO working in India towards bringing
equity and quality to school education in India.


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TFIx is an incubator programme, for new as well as experienced

entrepreneurs who want to bring educational equity to all corners
of the country. As of now, TFI ropes in qualified graduates from all
across the country to teach in Indian schools in relatively backward
areas.
But, with this initiative, TFI will expand its horizons and provide
yearlong support to 25 people (entrepreneurs) who are selected as
they set up their organisations.
TFIx will run a year-long incubation programme to help
entrepreneurs adapt the Teach For India model to their context
and launch their fellowships by providing the required skills,
experience and support.
Q Source: Syllabus: Major NGOs + Current Affairs http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/business/india-business/TeachFor-India-launches-incubator-programme-for-educationalentrepreneurs/articleshow/54851573.cms
4. A rare and globally threatened species of palm, the double coconut

tree was recently artificially pollinated by scientists. This double
coconut tree is found in India in?
a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
b) West Bengal
c) Kerala
d) Andhra Pradesh
Solution: b)
Learning: This is the only double coconut tree in India.
It was planted at the botanical garden in 1894 and the artificial
pollination is a result of decades of work by scientists of the Botanical
Survey of India (BSI).

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The Double Coconut tree not only bears the largest seed known to
science weighing around 25 kg but this unique species is also the
longest surviving palm which can live for as long as 1,000 years, he says.
The palm tree also bears the largest leaf among palms and one leaf can
thatch a small hut.
Q Source: 2015 Current affairs:

http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/indias-only-double-coconuttree-artificially-pollinated/article7310257.ece
5. Consider the following about Additional tier 1 (AT1) bonds.

1. They combine both debt and equity.
2. They are issued under Basel III capital regulations.
Which of the above is/are correct?
a) 1 only


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b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Solution: c)
Justification: Statement 1: The defining characteristic of AT1 or Cocos
bond is that it may be converted into shares when certain conditions are
met. So, AT1 bonds are hybrid bonds combining both debt and equity.
For example, when a company runs into trouble, the owners lose their
stake and the debt becomes equity, lenders turns into owners. But in
case of banks such negotiations are not possible. The coco bonds are
designed to anticipate that process and transform automatically from
debt to equity.
Statement 2: AT1 or Cocos bonds have their roots in financial crisis
when governments were forced to bail out banks. They are the riskiest
debt issued by banks and do not have any set maturity date.
Four public sector banks (PSBs) may struggle to make coupon payments
(annual interests) on their additional tier 1 (AT1) bond as they have
reported heavy losses due to a surge in bad loans. AT1 bond is issued
under Basel III capital regulations.
Union Government has committed capital support to these PSBs on the
coupon on AT1 bonds.
Q Source: http://www.thehindubusinessline.com/news/world/rbsraises-31-billion-through-issue-of-contingent-convertiblebonds/article7507097.ece
6. In which of the following countries, not even a single BRICS

Summit has been held till date?
1. Brazil


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2. China
3. Russia
4. India
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
2 only
2 and 3 only
It has been held in all of the above at least once.
Solution: d)
Justification: 2011 Summit was held in China. It was the first summit
to include South Africa alongside the original BRIC countries. So, 2 cant
be the answer.
BRICS New Development Bank and BRICS Contingent Reserve
Arrangement agreements were signed in 2014 in Brazil BRICS Summit.
So, 1 cant be the answer.
A summit was held in India in 2012, and is happening in October 2016
(Goa). So, 4 cant be the answer.
2015 BRICS Summitt was held in Russia, Ufa. There was also a joint
summit with SCO-EEU.
Learning: The acronym BRIC was first used in 2001 by Goldman Sachs
in their Global Economics Paper, "The World Needs Better Economic
BRICs" on the basis of econometric analyses projecting that the
economies of Brazil, Russia, India and China would individually and
collectively occupy far greater economic space and would be amongst the
worlds largest economies in the next 50 years or so.
As a formal grouping, BRIC started after the meeting of the Leaders of
Russia, India and China in St. Petersburg on the margins of G8 Outreach
Summit in 2006. BRICS brings together five major emerging economies,
comprising 43% of the world population, having 30% of the world GDP
and 17% share in the world trade.
Q Source: BRICS 2016 Summit Goa

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7. Sea floor spreading is caused by

a) Constant volcanic eruptions at the ocean floor
b) Sinking mantle
c) Weight of the ocean bed and the water above it
d) Presence of Seabed methane
Solution: a)
Learning: Constant eruptions at the crest of oceanic ridges cause the
rupture of the oceanic crust and the new lava wedges into it, pushing the
oceanic crust on either side. The ocean floor, thus spreads, known as sea
floor spreading.
Learning: Sea floor spreading is verified using these phenomena:
It was realised that all along the mid-oceanic ridges, volcanic
eruptions are common and they bring huge amounts of lava to the
surface in this area. The sediments on the ocean floor are
unexpectedly very thin.
The age of the rocks increases as one moves away from the crest.
The ocean crust rocks are much younger than the continental
rocks.
The sediments on the ocean floor are unexpectedly very thin.
The deep trenches have deep-seated earthquake occurrences while
in the mid-oceanic ridge areas, the quake foci have shallow depths.
It means lava is in close vicinity.
Q Source: Page 33: Fundamentals of Physical Geography: 11th NCERT

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8. Consider the following about Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY).

1. It promotes institutional deliveries among pregnant women.
2. It integrates cash assistance with delivery and post-delivery
care.
3. It is a centrally sponsored scheme (CSS).
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
2 only
1, 2 and 3
Solution: d)
Justification: As per the latest report on maternal health, India
accounted for 15% the total maternal deaths in the world in 2015 second
only to Nigeria with 45,000 women dying during pregnancy or
childbirth.
Statement 1: The JSY was launched as part of the National Rural Health
Mission (NRHM) in 2005 to improve maternal and neonatal health by
promotion of institutional deliveries (childbirth in hospitals).
JSY has led to reduction of prevalent differences in access to maternal
care between individual people of higher or lower socioeconomic status.
Statement 2: The cash assistance to the mother is given mainly to meet
the cost of delivery. It is ideally to be disbursed at the delivery institution
itself.
Statement 3: It is 100% centrally sponsored. The Yojana has identified
ASHA, the accredited social health activist as an effective link between
the Government and the poor pregnant women in 10 low performing
states
Q Source: http://www.nhp.gov.in/janani-suraksha-yojana-jsy-_pg +
National Council of Applied Economic Research study on JSY

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9. If a river in India is to be converted into National Waterways

(NWs), it is done via a/an
a) Central Executive fiat
b) Legislation
c) Constitutional amendment only
d) Order of the State Government
Solution: b)
Learning: India has huge natural geographical potential for inland
waterways as 14,500 km of river channels are navigable.
Development inland waterways can spur industrial growth and
tourism potential along the waterway especially in plain areas of
North India.
The statutory status to the inland waterways would pave for
investments in inland waterways transportation sector which has
been neglected in the past.
Parliament had enacted a legislation allowing 106 rivers across the
country to be converted into National Waterways (NWs) in
addition to the existing 5 such NWs.
The law was enacted in a bid to boost movement of goods and
passengers via rivers and reduce transportation costs substantially.
Q Source: Previous months Current Affairs:
http://www.livemint.com/HomePage/cYvKyv6PIUNepLE87KDzfL/Rajya-Sabha-passes-inlandwaterways-bill.html
10.
Consider the following about Anti-Dumping Duty.
1. It is imposed on both imports and exports.

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2. It is against the World Trade Organisation (WTO) multilateral

trade rules.
3. In India, it is imposed by the Union Finance Ministry.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
1, 2 and 3
Solution: c)
Justification: Statement 1: Anti-Dumping Duty is a trade levy
imposed by any government on imported products which have prices
less than their fair normal values in their domestic market. Thus, it is
protectionist tariff that seeks to stop dumping process where company
exports a product at a price lower than price it normally charged in
domestic market of importing countries.
It cannot be imposed on exports, as it will be anti-competitive. So, 1 is
wrong.
Statement 2 and 3: Anti-Dumping Duty is imposed under the
multilateral World Trade Organisation (WTO) regime and varies from
product to product and from country to country. In India, anti-dumping
duty is recommended by the Union Ministry of Commerce (i.e. by
DGAD), while the Union Finance Ministry imposes it.
Q Source: Frequently in news
11. Consider the following features of a river course.

1. Smaller tributaries flowing over gentle gradients
2. Streams meander freely forming ox-bow lakes
3. Sharper turns are not found frequently.
The above refer to which stage of a river?


a)
b)
c)
d)
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Youth stage
Old stage
Mature Stage
Either Youth stage or Mature Stage
Solution: b)
Learning: The characteristics of each of the stages of landscapes
developing in running water regimes may be summarised as follows:
Youth stage
Few streams that with poor integration flowing through original
slopes
Shallow V-shaped valleys; deep gradients
Stream divides are broad with marshes, swamps etc.
Waterfalls and rapids may exist where hard rocks are there
Mature stage
Plenty streams with good integration; mild gradients
Deep V-shaped valleys
Broader meandering floodplains
Water divides turn sharper
Waterfalls and rapids disappear
Old Stage
Smaller tributaries flowing over gentle gradients
Divides are broad and flat with lakes
Streams meander freely forming natural leeves, ox-bow lakes
Most of the landscape is either at or above sea level.

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12.Soil in boreal forests are generally poor in nutrients due to

1. Deep roots of trees depleting nutrient base of soil
2. Strong leaching of soil for long periods
3. Parent material of soil being deficient in nutrients
a)
b)
c)
d)
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
3 only
1, 2 and 3
Solution: a)
Justification: Statement 1: The species present are able to get their
nutrient requirements from the very shallow layer of soil above the
permafrost. The trees present have a notable climatic tolerance and
survive on rather infertile soils. So, 1 is wrong.
Statement 2 and 3: Most of the soils are strongly leached as a result of
centuries of leaching and somewhat impoverished parent materials. The
soils are generally strongly acid and the main soil process under this
dominantly leaching climate is 'podzolisation' leading to podsolic soils.
The extreme climate coupled with the strong soil acidity means that
relatively few organisms exist in the soil and the turnover of organic
matter is slow.
13. Consider the following about African Asian Rural Development

Organization (AARDO).

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1. It is an autonomous inter-Governmental organization

headquartered in South Africa.
2. India is one of the Founder Members of the Organization and is
the largest contributor in terms of membership contribution.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
Solution: b)
Justification: Statement 1 & 2: The AARDO, which has its
headquarters in New Delhi, is an autonomous, inter-Governmental
organization established in 1962 with the objective of promoting
cooperation among the countries of the African - Asian Region in the
direction of eradicating thirst, hunger, illiteracy, disease and poverty in
the region.
India is one of the Founder Members of the Organization and is the
largest contributor in terms of membership contribution apart
from contributing by way of providing some fully paid training
scholarships for Human Resource Development Programme under
the Indian Technical & Economic Cooperation Programme (ITEC)
to the Organization.
AARDO currently has 31 countries of the African - Asian Region
under its fold.
In news: The Union Cabinet has given its approval to the signing of a
MoU between India and the African Asian Rural Development
Organization (AARDO) for capacity building programmes in the field of
rural development.
Q Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=151435

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14.Which of the following statements with reference to Udupi

Ramachandra Rao, a space scientist, is INCORRECT?
a) He had served as Chairman of Indian Space Research
Organisation (ISRO).
b) He is the first Indian to be inducted in the Hall of Fame of
International Astronautical Federation (IAF).
c) He is a Bharat Ratna Awardee.
d) All of the above are correct.
Solution: c)
Justification & Learning: He is a Padma Bhushan Awardee. So,
option C is INCORRECT.
Former ISRO Chairman and space scientist Prof Udupi Ramachandra
Rao is the first Indian to be inducted in the Hall of Fame of International
Astronautical Federation (IAF).
He was inducted during the closing ceremony of the 67th IAF Congress
2016 held in Mexico for his outstanding contribution to the progress of
astronautics.
Under his guidance, ISRO had designed more than 20 satellites
including Indias first satellite Aryabhatta. Under his leadership, India
had initiated the development of the geostationary launch vehicle GSLV
and the development of cryogenic technology in 1991.
Q Source: http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/bengaluru/URRao-becomes-1st-Indian-in-IAF-Hall-ofFame/articleshow/52256741.cms
http://www.isro.gov.in/about-isro/prof-udupi-ramachandra-rao
15. White-bellied musk deer is a popular species found in Uttarakhand

in the Kedarnath Wildlife Sanctuary. These deers often move to


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valleys in lower altitudes in winter season. What can be a possible

reason behind this movement?
a) Exhaustion of food resources in upper reaches of mountains
b) Heavy rainfall in the lower valleys
c) Fear of poachers in upper reaches
d) They start emitting a sweet persistent aroma in winter season
which attracts predators in the upper mountain regions.
Solution: a)
Justification & Learning: Musk deers are solitary animals which
roams the high alpine region of the Himalayas at an elevation range of
2,500-5,000 metres.
But, they are extremely vulnerable during the harsh season. As nearfreezing temperatures wipe out food sources in the upper reaches, they
move to valleys in lower altitudes. So, A is correct.
There (lower reaches) they fall easy prey to poachers who set fire to block
off their escape route or set wire snares to trap the animal, and then kill
them to extract the musk pod. So, C is incorrect.

