Fluid Mechanics TYS Exp 251

2016
WORKBOOK
Detailed Explanations of
Try Yourself Questions

Mechanical Engineering
Fluid Mechanics and Machines
Fluid Properties
T1 : Solution
The thickness of the glycerin layer is same on either side of the plate
t = thickness of glycerin layer
=
(15 3 )
2
= 6.0 mm
V
t
Fs = Total shear force (considering both sides of the plate)
Shear stress on one side of the plate = =
2AV
t
A = Area of plate = 0.8 0.8 = 0.64 m2
W s = 110 N
= 0.64 0.003 = 0.00192 m3
= 2A =
Here,
Weight of steel plate,
Volume of the plate
Shear force,
Up thrust on submerged plate
Fs =
=
Wu =
Effective weight of the plate
=
Total force required to pull the plate =
2 0.64 1.5 0.15

= 48
0.006
g (volume of the plate)

(1260 9.81) 0.00192 = 23.73 N
We = Ws Wu =110 23.73 = 86.27 N
F = Fs + We = 48 + 86.27 = 134.27 N
T2 : Solution
At any radius
r r0
u =r
Shear stress on the inclined wall

=
r
V
du
= =
h
h
dy
Considering an elemental area (2r ds) = 2r
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dr
sin
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d(Torque) = dT = r d(Force)
= r 2r
= r
=
Torque,
dr
sin
r
dr
2r
h
sin
2 1 3
r dr
h sin
2
r0
r0 3
T=
0 dT = h sin 0 r
T=
4
r0
2h sin
dr
T3 : Solution
= 981 kg/m3
= 0.2452 N/m2
Mass density,
Shear stress,
Velocity gradient,
du
= 0.2 s
dy
Using the quation
du
dy
0.2452 = 0.2
0.2452
= 1.226 Ns/m2
0.200
1.226
=
= 0.125 102 m2 / sec
981
Kinematic viscosity is given by
= 0.125 102 104 cm2/s = 0.125 102 cm2/s

( 1 cm2/s = 1 stoke)
= 12.5 cm2/s = 12.5 stoke
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Fluid Statics
T1 : Solution
The projected area of gate will experience a horizontal force from two opposite directions as shown in
figure.
fH1 = w A1h1 = 9.81 3 2

Acts at
2
= 58.86 kN
2
H1
(= 0.666 m) from bottom
3
fH2 = w A2h2 = 9.81 3 1
H1
1
= 14.715 kN
2
fH
H2
fH
H
Acts at 2 (= 0.333 m) from bottom
3
Resultant force,
fH = fH1 fH2 = 58.86 14.715 = 44.145 kN

fr
fr1 = w Volume submerged
fr
2 1
= 9.81 3 2 = 46.23 kN
4
2
fr2 = w Volume submerged

1 2
2 = 23.11 kN
4 4
Minimum weight so that gate does not float away
= fr1 + fr2 = 69.34 kN
= 9.81 3
5m
F = rgAh = 1000 9.81 A h

A = (3 2) = 8.2360 m2
F = 1000 9.81 8.2360 1
F = 80.79 kN
2m
T2 : Solution
O
3m
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Fluid Kinematics
T1 : Solution
Given:
ur = r sin , u = 2r cos
For physically possible flow, the continuity equation,
(rur ) + (u ) = 0 should be satisfied.

r
Now,
ur = r sin
Multiplying the above equation by r, we get
rur = r2 sin
Differentiating above equation w.r.t. r, we get
2
r sin
(rur ) =
r
r
= 2r sin
Now,
u = 2r cos
Differentiating the above equation w.r.t. , we get
( sin is constant w.r.t. r)
(u ) =
(2r cos )
= 2r ( sin )
= 2r sin
( 2r is constant w.r.t. )
(rur ) + (u ) = 2r sin 2r sin = 0

r
Hence the continuity equation is satisfied and the given velocity components represent a physically possible
flow.
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Mechanical Engineering Fluid Mechanics and Machines
T2 : Solution
For the given fluid flow field
u = x 2y
v = y2z
u
= 2 xy
x
v
= 2yz
y
w
= 2 xy 2yz
z
For a case of possible steady incompressible fluid flow, the continuity equation should be satisfied.
w = 2xyz yz2
i.e.,
u v w
+
+
= 0
x y z
Substituting the values of
u v
w
,
and
, we get
x y
z
u v w
+
+
= 2xy + 2yz 2xy 2yz = 0
x y z
Hence the velocity field
Velocity at (2, 1, 3)
and Resultant velocity,
V = x2 yi + y2zj (2xyz + yz2) k is a possible case of fluid flow.

