Extremenetwork ENA Questions

1
a
b
c
d

Which of the following products is part of the security product line?

Summit WM20
EPICenter
Sentriant NG
Altitude 350-AP

2 The Summit WM20 is which type of product?

a Switching product
b Wireless product
c Security product
d Network management product
3 Which of the following products is a standalone switch?
a Summit X450-24T
b BlackDiamond 12804R
c Sentriant NG
d Summit WM200
4 Which of the following security products enables you to control network
access?
a Sentriant AG
b Summit WM200
c ServiceWatch
d Summit X450-24t
5 Which of the following licenses is on the Summit X150-24T by default?
a Layer 2 Edge
b Edge
c Advanced Edge
d Core
6 Which of the following features is available with an Edge License, but not with
a Layer 2 Edge
license?
a MAC + IP security
b IGMP snooping + filters
c PIM snooping
d Stacking
7 In which version of software is ExtremeXOS ScreenPlay first supported?
a 11.4
b 11.6
c 12.0
d. 12.1

Initial Switch Configuration

CH-2
1 What are the three connection types used to access the command line
interface?
a Console, Telnet, and SSH2
b Console, Telnet, and SSL
c Console, Telnet, and SNMP
d Console, Telnet, and RADIUS
2 What key is used to display the next tier of a CLI command or to complete a
command?
a Number sign/pound sign/hash mark (#)
b Exclamation point (!)
c Question mark (?)
d Tab key
3 Which two authentication mechanisms for administrative access are supported
by Extreme Networks switches?
a SSL and SNMP
b SSH2 and Telnet
c RADIUS and TACACS+
d DES3 and 802.1X
4 Which of the following statements is false?
a The secure copy feature is available in the ExtremeXOS base image
b Secure Socket Layer (SSL) functionality is part of the SSH installable software
module.
c The SSH feature is provided by an installable software module.
d The SSH2 feature does not appear as a CLI option until after the SSH installable
software module has been downloaded and installed.
5 Which of the following is needed to log into the switch using the serial console
port?
a A null modem or serial crossover cable.
b A PC running terminal emulation software.
c Serial communications protocol set to 9600, N, 8, 1, and None.
d All of the above.
6 Which of the following is true?
a If the CLI prompt has an asterisk as the first character, there have
been configuration changes that have not been saved.
b The pound sign (#) at the end of the CLI prompt indicates that the person who
has logged in has user-level privileges.
c If the SNMP sysname parameter is changed from its default value, it will not be
reflected in the CLI prompt.
d All of the above.

7 Which of the following commands creates a user-level account named fred?

a create account fred
b configure account user fred
c add account fred user
d create account user fred
8 Which of the following commands allows the user to view commands that have
been previously entered during this session?
a show history
b view history
c display history
d None of the above
9
a
b
c
d

Which of the following commands enables the syslog feature?

configure syslog enable
start syslog
enable syslog
set syslog on

Initial Switch Configuration

Switch Management
CH-3
1 Which of the following commands displays the names of the configuration and
policy files on the switch?
a list
b show
c ls
d dir
2 Which of the following ExtremeXOS commands retrieves the configuration from
a TFTP server?
a tftp get
b tftp put
c retrieve
d restore
3 Which of the following commands displays the switch status?
a show system
b show switch
c show system info
d show current config
4 Which command enables the system administrator to retrieve a new image file
from a TFTP server?
a tftp get
b copy
c download

d transfer
5 Which of the following commands use the Virtual Router parameter?
a use
b tftp
c edit
d save
6
a
b
c
d

What types of switches support the mgmt VLAN?

Switches managed by the Vista web interface.
Switches managed by a directly connected EPICenter management station.
Switches with a dedicated management Ethernet port.
Switches with SNMP management enabled.

7 How many software images may be stored on the switch at the same time?
a1
b2
c3
d It depends on the amount of free memory
8 Which command enables the system administrator to save the current
configuration to a file named myConfig.cfg that will be stored on the switch?
a store configuration myConfig
b write configuration myConfig
c put configuration myConfig
d save configuration myConfig

9 What does the unconfigure switch all command do?

a It deletes the currently selected configuration except for user accounts, and
reboots the switch.
b It deletes the currently selected configuration except for user accounts.
c It deletes all administrator created user accounts and resets the administrator
password to the factory default.
d It initializes the value stored in the "Config Selected" field to "NONE",
resets the parameters to original factory defaults, and reboots the
switch.
10 Which of the following commands displays the software versions running on
the switch?
a show version
b show software
c show image
d show running
Switch Management

11 In the display of the show switch command which field identifies the currently
running software?
a Primary
b Secondary
c Image Selected
d Image Booted
12 XOS core image files typically end with which one of the following extensions?
a .xos
b .xmod
c .xbr
d all of the above
13 The upload command is used for which of the following?
a To transfer a core image to a TFTP server as a binary file.
b To transfer a configuration file to a TFTP server as XML-formatted file.
c To transfer a configuration file to a TFTP server as an ASCII-formatted
command script.
d To transfer a configuration file to a TFTP server as compressed backup
configuration file.
14 Which of the following commands saves the configuration to the secondary
location?
a save configuration secondary
b use configuration secondary
c save image secondary
d use secondary
15 Which of the following commands configures the switch to boot from the
software image in the primary location on the next boot up?
a boot image primary
b use configuration primary
c save image primary
d use image primary
16 The use image primary command does which of the following?
a Causes the switch to load the primary image file in to memory and cause it to
immediately execute without a reboot.
b Causes the switch to load the primary image file in to memory and cause it to
execute on the next reboot.
c Causes the switch to clear the current configuration in memory and then
immediately load the primary configuration image.
d Causes the switch to load the primary configuration image after next
reboot.
17 Which of the following commands copies the primary configuration file to
backup.cfg?

