1

28
1.




2.




3.




4.




5.


6.

Molecular Basis of
Inheritance

Genetic code consists of

[1988] 7. Khorana first deciphered the triplet codons of
(a) cdenine and guanine

(a) serine and isoleucine
[1992]
(b) cytosine and uracil

(b) cysteine and valine
(c) cytosine and guanine

(c) tyrosine and tryptophan
(d) all the above

(d) phenylalanine and methionine
DNA replication is [1989, 2000] 8. Experimental material in the study of DNA
(a) conservative and discontinuous
replication has been
[1992]
(b) s e m i c o n s e r v a t i v e a n d s e m i (a)
Escherichia coli
discontinuous

(b) Neurospora crassa
(c) semiconservative and discontinuous
(c)
Pneumococcus
(d) conservative
(d)
Drosophila melanogaster
In the genetic dictionary, there are 64 codons
9. Nucleotide arrangement in DNA can be seen
as
[1990]
by
[1993]
(a) 64 amino acids are to be coded

(a)
X-ray
crystallography

(b) 64 types of tRNAs are present
(b)
electron
microscope
(c) there are 44 nonsense codons and 20
(c) ultracentrifuge
sense codons

(d) light microscope
(d) genetic code is triplet.
10. A DNA with unequal nitrogen bases would
A nucleotide is formed of
[1991]
most probably be

[1993]
(a) purine, pyrimidine and phosphate

(a) single stranded (b) double stranded
(b) purine, sugar and phosphate
(c) nitrogen base, sugar and phosphate

(c) triple stranded (d) four stranded
(d) pyrimidine, sugar and phosphate
11. The process of translation is
[1993]
The process of transfer of genetic information
(a) ribosome synthesis
from DNA to RNA/formation of RNA from
(b) protein synthesis
DNA is
[1991]
(c) dNA synthesis
(a) transversion
(b) transcription

(d) rNA synthesis
(c) translation
(d) translocation
12.
During DNA replication, the strands separate
Escherichia coli fully labelled with 15 N
by
[1993]
is allowed to grow in 14N medium. The

(a) DNA polymerase
two strands of DNA molecule of the first
(b) topoisomerase
generation bacteria have
[1992]
(c) unwindase/Helicase
(a) different density and do not resemble
(d) gyrase
parent DNA
(b) different density but resemble parent 13. Because most of the amino acids are
represented by more than one codon, the
DNA
genetic code is
[1993]
(c) same density and resemble parent DNA
(b) wobbling
(d) same density but do not resemble parent (a) overlapping
(c) degenerate
(d) generate
DNA
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2
14. Who proved that DNA is basic genetic
material?
[1993]
(a) Griffith
(b) Watson

(c) Boveri and Sutton

(d) Hershey and Chase
15. The transforming principle of Pneumococus as
found out by Avery, MacLeod and McCarty
was
(a) mRNA
(b) DNA [1993]
(c) protein
(d) polysaccharide
16. Initiation codon of protein synthesis (in
eucaryotes) is
[1993, 94, 99, 2000]
(a) GUA
(b) GCA
(c) CCA
(d) AUG
17. Protein helping in opening of DNA double
helix in form of replication fork is [1994]

(a) DNA gyrase

(b) DNA polymerase I

(c) DNA ligase

(d) DNA topoisomerase
18. Which is not involved in protein synthesis ?
(a) Transcription (b) Initition [1994]
(c) Elongation
(d) Termination
19. DNA template sequence of CTGATAGC is
transcribed over mRNA as [1994, 95, 2004]
(a) GUCTUTCG (b) GACUAUCG
(c) GAUTATUG (d) UACTATCU
20. In Escherichia coli, lac operon is induced by

[1994]

(a) lactose
(b) promoter gene
(c)
-galactosidase (d) I-gene
21. Reverse transcriptase is
[1994]

(a) RNA dependent RNA polymerase

(b) DNA dependent RNA polymerase

(c) DNA dependent DNA polymerase

(d) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
22. The number of base substitution possible in
amino acid codons is
[1994]
(a) 261
(b) 264
(c) 535
(d) 549
23. Out of A-T, G-C pairing, bases of DNA
may exist in alternate valency state owing to
arrangement called
[1994]

(a) analogue substitution

(b) tautomerisational mutation

(c) frame-shift mutation

(d) point mutation
24. The wild type E. coli cells are growing in
normal medium with glucose. They are
transferred to a medium containing only

lactose as sugar. Which of the following

changes takes place?
[1995]

(a) The lac operon is repressed

(b) All operons are induced

(c) The lac operon is induced
(d)
E.coli cells stop dividing
25. In split genes, the coding sequences are
called
(a) introns
(b) operons [1995]
(c) exons
(d) cistrons
26. An environmental agent, which triggers
transcription from an operon, is a
[1995]
(a) regulator
(b) inducer
(c) depressor

(d) controlling element
27. The lac operon is an example of
[1995]

(a) arabinose operon

(b) inducible operon

(c) repressible operon
(d) overlapping genes
28. Anticodon is an unpaired triplet of bases in
an exposed position of
[1995, 2000]
(a) mRNA
(b) rRNA
(c) tRNA
(d) sRNA
29. Okazaki fragments are seen during [1996]
(a) transcription (b) translation
(c) replication
(d) transduction
30. The translation termination triplet is [1996]
(a) UAU
(b) UAA
(c) UAC
(d) UGC.
31. The basis for DNA fingerprinting is [1996]

(a) occurrence of restriction fragment length
polymorphism (RFLP)

(b) p h e n o t y p i c d i f f e r e n c e s b e t we e n
individuals

(c) availability of cloned DNA

(d) knowledge of human karyotype
32. Which step of translation does not consume
a high energy phosphate bond ?
[1997]
(a) Translocation

(b) Amino acid activation

(c) Peptidyl-transferase reaction

(d) Aminoacyl tRNA binding to active
ribosomal site
33. Three codons causing chain termination are

[1997]

