Macro Integrated Training and Review Center

PERIODIC EVALUATION EXAMINATION 2

TOPIC: Transmission Lines, Antenna, Microwave, Satcom

COMMUNICATIONS ENGINEERING

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by
shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES
ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only.
1.

2.

At K-factor of 2/3, microwave ray....

a. travels straight
c. bends away from earth surface

b. bends toward earth surface

d. goes down

Which coaxial cable is sexless?

a. Bayonet Navy Connector
c. Sub-Miniature Assembly

b. Amphenol Precision Connector

d.Threaded Navy Connector

3.

The beam voltage at which microwave oscillations in a magnetron (at its pi mode) start.
a. Hartree voltage
b. Hot cutoff voltage
c. Startup voltage
d. threshold voltage

4.

The two principal operation modes in a Gunn diode that results in microwave oscillations
a. TT and LSA
b. LSA and Quenched
c. TT and delayed
d. Quenched and delayed

5.

Tunnel diodes can function as microwave....

a. amplifiers
c. rectifiers

b. oscillators
d. a or b

6.

The microwave signal to be amplified by a multicavity klystron is fed into the klystrons....
a. buncher cavity
b. intermediate cavity
c. cathode
d. catcher cavity

7.

Find the equivalent annual outage for 99.99% available microwave link
a. 525.6 minutes
b. 5.26 min
c. 52.56 minutes
d. 5256 minutes

8.

Which propagation problem is not paid attention to in fixed microwave communications system?
a. fading
b. Doppler shift
c. attenuation
d. Rayleigh

9.

What microwave band is popular for satellite crosslinks?

a. 4 GHz to 8 GHz
b. 12 GHz to 18 GHz
c. 58 to 62 GHz
d. 140 to 160 GHz

10. Radomes can be applied on ....

a. terrestrial microwave antennas
c. shipboard aperture antennas

b. aperture type airborne antennas

d. all of the above

11. Carcinotrons are tube.....

a. oscillators
c. amplifiers

b. resonators
d. mixers

12. Solve for the cutoff wavelength of a 4 cm by 6 cm rectangular waveguide operated at the dominant mode.
a. 10 cm
b. 12 cm
c. 8 cm
d. 14 cm
13. An X band radar operates in which frequency band?
a. 1-2 GHz
b. 4- 8 GHz
c. 8- 12 GHz
d.. 12 -18 GHz
14. A low noise, low power, narrow band microwave amplifier utilizing a varactor to achieve gain
a.
PARAMP
b. LNA
c.
BPF
d. SAW
15. When was the NAVSTAR GPS fully operational?
a. April 17, 1995
b. May 17, 1995
b
April 27, 1995
d. May 27, 1995
16. How many satellites per orbital plane does IRIDIUM project have?
a. 10
b. 11
c. 8
d. 6
17. What is the bandwidth of a segment in a satellite band?
a. 36 MHz
b. 50 MHz
c. 500 MHz
d. 20 GHz

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18. What band is immune to terrestrial jamming but sensitive to atmospheric conditions such as transient noise?
a. Ku-band
b. Ka-band
c. C-band
d. K-band
19. For a rectangular waveguide with a wall separation of 3 cm and a desired frequency of operation of 6 GHz,
determine the group velocity?
a. 5.43 x108 m/s
b. 12.5 x 107 m/s
8
c. 1.66 x 10 m/s
d. 25.3 x 105 m/s
20. What is the common up-converter and down converter IF?
a. 36 MHz
b. 70 MHz
c. 40 MHz
d. 500 MHz
21. Medium Earth Orbit (MEO) satellite operates in the _____frequency band (April, 2005)
a. 2-18 GHz
b. 1.2-1.66 GHz
c. 1-2.5 GHz
d. 6-12 GHz
22. What is the reliability of a system with a fade margin of 48 dB?
a. 99.99 %
b. 99.9 %
c. 99.999%
d. 99.9999%
23. Fade margins of most analog systems are within the range of_____.
a. 30-50 dB
b. 35-50 dB
c. 15 -30 dB
d. 15 -25 dB
24. Calculate the cut-off wavelength of a circular waveguide with an outside diameter of 10 cm and thickness of 1
cm.
a. 13.65 cm
b. 17.35 cm
c. 25.13 cm
d. 12.63 cm
25. Gunn Diode is also called_______.
a. TED
c. DET

b.
d.

EDT
Pistol

26. A Gunn device has an operating frequency of 14 GHz, what will be the thickness of the device?
a. 6.12 um
b. 10.14 um
c. 12.36 um
d. 7.14 um
27. What frequency does oxygen causes excessive attenuation?
a. 90 GHz
b. 70 GHz
c. 80 GHz
d. 60 GHz
28. ________is a waveguide termination
a.
stone
c.
resistor

b.
d.