a copy primary.cfg backup.cfg

b duplicate primary.cfg backup.cfg
c backup primary.cfg backup.cfg
d cp primary.cfg backup.cfg
18 What is the command to reset all configuration parameters except date and
time?
a reset switch default
b reset switch
c unconfigure switch
d unconfigure switch all
19 Which of the following commands causes the switch to reboot?
a reboot
b restart
c reset
d system shutdown
Switch Management
Layer 1 Configuration
CH-4
1 Which of the following commands correctly configures the link aggregation
feature?
a configure sharing 1 grouping 1-4
b enable sharing 1 grouping 1-4
c create sharing 1 grouping 1-4
d create grouping 1 sharing 1-4
2 Which of the following commands dynamically adds ports to a link Aggregation
group?
a configure sharing 6 add ports 7,8
b configure linkaggragation 6 add ports 7,8
c configure lacp group 6 add ports 7,8
d add group 6 lacp ports 7,8
3 What is the purpose of LLDP?
a LLDP supports the discovery of network topologies in a multivendor
environment.
b LLDP supports the discovery of network topologies in an Extreme Networks
proprietary
environment.
c LLDP supports dynamic addition to and deletions from a link aggregation group.
d LLDP supports equal-cost multiple paths in a routed environment.

4 Which of the following commands activates the Extreme Discovery Protocol on

all ports?

a configure edp ports all

b create edp ports all
c create edp all
d enable edp ports all
5 Why is the address-based Port Load Sharing or link aggregation algorithm
recommended?
a It provides the fastest link-failure recovery time and guarantees packet
sequencing.
b It provides the most information for troubleshooting and guarantees packet
sequencing.
c It provides a more even distribution of traffic than the port-based
algorithm and guarantees packet sequencing.
d It provides the most reliable transfer of data and guarantees packet
sequencing.
6 Which of the following identifies the maximum number of monitor ports that
can be configured on a switch?
a One
b Two
c Four
d Sixteen
7 What feature allows you to copy all traffic associated with one or more ports to
a monitor port?
a Port monitoring
b Port copying
c Port mirroring
d Port reflecting
8 Which of the following commands correctly configures port 6 to be the portmirroring monitor port?
a create mirroring add port 6 tagged
b configure mirroring add port 6 tagged
c enable mirroring to port 6 tagged
d configure mirroring to port 6 tagged
9 Which of the following examples correctly disables ports one through five on
the switch?
a disable ports 1-5
b disable ports 1:5
c disable ports 1,5
d disable ports 1:2:3:4:5
10 What is Extreme Discovery Protocol used for?
a Performs an active search for all IP devices on the network.
b Performs a passive search for all Layer-2 devices on the network.

c Exchanges topology information with other third-party and Extreme Networks

switches.
d Exchanges topology information with other Extreme Networks
switches.
11 What does port mirroring do?
a Reflects all received traffic on a port back out the transmit side.
b Configures the switch to copy all traffic associated with one or more
ports to the monitor ports on the switch.
c Configures the switch to copy all traffic entering the switch to a monitor port on
the switch.
d Displays a real time packet analysis on the console port for traffic received on a
specified Ethernet port.
12 What is the link aggregation feature used for?
a To increase bandwidth and resilience between switches.
b To balance traffic across multiple paths.
c To guarantee packet sequencing.
d To increase delay tolerance.
CH-5, Stacking
1 Which of the following statements best describes the SummitStack technology?
a SummitStack technology allows you to install standalone switches, such as
model X450a directly into a chassis-based switch.
b SummitStack allows you to physically stack up to 20 units without the need for
a system rack.
c SummitStack allows you automate the use of your system by stacking
commands in a command buffer for execution at a user designated time.
d SummitStack allows you to physically connect up to eight individual
Summit switches together as a single logical unit.
2 Which of the following statements is true?
a All units in the stack must run the same version of ExtremeXOS
software.
b All units in the stack must be managed by EPICenter software.
c All units in the stack must be identical model numbers.
d All units in the stack must be connected to a redundant power supply.
3 Which of the following items specifies the bandwidth for each of the individual
stacking ports?
a 20 MB
b 200 MB
c 2 GB
d 20 GB
4 Which unit (node) type manages the stack?
a Master
b Backup Master

c Standby
d Standalone
5 The functionality of which of the following may be compared to the
functionality of a Master MSM?
a Master Switch Unit
b Backup Master Switch Unit
c Standby Switch Unit
d Standalone Switch Unit
6
a
b
c
d

Which of the following stack topologies is supported for continuous operation?