(a) TAG, TAA, TGA

(b) GAT, AAT, AGT

(c) AGT, TAG, UGA

(d) UAG, UGA, UAA

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3
34. A mutation at one base of the first codon, of
41. DNA elements which can switch their position
a gene, produces a non-functional protein.
are called
[1998]
Such a mutation is called
[1997]
(a) exons
(b) introns

(a) nonsense mutation
(c) cistrons
(d) transposons

(b) missense mutation
42. Genes that are involved in turning on or off

(c) frameshift mutation
the transcription of a set of structural genes

(d) reverse mutation
are called
[1998]
35. If a completely radioactive double stranded
(a) Operator genes
DNA molecule undergoes two rounds of

(b) Redundant genes
replication in a non-radioactive medium,
(c) Regulator genes
what will be the radioactive status of the four
(d) Polymorphic genes
resulting molecules?
[1997]
43. In DNA, when AGCT occurs, their association

(a) Half the number contain no radioactivity
is as per which of the following pairs? [1999]

(b) All four still contain radioactivity
(a) AG-CT
(b) AC-GT

(c) Three out of four contain radioactivity

(c) AT-GC
(d) All of these

(d) Radioactivity is lost from all four
44. The
Pneumococcus
experiment
proves that
36. Different mutations referrable to the same

(a)
DNA
is
the
genetic
material

[1999]
locus of a chromosome give rise to [1997]

(b) Bacteria undergo binary fission

(a) multiple alleles (b) pseudoalleles

(c) Bacteria do not reproduce sexually
(c) polygenes
(d) oncogenes
(d) RNA sometime controls the production
37. During development of an organism, the
of DNA and proteins
product of one gene is required to activate
45. In operon concept , regulator gene functions
another gene. Such gene products are called
as
[1999]

(a) transcription factors
[1997]

(a) repressor
(b) regulator
(b) episomes
(c) coenzymes

(c) inhibitor
(d) all of these
(d) catalase
46. How many base pairs (bp) are found in the
38. In eukaryotes, after transcription of mRNA,
haploid genome of humans?
[1999]
some of its nucleotides are removed before it
(a) 2.9 109
(b) 4 108
is translated into polypeptide. The nucleotides
(c) 7 109
(d) 3 109
which are removed from mRNA are called
47. Mutation generally produces [2000]
(a) exons
[1997]
(a) polygenes
(b) dominant genes

(b) upstream sequences

(c) recessive genes (d) lethal genes

(c) unusual bases
48. Protein synthesis occurs [2000]
(d) introns

(a) on ribosmes present in cytosol as well as
39. What base is responsible for hot spots for
in mitochondria
spontaneous point mutations?
[1998]

(b) only on ribosomes attached to the nuclear
(a) Adenine
envelope and endoplasmic reticulum
(b) 5-bromouracil

(c)
only on the ribosomes present in
(c) 5-methylcytosine
cytosol
(d) Guanine

(d)
on ribosomes present in the nucleolus as
40. The eukaryotic genome differs from the
well as cytoplasm
prokaryotic genome because
[1998]
49.
One
function
of the telomeres in a chromosome

(a) genes in the former case are organized
is
to
[2000]
into operons
(a) indentify the correct number of the

(b) the DNA is complexed with histones in
homologous pair of chromosomes
prokaryotes
(b) help two chromatids to move towards

(c) repetitive sequences are present in
poles
eukaryotes

(d) the DNA is circular and single stranded
(c) "seal" the ends of chromosomes
in prokaryotes

(d) start RNA synthesis
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4
50. In negative operon
[2001] 59. In a DNA percentage of thymine is 20% then

(a) co-repressor binds with repressor
what will be the percentage of guanine?

(b) co-re pressor does not bind with

[2002]
repressor
(a) 20%
(b) 40%

(c) co-repressor binds with inducer
(c) 30%
(d) 60%

(d) CAMP have negative effect on lac 60. Exon part of m- RNAs have code for [2002]
operon
(a) protein
(b) lipid
51. Frequency of an allele in a isolated population (c) carbohydrate (d) phospholipid
may change due to
[2001] 61. When a cluster of genes show linkage

(a) genetic Drift
(b) gene flow
behaviour they
[2003]

(c) mutation
(d) natural selection

(a) induce cell division
52. In which direction m-RNA is synthesised on
(b) do not show a chromosome map
DNA template ?
[2001]
(c) show recombination during meiosis
(a)
(b)

(d) do not show independent assortment

(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Any
62. What does "lac" refer to in what we call the
53. At time of organogenesis genes regulate the
lac operon?
[2003]
process at different levels and at different time
(a) The number 1,00,000
due to
[2001] (b) Lactose
(a) promoter
(b) regulator
(c) Lactase
(c) intron
(d) exon

(d) Lac insect
54. Gene and cistron words are sometimes used 63. During transcription, the DNA site at which
synonymously because
[2001]
RNA polymerase binds is called [2003]

(a) one cistron contains many genes
(a) enhancer
(b) promoter

(b) one gene contains many cistrons
(c) regulator
(d) receptor

(c) one gene contains one cistron
64. During translation initiation in prokaryotes,

(d) one gene contains no cistron
a GTP molecule is needed in [2003]
55. In E.coli during lactose metabolism repressor

(a) association of 50 S subunit of ribosome
binds to
[2002]
with initiation complex

(a) regulator gene

(b) formation of formyl-met-tRNA

(b) operator gene

(c) binding of 30 S subunit of ribosome with

(c) structural gene
mRNA

(d) promoter gene

(d) association of 30 S-mRNA with formyl56. Out of 64 codons, 61 codons code for 20 types
met-tRNA
of amino acid. It is called [2002]
65.
Which
one of the following triplet codes, is
(a) degeneracy of genetic code
correctly
matched with its specificity for an

(b) overlapping of gene
amino
acid
in protein synthesis or as start

(c) wobbling of codon
or
stopcodon
?
[2003]