Carbon wedge
Silver stub

29. What is the best topographic map scale used in path profiling?
a. 1:5000
b. 1: 50000
c. 1: 25000
d. 1: 100000
30. The use of redundant system to reduce the effects of fading
a. redundancy
b. diversity
c. 1+1 system
d. duplication
31. What is the offset for VHF repeaters?
a. 10 MHz
c. 3 MHz

b.
d.

5 MHz
12 MHz

32. An important operational point with the SPADE system is that the carriers are ____.
a. Voice operated
b. suppressed
c. terminated
d. modulated
33. Satellite-to-satellite link is also called
a. Coupled link
c. Cross link

b.
d.

Traffic link
Weakest link

34. According to FCC (1983), what is the minimum orbital spacing for satellites in the Ku-band
a. 1 degree
b. 1.5 degrees
c. 2 degrees
d. 2.5 degrees
35. VSAT stands for_____________.
a. VHF southband antenna tracking
c. Very small aperture terminal

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b.
d.

VHF satellite
Very stylish antenna tin

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36. The earth is considered as____________.
a. Perfectly spherical
b.
c. Oblate spheroidal
d.

Prolate spheroidal
Perfectly conical

37. The point on the earths surface vertically under the satellite is referred to as_________.
a. Spot beam
b. Under-satellite point
c. Sub-satellite point
d. footprint
38. Domsat is______.
a. Domain satellite
c. Domestic Satellite

b.
d.

Dome-shape satellite
Domings Satellite

39. The Philippines Agila2 satellite is located at _________.

a. 143 E
b. 146 E
c. 149 E
d. 152 E
40. Earth surface as seen by a microwave ray, is effectively flattened out at k-factor equals...
a. 0
b. infinity
c. 1
d. 4/3
41. If the radius of the first fresnel zone is 6.2 meters, what is then the radius of the second fresnel zone?
a. 8.77 m
b. 5.1 m
c. 6.2 m
d. 9.34m
42. This geographically illustrates the bunching action in a 2-cavity klystron by plotting distance as a function of
time for the drift space
a. Argand diagram
b. Cartesian diagram
c. Applegate diagram
d. System electron diagram
43. Calculate the 3 dB beanwidth for a 38-dB gain for standard parabolic dish antenna
a. 2 degrees
b. 2.17 degrees
c. 12.5 degrees
d. 4.18 degrees
44. A metal wrapped around the parabolic antenna aperture to eliminate sidelobes interfering nearby stations
a. radome
b. shroud
c. horn
d. foil
45. A coaxial cable having an inner diameter of 0.025 mm and using insulator with the dielectric constant of 2.56 is to have
a Zo of 2000. What must be the outer conductor diameter?
a. 50 m
b. 500 m
c. 386 km
d. 3.86E15 km
46. A flat line is considered to have an SWR equal to
a. 1:1
b.
c. 1:0
d.

1:2
1:

47. What is the reflection coefficient for a transmission line with incident voltage of 4V and reflected voltage 0.75V?
a. 20
b. 2
c. 0.2
d. 5
48. If the 2 towers of a 2 MHz antenna are separated by 120 electrical degrees. What is the tower separation in feet?
a. 150 ft
b. 250 ft
c. 492 ft
d. 170 ft
49. A quarter-wave stub could be used to
a. Increase the SWR
c. Act as aninsulator or short circuit

b.
d.

Decreased the SWR

All of the above

50. An antenna transmission line is cut to1/4 wavelength and shorted at one end. The impedance at the other end is
a. high
b. low
c. Equal to Zo
d. Equal to of Zo
51. A technique that can be used to locate impairment in a metallic cable is______.
a. Peak detection
b. HRC
c. LRC
d. TDR
52. A transformer used to match a balanced transmission line to an unbalanced line
a. Auto transformer
b. Stub transformer
c. Quarter-wave transformer
d. balun
53. Waveguide and coaxial lines are often pressured with
a. hydrogen
b.
c. helium
d.
54. Nitrogen is placed in transmission lines to:
a. Improve the skin-effect of microwaves
b.
c. Reduce the standing wave ratio of the
d.
line

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oxygen
nitrogen
Reduce arcing in the line
Prevent moisture from entering the
line