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Carried by the male deer in its abdomen, the musk emits a sweet
persistent aroma and is highly valued for its cosmetic and alleged
pharmaceutical properties. This fragrance is not emitted only in the
winter season, so D is also incorrect.
Kedarnath sanctuary was set up in 1972 for musk deer conservation, but
a lot of issues have arisen due to fund scarcities and poaching of musk
deers.
Q Source: http://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/fading-scent-ofmusk-deer-55664
16.Crop Residue Burning (CRB) has been identified as a major health

and environmental hazard in Punjab and Haryana. Which of the
following could be the possible reason(s) behind CRB being such a
hazard?
1. It causes loss of vital components from topsoil reducing its
productivity.
2. It emits toxic metals like lead and arsenic which raises
Particulate Matter (PM) concentrations in the field and
adjoining areas.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
Solution: a)
Justification: The removal of the paddy stalk that remains on the field
is a labour-intensive process.

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With labour being unavailable in these states and the time window for
preparing the field for wheat cultivation being limited, the options that
the farmer has are either investing in expensive and rarely used
agricultural implements, or burning the residue right on the field. The
latter is both cheaper and requires less effort.
Statement 1: But, it contributes to PM pollution as per various studies.
In addition, it causes loss of vital components such as nitrogen,
phosphorus, sulphur and potassium from the topsoil layer, making the
land less fertile and unviable for agriculture in the long run.
Statement 2: It does not lead to loss of metallic or toxic metals like lead
or arsenic from the soil. So, 2 is wrong.
The article explains the issue well.
Q Source: http://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/crop-burningpunjab-haryana-s-killer-fields-55960
17. According to the Future of Indias Development Policy

Cooperation report, India, which has been a recipient of
development aid since Independence, has been recently making its
mark as a donor in the international aid regime. The report was
recently published by
a) CARE India
b) United Nations Development Programme
c) Oxfam India jointly with Institute of Sustainable Development
and Governance (ISDG)
d) NASSCOM Foundation India
Solution: c)

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Learning: Indias transformation from being a recipient to a donor of

international development assistance is the key to attaining a leadership
role in the global economy.
For instance, in the past six years, India allocated almost $7 billion
for assisting other countries. The volume of Indias development
cooperation has grown four-fold during 2003-04 to 2013-14,
buoyed by the high GDP growth rates. Today, India is only second
to China in assistance to the global South.
The facets of Indias development cooperation include providing
grants and Lines of Credit (LoC) and capacity building through the
Indian Technical and Economic Cooperation (ITEC) programme.
While major beneficiaries of the programme have been South
Asian countries such as Bhutan, Afghanistan, and Nepal, the
largest share of the total LoC has been provided to African
countries.
Q Source: Syllabus: Major NGOs + Current Affairs http://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Thiruvananthapuram/fromrecipient-to-donor-tharoor-lauds-indias-role/article9160902.ece
18.
Consider the following statements.
Assertion (A): The structure of earth can be understood by

observing the passage of
earthquake waves through different layers
of earth.
Reason (R): Some type of earthquake waves do not travel through
liquid material in
earths layers.
In the context of the above, which of these is correct?

a)
b)
c)
d)
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A is correct, and R is an appropriate explanation of A.

A is correct, but R is not an appropriate explanation of A.
A is correct, but R is incorrect.
Both A and R are incorrect.
Solution: a)
Justification: Earthquake waves get recorded in seismographs located
at far off locations. However, there exist some specific areas where the
waves are not reported. Such a zone is called the shadow zone.
It is due to the S wave. There are two types of body waves generated
during an earthquake. They are called P and S-waves.
An important fact about S-waves is that they can travel only through
solid materials. This characteristic of the S-waves is quite important as it
has helped scientists to understand the structure of the interior of the
earth.
Q Source: Page 24: Chapter 3: Fundamentals of Physical Geography:

11th NCERT

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19.Which of the following gases contribute to global warming?

1. Methane
2. Water Vapour
3. Nitrogen
4. Ozone
5. HFC-23
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 4 only
1, 2, 4 and 5 only
3 and 5 only
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Solution: b)
Justification: Statement 1, 2 and 4: Besides carbon dioxide, other
greenhouse gases are methane, water vapour, nitrous oxide, CFCs and
ozone. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are man-made industrial chemicals
used in air conditioning etc. CFCs are also damaging the ozone layer.
Statement 3: It is not a greenhouse gas, similar to how oxygen is not a
GHG, but ozone is.
Statement 5: India recently announced that it will eliminate the HFC-23
gas, a potent greenhouse gas with high global warming potential, as part
of its commitment to combat the threat emanating from climatedamaging HFCs.
http://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/politics-and-nation/indiato-eliminate-potent-greenhouse-gas-hfc-23/articleshow/54834662.cms
Q Source: Current affairs + Improvisation: Page 401: Chemistry Unit
14: XIth NCERT
20.
The tributaries of Cauvery River is/are
1. Hemavathi


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2. Kabini
3. Antahvasini
4. Lokapavani
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 4 only
1, 3 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2, 3 and 4
Solution: a)
Justification: On its journey to the Bay of Bengal, the river is joined by
its tributaries, which include Shimsa, Hemavathi, Honnuhole, Arkavathi,
Kapila, Lakshmana Theertha, Kabini, Lokapavani, Bhavani, Noyil and
Amaravathy.
It is bounded by the Western Ghats on the west, by the Eastern Ghats on
the east and the south and by the ridges separating it from Krishna basin
and Pennar basin on the north. The Cauvery River is one of the major
rivers of the peninsula.
Q Source: Cauvery River Dispute
21.Consider the following statements.

1. Acidity of soil can be reduced by adding gypsum into it.
2. Acidity of rainfall can be reduced by the widespread use of
natural gas fuel instead of high sulphur coal in major industrial
regions.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None

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Solution: b)
Justification: Statement 1: Some areas apply lime (Calcium
carbonate) to increase the soil pH and improve crop yields. But, soils
with high pH (basic soils) use Gypum to reduce the pH of the soil, i.e. to
make it more acidic. So, 1 is wrong.
Statement 2: We can reduce the formation of acid rain by reducing the
emission of sulphur dioxide and nitrogen dioxide in the atmosphere.
We should use lesser fossil fuels; or use less sulphur content fossil
fuels for power plants and industries.
We should use natural gas which is a better fuel than coal or use
coal with less sulphur content.
Catalytic converters must be used in cars to reduce the effect of
exhaust fumes on the atmosphere.
Q Source: Page 403: Chemistry Unit 14: XIth NCERT
22.
India is a member country of which of the following
organizations?
1. East Asia Summit
2. ASEAN + 3
3. Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC)
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
Solution: a)
Justification: Statement 1: 16 countries in the East Asian, Southeast
Asian, South Asian regions (including India), USA and RUSSIA are its
members. Trade is an important focus for the summit.


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Statement 2: ASEAN+3 includes the 10 members of the Association of

Southeast Asian Nations (Brunei Darussalam, Cambodia, Indonesia, Lao
People's Democratic Republic, Malaysia, Myanmar, the Philippines,
Singapore, Thailand, and Viet Nam) plus China, Japan, and Korea. It
excludes India. So, 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3: You can see APEC member states here. China has
consistently blocked Indias bid to APEC membership.
Details about APEC are covered in another question.

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23.
As the Municipal Commissioner of a large urban area, you
are receiving several complaints of heightened pollution in traffic
jams, mostly when there is high sunlight exposure. You would
recommend which of the following measures to the State
government to cut down pollution in the area?
1. Planting juniper and pinus trees in such areas as they convert
automobile exhaust into hydrogen and methane.
2. Making it mandatory to fit catalytic converters in automobile
exhausts so that release of hydrocarbons is reduced at the
source.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
Solution: b)
Justification: The problem in your area is most likely due to
photochemical smog (topic covered in this test). It is formed due to suns
exposure on traffic pollution.
Statement 1: Certain plants e.g., Pinus, Juniparus, Quercus, Pyrus and
Vitis can metabolise nitrogen oxide and therefore, their plantation could
help in this matter.
However, they dont breakdown pollution in hydrogen and methane, so 1
is wrong.
Statement 2: Many techniques are used to control or reduce the
formation of photochemical smog. If we control the primary precursors
of photochemical smog, such as NO2 and hydrocarbons, the secondary
precursors such as ozone and PAN, the photochemical smog will
automatically be reduced.
Usually catalytic converters are used in the automobiles, which prevent
the release of nitrogen oxide and hydrocarbons to the atmosphere. They
convert it into simpler compounds and thus reduce the pollution.


TEST 7 Solutions
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24.
This organization based in Bengaluru is today worlds largest
(not-for-profit run) mid-day meal programme serving millions of
children in government schools and government-aided schools.
The organization is?
a) Navdanaya Trust
b) Akshaya Patra Foundation
c) World Food Program (WFO), India Division
d) Action for Food Production (AFPRO)
Solution: b)
Learning: It strives to fight issues like hunger and malnutrition in
India, by implementing the Mid-Day Meal Scheme in the government
schools and government-aided schools. Akshaya Patra aims not only to
fight hunger but also to bring children to school.
Akshaya Patra is continuously leveraging technology to cater to
millions of children. Its state-of-the-art kitchens have become a
subject of study and they attract curious visitors from around the
world.
In partnership with the Government of India; various State
Governments, the inestimable support from many businesses,
philanthropic donors and well-wishers; it has grown from our
humble beginnings in the year 2000, serving just 1,500 children
across 5 schools.
Today Akshaya Patra is the worlds largest (not-for-profit run)
mid-day meal programme serving wholesome food to over 1.6
million children from over 13,000 schools across 11 states in India.
It was in news recently for the following irregularities (Q Source).
Q Source: Syllabus: Major NGOs + Current Affairs
http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/nagpur/Midday-meals-

TEST 7 Solutions
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Schools-want-centralized-kitchen-NGOs-want-monitoringcommittee/articleshow/53832553.cms
http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/nagpur/Mid-day-meal-schemeto-be-monitored-online/articleshow/52859289.cms
25.
You will observe that rainfall generally shows a reducing
pattern when moving from equator to the poles. This is due to
a) Change in solar insolation
b) Presence of intermorainal periods
c) Formation of wavy isotherms at equator
d) Movement of Jet stream along the way
Solution: a)
Justification: Two patterns are broadly observed.
One, rainfall reduces from coastal to interior areas.
Second, as mentioned in the question.
Any moisture-laden winds from ocean will first hit the coastal areas and
then interior areas. Moisture would go on reducing as the wind advance
further in.
Poles receive lesser solar insolation, have lesser evaporation and rainfall.
Reverse is true for equator. So, A is correct.
Jet Streams do not play a significant role here and so Option D can be
neglected.