Bus
Daisy Chain
Ring
Star

7 Which of the following traffic types manages the function of the stack?
a Unicast Traffic
b Multicast Traffic
c VLAN Traffic
d Topology Traffic
8 Which of the following statements is true in regards to the way the stack
handles unicast traffic?
a Unicast traffic can be sent and received traffic on both stacking ports.
b Unicast traffic is handled by the switching fabric and not the CPU.
c Unicast traffic may be transmitted by any port in the stack as no ports are
blocked.
d All of the above
9 Which of the following statements is true in regards to the way the stack
handles known multicast traffic?
a Multicast traffic is handled by the CPU when traversing the stack.
b Multicast traffic is only sent out of stack port 1.
c Multicast traffic requires that ports be blocked to prevent loops. The
port that is blocked is based upon the multicast group address.
d All of the above
10 Which of the following parameters are taken into account when electing the
stack master?
a Master capability
b Stacking priority
c Slot number
d All of the above
11 Which of the following is true about how the stack manages its configuration?
a The master unit is responsible for configuring all devices in the stack.

b Each unit in the stack is responsible to manage its own configuration files and
to configure itself.
c The master switch and the backup master switch split configuration
responsibilities. Each
manages half of the units in the stack.
d All of the above
CH-6
1 Which of the following commands configures normal flooding behavior on ports
1 through 6 on a switch?
a flood ports 1-6 all_cast
b enable flooding all_cast ports 1-6
c configure ports 1-6 enable flooding all_cast
d configure all_cast flooding ports 1-6
2 Which of the following commands removes a permanent Layer-2 FDB entry?
a configure fdbentry delete 00:E0:2B:12:34:56 vlan finance
b delete fdbentry 00:E0:2B:12:34:56 vlan finance
c delete fdb permanent 00:E0:2B:12:34:56
d delete fdb 00:E0:2B:12:34:56 permanent
3 Which of the following best describes an Extreme Networks Ethernet switch?
a A remote bridge
b A transparent bridge
c A source route bridge
d A source route transparent bridge
4 What action does the switch take when a packet is received on a port and the
source MAC address does not already exist in the FDB?
a The source MAC address is learned and added to the FDB.
b The switch filters the frame at the port.
c The destination MAC address is learned and added to the FDB.
d The source MAC address is added to the FDB as a black hole entry.
5 Which of the following are the switch functions related to Layer-2 forwarding?
a Flooding, learning, forwarding, and filtering.
b Blocking, learning, forwarding, and filtering.
c Blocking, listening, learning, and forwarding.
d Listening, learning, filtering, and forwarding.
6 What part of the Ethernet packet does a transparent bridge use to make
forwarding decisions?
a The destination Layer-3 address
b The Layer-3 protocol type field
c The Layer-2 protocol type field
d The destination MAC address

7 Which of the following best describes the flooding bridge function?

a The forwarding database does not contain the entry for the
destination, the destination is
considered to be unknown, and the packet must be forwarded to every
attached interface.
b When frames are received and the destination MAC address matches the FDB
entry for the
inbound port, the packet must be forwarded to every attached interface.
c When a packet is received on a port, if the source address does not already
exist in the FDB it is
learned and flooded to the FDB.
d When a packet is received on a port, if the source address does not already
exist in the FDB it is
dropped.
8 How many times may a station attempt a retransmission after detecting a
collision?
a4
b8
c 16
d 32
9 Which of the following identifies the minimum Ethernet packet length?
a 46
b 64
c 128
d 256
10 Which of the following switch functions is best defined by the following
sentence? This function examines the source addresses of frames received on
the port and creates an entry in the forwarding database associating the port on
which the frame was received with the MAC address.
a Flooding
b Learning
c Forwarding
d Filtering
Layer 2 Forwarding
11 Which of the following switch functions is best defined by the following
sentences? This function looks up the destination address in the forwarding
database. If the address is known and the port is the same as the port on which
the frame is received, the frame is discarded.
a Flooding
b Learning
c Forwarding
d Filtering

12 Which of the following switch functions is best defined by the following

sentence? This function
forwards packets to all interfaces if the destination MAC address is unknown.
a Flooding
b Learning
c Forwarding
d Filtering
13 Which of the following switch functions is best defined by the following
sentences? This function looks up the destination address in the forwarding
database. If the address is known and the port is different from the port on which
the frame is received, the frame is sent to the destination port.
a Flooding
b Learning
c Forwarding
d Filtering
14 Which of the following is NOT a Layer 2 FDB entry type?
a Dynamic Entries
b Static Entries
c Black hole Entries
d Fast-Aging Entries
15 Which of the following is true?
a The show ports command is used to determine the configuration of MAC
address learning
b MAC address learning is enabled by default
c MAC address learning is configured on a per-port basis
d All of the above
16 Which of the following values is the default for the FDB agingtime parameter?
a 15 Seconds
b 60 Seconds
c 100 Seconds
d 300 Seconds
17 Which of following Layer 2 security features freezes the FDB and does not
allow new MAC address entries to be added dynamically?
a Egress Flood Control
b Limit-learning
c Lock-learning
d All of the above
18 Egress Flood Control enables you to control the transmission of which of the
following packets?
a Broadcast
b Multicast

c Unknown Unicast
d All of the above
19 Which of the following describes how MAC addresses from unknown stations
are handled after the limit-learning threshold has been reached?
a MAC addresses are ignored and packets originated by these stations are
dropped
b MAC addresses are learned and packets originated by these stations are
dropped
c MAC addresses are learned as black hole entries and packets originated by
these stations are dropped
d MAC addresses are learned as black hole entries and packets
originating from these stations are forwarded
20 Which of the following commands enable you to view the Layer 2 forwarding
database?
a show Layer 2 forwarding table
b display L2 table
c show fdb
d L2 view
Layer 2 Forwarding
21 Which of the following commands enable you to add an entry to the Layer 2
forwarding database?
a add fdbentry
b create fdbentry
c fdbentry create
d fdbentry add
22 Which two commands of the following list enable you to remove entries from
the Layer 2
forwarding database?
a delete fdbentry / clear fdb
b clear fdbentry / delete fdb
c remove fdbentry / unconfigure fdb
d unconfigure fdbentry / remove fdb
23 Which of the following networking devices defines the boundary of a collision
domain?
a Hub
b Bridge
c Repeater
d All of the above
Introduction to VLANs
CH-7
1 Which of the following commands configures the green VLAN with a tag of 54?