(d) universility of codons

(a)
UAC

Tyrosine (b)
UCG

Start
57. Jacob and Monod studied lactose metabolism
(c) UUU Stop (d) UGU Leucine
in E.coli and proposed operon concept.
66.
What would happen if in a gene encoding a
Operon concept is applicable for [2002]
polypeptide of 50 amino acids, 25th codon

(a) all prokaryotes
(UAU) is mutated to UAA? [2003]

(b) all prokaryotes and some eukaryotes

(a) A polypeptide of 25 amino acids will be

(c) all prokaryotes and all eukaryotes
formed

(d) all prokaryotes and some protozoans
(b) A polypeptide of 24 amino acids will be
58. Transformation experiment was first
formed
performed on which bacteria?
[2002]

(c) Two polypeptides of 24 and 25 amino
(a)
E.coli
acids will be formed
(b)
Diplococcus pneumoniae

(d) A polypeptide of 49 amino acids will be
(c)
Salmonella
(d)
Pasteurella pestis
formed
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5
67. In the genetic code dictionary, how many
codons are used to code for all the 20 essential
amino acids ?
[2003]
(a) 60
(b) 20

(c) 64
(d) 61
68. Degeneration of a genetic code is attributed
to the
[2003]

(a) third member of a codon

(b) first member of a codon

(c) second member of a codon

(d) entire codon
69. Genetic map is one that [2003]

(a) shows the distribution of various species
in a region

(b) establishes sites of the genes on a
chromosome

(c) establishes the various stages in gene
evolution

(d) show the stages during the cell division
70. DNA fingerprinting refers to [2004]

(a) molecular analysis of profiles of DNA
samples
(b)
analysis of DNA samples using imprinting

devices

(c) techniques used for molecular analysis
of different specimens of DNA

(d) techniques used for identification of
fingerprints of individuals
71. In a mutational event, when adenine is
replaced by guanine, it is a case of [2004]

(a) frame shift mutation
(b) transcription

(c) transition
(d) transversion
72. Crossing over that results in genetic
recombination in higher organisms occurs
between
[2004]

(a) sister chromatids of a bivalent
(b) non-sister chromatids of a bivalent


(c) two daughter nuclei

(d) two different bivalents
73. The following ratio is generally constant for
a given species:
[2004]

75.

(b) cytosine rich repeats

(c) adenine rich repeats
(d) guanine rich repeats
During replication of a bacterial chromosome
DNA synthesis starts from a replication origin
site and
[2004]

(a) RNA primers are involved

(b) is facilitated by telomerase

(c) moves in one direction of the site

(d) moves in bi-directional way
76. In transgenics, expression of transgene in
target tissue is determined by [2004]
(a) enhancer
(b) transgene
(c) promoter
(d) reporter
77. E.coli cells with a mutated z gene of the lac
operon cannot grow in medium containing
only lactose as the source of energy
because:
[2005]

(a) the lac operon is constitutively active in
these cells

(b) they cannot synthesize functional betagalactosidase

(c) in the presence of glucose, E.coli cells do
not utilize lactose

(d) they cannot transport lactose from the
medium into the cell
78. During transcription holoenzyme RNA
polymerase binds to a DNA sequence and the
DNA assumes a saddle like structure at that
point. What is that sequence called? [2005]

(a) AAAT box
(b) TATA box

(c) GGTT box
(d) CAAT box
79. Which one of the following makes use of
RNA as a template to synthesize DNA?

(a) DNA polymerase
[2005]

(b) RNA polymerase

(c) Reverse transcriptase

(d) DNA dependant RNA polymerase
80. Telomerase is an enzyme which is a

(a) simple protein
(b) RNA
(c) ribonucleoprotein

(a)
(b)

(d) repetitive DNA
81. One gene -one enzyme hypothesis was
postulated by
[2006]
(c)
(d)

(a) Hershey and Chase
74. The telomeres of eukaryotic chromosomes
(b) A. Garrod
consist of short sequences of [2004]
(c) Beadle and Tatum

(a) thymine rich repeats

(d) R. Franklin
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6
82. In which mode of inheritance do you
expect more maternal influence among the
offspring? [2006]
(a) Cytoplasmic
(b) Y-linked
(c) X-linked
(d) Autosomal
83. The okazaki fragments in DNA chain
growth
[2007]

(a) polymerize in the 3 - to - 5 direction and
forms replication fork

(b) prove semi-conservative nature of DNA
replication

(c) polymerize in the 5 - to - 3 direction and
explain 3 - to - 5 DNA replication

(d) result in transcription.
84. The length of DNA molecule greatly exceeds
the dimensions of the nucleus in eukaryotic
cells. How is this DNA accommodated?

[2007]

(a) super-coiling in nucleosomes

(b) DNase digestion

(c) through elimination of repititive DNA

(d) deletion of non-essential genes.
85. A sequential expression of a set of human
genes
[2007]

(a) messenger RNA (b) DNA sequence

(c) ribosome
(d) transfer RNA.
86. During transcription, RNA polymerase
holoenzyme binds to a gene promoter and
assumes a saddle-like structure, what is its
DNA-binding sequence?
[2007]
(a) AATT
(b) CACC
(c) TATA
(d) TTAA
87. One gene-one enzyme relationship was
established for the first time in
[2007]
(a)
Salmonella typhimurium
(b)
Escherichia coli
(c)
Diplocococcus pneumoniae
(d)
Neurospora crassa.
88. Molecular basis of organ differentiation
depends on the modulation in transcription
by
[2007]
(a) ribosome

(b) transcription factor
(c) anticodon

(d) RNA polymerase.
89. In the DNA molecule
[2008]

(a) the total amount of purine nucleotides
and pyrimidine nucleotides is not always
equal

90.




91.

92.




93.




94.




95.