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26.
Consider the following about polychlorinated biphenyl
(PCB).
1. These are classified as a persistent organic pollutant and
banned under the Stockholm Convention.
2. They are declared carcinogens and highly non-biodegradable.
3. They are found only in water bodies and within plant tissues.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
1, 2 and 3
Solution: a)
Justification: Polychlorinated biphenyls were once widely deployed as
dielectric and coolant fluids in electrical apparatus, carbonless copy
paper and in heat transfer fluids. Because of their longevity, PCBs are
still widely in use, even though their manufacture has declined
drastically since the 1960s, when a host of problems were identified
Statement 1: PCB production was banned by the United States Congress
in 1979 and by the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic
Pollutants in 2001.
Generally, PCBs are not very soluble in water, but readily soluble in
fats. This solubility in fat explains why PCBs can build up in animal
fat and along the food chain.
But, typically, PCBs are either broken down in the environment by
sunlight or by microorganisms. Sunlight plays an important role in
the breakdown of PCBs when they are in the air, shallow water, or
surface soils. Microorganisms, such as bacteria, algae, or fungi,
biodegrade PCBs when found in soil or sediments. So, 2 is partly
incorrect.
Statement 2: According to the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency
(EPA), PCBs cause cancer in animals and are probable human
carcinogens.

TEST 7 Solutions
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Typically, PCBs are either broken down in the environment by

sunlight or by microorganisms. Sunlight plays an important role in
the breakdown of PCBs when they are in the air, shallow water, or
surface soils. Microorganisms, such as bacteria, algae, or fungi,
biodegrade PCBs when found in soil or sediments.
Statement 3: Many rivers and buildings including schools, parks, and
other sites are contaminated with PCBs, and there have been
contaminations of food supplies with the toxins. So, they have a much
wider area of influence.
The bromine analogues of PCBs are polybrominated biphenyls (PBBs),
which have analogous applications and environmental concerns.
Q Source: Improvisation: Page 407: Chemistry Unit 14: XIth NCERT
27.
Why tropical cyclones are not strongly formed at equator or
regions nearby?
1. Absence of strong Coriolis force
2. Lack of regions where warm and cold fronts meet
3. Flow of counter-currents disrupts cyclone patterns
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 3
Solution: a)
Justification: Statement 1: Coriolis force is absent at the equator. Due
to this, winds blowing from high pressure sub-tropics to low pressure
tropics, do not form a circulatory pattern around a low pressure zone.
Instead, they simply fill the low pressure zone. So, 1 is correct.

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Statement 2: Warm and cold fronts are required for extra-tropical

cyclones. So, 2 is wrong.
Statement 3: Counter-currents or any ocean current does not disrupt
cyclones unless it drastically affects ocean surface temperature. 3 is not
very relevant here.
28.
Consider the following about the Contingent Reserve
Arrangement (CRA) recently in news.
1. It will support India in potential short-term balance of
payments pressures.
2. It will be established as a dedicated South Unit within IMF.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
Solution: a)
Justification: The Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA) of BRICS
nations viz. Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa was declared
operational.
Statement 1: It will provide support to BRICS countries through
liquidity and precautionary instruments in response to actual or
potential short-term balance of payments pressures.
The initial total committed resources of the CRA will be 100 billion
dollars with individual commitments as follows: China ($41 billion),
India ($18 billion), Brazil ($18 billion), Russia ($18 billion) and South
Africa ($5 billion).

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Statement 2: Before this, India needed to rely on IMF for resolving BoP
issues. But, the CRA is seen as a competitor to the International
Monetary Fund (IMF) and along with BRICS New Development Bank
(NDB) is viewed as an example of increasing South-South cooperation.
CRA was established in 2015 during BRICS summit. The Treaty for the
establishment of BRICS CRA was signed at Fortaleza, Brazil in 2014.
Q Source:
http://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/policy/bricscontingent-reserve-arrangement-operational-arunjaitley/articleshow/54741704.cms
29.
If the phenomenon of osmosis didnt exist which of the
following diseases would NOT have been possible?
a) HIV AIDS
b) Cholera
c) Tuberculosis
d) All of the above
Solution: b)
Justification & Learning: In Osmosis, water will move from its
region of lower checmical potential (or concentration) to its region of
lower chemical potential until equilibrium is reached.
At equilibrium the two chambers should have the same water
potential. For e.g. If you put a carrot in salty water, the salt water
will "draw" the water from inside the carrot thus drying it.
Cholera would not be possible without osmosis. The choleric
bacteria populate in our intestines and begin to reverse the
intestinal cells ionic orientation. In other words, it changes the
way ions and, subsequently, water is transported in our intestines.
when our ions orientations are switched, the intestinal cells are no
longer able to absorb water into the body. It actually flows out.

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Now osmosis happens in the other direction and water moves from
our intestinal cells into our intestines. This is what causes choleras
deadly watery diarrhoea.
This is why cholera can kill you so quickly, because it does not rely
on how much water you consume.
Q Source: Improvisation: Page 180: Biology: XIth NCERT
30.
Consider the following about the United Nations
Development Action Framework (UNDAF) 2013-17, India.
1. It is a programme document signed between all major voluntary
bodies in India and the United Nations Country Team (UNCT)
mandating specific measurable and binding targets.
2. Under the framework, UN Agencies provide support for
national development priorities as listed in the 12th Five Year
Plan.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
Solution: b)
Justification: Statement 1: It is a document prepared in partnership
with the Planning Commission and Line Ministries of the Government of
India, Civil Society Organisations and the United Nations in India. But, it
is signed with the government. So, 1 is wrong.
Statement 2: It guides the collective work of the United Nations in India.
Under the UNDAF, along with the national development priorities of the
12th Five Year Plan the UN bodies also help to implement the
internationally agreed goals like the MDGs.

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Under the current UNDAF, collective engagement by the UN will focus

on nine priority states: Assam, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Madhya
Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh. Other
focus areas are J&K and NE-India.
Q Source: Major international development frameworks in India
31. Consider the following statements.

Assertion (A): Plants with C4 pathway of photosynthesis are more
efficient than
plants with C3 pathway.
Reason (R): C4 plants lose less water than a C3 plant for the same
amount of carbon
fixation.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Solution: a)
Justification: C3 plants are numerous and they use the C3 pathway.
C4 plants mostly dwell in warm water and moist climate. C4 cycle is the
alternate pathway of calvin cycle which takes place during the dark phase
of photosynthesis.
The evolution of the C4 photosynthetic system is probably one of the
strategies for maximising the availability of CO2 while minimising water
loss.
C4 plants are twice as efficient as C3 plants in terms of fixing carbon
(making sugar). However, a C4 plant loses only half as much water as a
C3 plant for the same amount of CO2 fixed.


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Q Source: Improvisation: Page 189: Biology: XIth NCERT
32.
Member countries of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation
(SCO) is/are
1. China
2. India
3. Pakistan
4. Afghanistan
5. Mongolia
a)
b)
c)
d)
2 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
1 only
1, 4 and 5 only
Solution: b)
Justification: It is a Eurasian political, economic, and military
organisation which was founded in 2001 in Shanghai by the leaders of
the People's Republic of China, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyz Republic, Russian
Federation, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan.
Afghanistan received observer status at the 2012 SCO summit in
Beijing. So, 4 is incorrect. Mongolia is not associated with SCO.
India and Pakistan signed the memorandum of obligations in 2016
at Tashkent, thereby starting the formal process of joining the SCO
as full members.
The SCO is primarily centred on its member nations' Central Asian
security-related concerns, often describing the main threats it
confronts as being terrorism, separatism and extremism.

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Over the past few years, the organisation's activities have expanded
to include increased military cooperation, intelligence sharing, and
counterterrorism, evident from the joint military exercises.
33.
Recently the Daan Utsav was organized by which of the
following NGOs in India?
a) Goonj
b) Smile Foundation
c) Child Rights and You (CRY)
d) Chidline Foundation
Solution: a)
Learning: It was in news recently. It is organized by the NGO, Goonj.
Daan Utsav is aimed to help the poor, especially those in rural areas.
Donation centres are earmarked where people can give books, clothes,
toys, utensils, bedsheets, spectacles, and also functioning electronic
items like calculators, laptops among others.
You can read more about it here.
http://joyofgivingweek.org/
Q Source: Syllabus: Major NGOs + Current Affairs
http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/navi-mumbai/Gear-up-todonate-to-the-needy-through-Daan-Utsav/articleshow/54591929.cms

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34.
1. It breaks seed and bud dormancy.
2. It helps in the process of rapid elongation in deep water rice
plants.
3. It promotes root growth and root hair formation.
The above refers to which plant growth hormone?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Cytokinin
Gibrellin
Ethylene
Auxin
Solution: c)
Learning: Ethylene is a simple gaseous Plant growth regulator (PGR).
It is synthesised in large amounts by tissues undergoing senescence and
ripening fruits.
Influences of ethylene on plants include horizontal growth of seedlings,
swelling of the axis etc. Ethylene promotes abscission of plant organs
especially of leaves and flowers.
Ethylene is highly effective in fruit ripening. It enhances the respiration
rate during ripening of the fruits. This rise in rate of respiration is called
respiratory climactic.
Q Source: Chapter 15: Biology: XIth NCERT
35.
Consider the following about Pension Fund Regulatory and
Development Authority (PFRDA).
1. It is a statutory body.


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2. It functions under the aegis of Department of Personnel.

3. It regulates all mutual funds which trade in pension products.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
1, 2 and 3
Solution: c)
Justification: Statement 1 and 2: PFRDA is a statuary pension
regulatory authority established in 2003 under the PFRDA Act. It
functions under the aegis of Union Ministry of Finance, Department of
Financial Services. PFRDA promotes old age income security by
establishing, developing and regulating pension funds. So, 1 is correct
and 2 is wrong.
Statement 3: The PFRDA Act says that PFRDA will be the pension
regulator in the country. Currently, pension products floated by
insurance companies and those sold by mutual funds are under purview
of IRDA and SEBI respectively.
Thus, there are cases of overlapping functions performed by financial
sector regulators SEBI, IRDA, RBI and PFRDA in case of floating
different pension products.
For instance PFRDA is regulating all pension products in the country.
However, insurers and mutual funds continue to sell pension products
outside PFRDAs watch. The PFRDA Act says that PFRDA will be the
pension regulator in the country. So, 3 is wrong.
The Union Finance Ministry has constituted a high-level committee to
consolidate the regulation of pension products that is currently being
done by three different watchdogs including insurance and stock market
regulators.
Q Source: http://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/who-willregulate-pension-products/article9208436.ece

36.
a)
b)
c)
d)
TEST 7 Solutions
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Photoperiodism is a phenomenon related to

Flowering in plants
Mode of photosynthesis in plants
Nutrient rejuvenation in plants as a function of sunlight
Impact of global warming on plant life cycle
Solution: a)
Learning: Photoperiodism is the physiological reaction of organisms to
the length of day or night. It occurs in plants and animals.
It has been observed that some plants require a periodic exposure
to light to induce flowering. It is also seen that such plants are able
to measure the duration of exposure to light.
For example, some plants require the exposure to light for a period
exceeding a well defined critical duration, while others must be
exposed to light for a period less than this critical duration before
the flowering is initiated in them.
Together with temperature changes, photoperiod provokes
changes in the colour of fur and feathers, migration, entry into
hibernation, sexual behaviour etc. For e.g. the singing frequency of
birds such as the canary depends on the photoperiod.
Q Source: Page 251: Biology 11th NCERT
37.
Assertion (A): The expansion created by the Big Bang continues

even to the present
day.
Reason (R): Soon after the Big Bang, the Universe became highly
opaque and
temperatures started rising till the atmosphere was
formed.