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55. A form of transmission line used at high UHF and microwave frequencies sandwiched between to ground planes and
separated from each by a dielectric
a. Strip line
b. microstrip
c. Coaxial line
d. Twin lead transmission line
56. Why is coaxial cable no longer used at microwave frequencies?
a. BW
b. Low impedance
c. High attenuation
d. High coast
57. Distance traveled by a wave in the time of one cycle
a. hop
b.
c. wavelength
d.

frequency
crest

58. A shorted transmission line less than quarter wavelength will exhibit____ reactance
a. inductive
b. capacitive
c. Maximum
d. minimum
59. Dielectric designation PTFE(Polytetrafluoroethylene) is another name for
a. teflon
b. rubber
c. silica
d. foam
60. The wave that lies down and dies is called______wave.
a. ground
b. sky
c. space
d. 100
61. Diffraction of electromagnetic waves
a. Is caused by reflection from the ground
b. Arises only with spherical wavefronts
c. Will occur when the waves pass through a large slot.
d. May occur around the edge of a sharp obstacle.
62. Line of sight communication is not a factor in which frequency range?
a. UHF
b. HF
c. SHF
d. Microwaves
63. The intrinsic impedance of free space is
a. 1
c. 120

b.
d.

4
3 x 10

64. In the HF range the received signals are mainly by_____

a. Ground wave
b. Sky wave
c. Space wave
d. Super refraction
65. A law of refraction in wave propagation
a. Huygens principle
c. Faradays law
66. A law of diffraction in wave propagation
a. Huygens principle
c. Snells law

b.
d.
b.
d.

Snells law
Maxwells equation
Maxwells equation
Fresnels law

67. Circular polarization is used to counter________

a. Faradays rotation
c. Antenna radiation

b.
d.

Wave propagation
Density of ionization

68. A zone of silence in wave propagation

a. Skip zone
c. troposcatter

b.
d.

Skip distance
superrefraction

69. The field strength of a free space signal is measured as 2 V/m at a distance of 85,000 km. What is the transmitter
power?
a. 563 W
b. 600 W
c. 963 W
d. 1000 W
70. What is the change in the power density when the distance from the source increases by a factor of 4?
a. 1/2
b. 1/4
c. 1/8
d. 1/16
5
71. A resonant half-wave dipole in free space has a feed line current of 1A. How much power appears at the input to the
feed point?
a. 73 W
b. 146 W
c. 219 W
d. 292 W
72. If a field intensity of 25mV/m develops 2.7V in a certain antenna, what is its effective height?
a. 5 ft
b. 108 m
c. 108ft
d. 5 m

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73. The layer of the ionosphere also known as Kennely-Heaviside layer.
a. D
b. E
c. F1
d. F2
74. The efficiency of an antenna is 82%. Its radiation resistance is 30 . What is the value of its loss resistance?
a. 75
b. 15
c. 12
d. 6.58
75. Antennas commonly used for microwave links are
a. Loop antennas
c. Log-Periodic Antennas

b.
d.

Parabolic Dishes
Rhombic Antennas

76. A loop antenna is commonly used for

a. RADAR
c. Satellite communication

b.
d.

Direction Finding
SONAR

77. An antenna that is circularly polarized

a. Parabolic reflector
c. Yagi-Uda

b.
d.

Log periodic
Helical

78. Which is non-resonant antenna?

a. Broadside Antenna
c. Folded dipole

b.
d.

Rhombic Antenna
End Fire Array
6
79. A directional antenna with two or more elements is known as a(n)
a. Folded dipole
b. Loop
c. Ground plane
d. Array
80. What is the power gain in db for an antenna with directive gain of 40dB and an efficiency of 65%?
a. 38.13dB
b. 31.83dB
c. 26dB
d. 40dB
81. A paraboloid is to have a power gain of 41.55dB. If the frequency of operation is to be 8 GHz, What is the diameter of
the parabolic reflector?
a. 10ft
b. 6ft
c. 2.3ft
d. 18ft
82. A pulse is transmitted in a cable that has a velocity of propagation of 0.3c. The reflected signal is received 3 usec later.
How far down the cable is the impairment?
a. 135 m
b. 270 m
c. 260 m
d. 115 m
83. Usually when a corona occurs, it means.
a. the wire has dissipated full power
b. the transmission line is destroyed
c. a new king is crowned
d. coronation night
84. The microwave signal to be amplified by a multicavity klystron is fed into the klystrons_________.
a. Buncher cavity
b. Catcher cavity
c. Tooth cavity
d. Intermediate cavity
85. Calculate the approximate distance of a geostationary satellite from an earth station whose transmit antenna is inclined
18 degrees.
a. 34600 km
b. 35600 km
c. 33600 km
d. 31600 km

Kaunti na lng, engr nako!!!!

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