(b) there are two strands which run parallel

in the 5 3 direction
(c) the proportion of Adenine in relation to
thymine varies with the organism
(d) there are two strands which run anti
parallel one in 5 3 direction and other
in 3 5
Which one of the following pairs of codons
is correctly matched with their function or the
signal for the particular amino acid? [2008]
(a) GUU, GCU-Alanine
(b) UAG, UGA-Stop
(c) AUG, ACG-Start/Methionine
(d) UUA, UCA-Leucine
Which one of the following pairs of
nitrogenous bases of nucleic acids, is wrongly
matched with the category mentioned against
it?
[2008]
(a) Thymine, Uracil
- Pyrimidines
(b) Uracil, Cytosine - Pyrimidines
(c) Guanine, Adenine - Purines
(d) Adenine, Thymine - Purines
Haploids are more suitable for mutation
studies than the diploids. This is because

[2008]
(a) haploids are reproductively more stable
than diploids
(b) mutagens penetrate in haploids more
effectively than diploids
(c) haploids are more abundant in nature
than diploids
(d) all mutations, whether dominant or
recessive are expressed in haploids
T.O. Diener discovered a:
[2009]
(a) free infectious DNA
(b) infectious protein
(c) bacteriophage
(d) free infectious RNA
What is not true for genetic code?
[2009]
(a) It is nearly universal
(b) It is degenerate
(c) It is unambiguous
(d) A codon in mRNA is read in a non
contiguous fashion
Removal of introns and joining the exons
in a defined order in a transcription unit is
called:
[2009]
(a) tailing
(b) transformation
(c) capping
(d) splicing

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7
96. Semi-conservative replication of DNA was 103. Removal of RNA polymerase III from
nucleoplasm will affect the synthesis of :
first demonstrated in:
[2009]
[2012]
(a) Escherichia coli

(a) t RNA
(b) hn RNA
(b) Streptococcus pneumoniae

(c) m RNA
(d) r RNA
(c) Salmonella typhimurium
104. Which one of the following is not a part of a
(d) Drosophila melanogaster
transcription unit in DNA ?
[2012]
97. Whose experiments cracked the DNA and

(a)
The
inducer

discovered unequivocally that a genetic code

(b) A terminator
is a triplet
[2009].

(c) A promoter

(a) Hershey and Chase

(d) The structural gene

(b) Morgan and Sturtevant
105. If one strand of DNA has the nitrogenous

(c) Beadle and Tantum
base sequence at ATCTG, what would be the

(d) Nirenberg and Mathaei
complementary RNA strand sequence
98. Select the two correct statements out of the
[2012]
four (ad) given below about lac operon.

(a) TTAGU
(b) UAGAC

(i) Glucose or galactose may bind with the (c) AACTG
(d) ATCGU
repressor and inactivate it
[2010]
106. Removal of introns and joining of exons in a

(ii) In the absence of lactose the repressor
defined order during transcription is called :
binds with the operator region
[2012]

(iii) The z-gene codes for permease

(a) Looping
(b) Inducing

(iv) This was elucidated by Francois Jacob
(c) Slicing
(d) Splicing
and Jacque Monod
107. Read the following four statements (A-D).

The correct statements are:

(A) In transcription, adenosine pairs with

(a) (ii) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
uracil.

(B) Regulation of lac operon by repressor is

(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (ii)
referred to as positive regulation.
99. The one aspect which is not a salient feature

(C)
The human genome has approximately
of genetic code, is its being:
[2010]
50,000 genes.

(a) degenerate
(b) ambiguous

(D) Haemophilia
is a sex-linked recessive

(c) universal
(d) specific
disease.
100. Satellite DNA is useful tool in:
[2010]

How many of the above statements are

(a) organ transplantation
correct?
[2012M]

(b) sex determination
(a) Two
(b) Three

(c) forensic science
(c) Four
(d) One

(d) genetic engineering
108. Which of the following forms the basis of
101. Which one of the following does not follow
DNA Finger printing?
[2012M]
the central dogma of molecular biology?

(a) The relative proportions of purines and

[2010]
pyrimidines in DNA.

(a) Pea
(b) Mucor

(b) Satellite DNA occurring as highly
(c) Chlamydomonas (d) HIV
repeated short DNA segments.
(c) The relative difference in the DNA
102. Which one of the following also acts as a
occurrence in blood, skin and saliva.
catalyst in a bacterial cell ?
[2011]

(d) The relative amount of DNA in the ridges

(a) 5 sr RNA
(b) sn RNA
and grooves of the fingerprints.

(c) hn RNA
(d) 23 sr RNA
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8
109. The diagram shows an important concept in
the genetic implication of DNA. Fill in the
blanks A to C.
[NEET 2013]

113. One of the most frequently used techniques

in DNA fingerprinting is [NEET Kar. 2013]
(a) AFLP
(b) VNTR
(c) SSCP
(d) SCAR

114.

(a) A-translation B - transciption C-Erwin

Chargaff

(b) A-transcription B - translation C-Francis
Crick

(c) A-translation B - extension C-Rosalind
Franklin

(d) A-transcription B - replication C-James
Watson
110. Which enzymes will be produced in a cell in
which there is a nonsense mutation in the lac
Y gene? [NEET 2013]

(a) Lactose permease
(b) Transacetylase

(c) Lactose permease and transcetylase
(d)
- galactosidase
111. Uridine, present only in RNA is a
[NEET Kar. 2013]
(a) Pyrimidine
(b) Nucleoside
(c) Nucleotide
(d) Purine
112. Which of the following is not a property of
the genetic code? [NEET Kar. 2013]
(a) Universal
(b) Non-overlapping
(c) Ambiguous
d) Degeneracy

The figure gives an important concept in the

genetic implication of DNA. Fill the blanks
A, B and C. [NEET Kar. 2013]

(a) A Francis Crick; B translation;
C transcription

(b) A Maurice Wilkins; B transcription;
C translation

(c) A James Watson; B replication;
C extension

(d) A Erwin Chargaff; B translation;
C replication
115. In an inducible operon, the genes are
[NEET Kar. 2013]

(a) Always expressed

(b) Usually not expressed unless a signal
turns them on

(c) Usually expressed unless a signal turns
them off

(d) Never expressed

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Solutions

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.
8.