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a)
b)
c)
d)

Solution: c)
Justification: In the beginning, all matter forming the universe existed
in one place in the form of a tiny ball (singular atom) with an
unimaginably small volume, infinite temperature and infinite density.
At the Big Bang the tiny ball exploded violently. This led to a
huge expansion. It is now generally accepted that the event of big
bang took place 13.7 billion years before the present. The
expansion continues even to the present day. As it grew, some
energy was converted into matter. Therefore, A is correct.
Within 300,000 years from the Big Bang, temperature dropped to
4,500 K and gave rise to atomic matter. The universe became
transparent. So, R is wrong. The actual reason for expansion of
Universe has not been fully established by the science community
even till date.
11th NCERT
38.
The Terrestrial and Jovian planets are largely differentiated
on the basis of loss of atmosphere from the former. Which of the
following characteristics of terrestrial planets enabled this loss of
atmosphere?
1. Their larger size as compared to most Jovian planets
2. Their nearness to Sun

a)
b)
c)
d)
TEST 7 Solutions
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1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
Solution: b)
Justification: Statement 1: It can be easily discarded. Jovian planets
(Jupiter, Saturn etc) are bigger in size than terrestrial planets (earth,
Venus etc).
Statement 2: Gravity of a planet depends on its mass and size. Since the
terrestrial planets were small, gravity force was less and it could not keep
the gases in tact with the planet. Hence, gases escaped causing loss of
atmosphere.
The terrestrial planets were formed in the close vicinity of the parent star
where it was too warm for gases to condense to solid particles. Moreover,
the solar wind was most intense nearer the sun; so, it blew off lots of gas
and dust from the terrestrial planets causing loss of atmosphere.
11th NCERT
39.
Which of the following is/are harmful environmental effects
of nitrogen oxides?
1. It causes irritant red haze in the traffic and congested places.
2. It can damage plant leaves and retard the rate of
photosynthesis.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2


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d) None
Solution: c)
Justification: Dinitrogen and dioxygen are the main constituents of
air.
These gases do not react with each other at a normal temperature.
At high altitudes when lightning strikes, they combine to form
oxides of nitrogen.
NO2 is oxidised to nitrate ion, which is washed into soil, where it
serves as a fertilizer. In an automobile engine, (at high
temperature) when fossil fuel is burnt, dinitrogen and dioxygen
combine to yield significant quantities of nitric oxide.
The irritant red haze in the traffic and congested places is due to
oxides of nitrogen. Higher concentrations of NO2 damage the
leaves of plants and retard the rate of photosynthesis. Nitrogen
dioxide is a lung irritant that can lead to an acute respiratory
disease in children.
It is toxic to living tissues and also harmful to various textile fibres
and metals.
40.
Which of these may possibly influence circulation of Ocean
Currents?
1. The ocean water is little higher in level at Equator than in the
middle latitudes.
2. Solar insolation affecting the temperature of Ocean currents
a) 1 only
b) 2 only


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c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Solution: c)
Justification: Statement 1: Near the equator the ocean water is about 8
cm higher in level than in the middle latitudes. This causes a very slight
gradient and water tends to flow down the slope. So, 1 is correct.
Statement 2: Solar energy makes current warm or cold and decides their
circulatory patterns. So, 2 is correct.
Learning: Surface currents are generated largely by wind. Their
patterns are determined by wind direction, Coriolis forces from the
Earths rotation, and the position of landforms that interact with the
currents.
Currents may also be generated by density differences in water masses
caused by temperature and salinity variations. These currents move
water masses through the deep oceantaking nutrients, oxygen, and
heat with them.
Occasional events also trigger serious currents. Huge storms move water
masses. Underwater earthquakes may trigger devastating tsunamis.
41.The Indian plate extends to

1. Rakinyoma Mountains of Myanmar
2. Kirthar Mountain of Pakistan
a) 1 only

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b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Solution: c)
Justification: In the east, it extends through Rakinyoma Mountains of
Myanmar towards the island arc along the Java Trench.
The Western margin follows Kirthar Mountain of Pakistan.
The subduction zone along the Himalayas forms the northern plate
boundary in the form of continent continent convergence.
42.
In India, the price of ethanol is decided by
a) Central Government
b) Free markets
c) Respective State governments only

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d) A joint mechanism of Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs)
Solution: a)
Justification: Pricing of ethanol was in news recently.
The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) has approved
the mechanism for revision of ethanol price for supply to Public
Sector Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs).
The revised administered price will facilitate OMCs to carry out the
Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) Programme for the next sugar
season 2016-17.
These prices of ethanol can be reviewed and suitably revised by
Central Government at any time (during the agreed dates)
depending upon prevailing economic situation and other relevant
factors.
Learning: The Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) Programme was launched
by the Central Government in 2003 to promote the use of alternative and
environment friendly fuels.
However, since 2006, OMCs were not able to meet required quantity of
ethanol demand against the tenders floated by them. The various
constraints for it were like State Specific issues, Supplier related issues
including Pricing issues of ethanol.
In order to augment the supply of ethanol, a new mechanism for pricing
of ethanol was placed in where Government decided delivered price of
ethanol at OMC depots. The decision has helped in significantly
improving the supply of ethanol.
Q Source: CCEA PIB
43.
Which of the following is the correct order of decreasing
abundance of these elements in Earths crust?

a)
b)
c)
d)
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Silicon, aluminium, iron, oxygen, calcium

Silicon, iron, oxygen, calcium, aluminium
Iron, oxygen, silicon, aluminium, calcium
Oxygen, silicon, aluminium, iron, calcium
Solution: d)
Learning: About 98 per cent of the total crust of the earth is composed
of eight elements (shown in table below) and the rest is constituted by
titanium, hydrogen, phosphorous, manganese, sulphur, carbon, nickel
and other elements.
The elements in the earths crust are rarely found exclusively but are
usually combined with other elements to make various substances. These
substances are recognised as minerals.
44.
It is a geological observation that there are more avalanches
and landslides in Himalayas than in Nilgiri Mountains of Southern
India. Which of these is NOT a possible reason for the same?
a) Himalayas are tectonically more active than Nilgiris.
b) Mechanical weathering in absent in rocks found at Nilgiris due
to their hard rock structure.
c) Himalayas are characterized by unconsolidated rock deposits.
d) All of the above are correct reasons for the same.


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Solution: b)
Justification: There are three reasons for greater avalanches in
Himalays as compared to Nilgiris.
One, regarding tectonic activity, Himalayas are very active as they
are young mountains. Nilgiris are relatively stable as they are old
mountains.
Two, gradient is steep in Himalayas. Although it is steep in Nilgiris
too, but at Nilgiris rocks are hard.
Three, the rock deposits at Himalayas are still unconsolidated or
semi-consolidated and weak.
Mechanical weathering due to temperature changes and range is
pronounced in Nilgiris. They receive heavy amounts of rainfall over short
periods. So, there is almost direct rock fall quite frequently in these
places also along with landslides and debris avalanches. So, B is
incorrect.
45.
A Double Tax Avoidance Agreement (DTAA) signed between
two nations helps
1. Reduce Base erosion and profit shifting by corporate firms
2. Tackle Round tripping of money
3. Move towards a complete ban on speculative activities of FIIs in
security markets
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3

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Solution: a)
Justification: Statement 1: Firms that operate in two nations
simultaneously must pay taxes in both. But, it would be a huge loss for
them if they have to pay, lets say a 30% tax on earnings in India and
again a 40% tax in USA. So, firms generally avoid taxes to reduce their
tax liability.
A DTAA is a bilateral economic agreement between two nations that
aims to avoid or eliminate double taxation of the same income in two
countries. It is also referred to as a Tax Treaty.
Statement 2: For e.g. India recently signed a DTAA with Cyprus.
Cyprus is considered a major haven for money laundering, roundtripping, and profit-shifting. By signing the DTAA the tax liabilities have
been made clearer for investors investing from Cyprus, thus reducing
round tripping of money.
Statement 3: FIIs will keep speculating as long as they participate in the
security markets. DTAA agreements are generally targeted at FDI, but
even if it targets FIIs, it may only provide for greater transparency, not a
complete ban on them.
Q Source: India signed a DTAA with Cyprus recently
46.
The Agulhas current acts as an oceanic convergence zone.
This zone has higher primary productivity than surrounding
waters. This is because
1. The zone is a meeting point of all major ocean currents of the
Indian Ocean.
2. There is upwelling of cold ocean water from the lower layers of
the ocean.


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a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
Solution: b)
Justification: Agulhas current is a major Indian ocean current.
Statement 1: A convergence zone is a region in the atmosphere where
two prevailing flows meet. It is not a meeting of all major ocean currents.
So, 2 is incorrect.
Statement 2: There is upwelling of cold, nutrient rich water south of the
current. Additionally, the convergence tends to increase the
concentration of plankton in and around the Agulhas.
Both of these factors result in the area being one of enhanced primary
productivity as compared to the surrounding waters. This is especially
notable in the Agulhas Retroflection waters, where chlorophyll-a
concentrations tend to be significantly higher than the surrounding
South Indian Ocean and South Atlantic Ocean waters.
47.
The Western Coasts of India predominantly show which of
these features?
1. Highly indented
2. Formation of wave-cut platforms in front of the sea cliff
a) 1 only


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b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Solution: c)
Justification: The Western coast of India is a rocky coast, unlike the
Eastern coast which is a low lying sedimentary coast. This is due to their
slopes, rock structure and river flow patterns.
You will the following features in these Western rocky coasts - Highly
indented and formation of wave-cut platforms in front of the sea cliff due
to constant water Erosional action.
Moreover, material along coast is eroded in such manner, that it deposits
along the off-shore forming wave terraces.
Several depositions like this results in the formation of barrier bars and
spits that break block the sea water forming a lagoon.
Q Source: Chapter 7: Fundamentals of Physical Geography: 11th
NCERT
48.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Public debt in India is presently managed by

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
Unified Financial Agency (UFA)
Department of Posts
Solution: a)
Learning: Public debt management was in news recently for many
reasons:
a) FSLRC had recommended shifting public debt management functions
from RBI to a new body (not constituted).


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b) Government has set up a Public Debt Management Cell (PDMC) with

the objective of deepening bond markets in the country.
PDMC is an interim arrangement and will be upgraded to a statutory
Public Debt Management Agency (PDMA). Thus, it will requisite
preparatory work for PDMA.
With establishing PDMA, Government seeks to divest the RBI of its dual
and often conflicting roles as the banker and manager of the Central
Governments borrowing.
Q Source:
http://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/policy/debtmanagement-office-to-gradually-end-rbis-role/article9189192.ece
49.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Himansh station was recently in news. It is a/an

Glaciological research station in Himalaya
Underwater Indian observatory in the Arctic
Base camp of Indian army in Siachen used for Uri operations
Tunnel based underground earthquake research station in Spiti
Valley
Solution: a)
Learning: The station became functioning recently at 4000 m MSL in a
remote region in Spiti, Himachal Pradesh.
Researchers will use this station as a base for undertaking surveys that
would digitize the glacier motion and snow cover variations with
exceptional precision.
The Himalayan region has the largest concentration of glaciers outside
the polar caps. It is called the Water Tower of Asia.

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It is source of 10 major river systems that provide irrigation, drinking

water and power for over 700 million people (10% of worlds population)
living in India, Pakistan and Bangladesh. Thus, understanding behaviour
of these Himalayan glaciers and their contribution to sustainable supply
of water for mankind and agriculture is one of grand challenges of Indian
scientific community.
Q Source: http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/highaltitudeglacial-lab-opens-in-the-himalayas/article9205004.ece
50.
The D.K. Basu Guidelines given by Supreme Court are
related to
a) Attachment of the assets of bankrupt companies
b) Rehabilitation of children who are victims of trafficking and
sexual abuse
c) Procedure of arrest, detention and interrogation of any person
d) Regulation of foreign NGOs working in India
Solution: c)
Learning: The Supreme Court of India has laid down specific
requirements and procedures that the police and other agencies have to
follow for the arrest, detention and interrogation of any person. These
are known as the D.K. Basu Guidelines and some of these include:
The police officials who carry out the arrest or interrogation should
wear clear, accurate and visible identification and name tags with
their designations;
A memo of arrest should be prepared at the time of arrest and
should include the time and date of arrest. It should also be
attested by at least one witness who could include a family member

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of the person arrested. The arrest memo should be counter-signed

by the person arrested.
The person arrested, detained or being interrogated has a right to
inform a relative, friend or wellwisher.
When a friend or relative lives outside the district, the time, place
of arrest and venue of custody must be notified by police within 8
to 12 hours after arrest.
Q Source: Revision: 6th NCERT Polity
51. In which of the following trophic levels, you are likely to find the
highest concentration of an organic toxin that has been found in
ocean water?
a) Phytoplankton
b) Aquatic plants
c) Small fishes at lower trophic levels
d) Human being who consumes sea food
Solution: d)
Learning: Most of the organic toxins are water insoluble and nonbiodegradable.
These high persistent toxins are, therefore, transferred from lower
trophic level to higher trophic level through food chain (shown below).
Over time, the concentration of toxins in higher animals reaches a level
which causes serious metabolic and physiological disorders.

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52.
1.
2.
3.
4.
How UV radiation is harmful to terrestrial life?