a
b
c
d

create vlan green add ports all tag 54

configure vlan green add ports all tag 54
configure vlan green tag 54
create vlan green tag 54

2 Which of the following pair of commands configures a new protocol filter?

a create protocol new / configure protocol new add etype 0xfef
b configure protocol IPv6 / configure protocol IPv6 add etype 0x86DD
c create protocol IPv6 / configure protocol add etype 0x86DD
d configure protocol IPv6 / add etype 0x86DD to protocol IPv6
3
a
b
c
d

Which of the following statements is true?

The Ethernet management port is a member of the default VLAN
All ports are members of the management VLAN
You cannot disable the management VLAN
You may add ports to a disabled VLAN

4 Which of the following commands configures ports 4, 5, and 6 as tagged ports

for the green VLAN?
a create vlan green add ports 4-6 tagged
b configure vlan green add ports 4-6 tagged
c configure vlan green tag ports 4-6
d create vlan green tag ports 4-6
5 Which of the following commands displays a list of protocol filters?
a show protocol
b show protocol filter
c show protocol list
d show protocol configuration
6 Which of the following commands displays the configuration of the IP protocol
filter?
a show protocol
b show protocol ip
c show protocol configuration
d show protocol ip configuration
7 Which of the following commands displays the VLAN tag value?
a show vlan
b show switch
c show tag
d show vlanid
8 How many VLANs can an untagged port be added to simultaneously?
a One
b Two
c Eight

d 4095
9 A VLAN defines which type of domain?
a The collision domain
b The broadcast domain
c The routing domain
d The physical topology
10 What is the IEEE specification for VLAN tagging?
a 802.1Q
b 802.1W
c 802.1D
d 802.1p
11 Which types of packets are flooded throughout the VLAN?
a known unicast
b broadcast
c PING
d collision detection
12 Port-based VLANs are also known by which other name?
a MAC-Based VLANs
b Tagged VLANs
c Protocol VLANs
d Untagged VLANs
Introduction to VLANs
13 What is VLAN tagging primarily used for?
a To transparently interconnect existing VLANs in separate locations across a
Metropolitan Area Network.
b To dynamically determine VLAN membership based on the MAC address of the
end stations connected to the physical port.
c To dynamically determine VLAN membership based on a specified protocol.
d To create VLANs that span multiple switches using uplinks.
14 Which of the following best describes protocol-based VLANs?
a Dynamically assigns end stations to a VLAN based on the MAC address.
b Dynamically assigns end stations to a VLAN based on the Layer-3 address.
c Dynamically forwards packets within a VLAN based on a protocol filter.
d Dynamically forwards packets within a VLAN based on the physical layer.
15 Which command displays the configuration of VLAN Blue?
a show VLAN Blue
b display VLAN Blue
c confirm VLAN Blue
d show VLAN Blue config

16 Which of the following commands creates a VLAN named "Blue?"

a configure VLAN blue new
b add VLAN blue ports all
c create VLAN Blue
d enable VLAN Blue
17 Which command adds ports 1-4 to VLAN Blue?
a add ports 1-4 VLAN Blue
b create VLAN ports 1,2,3,4 to Blue
c enable VLAN Blue with ports 1-4
d configure VLAN Blue add ports 1-4
18 Which command disables VLAN Blue?
a unconfigure VLAN Blue all
b disable VLAN Blue
c halt VLAN Blue
d configure VLAN Blue disable
19 Which is the default VLAN ID for the default VLAN?
a0
b1
c 4094
d 4095
20 Which of the following statements is true?
a By default, all ports are members of the mgmt VLAN
b By default, the management port is a member of the default VLAN
c By default, all ports except for the management port are part of the
default VLAN
d By default, all ports are members of the control VLAN
21 Which command removes all ports from the default VLAN?
a configure VLAN default delete ports all
b configure VLAN default remove ports all
c disable all default VLAN ports
d unconfigure VLAN default ports all
22 Which of the following is a true statement?
a VLAN names must match across links for the associated tagged VLANs to be
contiguous.
b Tags must match across links for the associated tagged VLANs to be
contiguous.
c Only one end of a link must be tagged for the associated tagged VLAN to be
contiguous.
d VLAN names and tags must match across links for the associated tagged
VLANs to be functional.
Introduction to VLANs

Spanning Tree
CH-8
1 What is the spanning tree protocol used for?
a To provide fast protection switching for Layer 2 switches interconnected in an
Ethernet ring topology.
b To prevent loops in a redundant network topology.
c To use a group of ports to carry traffic in parallel between switches.
d To guarantee packet sequencing across redundant links.
2
a
b
c
d

What type of problem is caused by a loop topology in an Ethernet network?

Slow Layer 3 topology convergence.
Intermittent link flapping.
A broadcast storm.
Out-of-sequence packet delivery.