9.

(d) Genetic code is the relationship of

double helix model of DNA.
amino acid sequence in a polypeptide 10. (a) A single strand of DNA would not
chain and base sequence of mRNA. It
possess complementary base pairs.
includes adenine, guanine, cytosine and
Hence nitrogenous bases are unequal in
thymine.
number.
(b) In semi conservative replication of
11. (b) Protein synthesis occurs over ribosomes
DNA in each replica one half is the old
which are also referred to as protein
strand and the other half is a new strand
factories.
synthesized over it.
12. (c) Unwindase or helicase takes part in
(d) Genetic code is triplet coding for one
separation of two DNA strands. In
amino acid in a polypeptide chain. There
prokaryotes, helicase or unwindase is
are four different types of nucleotides assisted by gyrase in this function.
A,T,G, and C. Since a code is a triplet 13. (c) All amino acids are specified by more
thus 64 (444) distinct triplet of bases
than one codon (except Tryptophan
determine the 20 amino acids. But out of
and Methionine). Hence they are
64 only 61 code for 20 amino acids. Three
degenerate.
codons that do not code for any amino 14. (d) Hershey and Chase (1952) worked on
acids are terminator non sense codons
Escherichia coli and conclusively proved
(UAG, UGA and UAA). Still in 61 triplet
that DNA is the genetic material.
codons there is an excess 41 codons and 15. (b) The transforming chemical discovered
therefore more than one codon codes for
by Griffith in his experiments with
same amino acid.
Pneumococcus, was confirmed as DNA
(c) Nucleotide is a unit of DNA , which
by Avery, McLeod and McCarty.
is formed of nitrogenous bases (urines 16. (d) The initiation codon is the codon which
& Pyrimidines), sugar (Pentose) &
initiates the protein synthesis. They are
phosphate.
AUG for methionine and GUG for
(b) Central dogma of protein synthesis
valine.
explains a unidirectional or one way 17. (a) DNA gyrase participates in the unwinding
flow of information from DNA to
of DNA helix during replication.
RNA (transcription) and from RNA to 18. (d) Protein synthesis stops when a nonsense
polypeptide (translation).
codon (UAA, UGA or UAG) reaches the
(a) After one generation in 14N medium DNA
amino acyl or A site.
of bacteria settled at a level intermediate 19. (b) During transcription, from the DNA
between heavy and light bands due to
template complementary mRNA is
semi conservative DNA replication.
formed and thymine is replaced by
(b) Hargonind Khurana first deciphered the
uracil.
triplet codon of cysteine and valine.
20. (a) Lac operon is an inducible operon system
(a) Messelson and Stahl (1958) raised
which regulates genetic material. The
Escherichia coli on ammonium chloride
genetic material remains switched off
having heavy isotope of nitrogen for
normally but becomes operational in the
several generations to study semipresence of inducer lactose.
conservative replication of DNA.
21. (d) The phenomenon of making DNA
(a) In 1953 Wilkins obtained very fine X-ray
over RNA genome through enzyme
crystallographic pictures of DNA from
reverse transcriptase is called reverse
which Watson and Crick developed the
transcription or teminism.
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10
22. (d) Codons are 6 in number. Each codon 30. (b) Termination codons ( triplet) are the stop
possess 3 bases, each of which can
signals which when encountered cause
undergo transition and transversion.
termination of polypeptide synthesis.
(1 32 = 549)
The termination codons are UAA, UAG
23. (b) The tautomer forms of nitrogen bases
and UGA.
are immuno-tautomer instead of amino 31. (a) DNA fingerprinting is a technique to
group (e.g. cytosine, adenine) or enol
identify a person on the basis of his DNA
instead of the keto group (e.g. thymine,
which is specific for every individual. This
guanine).
technique for first time was developed
Tautomers are organic compounds
by Alec Jeffreys and his colleagues at
that are interconvertible by a chemical
Leicester University in U.K. DNA of
reaction called tautomerization.
an individual carries specific sequences
The concept of tautomers that are
of nucleotides which are repeated many
interconvertible by tautomerizations is
called tautomerism. Tautomerism is
times throughout the length of DNA.
a special case of structural isomerism
This reveals polymorphism in DNA.
and can play an important role in nonThese are inherited. Each individual
canonical base pairing in DNA and
inherits these repeats from his/her
especially RNA molecules.
parents which are used as gentic markers
24. (c) If Escherichia coli bacteria grow in
in personal identity test.
normal glucose medium and when
32. (d) During the activation of amino acids,
transferred to a medium containing
in the presence of Mg2+ and ATP an
lactose, then the lac operon is induced.
amino acid gets attached to a specific
25. (c) The region of a gene, which becomes part
enzyme aminoacyl t-RNA synthetase.
of m-RNA and code for different regions
Pyrophosphate is released which breaks
of the proteins are called exons.
26. (b) The inducer is an environmental agent,
up to release energy. During translocation,
which triggers transcription from an
in the presence of the enzyme translocase
operon. The inducer or effector molecule
and energy from GTP the ribosome
are small sized which can bind to a regular
moves in such a way that the peptidyl
protein.
bearing t-RNA of A - site comes to lie on
27. (b) The lac operon consists of a promotor
the P-site, exposing a new codon at A gene, an operator gene and structural
site. In the peptidyl transferase reaction
genes. There are three structural genes
energy is provided by GTP.
designated as z, y and a, which code
33.
(d)
Termination codons are the stop
for the enzymes -galactosidase, lac
signals which when encountered cause
permease and transacetylase respectively.
termination of polypeptide synthesis.
It is an example of inducible operon.
28. (c) tRNA works as an adoptor molecules
They are UAA (ochre), UAG (amber)
for carrying amino acid to the mRNA
and UGA (opal). Codons are determined
templated during protein synthesis.
by the sequence of bases on the DNA.
It bears anticodon and recognizes the
Thymine is not present on RNA.
specific codon on mRNA.
34. (b) A mutation bringing about early
29. (c) Replication of DNA is discontinuous
stoppage of polypeptide formation is
over the lagging strand over which only
called nonsense mutation. Frame shift
small stretches of DNA are built due
mutation is a type of gene mutation where
to opposite running of DNA template.
the reading of codons is changed due to
The small stretches of DNA are called
insertion or deletion of nucleotides.
okazaki fragments.
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11
35. (a) DNA replication is semiconservative. i.e.
at each replication one of the parental
strands is retained and a new daughter
strand is obtained. Thus only half of the
parental DNA molecule is carried to the
next generation.
42. (a)
43. (c)