It accelerates ageing of skin in humans.
It can kill phytoplankton in large numbers.
Plant proteins are adversely affected by UV radiation.
It may lead to harmful mutation of plant cells.

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 4 only
1, 2, 3 and 4

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Solution: d)
Justification: Statement 1: With the depletion of ozone layer, more UV
radiation filters into troposphere. UV radiations lead to ageing of skin,
cataract, sunburn and skin cancer in humans.
Statement 2: Many phytoplankton cannot tolerate the bright, unfiltered
solar radiation at the ocean's surface and are impaired especially by the
high-energy, short-wavelength radiation in the UV range of the
spectrum.
Statement 3 and 4: UV-B impairs photosynthesis in many species.
Overexposure to UV-B reduces size, productivity, and quality in many of
the crop plant species. UV-B increases plants susceptibility to disease by
sometimes causing mutations or damaging plant proteins.
Learning: It also increases evaporation of surface water through the
stomata of the leaves and decreases the moisture content of the soil.
Increase in UV radiations damage paints and fibres, causing them to
fade faster.
You can read more here
http://earthobservatory.nasa.gov/Features/UVB/uvb_radiation2.php
53.
Which of the following can reveal patterns of climate change
on earth?
1. Study of Interglacial periods
2. Study of tree rings
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None

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Solution: c)
Justification: Statement 1: An interglacial period (or
alternatively interglacial) is a geological interval of warmer global
average temperature lasting thousands of years that separates
consecutive glacial periods within an ice age.
Evidence of multiple advances and retreats of glaciers, and the sediment
deposits in glacial lakes reveal the occurrence of warm and cold periods
in the history of earth. It is a strong evidence of climate change.
Statement 2: Tree rings also show evidence for wet and dry periods.
Also, for e.g. near Rajasthan, 3000-1700 BC was a period of higher
rainfall, with 2000-1700 BC supporting Harappan civilization. Dry
conditions accentuated since then.
54.
Consider the following about the Strategic Forces Command
(SFC).
1. It forms part of the National Command Authority (NCA).
2. It is exempt from Right to Information (RTI) disclosures.
3. It authorizes military attacks on other sovereign nations.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
Solution: a)
Justification: Statement 1: SFC is responsible for the management
and administration of the country's tactical and strategic nuclear
weapons stockpile. The SFC manages and administers all strategic forces

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by exercising complete command and control over nuclear assets, and

producing all contingency plans as needed to fulfill the required tasks.
Statement 2: Union Government has recently issued a notification
mentioning SFC has been brought under sub-section (2) of Section 24 of
the RTI. The Section 24 of the RTI exempts security and intelligence
establishments from its purview.
Statement 3: Ultimate approval must come from the Cabinet and then
the President; not the NSC or SFC. So, 3 is wrong.
Q Source: Inclusion of SFC in RTI Act notification
55.
Oliver Hart and Bengt Holmstrom have won the 2016 Nobel
Memorial Prize in Economic Sciences for their work in
a) Theory of Second Best in Pareto optimum outcomes
b) Contract Theory
c) Neumann Zero Sum theory
d) Game Theory
Solution: b)
Learning: Their individual theories on contract theory are valuable to
the understanding of real-life contracts and institutions, as well as
potential pitfalls in contract design.
For example, contract theory can be used to analyze performance-based
pay for CEOs or deductibles and co-pays for insurance.
Their work provided economists microecomic tools to understand
interactions between entities, such as design of performance incentives
in firms, corporate governance, privatisation, constitutional law and
entrepreneur-investor relationships.
It has explained very well in the article in the Q source.
Q Source:
http://www.livemint.com/Opinion/zp1CpB5xgjl8IPZJiqgexH/Why-the2016-economics-Nobel-for-contract-theory-really-matt.html


56.
a)
b)
c)
d)
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Equatorial counter-currents are unique because

They flow in a direction opposite to that of the surface winds
They circulate from equator the poles uninterrupted.
Their travel speed is not affected by the ocean depth.
They are the only current to be sandwiched between two
eastward-flowing ocean currents.
Solution: a)
Justification & Learning: This will address the concept
comprehensively.
Equatorial counter-currents are major surface flows that carry
water eastward in the Atlantic, Indian, and Pacific Oceans.
They are located near the equator and are sandwiched between two
westward-flowing currents, the North Equatorial Current and the
South Equatorial Current. So, option D is incorrect.
Equatorial counter-currents are unique, in that they flow in the
opposite direction of the surface winds. The other major surface
currents in the tropics flow in the same direction as the prevailing
winds.
The equatorial counter-currents are thus driven by a distinct
surface wind pattern in the tropics. Strong westward trade winds
result in westward surface flow in most of the tropical Atlantic and
Pacific Oceans.
However, several hundred miles north of the equator the winds are
much weaker, in comparison. The stronger winds to the south pile
up water where the winds are weak.
As a result, the surface of the ocean can be up to 6 inches higher.
The excess water flows eastward under the influence of the Earths
rotation, giving rise to the equatorial counter-currents.

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Q Source: Improvisation: Fig 14.3: Page 124: Fundamentals of Physical

57.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Which among the following is the largest system?

Biome
Ecosystem
Community
Biosphere
Solution: d)
Learning: Ecosystem is the groups of organisms from all biological
domains in conjunction with the physical (abiotic) environment.
Biome
is the continental scale (climatically and geographically
contiguous areas with similar climatic conditions) grouping of
ecosystems.
Biosphere or Ecosphere is all life plus the physical (abiotic) environment.

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58.
Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) can be a measure of
1. Nutrient enrichment of water
2. Level of pollution
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
Solution: c)

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Justification: Statement 1 and 2: Biochemical Oxygen Demand or

Biological Oxygen Demand, is a measurement of the amount of dissolved
oxygen (DO) that is used by aerobic microorganisms when decomposing
organic matter in water.
Biochemical Oxygen Demand is an important water quality parameter
because it provides an index to assess the effect discharged wastewater
will have on the receiving environment. The higher the BOD value, the
greater the amount of organic matter or food (read nutrients) available
for oxygen consuming bacteria. So, both 1 and 2 are correct.
Learning: If the rate of DO consumption by bacteria exceeds the supply
of DO from aquatic plants, algae photosynthesis or diffusing from air,
unfavourable conditions occur.
Depletion of DO causes stress on aquatic organisms, making the
environment unsuitable for life. Further, dramatic depletion can lead to
hypoxia or anoxic environments. BOD is also used extensively for
wastewater treatment, as decomposition of organic waste by
microorganisms is commonly used for treatment.
59.
Which of these state governments has proposed large public
spending in order to find the miraculous herb Sanjivani, that finds
mention in Indian mythology and Indian traditional medicinal
system?
a) Uttarakhand
b) Jammu & Kashmir
c) Himachal Pradesh
d) Assam
Solution: a)
Learning: As the legend goes, Lord Hanuman arrived in the Himalayas
to gather this life-saving herb, but since he could not identify sanjeevani,


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he uprooted a part of the mountain and carried it to Lanka. This

mythical herb, sanjeevani, saved the life of Laxman, brother of Lord
Ram, as described in the epic Ramayana authored by Maharshi Valmiki.
The Uttarakhand government has recently proposed to spend Rs 25
crore in finding this miraculous herb.
This article addresses all the aspects of the issue.
Q Source: http://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/mountains-ofsanjeevani-55943
60.
Which of the following roles is/are played by Abscisic acid
(ABA) in plant development?
1. It is a plant growth hormone.
2. It increases the tolerance of plants to various kinds of stresses.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
Solution: c)
Justification: Statement 1 and 2: Abscisic acid (ABA) was discovered
for its role in regulating abscission and dormancy. But like other PGRs, it
also has other wide ranging effects on plant growth and development.
It acts as a general plant growth inhibitor and an inhibitor of plant
metabolism. ABA inhibits seed germination. ABA stimulates the closure
of stomata in the epidermis and increases the tolerance of plants to
various kinds of stresses. Therefore, it is also called the stress hormone.

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ABA plays an important role in seed development, maturation and

dormancy. By inducing dormancy, ABA helps seeds to withstand
desiccation and other factors unfavourable for growth
Q Source: Chapter 15: Biology: XIth NCERT
61.Which of the following are the salient features of fold Mountains?

1. They are least likely to have conical peaks.
2. They are created when large areas are broken and displaced
vertically.
3. They must be associated with volcanism either from the
mountain core or its vicinity.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
2 only
None of the above
Solution: d)
Justification: Statement 1: The Himalayan Mountains and the Alps
are young fold mountains with rugged relief and high conical peaks. The
Appalachians in North America and the Ural mountains in Russia have
rounded features and low elevation. They are very old fold mountains.
Therefore, statement 1 does not have general validity.
Statement 2: Block Mountains are created when large areas are broken
and displaced vertically. The uplifted blocks are termed as horsts and the
lowered blocks are called graben. The Rhine valley and the Vosges
mountain in Europe are examples of such mountain systems. So, 2 is
incorrect.

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Statement 3: It is not necessary. The Aravali range in India is one of the

oldest fold mountain systems in the world yet not associated with
volcanic activity.
Q Source: Revision previous test syllabus: 7th Geography NCERT
62.
One of SEWAs (voluntary organization) main goals is to
a) Organise women workers for full employment
b) Ensure the fulfilment of reproductive rights of children and
mothers
c) Reduce cases of domestic violence against women
d) Providing accessible and affordable credit to rural Self-Help
Groups
Solution: a)
Learning: SEWA is a trade union registered in 1972. It is an
organisation of poor, self-employed women workers.
These are women who earn a living through their own labour or
small businesses. They do not obtain regular salaried employment
with welfare benefits like workers in the organised sector.
Of the female labour force in India, more than 94% are in the
unorganised sector. However their work is not counted and hence
remains invisible. In fact, women workers themselves remain
uncounted, undercounted and invisible.
SEWAs main goals are to organise women workers for full
employment. Full employment means employment whereby
workers obtain work security, income security, food security and
social security (at least health care, child care and shelter).
Gandhian thinking is the guiding force for SEWAs poor, selfemployed members in organising for social change - satya (truth),
ahimsa (non-violence), sarvadharma (integrating all faiths, all

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people) and khadi (propagation of local employment and self

reliance).
Q Source: Syllabus: Major NGOs
63.
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing bacteria?

Rhodospirillum
Azotobacter
Anabaena
Dibosenfeca

a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2, 3 and 4
Solution: a)
Justification: The nitrogen-fixing microbes could be free-living or
symbiotic. Examples of free-living nitrogen-fixing aerobic microbes are
Azotobacter and Beijernickia while Rhodospirillum is anaerobic and
Bacillus free-living.
In addition, a number of cyanobacteria such as Anabaena and Nostoc are
also free-living nitrogen-fixers.
Several types of symbiotic biological nitrogen fixing associations are
known. The most prominent among them is the legume-bacteria
relationship.
Both Rhizobium and Frankia are free-living in soil, but as symbionts, can
fix atmospheric nitrogen.
Q Source: Page 202: Biology: XIth NCERT

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64.
If you enclose a healthy plant in polythene bag, you will
observe that droplets of water are forming inside the bag. This
happens due to the phenomenon of?
a) Shooting of hormones in the stem
b) Photosynthesis
c) Energy conversion within the plant
d) Transpiration
Solution: d)
Learning: Water is transient in plants. Less than 1 per cent of the water
reaching the leaves is used in photosynthesis and plant growth. Most of
it is lost through the stomata in the leaves. This water loss is known as
transpiration.
When plants lose water, it will be shown as moisture on the inside of the
bag (in which you have covered the plant).
Transpiration is important in many ways for a plant. It cools them and
helps in water transportation to great heights in trees.
Q Source: Page 187: Biology: XIth NCERT
65.
Which of the following chemicals is NOT associated with the
depletion of Ozone layer?
a) Nitrogen dioxide
b) Methane
c) Chlorine monoxide
d) Potassium hydroxide