3 How does spanning tree protocol eliminate loops in an Ethernet network

topology?
a By disabling certain ports.
b By distributing packets over multiple links using an address-based algorithm.
c By forwarding each packet over the best path for that particular packet.
d By placing certain ports in blocking mode.
4 What is the primary value used to determine the root bridge?
a Bridge ID.
b Port priority.
c Bridge cost.
d Port cost, path cost.
5 What is the primary value used to determine the designated bridge?
a Bridge priority
b Port priority
c Bridge cost
d Path cost
6 How does a bridge detect a link failure?
a The CBPDU does not arrive before the max age timer expires.
b The topology change BPDU does not arrive before the max age timer expires.
c The CBPDU does not arrive before the hello timer expires.
d The topology change BPDU does not arrive before the hello timer expires.
7 Which of the following spanning tree parameters is used to influence which
bridge is elected as the root bridge?
a The port priority
b The hello timer
c The port cost
d The bridge priority

8 Which of the following commands activates the default spanning tree domain?
a create stpd s0
b enable stpd s0
c create stpd s1
d enable stpd default
9 Which of the following commands configures the spanning tree bridge port
cost?
a configure stp port cost 15 6
b configure port cost 15 6
c configure stpd s0 port cost 15 6
d configure stpd bridgeport cost 15 6
10 Which of the following commands displays the configuration of the default
spanning tree?
a show stpd s0
b show stp
c show stp default
d show stpd default
11 Which of the following commands configures the spanning tree bridge
priority?
a configure stp bridge priority 4
b configure bridge priority 4
c configure stpd s0 priority 4
d configure stpd default priority 4
Spanning Tree
12 Which of the following commands configures the VLAN blue to participate in
the spanning tree protocol?
a configure vlan blue add stpd s0
b configure stpd s0 add vlan blue port 1,2,3
c configure stpd default add vlan blue port 1,2,3
d configure stpd default add vlan blue
13 Which of the following spanning tree parameters is used to influence which
port is elected as the designated port?
a The port priority
b The hello timer
c The bridge cost
d The bridge priority
Ethernet Automatic Protection Switc
CH-9
1 Which of the following blocks the secondary port for all non-control traffic
belonging to a specific EAPS domain?

a Master Node
b Transport Node
c Primary Node
d Transit Node
2
a
b
c
d

Which of the following commands creates an EAPS domain named D3?

configure eaps D3
configure eaps id D3
create eaps D3
create eaps id D3

3 Which of the following commands configures a switch as an EAPS master for

the EAPS domain D3?
a configure eaps D3 master
b configure eaps D3 mode master
c configure D3 master
d enable eaps D3 master
4 Which of the following statements is false?
a Only ring ports should be members of the control VLAN.
b The control VLAN must be a tagged VLAN.
c User traffic is allowed on the control VLAN.
d The control VLAN must be configured with QoS Profile 8 (QP8) on ExtremeWare
switches.
5 Which command verifies the EAPS configuration?
a enable eaps configuration display
b show eaps configuration
c display eaps detail
d show eaps detail
6 Which of the following are four of the basic EAPS ring elements?
a Master Node, Transport Node, Primary Port, Secondary Port
b Master Node, Standby Node, Primary Port, Secondary Port
c Primary Node, Secondary Node, Master Port, Secondary Port
d Master Node, Transit Node, Primary Port, Secondary Port
IP Unicast Routing
CH-10
1 What are the types of permanent route entries that can be configured?
a Static, black hole, and default.
b Directly connected, dynamic, and permanent.
c RIP, OSPF, and directly connected.
d RIP, OSPF, and static.
2 Which of the following commands configures a black hole route?
a configure iproute add 10.1.0.0/24 blackhole
b configure iproute blackhole 10.1.0.0/24

c configure iproute add blackhole 10.1.0.0/24

d create iproute blackhole 10.1.0.0/24
3 By default, which of the following is used to determine the relative route
priority?
a The order the route is learned in.
b The route metric.
c The port priority of the port where the route is learned.
d The route origin.
4 Which of the following commands configures a default route?
a configure iproute add default 10.0.0.3
b create iproute add default 10.0.0.3
c configure iproute default 10.1.0.0 10.0.4.1/24
d create iproute add default 10.1.0.0 10.0.4.1/24
5 Which of the following commands shows the mapping between IP addresses
and MAC addresses?
a show fdb
b show arpmap
c show iparp
d show ipstats
6 Which of the following commands configures a static route?
a configure iproute add 10.1.0.0 255.255.255.0 10.0.4.1
b create iproute add 10.1.0.0 255.255.255.0 10.0.4.1
c configure iproute add 10.1.0.0 10.0.4.1 255.255.255.0
d create iproute add 10.1.0.0 10.0.4.1 255.255.255.0
7
a
b
c
d

Which of the following commands displays the IP route origin?

show route table
show ipfdb
show iproute
show fdb

8 The switch cannot route statically until which of the following happens?
a The VLAN is assigned an IP address, neighbor gateways establish adjacencies,
the VLAN is
configured to use static routes, and the router interface is active.
b The VLAN is assigned an IP address, neighbor gateways establish adjacencies,
the VLAN is
configured to use static routes, and IP forwarding is enabled globally.
c The VLAN is assigned an IP address, IP forwarding is enabled, the VLAN is
active, and neighbor gateways establish adjacencies.
d The VLAN is assigned an IP address, IP forwarding is enabled, the
VLAN is configured to use static routes, and the router interface is
active.