44. (a)

36. (a) Multiple alleles are multiple alternatives
or alleles of the same gene which occur in
the population of same species . Polygene
is a gene, single dominant allele of which
express only a unit of trait . Polygenes
are the genes controlling quantitative
inheritances. Oncogenes are the cancer
causing genes.
37. (a) In eukaryotes separate protein factors
take part in recognition and initiation
during transcription. They are called
transcription factors. Coenzymes are
non protein organic cofactors which get
loosely attached to apoenzymes during
the functioning of holoenzymes.
38. (d) Eukaryote RNAs contain non coding
intervening segments called introns. The
process of removal of introns through
cutting and joining the essential coding
sequences ( exons) is called splicing.
39. (c) The term "hot spots" was used by Benzer
for the sites which are more mutable than
other sites. Studies in 1978 revealed that
5-methylcytosine residues occur at the
position of each hot spot.
40. (c) DNA is complexed with histones in
eukaryotes.
41. (d) Transposons are sequences of DNA
that can move around to different
positions within the genome of a single
cell, a process called transposition. In
the process, they can cause mutations
and change the amount of DNA in the
genome. Transposons are also called
jumping genes or mobile genetic

45. (a)
46. (a)
47. (d)

48. (a)

49. (c)

50. (a)

51. (a)

elements. Discovered by Barbara

McClintockearly in her career, the topic
went on to be a Nobel winning work
in 1983. There are a variety of mobile
genetic elements, and they can be
grouped based on their mechanism of
transposition.
Operator gene allows the functioning of
the operon.
In DNA adenine always pairs with
thymine and guanine always pairs with
cytosine, this is called complementary
base pairing.
Griffiths experiment with Pneumococcus
proves that DNA is the genetic
material.
Regulator gene produces a biochemical
for suppressing the activity of the
operator gene.
The number of base pairs (bp) found in
the haploid genome of humans is 2.9
109.
Polygene is a gene, single dominant
allele of which expresses only a unit of
the trait, lethal genes on expression stop
producing vital products essential for
survival of an individual.
Ribosomes are the sites of protein
synthesis. Mitochondria being a semi
autonomous organelle has its own
protein synthesizing machinery.
Seal the ends of chromosomes. The
telomere is a "ribonucleoprotein
complex" composed of a protein
component and an RNA primer sequence
which acts to protect the terminal
ends of chromosomes. This prevents
chromosomal disintegration and prevents
the ends of the chromosome from being
processed as a double strand DNA break,
which could lead to chromosome-tochromosome telomere fusions.
In negative (repressible) operon, the
repressor co-repressor complex binds
with the operator. The free repressor
cannot bind to the operator.
Mutations are sudden inheritable
variations which develop in the genetic
system. Natural selection operates
through differential reproduction.

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12
52. (a) The enzyme polymerase can synthesize
the bases only in 53direction.
53. (b) Intron are non coding intervening
sequences on DNA but exons are the
coding sequences.
54. (c) Cistron is that segment of DNA which
specifies synthesis of a polypeptide.
55. (b) Regulator gene forms a biochemical
for suppressing the activity of operator
gene. Promoter gene is the gene which
provides point of attachment to RNA
polymerase required for transcription
of structural genes. Structural genes
are genes which transcribe m RNA for
polypeptide synthesis.
56. (a) Out of 64 codons, only 3 signify
stop codons. There are more than one
codon for most of the amino acids, the
genetic code is non-over lapping. Three
successive nucleotides or bases code for
only one amino acid wobbling refers to
the third base degeneracy.
57. (b) Gene regulation of eukaryotes is complex
as compared to that of prokaryotes.
58. (b) Transformation is change in genetic
material of an organism by obtaining
genes from outside.
59. (c) According to Chargaff's rule, the ratio of
purine bases to pyrimidine bases is equal.
A = T, C = G.

If T is 20% then A is 20% and C and G
are 30%, 30%.
60. (a) Exons are the coding part of mRNA.
61. (d) Linkage is the staying together of genes
and their enblock inheritance from
generation to generation. Linked genes
do not show independent assortment
since they are present on the same
chromosome.
62. (b) Lactose operon in E.coli is a catabolic
pathway in which the structural genes
remain switched off unless the inducer
(Lactose) is present in the medium.
63. (b) Regulator is a gene which forms a
biochemical for suppressing the activity
of operator gene. Promoter is the gene
which provides the point of attachment
to RNA polymerase required for
transcription of structural genes.

64. (d) For the formation of initiation complex

during translation of mRNA, GTP is also
required. The initiator AUG codes for the
formylmethionine in prokaryotes.
65. (a) AUG is initiating codon. UCG codes for
serine, UUU codes for phenylalan, UGU
codes for cysteine.
66. (b) UAA is the stop codon. Therefore at 25th
amino acid the synthesis of polypeptide
stops. So, a polypeptide of 24 Amino acid
is formed.
67. (d) Out of a total of 64 codons, 3 codons
do not make any sense. Hence only 61
codons are used in the formation of the
20 essential amino acids (polypeptides).
68. (a) According to the Wobble hypothesis,
tRNA anticodon has the ability to wobble
at its 5end by pairing with even noncomplementary base of mRNA codon.
It correspond to third base degeneracy
of the codons.
69. (b) Genetic mapping help in studying the
architecture of the chromosomes and of
entire genome.
70. (a) DNA fingerprinting is the technique
of determining nucleotide sequences
of certain areas of DNA which are
unique to each individual. DNA
contains noncistronic hypervariable
repeat sequences called VNTR. DNA
fingerprinting involves the identification
of these VNTRs.
71. (c) In transition substitution a purine is
replaced by another purine base (A
with G or vice versa). In transversion
substitution a purine is replaced by a
pyrimidine base or vice versa. Frameshift
mutation is a type of mutation where
the reading of codons is changed due
to insertion or deletion of nucleotides.
Transition is the formation of RNA over
the template of DNA.
72. (b) Crossing over occurs between nonsister
chromatids of two homologous chromosomes. Homologous chromosomes form
bivalent. Crossing over occurs between
chromosomes in a nucleus.