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Solution: d)
Learning: In 1980s atmospheric scientists working in Antarctica
reported about depletion of ozone layer commonly known as ozone hole
over the South Pole.
It was found that a unique set of conditions was responsible for the
ozone hole.
In summer season, nitrogen dioxide and methane react with chlorine
monoxide and chlorine atoms forming chlorine sinks, preventing much
ozone depletion, whereas in winter, special type of clouds called polar
stratospheric clouds are formed over Antarctica.
These polar stratospheric clouds provide surface on which chlorine
nitrate formed gets hydrolysed to form hypochlorous acid. It also reacts
with hydrogen chloride produced as per reaction to give molecular
chlorine.
The chlorine radicals formed after some other reactions, initiate the
chain reaction for ozone depletion.
66.
The Annual Status of Education Report (ASER) is the largest
non-governmental household survey undertaken in rural India. It
is facilitated by the
a) Pratham Education Foundation
b) VIDYA
c) Make A Difference (MAD)
d) Barefoot College-India
Solution: a)

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Learning: 'ASER' means impact in Hindi. The survey measures the

enrolment status of children between 3-16 years and tests basic reading
and arithmetic abilities of children through a detailed process that uses a
common set of testing tools and a comprehensive sampling framework.
In each rural district, a local institution carries out the survey. The entire
pan-Indian process is completed within approximately 100 days and the
report is released in January each year.
The findings are disseminated widely within the government and
elsewhere at the national, state, district and village levels, even shaping
their policies.
The findings of the survey have been cited in the approach paper to the
11th Planning Commission and the Economic Survey of India.
http://www.asercentre.org/
Q Source: Syllabus: Major NGOs
67.
Consider the following about the Bay of Bengal Initiative for
Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC).
1. It was established through the Bangkok Declaration.
2. Nepal and Bhutan are members of the BIMSTEC.
3. It is an implicit free trade agreement among the member
nations.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
1, 2 and 3
Solution: a)

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Justification: The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical

and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) is a regional organization
comprising seven Member States lying in the littoral and adjacent areas
of the Bay of Bengal constituting a contiguous regional unity.
This sub-regional organization came into being in 1997 through the
Bangkok Declaration. It constitutes seven Member States: five deriving
from South Asia, including Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Sri Lanka,
and two from Southeast Asia, including Myanmar and Thailand.
Initially, the economic bloc was formed with four Member States with
the acronym 'BIST-EC' (Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka and Thailand
Economic Cooperation).
Later, Myanmar was included and it became BIMS-TEC.
It is not a FTA. IT is a sector-drive organization focussing on sharing
best practices and help each other in agriculture, public health, poverty
alleviation, counter-terrorism, environment, culture etc.
68.
Which of the following plant micronutrients is associated
with chlorophyll formation in plants?
a) Magnesium
b) Iron
c) Copper
d) All of the above
Solution: d)
Justification & Learning: Magnesium forms a part of the chlorophyll
molecule - essential in photosynthesis.
Iron is taken up in ferrous and ferric forms by plants. It acts as a catalyst
in the production of chlorophyll.
Cu+2 (copper) can be absorbed through leaves. It becomes very toxic if
too much applied. It is also a catalyst in chlorophyll formation.


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So, all given options are correct.

Q Source: Improvisation: Chapter 12: Biology: XIth NCERT
69.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Photochemical smog generally forms in

Cold and moist conditions
Warm, dry and sunny climate
Low lying mountain valleys
Regions where icefall is predominant
Solution: b)
Justification: Photochemical smog occurs in warm, dry and sunny
climate. The main components of the photochemical smog result from
the action of sunlight on unsaturated hydrocarbons and nitrogen oxides
produced by automobiles and factories.
Photochemical smog has high concentration of oxidising agents and is,
therefore, called as oxidising smog.
Learning: The common components of photochemical smog are ozone,
nitric oxide, acrolein, formaldehyde and peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN).
Photochemical smog causes serious health problems. Both ozone and
PAN act as powerful eye irritants.
Ozone and nitric oxide irritate the nose and throat and their high
concentration causes headache, chest pain, dryness of the throat, cough
and difficulty in breathing.
Photochemical smog leads to cracking of rubber and extensive damage to
plant life. It also causes corrosion of metals, stones, building materials,
rubber and painted surfaces.

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70.
Even when Earth gets nearest to the Sun at perihelion, the
effects of this increased solar insolation are not felt on a large scale
on earth. This can be due to
a) Increase in cloudiness in major continental regions
b) Reduction in solar discharge
c) Blowing of sea and land breezes
d) Adiabetic wind flow patterns
Solution: c)
Justification: This variation in the solar output does not have a large
effect on daily weather changes on earth at a certain point.
Distribution of land and sea, heat transfer by way of sea and land breezes
etc redistribute the increased insolation so that the effects are not felt on
a large scale. So, C is correct.
Solar discharge does affect weather patterns, but it is not relevant here.
So, B is wrong.
Adiabetic wind flow patterns are found in mountain regions. So, D is
wrong.
Increase in cloudiness cannot happen in all major regions due to lack of
evaporation from water bodies at all such locations. More cloudiness is
the reason why sub-tropical regions are hotter than tropical regions
despite getting less solar insolation. So, A is not relevant here.
71. Which of the following is/are the key features of Indian

Secularism?
1. The Constitution does not give a special status to any religion.

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2. The Constitution allows the state to intervene in the religious

matters in order to ensure equality within religious
communities.
3. The state can regulate and even control religious institutions.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
Solution: d)
Justification: Statement 1: There is no official religion for the Indian
state. Unlike the status of Buddhism in Sri Lanka, that of Islam in
Pakistan and that of Christianity in England, our Constitution does not
give a special status to any religion.
Statement 2: The Constitution provides to all individuals and
communities freedom to profess, practice and propagate any religion, or
not to follow any. The Constitution also prohibits discrimination on
grounds of religion.
At the same time, the Constitution allows the state to intervene in the
matters of religion in order to ensure equality within religious
communities.
For example, it bans untouchability (a practice within the Hindu Varna
system).
Statement 3: Perhaps the best examples are the government control of
Vaishno Devi Shrine Board in J&K. The state does this in order to curb
private monopoly in religious dominations and the equitable use of
revenue earned there from.
Q Source: 10th Polity NCERT

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72.
Consider the following about the Ring of Fire.
1. It is a region in the basin of Atlantic Ocean.
2. It is shaped like a horseshoe.
3. It is associated with a nearly continuous series of oceanic
trenches.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
1, 2 and 3
Solution: b)
Justification: Statement 1: It is an area in the basin of the Pacific
Ocean where a large number of earthquakes and volcanic eruptions
occur.
Statement 2 and 3: In a 40,000 km horseshoe shape, it is associated
with a nearly continuous series of oceanic trenches, volcanic arcs, and
volcanic belts and/or plate movements.
It is home to over 75% of the world's active and dormant volcanoes. The
Ring of Fire is sometimes called the circum-Pacific belt.
About 90% of the world's earthquakes and 81% of the world's largest
earthquakes occur along the Ring of Fire.
73.
a)
b)
c)
d)
The Martin Ennals Award to individuals is bestowed by

Amnesty International
Human Rights Watch
European Union
Jointly by Amnesty International, Human Rights Watch and
other human rights groups

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Solution: d)
Learning: It was recently in news.
A group of leading rights organisations has awarded its annual prize for
human rights defenders to imprisoned Chinese Muslim minority
economics professor Ilham Tohti. It has brought attention to a case that
has been strongly condemned internationally.
Prof. Tohti was given a life sentence on charges of separatism in 2014
after a two-day trial.
He was an outspoken critic of Beijings ethnic policies in the far western
region of Xinjiang (that borders India).
You can read more about the case here http://unpo.org/article/19548
Q Source: Major international NGOs + Current Affairs
74.
Coriolis force acting on the fluid in river water deflects it like
it deflects the wind. This Coriolis force is generated by
a) Meandering motion of the river
b) Rotation of earth
c) Revolution of earth around the Sun
d) Adhesive force of the water molecules with each other
Solution: b)
Learning: The Coriolis force deflects the wind to the right direction in
the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere. It is
caused due to rotation of the earth (not movement of water, which is
actually caused due to the Coriolis force).
The amount of deflection the air makes is directly related to both the
speed at which the air is moving and its latitude. Therefore, slowly
blowing winds will be deflected only a small amount, while stronger
winds will be deflected more.

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Likewise, winds blowing closer to the poles will be deflected more than
winds at the same speed closer to the equator. The Coriolis force is zero
right at the equator.
Q Source: Fundamentals of Physical Geography: 11th NCERT
75.
Arrival of southwest monsoons after Summer Solstice leads
to which of the following phenomenon in India?
1. The temperature at tropics becomes higher than that of regions
near equator.
2. Brings Western Disturbances to India
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
Solution: d)
Justification: Statement 1: This is due to the greater cloudiness at
equatorial regions due to the persistent high temperature and greater
moisture availability. As a result clouds block solar insolation and result
in lower overall temperatures at equator than tropics (even though the
former potentially receives greater heat from the Sun).
Statement 2: They come to India in the Winter Season and withdraw in
the Monsoon season. So, 2 cannot be correct.
Learning: The southwest monsoons arrive at the Kerala coast and
advance further inland in June and July. These winds have cooling effect
and thus summer solstice in June is cooler than May. As a result, the day
temperature is maximum in May and not after the summer solstice.


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76.
India and Russia have signed an agreement for cooperation
in the development of a network of integrated infrastructure Agro
irradiation centres. How will these Agro irradiation centres be
helpful to our economy?
1. It will reduce post-harvest losses for perishable products.
2. It will foster greater cooperation in civil nuclear energy between
India-Russia.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
Solution: c)
Concept: Food irradiation is a technology in which food products are
subjected to a low dosage of radiation (ionizing) to treat them for germs
and insects, increasing their longevity and shelf life. Generally cobalt-60
radioisotope is used as a radioactive source for gamma irradiation.
The irradiated food does not become radioactive. Radioisotopes
are used as the source for the gamma rays.
In India post-harvest losses in food and food grains are around 4050%. It is primarily due to microbiological contamination, insect
infestation, physiological changes due to sprouting and ripening,
and poor shelf life.
Justification: Statement 1: Irradiation is equivalent to pasteurization
for solid foods, but it is not the same as sterilization. It does not reduce
the nutritional value of food products and does not change their
organoleptic properties and appearance.

TEST 7 Solutions
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The irradiation treatment of food and foodgrains preserves them for

longer time, prevent the spread of invasive pests, delay/eliminate
ripening or sprouting and reduce the risk of food borne illness.
Statement 2: As part of the agreement, India-Russia joint venture (JV)
will be formed in which HACL will have the majority 51% stakeholding.
UIC will be a technology partner and will help set up the irradiation
centres. This network will boost India-Russia nuclear energy
cooperation.
Q Source: http://www.thehindu.com/news/india-russia-to-set-upagro-irradiation-centres/article9216159.ece
77.Consider the following plant diseases and their causal

microorganisms.
1. Citrus Canker : Bacteria
2. Rust of Wheat : Virus
3. Yellow Vein mosaic : Fungi
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
Solution: b)
Justification: Statement 1: Citrus canker can be a serious disease
where rainfall and warm temperatures are frequent during periods of
shoot emergence and early fruit development. It is caused by the
bacterium Xanthomonas axonopodis. Transmission mode is air.
Statement 2: Wheat leaf rust is a fungal disease that affects wheat,
barley and rye stems, leaves and grains. In temperate zones it is
destructive on winter wheat because the pathogen overwinters (wait out


TEST 7 Solutions
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the winter season). Infections can lead up to 20% yield loss exacerbated
by dying leaves which fertilize the fungus.
Statement 3: Bhendi yellow vein mosaic was first reported in okra plants
in 1924 in India and Sri Lanka. The symptoms include alternate green
and yellow patches. It is caused by a VIRUS and mode of transmission is
via insects.
Q Source: Science 8th NCERT
78.
Recently the Rajya Sabha Chairman recognised a group of
MPs belonging to smaller parties and certain Independents as a
consolidated bloc. What benefits does such recognition bring to the
bloc?
1. The bloc will be able to secure more time to speak in House
debates.
2. The bloc will be able to veto resolutions passed by a simple
majority in the Rajya Sabha.
3. The bloc can contest decisions of the Leader of the House to
prorogue the house.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
Solution: a)
Justification: Statement 1: At present, time allotted to parties to speak
on debates depends entirely on their strength in the House. Earlier due
to their solitary or numerically lean status, members of this bloc had as
little as three minutes of speech time.
The newly recognised bloc will find a place in the Business Advisory
Committee (BAC) that decides time allotment. Thus, MPs of bloc will
secure more time to speak in House debates.