9 What is the primary difference between Layer 2 forwarding and Layer 3

forwarding?
a Layer 2 forwarding is based on the MAC address and Layer 3
forwarding is based on the IP address.
b Layer 3 forwarding is based on the MAC address and Layer 2 forwarding is
based on the IP address.
c Layer 3 forwarding is performed on the first packet only and Layer 2 forwarding
is performed on all subsequent packets.
d Layer 2 forwarding is performed on the first packet only and Layer 3 forwarding
is performed on all subsequent packets.
10 What is the primary difference between routing and Layer 3 forwarding in an
Extreme Networks switch?
a Layer 3 forwarding is performed on the first packet only and routing is
performed on all
subsequent packets.
b Routing is performed on the first packet only and Layer 2 forwarding is
performed on all
subsequent packets.
c Routing using the CPU is performed on the first packet only and Layer
3 forwarding using an ASIC is performed on all subsequent packets.
d Layer 2 forwarding is performed on the first packet only and routing is
performed on all subsequent packets.
Configuring RIP
CH-10
1 What are the advantages of using RIP?
a RIP provides the fastest possible convergence.
b RIP is simple and easy to understand.
c RIP was originally designed to be very secure.
d RIP uses a hop count rather than a cost metric.
2 In RIP, what modifications have been made to the basic distance-vector routing
algorithm to address routing loops, slow convergence, and the counting to
infinity problem?
a Poison horizon, split updates, and reverse triggers.
b Split horizon, poison reverse, and triggered updates.
c LSDB synchronization, Autonomous System hierarchy, and stub areas.
d Link state advertisements, hello packets, and neighbor discovery.
3 What is the maximum reachable hop count for RIP?
a8
b 15
c 16
d 4096

4 The switch cannot route using RIP until which of the following happens?
a The VLAN is assigned an IP address, neighbor gateways establish adjacencies,
RIP is enabled globally, the VLAN is configured to use RIP, and the router
interface is active.
b The VLAN is assigned an IP address, RIP is enabled globally, neighbor gateways
establish
adjacencies, the VLAN is configured to use RIP, and IP forwarding is enabled
globally.
c The VLAN is assigned an IP address, IP forwarding is enabled, the VLAN is
active, and RIP is enabled globally.
d The VLAN is assigned an IP address, IP forwarding is enabled, the
VLAN is configured to use RIP, the router interface is active, and RIP is
enabled globally.
5 Which of the following is true when using RIP?
a Upon expiration of the garbage timeout, the route is no longer valid; however,
it is retained in the routing table until the expiration of the route timer.
b Upon expiration of the route timeout, the route is no longer valid;
however, it is retained in the routing table until the expiration of the
garbage timer.
c Upon expiration of the route timeout, the route is marked suspect; however, it
is retained in the routing table until the expiration of the hello timer.
d Upon expiration of the hello timeout, the route is marked suspect; however, it
is retained in the routing table until the expiration of the route timer.
6 Which of the following commands displays the state of the Split Horizon
feature?
a show ipconfig
b show rip
c show iproute
d show fdb
7 Which of the following commands show the RIP peer routers?
a show ipconfig
b show iproute
c show rip interface
d show rip routes
8 In a distance-vector routing algorithm, what is the name of the condition when
a router believes it has two routes to the target network when only one actually
exists?
a Routing loop.
b Split horizon.
c Poison reverse.
d Slow convergence
CH-11

1
a
b
c
d

How are OSPF Link State Databases synchronized?

Hello packets are passed from adjacent router to adjacent router.
Synchronization packets are passed between adjacent routers.
LSA packets are passed between adjacent routers.
Triggered update packets are passed between adjacent routers.

2
a
b
c
d

Which of the following commands creates OSPF area 1.0.0.4?

configure ospf area 1.0.0.4
configure ospf add area 1.0.0.4
create ospf area 1.0.0.4
create area 1.0.0.4

3 Which of the following best describes the OSPF stub area?

a It must be connected to all areas in an OSPF autonomous system.
b External route information is not distributed in this area.
c Connected to other areas through ABRs.
d External routes originating from an ASBR connected to this type of area can be
propagated to
other areas.
4 Which of the following commands enables OSPF on VLAN blue?
a configure ospf add vlan blue area 0.0.0.0
b configure ospf add vlan blue
c configure vlan blue add OSPF area 0.0.0.0
d configure vlan blue add OSPF
5
a
b
c
d

Which of the following commands displays the OSPF router ID?

show ipconfig
show iproute
show ospf
show fdb

6 Which of the following best describes an OSPF ABR?

a It is responsible for representing a particular broadcast network.
b It has interfaces in both an OSPF routing domain, and a non-OSPF routing
domain.
c It has all of its network interfaces in the same area.
d It has interfaces connected to more than one area.
7
a
b
c
d

What types of networks use an OSPF designated router?