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13
73. (c) According to Chargaff purines and
pyrimidines are in equal amounts. Purine
(adenine) is equimolar with pyrimidine
(thymine) and purine (guanine) is
equimolar with pyrimidine (cytosine).

74. (c)

75. (d)

76. (b)
77. (b)

78. (b)

79. (c)

80. (c)

("three prime") end of DNA strands in

the telomere regions, which are found
at the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes.
The telomeres contain condensed
DNA material, giving stability to the
chromosomes. The enzyme is a reverse
transcriptase that carries its own RNA
molecule, which is used as a template
when it elongates telomeres, which are
shortened after each replication cycle.
Telomerase was discovered by Carol W.
Greider in 1984.
Beadle & Tatum postulated the theory
of One-gene-one-enzyme in which
they stated that in any living cell
there are number of genes present on
chromosomes in a linear fashion. One
single gene controls the synthesis of one
particular enzyme (or protein) in the cell
which is responsible for its phenotypic
character.
The genes of cytoplasmic characters
occur outside the chromosome, in
cytoplasm, they inherit their traits like
chromosomal genes do. In a zygote
formation the cytoplasm comes from the
mothers ova and hence the cytoplasmic
characters must come from maternal side
and this is the reason that cytoplasmic
inheritance is also known as maternal
inheritance.
Okazaki fragments in DNA are linked up
by the enzyme DNA ligase. Replication
always ocur in 5' - 3' direction. Okazaki
fragments synthesized on 3' - 5' DNA
template, join to form lagging strand
which grows in 3' - 5' direction.
The nucleosome model explains the
packaging of histone proteins and DNA
in the chromatin material which forms
the chromosome.
A sequential expression of a set of human
genes is the DNA sequence. Because
gene is the functional part of DNA
sequence.
The DNA binding sequence for RNA
polymerase is called TATA box.

Base ratio A + T is specific for

C+G
species.
Telomeres are non sticky terminal ends of
the chromosomes. It has heterochromatin
and repetitive DNA.
Replication begins at the Ori - origin of
replication and proceeds on both sides
from the Ori. Unidirectional replication 81. (c)
is rare. RNA primers are involved in both
prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
Transgenic organisms are genetically
modified organisms.
Operons are segments of genetic material
which function as regulated unit or units
that can be switched on and switched
off. An operon consists of one to several
82. (a)
structural genes. (Three in lac operon)
These are genes which produce mRNAs
for forming polypeptides / proteins
/ enzymes. Z (produces enzyme
galactosidase for splitting lactose into
glucose and galactose). Y (produces
enzyme galactoside permease required
in entry of lactose) A (produces enzyme
thiogalactoside trans- acetylase).
The three structural genes of the operon
produce a single polycistronic mRNA.
83. (c)
About 28 base pairs from transcription
start site are TATA boxes. After 40
bases from TATA boxes appears LAAT
boxes. Both of these sequence serve as
recognition site in Eukaryotic promoters
(Transcription in eukaryotic genes in a 84. (a)
far more complicated process than in
prokaryotes)
Reverse transcriptase (RNA dependent
DNA polymerase) is present in some 85. (b)
retroviruses eg. HIV virus.
Telomerase is a ribonucleoprotein which
synthesize the rich strand of telomers
in DNA. Telomerase is an enzyme that
86. (c)
adds specific DNA sequence repeats
("TTAGGG" in all vertebrates) to the 3'
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14
87. (d) It was given by Geneticists George W.
Beadle and E. L. Tatum which states
that each gene in an organism controls
the production of a specific enzyme.
It is these enzymes that catalyze the
reactions that lead to the phenotype of
the organism.
88. (d) The process of formation of protein
sequence from DNA strand is called
transcription which requires RNA
polymerase chain. RNA polymerase
chains are of 3-types in eukaryotes

(i) RNA polymerase-I

(ii) RNA polymerase II

(iii) RNA polymerase-III
89. (d) In the DNA molecule, there are two
strands which run anti parallel one is 5'
- 3' direction and other in 3' -5' direction,
the two chains are held together by
hydrogen bonds between their bases.
Adenine (A), a purine of one chain
his exactly opposite thymine (T), a
pyramidine of the other chain. Similarly,
cytosine (C), a pyrimidine lies opposite
guanine (G), a purine. This allows a sort
of lock & key arrangment between large
sized purine & small sized pyrimidine.
It is strengthened by the appearance of
hydrogen bonds between the two.
90. (b) GCU indicates alanine but GUU
indicates valine.

Stop codons are UAG, UGA and UAA

AUG is the most common start codon

which does for methionine.