TEST 7 Solutions
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Thus, a grouping of this kind will make it possible for a party like Sikkim
Democratic Front with a single MP to speak for as much time as say, a
Samajwadi Party with 19 MPs in Rajya Sabha.
Statement 2 and 3: These are absurd statements. No bloc can veto
majority resolutions or contest decisions of the house Chairman.
Q Source: http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/smaller-partiesindependents-in-rs-unite-for-more-talk-time/article9217012.ece
79.
Warren Hastings, the first Governor-General, introduced
several administrative reforms, notably in the sphere of justice.
From 1772 a new system of justice was established under which
each district was to have a criminal court and a civil court.
Consider the following about it.
1. European District Collectors presided over Criminal courts and
interpreted the traditional Indian laws.
2. Civil Courts were under the village headman who was to report
to the local Quazi.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
Solution: d)
Justification: Statement 1 and 2: Religious Maulvis and Hindu
pandits interpreted Indian laws for the European district collectors who
presided over civil courts. The criminal courts were still under a qazi and
a mufti but under the supervision of the collectors. So, both 1 and 2 are
wrong.

TEST 7 Solutions
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Learning: Major problem was that the Brahman pundits gave different
interpretations of local laws based on different schools of the
dharmashastra. To bring about uniformity, in 1775 eleven pandits were
asked to compile a digest of Hindu laws.
N.B. Halhed translated this digest into English. By 1778 a code of
Muslim laws was also compiled for the benefit of European judges.
Q Source: Revision: 8th NCERT History
80.
Allama Prabhu is an upcoming Kannada musical drama
Historical film directed by T. S. Nagabharana. Who was Allama
Prabhu?
a) A social reformer of the Sangam Age
b) A disciple of Sarvajna, who helped spread the Bhakti movement
in Karnataka
c) A companion of Basavanna, who was instrumental in initiating
the Virashaiva movement
d) The King of erstwhile Solapur region
Solution: c)
Learning: Virashaiva movement was initiated by Basavanna with the
support of and his companions like Allama Prabhu and Akkamahadevi.
This movement began in Karnataka in the mid-twelfth century. The
Virashaivas argued strongly for the equality of all human beings and
against Brahmanical ideas about caste and the treatment of women.
The film captures the story of the rebellious thinker Allama, also known
as Allama Prabhu. You can read more at the Q Source.
Q Source: Improvisation: 8th NCERT History + Current Affairs
http://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/bangalore/focus-is-on-thedetails-in-the-making-of-allama-prabhu/article8477480.ece

TEST 7 Solutions
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81.
The right conditions for growing Cotton are
a) High temperature, light rainfall, frost-free days and bright
sunshine
b) Freezing temperature, heavy rainfall, frost-free days and bright
sunshine
c) Moderate temperature, heavy rainfall and cloudy weather
d) Low temperature, low rainfall and cloudy weather
Solution: a)
Learning: Cotton is grown between latitudes of 37 north and 30
south in temperate, subtropical and tropical regions and on every
continent.
Ideal conditions for the cotton plant are:
Long vegetation periods (175 to 225 days) without frost.

Constant temperatures between 18 and 30.
Ample sunshine and fairly dry conditions.
A minimum of 500 mm of water between germination and boll
formation.
Deep, well-drained soils with a good nutrient content.
It grows best on black and alluvial soils.
China, USA, India, Pakistan, Brazil and Egypt are the leading producers
of cotton.
Q Source: Revision: 9th NCERT Geography
82.
The blackbuck generally inhabits
a) Grassy plains and thinly forested areas
b) Dense evergreen forests

TEST 7 Solutions
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c) Low lying coastal mangroves

d) Frigid Himalayan regions at high elevation
Solution: a)
Learning: Scrublands are a good source of forage and cover. Due to
their regular need for water, they prefer areas where perennial water
sources are available.
Cold climates do not suit the blackbuck. In the Indian subcontinent,
blackbuck can also be found in deserts (in the north-western region),
coastal areas, mountains (in the northern-northeastern region).
Until India's independence in 1947, blackbuck and chinkara were hunted
in many princely states with specially trained captive Asiatic cheetahs.
By the 1970s, blackbuck were extinct in several areas
Q Source: Revision: Previous test syllabus: State animals
83.
Confidence Building measures (CBMs), as agreed between
two nations refer to
a) Exchange of information on military matters
b) Respect and bilateral promotion of culture
c) Building investment partnerships between the business
communities of both nations
d) Settlement of border demarcation disputes
Solution: a)
Learning: Confidence-building measures (CBMs) are actions taken to
reduce fear of attack by both (or more) parties in a situation of tension
with or without physical conflict.
CBMs emerged from attempts by the Cold War superpowers and their
military alliances (the North Atlantic Treaty Organisation and the
Warsaw Pact) to avoid nuclear war by accident or miscalculation.

TEST 7 Solutions
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For e.g. India and China have agreed for some CBMs across the borders.
It includes sharing information on the location of troops; military
modernization drives; information exchange in case of violation of
ceasefire; strengthening the communication between the major generals
of both the armies etc.
Q Source: Improvisation: SET A: Q7: CDS 2014
84.
What makes the Atlantic Ocean a good location for natural
harbours and ports?
a) Its straight coastlines
b) Shallow depth of ocean near sedimentary deposits
c) Its highly indented coastline
d) Its unconsolidated sedimentary deposits are S shaped.
Solution: c)
Learning: The Atlantic Ocean is the second largest Ocean in the world.
It is S shaped. But, this shape is not the reason for its ideal location for
harbours.
The coastline of Atlantic Ocean is highly indented. This irregular and
indented coastline provides ideal location for natural harbours and
ports.
Moreover, it is flanked by the North and South Americas on the western
side, and Europe and Africa on the eastern side. So, from the point of
view of commerce, it is the busiest Ocean.

TEST 7 Solutions
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Q Source: Revision: 7th Geography NCERT
85.
Consider the following statements about the South Asian
Free Trade Area (SAFTA) agreement.
1. The SAFTA Ministerial Council (SMC) has been established
comprising the Commerce Ministers of the Member States.
2. The SAFTA Agreement states that the SMC shall meet at least
once every year.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
Solution: c)
Justification: Statement 1: The SAFTA Agreement was signed in 2004
during Twelfth SAARC Summit held in Islamabad. The Agreement

TEST 7 Solutions
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entered into force in 2006, and the Trade Liberalization Programme

commenced. The agreement established SMC.
To assist the SMC, a SAFTA Committee of Experts (SCOE) has been
formed. SCOE is expected to submit its report to SMC every six months.
Statement 2: It should meet once every year or more often as and when
considered necessary by the Contracting States. Each Contracting State
shall chair the SMC for a period of one year on rotational basis in
alphabetical order.
This is an old article on SAFTA, the concepts are useful nonetheless.
http://www.financialexpress.com/archive/what-is-safta-what-are-itsbenefits/159142/
Q Source: Syllabus: Asian Bodies + In news (Cancelling of SAARC
Summit by South Asian states)
86.
In Medieval India, Zabita and Biswa were terms used in the
context of
a) Agricultural productivity of fields
b) Size of treasury
c) Criminal Justice system
d) None of the above
Solution: d)
Learning: Khiljis first revenue regulation (zabita) related to the
measurement of cultivable land as the principle for determining and
revenue; biswa (1/20th of a bigha) was declared to be the standard unit
of measuremcnt.
The state demand was fixed as half of the produce per hiswa and
assessment was done on the basis of paimash (measurement).
Bhaga (land-revenue), Bhoga (cesses) and Kar (taxes) became the
basis for the assignment of land to the nobles.

TEST 7 Solutions
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The Sultan deprived the village chiefs and Hindu revenue

collectors, such as khuts maqaddams, and chaudhuris of their
privileges.
They were forced to pay land revenue and other cesses at the same
rate at which other peasants were taxed.
Besides the land revenue, house tax ( ghari) and pasture tax (chari)
were also imposed on the agrarian population.
87.
Consider the following about the first Supreme Court of
India.
1. It was established under the Indian Courts Act 1861.
2. Its first sitting was held in Madras which was later shifted to
Fort William Calcutta.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
Solution: d)
Justification: Statement 1: Under the Regulating Act of 1773, a new
Supreme Court was established, while a court of appeal the Sadar
Nizamat Adalat was also set up at Calcutta.
It was setup at Fort William, Calcutta.
This Supreme Court consisted of one Chief Justice and three other
regular judges or Puisne Judges. Sir Elijah Imphey was the first Chief
Justice of this Supreme Court.
Even though it was a Supreme Court, it was not above the Company.
The act of 1773 was obscure with regard to the relation of the Supreme
Court with the Government of Bengal.

TEST 7 Solutions
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Q Source: Revision: 8th NCERT History
88.
The H-Index was in news sometime back. It is used to
calculate
a) Average change in a regions temperature due to an adjoining
Ocean current
b) Productivity and citation impact of the publications of a
scientist or scholar
c) Extent of Hunger and malnutrition within a country
d) Coverage of Green Housing in a Smart City
Solution: b)
Learning: It is sometimes called the Hirsch index.
The index is based on the set of the scientist's most cited papers and the
number of citations that they have received in other publications. The
index can also be applied to the productivity and impact of a scholarly
journal as well as a group of scientists, such as a department or
university or country.
For the most highly cited scientists in the period 19832002, Hirsch
identified the top 10 in the life sciences (in order of decreasing h):
Solomon H. Snyder, h = 191; David Baltimore, h = 160 etc.
The only Indian scientist to reach a H-index of 100 or above is Prof CNR
Rao, who was awarded the Bharat Ratna sometime back. The question is
in this context.

TEST 7 Solutions
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89.
The classification of industries in Micro, Small and Medium
categories is done on the basis of
a) Investment in plant and machinery
b) Extent of geographical coverage
c) Number of people employed
d) Rural versus urban location
Solution: a)
Learning: In accordance with the provision of Micro, Small & Medium
Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006 the Micro, Small and
Medium Enterprises (MSME) are classified in two Classes:
Manufacturing and Services.
Under manufacturing sector: (Investment in plant and machinery)
Micro Enterprises: Does not exceed twenty five lakh rupees
Small Enterprises: More than twenty five lakh rupees but does not
exceed five crore rupees
Medium Enterprises: More than five crore rupees but does not
exceed ten crore rupees
90.
Kanaganahalli, one of the excavation sites of the
Archaeological Survey of India, is famously known due to which
these reason(s)?
1. It is the only Buddhist site to host a surviving stupa
2. It hosts the only inscribed stone portrait of Emperor Ashoka
3. It was the first International Buddhist Centre to be established
in India.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only

TEST 7 Solutions
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c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: b)
Justification: Statement 1: Many other sites like Sanchi have surviving
stupa. So, 1 is incorrect.
During the excavations (1994 to 1998) at Kanaganahalli, ASI found
remains of a massive Stupa, many brick structures in the form of a
Chaitya-griha and votive stupas were brought to light.
Statement 2: The most important finding of the excavation include a
stone sculptured slab bearing the name Raya Ashoka . The first inscribed
portrait of Ashoka (surrounded by female attendants and queens) found
at Kanaganahalli, was unearthed from the ruined Buddhist stupa.
Statement 3: As an important Buddhist site, Government of Karnataka
and ASI are Planning to develop Kanaganahalli (and Sannati) as an
International Buddhist Centre.
Government of Karnataka had constituted Sannati Development
Authority and had appointed senior IAS official as its special officer.
91.Israel recently suspended cooperation with UNESCO due to

a) Its objection to the status of Palestine as considered by
UNESCO
b) Lapse of UNESCO funding to Israeli monuments
c) Non-consideration of Israeli nomination lists by UNESCO
d) Suspension of its voting rights earlier by UNESCO
Solution: a)
Learning: The Temple Mount, or Al-Aqsa compound, in east
Jerusalem, which was taken by Israel in the 1967 Six-Day War and later
annexed in a move not recognised internationally, has long been a
flashpoint in the conflict between Israelis and Palestinians


TEST 7 Solutions
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Israel objected to the UNESCO resolutions that refer to "Occupied

Palestine" and aim to "safeguard the Palestinian cultural heritage and
the distinctive character of East Jerusalem"
Israeli Prime Minister Benjamin Netanyahu slammed the resolution as
"yet another absurd UN decision" that "ignores the unique historic
connection of Judaism to the Temple Mount" by referring to the site by
its Arabic name, the Al-Aqsa mosque compound.
Israel, in this context, suspended cooperation with UNESCO.
Q Source: Current Affairs + Improvisation: SET A: Q34: CDS 2014
92.
Consider the following about Theosophical society of India
(TS).
1. It was established at Adyar in erstwhile Madras.
2. Before establishing TS in India Madame Blavatsky's first
attempt was to form a similar organization in Cairo.
3. Annie Besant was associated with the society.
4. The society rejects neuroscience and spiritual practices and
adheres to the doctrine of study of scriptures for true
knowledge.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
1, 2, 3 and 4
Solution: c)
Justification: Statement 1 and 2: Madame Blavatsky's first attempt to
form a similar organization was made in Cairo. It did not succeed. She
was then directed to meet Colonel H.S. Olcott with whose help she
established TS in Adyar, India.