Point-to-Point
Point-to-Multipoint
Broadcast
Not-so-stubby

8 Which of the following commands shows the OSPF link state identifiers and
router ID for all reachable subnetworks?

a
b
c
d

show ipconfig
show ospf
show ospf lsdb
show ospf area 0.0.0.0

9 Which of the following must be connected to all ABRs in an OSPF autonomous

system?
a Normal area.
b Stub area.
c Not-so-stubby area.
d Area 0.0.0.0
10 Which of the following best describes the OSPF Autonomous System Boundary
Router?
a It is responsible for representing a particular broadcast network.
b It has interfaces in both an OSPF routing domain, and a non-OSPF
routing domain.
c It has all of its network interfaces in the same area.
d It has interfaces connected to more than one area.
11 Which of the following commands identifies the IP address of the designated
router?
a show ipconfig
b show iproute
c show ospf ospfdb
d show ospf area 0.0.0.0
Configuring OSPF
12 Which of the following best describes an OSPF internal router?
a It is responsible for representing a particular broadcast network.
b It has interfaces in both an OSPF routing domain, and a non-OSPF routing
domain.
c It has all of its network interfaces in the same area.
d It has interfaces connected to more than one area.
13 Which of the following commands allows non-OSPF routes to be distributed
into an OSPF routing domain?
a configure ospf export external
b configure ospf export
c export ospf external
d enable ospf export
14 If all the routers have the same router priority, which of the following
commands can be used to influence the election of an OSPF designated router?
a configure ospf routerid 10.1.6.1
b configure ospf routepriority 1
c configure ospf dr 10.1.6.1

d configure ospf dr 1
15 How many levels of hierarchy does OSPF support?
a One
b Two
c Three
d Sixteen
16 Which of the following best describes the unique requirements of OSPF area
0?
a It must be connected to all areas in an OSPF autonomous system.
b External route information is not distributed in this area.
c It is connected to other areas through ABRs.
d External routes originating from an ASBR connected to this type of area can be
propagated to
other areas.
17 What do OSPF routers use to discover their neighbors?
a Router Link-state Advertisements.
b Router discovery packets.
c Extreme Discovery Protocol packets.
d Hello packets.
18 What is the relationship between autonomous systems and areas?
a One autonomous systems can contain multiple areas.
b One area can contain multiple autonomous systems.
19 What types of networks use an OSPF designated router?
a Point-to-Point
b Point-to-Multipoint
c Broadcast
d Asynchronous
Network Login Using Local MAC-Based Authentica
CH-12
1 Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using local MAC-based
authentication?
a Works with any operating system or network enabled device.
b Works silently. The user, client, or device does not know that it gets
authenticated.
c Is easy to implement. A set of devices can easily be grouped by the vendor part
of the MAC address.
d MAC address database administration can incur a great deal of
overhead.
2 Which of the following scenarios describes when it is appropriate to use MACbased authentication?

a When devices are not aware of authentication protocols

b When it is necessary to protect the network from MAC-address spoofing
c When authentication needs to be based upon the user regardless of the device
they use to log into the network d When the devices support multiple uses with
differing access rights
3 Which of the following most accurately identifies how many ports may be
associated with a single MAC address when using MAC-address based
authentication?
a1
b 12
c 24
d All of the above
4 Which of the following must occur before the network login feature may be
enabled?
a All attached network devices must be turned off.
b The MAC addresses of all attached devices must be entered into the local
database.
c A VLAN must be assigned to service the network login feature.
d The ports used by the network login VLAN must be removed from the default
VLAN.
5 Which of the following command syntax examples identifies the command to
assign a VLAN to the network login service?
a assign netlogin vlan <vlan_name>
b configure netlogin vlan <vlan_name>
c netlogn vlan <vlan_name>
d configure vlan netlogin add <vlan_name>
6 Which of the following commands is used to enable the network login feature
using MAC-address based security?
a enable netlogin mac
b start mac-based netlogin
c configure netlogin mac enable
d None of the above
7 Which of the following commands activates the network login feature on
individual ports?
a configure netlogin ports <port_list> mac
b enable netlogin ports <port_list> mac
c configure ports <port_list> netlogin mac
d None of the above
8 Which of the following commands instructs the network login service to only
use the local database for authenticating MAC addresses.
a configure netlogin database-order local

b enable netlogin mac authentication local-only

c configure netlogin mac authentication database-order local
d None of the above
9 Which of the following rules apply when entering a MAC address into the local
database?
a Alphabetic characters in the MAC address must be entered in uppercase
b Special characters such as colons, dashes, and spaces must be omitted from
the MAC address when it is entered into the system
c The password that is assigned to the MAC address entry must be identical to
the MAC address d All of the above
10 Which of the following commands displays the list of MAC addresses allowed
access to this device through the network login service?
a display mac-address users
b show netlogin local-users
c show mac-address users
d None of the above
11 Which of the following commands disables the network login service?
a disable netlogin
b stop netlogin
c configure netlogin disable
d None of the above
12 Which of the following commands terminates a MAC-address based network
login user session?
a drop session <number>
b clear session <number>
c disable session <number>
d None of the above
Universal Port
Review Questions
1 What are the three underlying technologies that Universal Port is built upon?
a Extended CLI scripting syntax, LLDP (802.1AB), and Network
Authentication through Network Login and a RADIUS server.
b LLDP (802.1AB), Network Authentication through Network Login and a RADIUS
server, andSNMP.
c Extended CLI scripting syntax, Network Authentication through Network Login
and a RADIUS server, and SNMP.
d Extended CLI scripting syntax, LLDP (802.1AB), and SNMP.
2 What protocol enables devices to advertise their capabilities and media
specific configuration and learn the same from the devices networked to it?
a DHCP
b LLDP

c RIP
d EAPS
3 Which of the Profile rules stated below is NOT true?
a Profiles are non-persistent by default
b Profiles are stored on the RADIUS server
c Profiles cannot exceed 5000 characters
d There is a limit of 128 Universal Port profiles per switch
4
a
b
c
d

What is a benefit of using Universal Port in static mode?