UUA indicates leucine but UCA indicates
serine.
91. (d) Purine is an organic nitrogenous base
sparingly soluble in water, that gives
rise to a group of biologically important
derivatives, notably adenine and guanine,
which occur in nucleotides and nucleic
acids (DNA and RNA).
92. (d) Haploids describes a nucleus cell or
organism with a single set of unpaired
chromosomes. The haploid number is
designated as X. Reproductive cells,
formed as a result of meiosis are diploid.
Fusion of two such cells restores the
normal diploid number. Therefore,

haploids are more suitable for mutation

studies than the diploids. This is because
all mutations, whether dominant or
recessive are expressed in haploids.
93. (d) Theodor O. Diener discovered the Potato
Spindle Tuber Viroid (PSTVd), the first
viroid ever identified, in 1971. PSTVd is
a small, circular RNA molecule. Dr.
Diener discovered that the pathogen
causing potato spindle tuber disease is
not a virus, as previously believed, but a
much smaller, free RNA molecule.
94. (d) The genetic code consists of 64 triplets
of nucleotides. These triplets are called
codons. With three exceptions, each
codon encodes for one of the 20 amino
acids used in the synthesis of proteins.
That produces some redundancy in the
code. Most of the amino acids being
encoded by more than one codon. The
genetic code can be expressed as either
RNA codons or DNA codons.
95. (d) Splicing is the removal of introns and
joining the exons in a defined order in a
transcription unit. In molecular biology,
splicing is a modification of RNA after
transcription, in which introns are
removed and exons are joined.
96. (a) Semiconservative replication of DNA
was first demonstrated in Escherichia
coli. E. coli is a common type of bacteria
that can get into food, like beef and
vegetables. The strange thing about
these bacteria is that they are not always
harmful to you. E. coli normally lives
inside your intestines, where it helps your
body breakdown and digest the food you
eat.
97. (d) Nirenberg and Mathaei (1961) experi
men-tally proved that a single amino
acid is determined by a sequence of three
nitrogen bases. The sequence of three
nitrogen bases determining a single amino
acid is called a triplet code. Nirenberg
and Mathaei experiments cracked the
DNA and discovered unequivocally that
a genetic code is a triplet.
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15
98. (c) Jacob and Monod proposed the lac operon of E. coli. The lac operon contains a
promoter, an operator, and three structural genes called z, y, and a, coding for
the enzyme, galactosidase, permease
and transacetylase respectively. The lac
regulator gene, designated as i gene,
codes for repressor. In the absence of
the inducer, the repressor binds to the lac
operator, preventing RNA polymerase
from binding to the promoter and thus
transcribing the structural gene.
99. (b) Genetic code is non ambiguous. There
is no ambiguity for a particular codon.
A particular codon will always code for
the same amino acid, where ever it is
found.
100. (c) Satellite DNA is useful in forensic science. The polymorphism of minisatellite,
microsatellite and minivariant repeats is
analysed for DNA finger printing, DNA
profiling. It helps in the resolution of
crimes, legal disputes etc.
101. (d) HIV viruses does not follow central
dogma. Central dogma is a one way flow
of information from DNA to mRNA and
then to protein.

102. (d)
103. (a)

104. (a)
105. (b)

106. (d)

107. (a)

is referred as negative regulation. In

negative regulation, a repressor molecule
binds to the operator of an operon and
terminates transcription. In positive
regulation, an activator interacts with the
RNA polymerase in the promoter region
to initiate transcription.

Human genome contains some 20,00025,000 genes billion bases.
108. (b) DNA fingerprinting is a test to identify
and evaluate the genetic informationcalled DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid)-in
a persons cells. DNA fingerprinting
is a form of identification based on
sequencing specific non-coding portions
of DNA that are known to have a high
degree of variability from person to
person. These sections are known as
Tandem repeats. The test is used to
determine whether a family relationship
exists between two people, to identify
organisms causing a disease, and to solve
crimes.

109. (b)

In this question A is transcription, B translation C - Francis Crick (central
dogma) It is unidirectional flow of
information DNA to mRNA (transcription) and then decoding the information
present in mRNA in the formation of
23sr RNA acts as a catalyst in a bacterial
polypeptide chain or protein (translacell.
tion).
Removal of RNA polymerase III from 110. (d) A nonsense mutation is the one which
nucleoplasm will affect the synthesis of
stops polypeptide synthesis due to
tRNA while RNA polymerase I forms
formation of a terminating or non sense
r-RNA and RNA polymerase II form
codon. e.g. ATT(UAA), ATC (UAG),
m-RNA is Eukaryotes.
ACT(UGA) . The lactose or lac operon of
Transcription unit consists of promoter,
Esherichia coli contains structural genes
structural gene & terminator.
(Z, Y, A) . If Y codes for termination
Sequence of DNA is ATCTG then
of polypeptide chain then only the
sequence of m-RNA will UAGAC.
As adenine base pairs with uracil and
product of Z gence teranscribe to form
guanine with cytosine.
galactosidase.
Remonal of introns by spliceosome 111. (b) The combination of pentose sugar
in hnRNA and joining of exons by
with nitrogenous bases (purines or
DNA liagse in a defined order during
pyrimidines) is called nucleoside.
transcription is called splicing.
Examples are adenosine, guanosine,
Statement A & D is correct
cytidine, thymidine and uridine.
Regulation of lac operon by repressor
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16
112. (c) Genetic code is the relationship of amino
acid sequence in a polypeptide and
nucleotide/base sequence in mRNA/
antisense strand of DNA.

It is universal, i.e., a codon specifies the
same amino acid in all organisms, nonoverlapping, i.e., adjacent codons are
independent with no base being member
of two codons, degeneracy, i.e., some
amino acids are coded by more than
one codon, hence the code is degenerate,
unambiguous, i.e., one codon codes for
only one amino acid.
113. (b) The technique of DNA fingerprinting
was developed by Dr. Alec Jeffrey in
1984. It is a technique generally using
repeated sequences (repetitive DNA)
in the human genome that produces a

pattern of band that is unique for every

individuals. These short nucleotide
repeats vary in number from person to
person and are called variable number of
tandem repeat (VNTR). VNTR belongs
to class of satellite DNA referred to as
minisatellite.
114. (a) In this question A is Franis Crick, B
is translation and C is transcription. It
is unidirectional flow of information
DNA to mRNA (transcription) and then
decoding the information present in
mRNA in the formation of polypeptide
chain or protein (translation).
115. (b) Inducible operons are usually switched
off. This is a type of operon which is
switched on when a chemical called
inducer is present. The inducer is almost
always a substrate.

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