TEST 7 Solutions
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Statement 3: After joining the TS, Annie Besant also made her home in
Benares in 1895, and there started her renowned religious, educational
and social services to India. She opened the Central Hindu College there
in 1898.
Statement 4: The society promotes meditative practices and wishes to
promote the understanding of the neuroscience behind it. You can see a
related event here http://www.ts-adyar.org/content/neuroscience
93.
Which of the following is the correct decreasing order of the
strength of the fundamental forces?
a) Strong force, Electromagnetic Force, Weak Force, Gravitational
force
b) Electromagnetic Force, Strong force, Weak Force, Gravitational
force
c) Gravitational force, Electromagnetic Force, Strong force, Weak
Force
d) None of the above is the correct order
Solution: a)
Learning: The diagram below sums it up.
What should be noted is that the strongest force of all is applicable only
for the shortest distance, and the weakest has the longest range.

TEST 7 Solutions
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94.
Bangladesh and China have recently agreed to elevate their
bilateral relations to strategic partnership. What does the
partnership mean for these two countries?
1. They will soon enter into a Customs Union for major goods and
services.
2. They will establish institutional cooperation in areas of
maritime issues and counter-terrorism.
3. They will jointly advance Chinas One belt and road (OBOR)
initiative.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
1, 2 and 3

TEST 7 Solutions
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Solution: b)
Justification: Statement 1: Both countries signed of 26 agreements on
different sectors. Through these agreements consensus was reached to
work together in trade and investment, but there was no word on
creation of a FTA or a Customs Union. So, 1 is wrong.
Bangladesh maintains very strong military ties with China. Even
Bangladeshs economic relations with China have traditionally been
dominated by trade.
Statement 2: They also agreed to increase high level exchanges and
strategic communication between them so that sensitive issues like
maritime cooperation and counter-terrorism can be taken care of.
Statement 3: Geo-politically, Bangladesh is witnessing growing rivalry
between China and India, particularly in the era of weakening US role in
the region. In this scenario, it signifies growing importance of the
Bangladesh in South Asias economics and geo-politics.
In this context, the two countries have also agreed to jointly advance
Chinas One belt and road (OBOR) initiative.
Q Source: http://www.business-standard.com/article/news-ani/chinabangladesh-upgrade-ties-to-strategic-partnership-of-cooperation116101500155_1.html
95.
Consider the following about UNICEF.
1. It is one of the members of the United Nations Development
Group.
2. UNICEF relies on contributions only from private donors.
3. UNICEF started working in India even before our First Five
Year Plan (FYP) became operational.
a) 2 only


TEST 7 Solutions
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b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: b)
Justification: Statement 1: It is a United Nations (UN) program
headquartered in New York City that provides humanitarian and
developmental assistance to children and mothers in developing
countries. It is one of the members of the United Nations Development
Group and its executive committee.
Statement 2: UNICEF relies on contributions from governments and
private donor. Governments contribute two-thirds of the organization's
resources. However, UNICEF is funded entirely by voluntary (not
compulsory) contributions.
Statement 3: The organisation began its work in India in 1949 with three
staff members and established an office in Delhi three years later.
Currently, it advocates for the rights of Indias children in 16 states.
Q Source: Development organizations (working as international NGOs
in India)
Q Source: http://unicef.in/WhoWeAre/History
96.
Mahayana refers to one of three routes to enlightenment. The
other two routes are
a) Hinayana and Vajrayana
b) Upayana and Vajrayana
c) Hinayana and Upayana
d) Azhaliism and Upayana
Solution: a)
Learning: Vajrayana subscribes to Buddhist tantric literature

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Vajrayana can also be seen as the third of the three turnings of the wheel
of dharma.
In the first turning Shakyamuni Buddha taught the Four Noble
Truths at Varanasi.
The Mahayana tradition claims that there was a second turning in
which the Perfection of Wisdom sutras were taught at Vulture
Peak, which led to the Mahayana schools.
According to the Vajrayana tradition, there was a third turning
which took place at Dhanyakataka sixteen years after the Buddha's
enlightenment.
However, some scholars assert that the first tantric (Vajrayana
Buddhist) texts appeared only in the 3rd century CE, and they
continued to appear until the 12th century.
In the Vajrayana the practitioner takes his or her innate Buddha-nature
as the means of practice towards enlightenment. The premise is that
since we innately have an enlightened mind, practicing seeing the world
in terms of ultimate truth can help us to attain our full Buddha-nature
Q Source: Improvisation: Revision: 7th History NCERT
97.
Consider the following about the Global Hunger Index (GHI)
1. It is released on an annual basis by the Food and Agriculture
Organization (FAO) of the United Nations.
2. A score of zero on the GHI implies absolute food deprivation in
the nation.
3. The GHI also includes the performance of major public
nutrition programmes in its calculation.
4. In the 2016 Index, India fares worse than all its South Asian
neighbours.
a) 4 only

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b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) None of the above
Solution: d)
Justification: Statement 1: The GHI is a multidimensional statistical
tool used to describe the state of countries hunger situation. It is
released annually by IFPRI since 2006.
Statement 2: It ranks countries on a 100-point scale. Zero on the scale is
the best score (no hunger), and 100 is the worst. It highlights successes
and failures in hunger reduction and provides insights into the drivers of
hunger. Thus, GHI aims to trigger actions to reduce hunger. So, 2 is
wrong.
Statement 3: The GHI is calculated by taking into account four indicator
parameters. They are (i) Undernourished population (1/3rd weight), (ii)
Child wasting (1/6th weight), (iii) Child stunting (1/6th weight) and (iii)
Infant mortality rate (1/3rd weight).
Clearly, the performance parameters of public schemes are not included
in the calculation. So, 3 is wrong.
Statement 4: India fares better than Pakistan, which makes statement 4
incorrect.

TEST 7 Solutions
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Q Source: Current Affairs: GHI 2016
98.
India is building emergency Strategic Petroleum Reserves
(SPRs) storages in underground caverns in southern India. Why is
it important for India to build such reserves?
1. India imports most of its oil from the Middle East which is a
politically unstable region.
2. A SPR guards against crude price volatility in international
markets.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
Solution: c)

TEST 7 Solutions
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Justification: Statement 1 and 2: India imports around 80% of its

crude oil requirement from the international market. Most of these
imports come from Middle East which is unstable region.
Any price aberrations in crude oil prices have a direct impact on
the Indian economy especially upon the current account and
inflation amounting to strategic risks.
Thus, it is necessary for India to have SPRs which will act as a
valuable buffer against short term oil supply disruptions and global
price shocks.
Learning: India will store more than 5 million tonnes of crude oil in
these SPRs enough to cover almost two weeks of demand. They are
located are in Visakhapatnam, Mangalore and Padur.
The erstwhile Planning Commission in its Integrated Energy
Policy, 2006 also had recommended to maintain a reserve
equivalent to 90 days of oil imports for strategic-cum-buffer stock
purposes.
Q Source: India recently received the first parcel of crude oil from Iran
to partly fill the SPR
99.
Consider the following about the office of the SecretaryGeneral of United Nations.
Assertion (A): Even though he is the leader of the UN, the office
does not find a mention in the United Nations (UN) Charter.
Reason (R): The office of Secretary-General was created few
decades after the establishment of the UN.
a) A is correct, and R is an appropriate explanation of A.
b) A is correct, but R is not an appropriate explanation of A.

TEST 7 Solutions
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c) A is correct, but R is incorrect.

d) Both A and R are incorrect.
Solution: d)
Justification: Both statements are wrong.
The Charter describes the Secretary-General as "chief administrative
officer" of the Organization, who shall act in that capacity and perform
"such other functions as are entrusted" to him or her by the Security
Council, General Assembly, Economic and Social Council and other
United Nations organs.
The Charter also empowers the Secretary-General to "bring to the
attention of the Security Council any matter which in his opinion may
threaten the maintenance of international peace and security".
These guidelines both define the powers of the office and grant it
considerable scope for action.
Q Source: Appointment of the new Secretary-General: Antonio
Guterres
100.
The BRICS interbank cooperation mechanism was
established in 2010 in order to develop and strengthen economic
ties and investment cooperation between BRICS countries. Which
of the following Indian banks are participants in the mechanism?
1. NABARD
2. Export-Import Bank of India
3. Reserve Bank of India
4. Small Industries Development Bank of India
5. Micro Units Development & Refinance Agency Ltd. (MUDRA)
a) 2 and 5 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only


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c) 2 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Solution: c)
Justification & Learning: The BRICS Interbank Co-operation
Mechanism was established by the five banks.
The participants of the BRICS interbank cooperation mechanism are the
Brazilian Development Bank (BNDES), State Corporation Bank for
Development and Foreign Economic Affairs (Russian Federation),
Export-Import Bank of India, China Development Bank Corporation,
Development Bank of Southern Africa (DBSA).
Export-Import Bank of India is the premier export finance institution of
the country. It commenced operations in 1982 under the Export-Import
Bank of India Act 1981.
The Cabinet has recently approved a MoU on General Cooperation with
New Development Bank (NDB) (BRICS Bank) and Export Import Bank
of India (EXIM Bank).
Q Source:
http://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/policy/cabinetapproves-pact-between-exim-bank-new-developmentbank/articleshow/54828411.cms

07-Insight 2017 Prelims Test Series (Shashidthakur23.Wordpress - Com)

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Prelims 2017 Test 7

INSIGHTS PRELIMS TEST SERIES 2017

Q Source: Improvisation: Page 122: Fundamentals of Physical

2. Consider the following about Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation

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customs procedures at borders; more favorable business climates behind

3. The TFIx program recently launched by Teach For India (TFI)

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TFIx is an incubator programme, for new as well as experienced

4. A rare and globally threatened species of palm, the double coconut

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Q Source: 2015 Current affairs:

5. Consider the following about Additional tier 1 (AT1) bonds.

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6. In which of the following countries, not even a single BRICS

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7. Sea floor spreading is caused by

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8. Consider the following about Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY).

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9. If a river in India is to be converted into National Waterways

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2. It is against the World Trade Organisation (WTO) multilateral

11. Consider the following features of a river course.

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12.Soil in boreal forests are generally poor in nutrients due to

13. Consider the following about African Asian Rural Development

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1. It is an autonomous inter-Governmental organization

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14.Which of the following statements with reference to Udupi

15. White-bellied musk deer is a popular species found in Uttarakhand

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valleys in lower altitudes in winter season. What can be a possible

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16.Crop Residue Burning (CRB) has been identified as a major health

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17. According to the Future of Indias Development Policy

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Learning: Indias transformation from being a recipient to a donor of

Consider the following statements.

Assertion (A): The structure of earth can be understood by

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A is correct, and R is an appropriate explanation of A.

Q Source: Page 24: Chapter 3: Fundamentals of Physical Geography:

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19.Which of the following gases contribute to global warming?

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21.Consider the following statements.

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Statement 2: ASEAN+3 includes the 10 members of the Association of

Q Source: Syllabus: Asian intergovernmental bodies

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Typically, PCBs are either broken down in the environment by

INSIGHTS PRELIMS TEST SERIES 2017