New devices are automatically configured.
You can apply multiple profiles on the same port.
The profile can include system wide configuration changes.
Only a few CLI commands cannot be used.

5
a
b
c
d

The profile type that is most prone to misconfiguration is

Time-of-day
User-based authenticated
Event Management System
Dynamic device-detect

6 What command shows you the Universal Port event triggers and profiles on an
Extreme Networks'
switch?
a show upm profiles
b show log match upm
c show lldp neighbors
d show history
CH-13
1 Which of the following provides a definition of QoS?
a QoS is a set of protocols and mechanisms that facilitate the delivery
of delay and bandwidth sensitive material across data networks.
b QoS provides a means of securing bandwidth against potential attackers.
c QoS provides an absolute guarantee that all high-priority traffic will be
delivered to the
destination.
d QoS ensures that all voice and video traffic will be sent ahead of nonmultimedia traffic.
2 Which one of the following is not a goal of traffic engineering?
a Optimize network usage
b Ensure user authentication prior to granting network access.
c Increase the robustness of the network infrastructure
d Optimize network performance
3 Which of the following statements indicates a need for QoS?

a OSPF routing is used to connect various parts of the network.

b Users should only be allowed access to the network after being authorized.
c All traffic must be treated with the same level of priority.
d Network traffic needs a guarantee of underlying network
performance.
4 Which of the following is another term for latency?
a Echo
b Speed
c Delay
d Jitter
5 Which of the following traffic types does not generally require QoS?
a Voice
b File server
c Video
d All of the above
6 Which of the following QoS profiles are not available when using stacking?
a QP6
b QP5
c QP4
d All of the above
7 Which of the following identifies the maximum number of queues that can be
configured on any Extreme Networks switch?
a2
b4
c6
d8
8
a
b
c
d

Which of the follow specifications governs the 802.1p field?

DSCP
RSVP
IEEE
IP

Switch Diagnostics
Review Questions
1 Which of the following is not included as a part of the ExtremeXOS diagnostic
tool set?
a Power-on self-test (POST)
b Switch-wide communication-path packet error health checker.
c On-demand system hardware diagnostics
d Oscilloscope
2 Which of the following indicates how often the Power-on self-test (POST) is run?
a The Power-on self-test (POST) runs every time the system is booted.

b The Power-on self-test (POST) is run on demand by the administrator.

c The Power-on self-test (POST) runs whenever a fault is detected by the system.
d All of the above
3 Which of the following commands restores the I/O modules after a shutdown
due to hardware problems?
a reenable slot
b clear sys-recovery-level
c enable sys-recovery-level
d None of the above
4 Which of the following commands invokes the internal diagnostic routines on
the switch?
a execute diagnostics
b start diagnostics
c run diagnostics
d enable diagnostics
5 Which of the following describes what should be done prior to executing the
internal diagnostics routines on the switch.
a increase the power budget to the switch as the switch draws more power while
in diagnostic mode
b obtain special diagnostic software from the Extreme Networks web site
c remove and reseat all hardware modules in the switch
d take the switch offline
6 Which of the commands enable the administrator to begin monitoring CPU
activity?
a run cpu-monitoring
b configure cpu-monitoring enable
c enable cpu-monitoring
d start cpu-monitoring
7 Which of the following commands displays the status of ExtremeXOS
processes?
a top 10
b show process
c taskman
d run process explorer
8 Which of the following commands enables the administrator to end a running
process?
a terminate process <name>
b end process <name>
c kill process <name>
d delete process <name>

9 Which of the following commands enables the administrator to invoke a new

process?
a invoke process <name>
b start process <name>
c run process <name>
d launch process <name>
10 Which of the following commands enables the administrator to monitor
memory usage?
a display memory
b show resource-usage memory
c show memory
d display resource-usage memory
11 Which of the following commands displays memory utilization by the RIP
protocol?
a display rip memory
b show memory rip
c display memory rip
d show rip memory
Network Troubleshooting
Review Questions
1 Which of the following terms identifies Extreme Networks approach to
troubleshooting?
a Layered approach
b Distributed analysis
c Proactive preemption
d None of the above
2 Which of the following can effect physical connectivity?
a cables
b patch panels
c connector ports
d All of the above
3
a
b
c
d

Which of the following LED states indicates that the link is down?
Solid green
Green blinking
Of
Solid Amber

4 Which of the following commands is appropriate for troubleshooting Layer-1

connectivity issues?
a show ospf configuration
b show port configuration
c show vlan configuration

d All of the above

5 Which of the following commands enables you to reset port statistics values?
a clear counters ports
b configure port counters reset
c disable port counters
d zero port counters
6 Which of the following commands enables you to retest the Layer 2 forwarding
database?
a reset fdb
b clear fdb
c zero fdb
d fdb clear
7 Which of the following commands enables you to display the contents of the
Layer 2 forwarding database?
a fdb show
b fdb display
c show fdb
d display fdb
8 Which of the following commands provides a detailed display of the VLAN
configuration?
a display vlan configuration detail
b display vlan detail
c show vlan configuration detail
d show vlan detail
9 Which of the following commands enables you to display the contents of the IP
routing table?
a traceroute
b clear iproute
c show iproute
d show routing table
10 Which of the following commands enables you to display the contents of the
ARP table?
a show arp
b show iparp
c arp
d iparp