V = 22 1)i + (12 3)j (2 2 1 3 + 1 32)k
= 4i + 3j 21k
|V| =
42 + 32 + ( 21) = 21.59 units

2
Acceleration at (2, 1, 3)
The acceleration components ax, ay and az for steady flow rate
ax = u u + v u + w u
x
y
z
ay = u
v
v
v
+v
+w
x
y
z
az = u
w
w
w
+v
+w
x
y
z
u = x2 y ,
u
u
u
=0
= 2 xy ,
= x2 and
z
x
y
2
v = y z,
v
v
v
= 2yz ,
= y2
=0,
y
z
x
w = 2 xyz yz 2 ,
w
w
w
= 2 xz z 2 ,
= 2yz ,
= 2 xy 2yz
y
x
z
Substituting these values in acceleration components, we get acceleration at (2, 1, 3)
ax = x2y (2xy) + y2z (x)2 (2xyz + yz2) 0

= 2x3y2 + x2y2z
= 2 (2)3 12 + 22 12 3 = 2 8 + 12
= 16 + 12 = 28 units
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ay = x2y (0) + y2z (2yz) (2xyz + yz2) (y2)

= 2y3z2 2xy3z y3z2
= 2 13 32 2 2 13 3 13 32 = 18 12 9 = 3 units
az = x2y (2yz) + y2z (2xz z2) (2xyz + yz2) (2xy 2yz)

= 2x2y2z 2xy2z2 y2z3 + [4x2y2z + 2xy2z2 + 4xy2z2 + 2y2z3]
= 2 22 12 3 2 2 12 32 12 33
+[4 22 12 3 + 2 2 12 32 + 4 2 12 32 + 2 12 33]
= 24 36 27 + [48 + 36 + 72 + 54]
= 24 36 27 + 48 + 36 + 72 + 54 = 123
or
Acceleration = axi + ay j + azk = 28i 3j + 123k

Resultant acceleration =
=
2
282 + ( 3 ) + 1232 =
784 + 9 + 15129
15922 = 126.18 units
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Fluid Dynamics
T1 : Solution
2
1
Increase in hydraulic grade line rises by 10 mm or 0.01 m
p2 p1
0.2 m
= 0.01
Applying continuity equation between section (1) and (2), we get

A1V1 = A2V2
0.4 m
2
3
0.22 V1 =
0.42 V2
4
4
V1 = 4V2
Head loss in pipe due to sudden expansion
he =
(V1 V2 )2
2
4V2 V2 )
(
=
2g
2g
Applying Bernoullis equation between section (1) and (2)
9V22
2g
2
p1 V12
+
+ z1 = p2 + V2 + z + h
2
e
2g
2g
p2 p1
V12 V22
he =
2g
( z1 = z2)
16V22 V22 9V22
= 0.01
2g
2g
6V22
= 0.01
2g
0.01 9.81
= 0.18 m/s
3
2
2
3
Q = A2V2 = d2 V2 = 0.4 0.18 = 0.023 m /s
4
4
Q = 23 l/s
V2 =
Discharge,
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T2 : Solution
D1 = 10 cm, A1 =
2
(0.1) = 7.854 103 m2
4
Energy line
HL = 0.119 m
Piezometric headline
0.570 m
0.452 m
0.4390 m
0.3598 m
C
L 20 cm
10 cm
1
2
D2 = 20 cm, A2 =
Q = V1A1 = V2A2
2
(0.2 ) = 3.142 102 m2
4
D
1
V2 = 1 V1 = V1
4
D2
Hence ,
Head loss at the expansion,
HL =
(V1 V2 )2
2g
V1
V1
4
=
2g
9 V12
16 2g
By applying Bernoulli equation to sections (1) and (2)

p2 V22
p1 V12
+
+ Z 2 + HL
+
+ Z1 =
2g
2g
p2 p1
V2 V2
= 1 2 + Z1 Z 2 HL

2g 2g

3 V12
660
V2
1
9
= 1 1
+O =
8 2g
(0.85 9810)
2g 16 16
8
2 9.81 0.0792 = 4.1412
3
V1 = 2.035 m/s
Q = A1V1 = 7.854 103 2.035 m3/s
= 0.016 m3/s = 16.0 L/s
V12 =
Discharge
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Flow Measurement
T1 : Solution
Venturimeter: A venturimeter is a device used for measuring the rate of a flow of a fluid flowing through a
pipe. It consists of three parts :
(i) A short converging part,
(ii) Throat and
(iii) Diverging part.
....
....
It is based on the Principle of Bernoullis equation.
.... h
....
....
Pitot-tube: It is a device used for measuring the velocity of
....
....
flow at any point in a pipe or a channel. It is based on the
....
....
H
....
principle that if the velocity of flow at a point becomes zero, the
....
2
1
.
.
. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .
pressure there is increased due to the conversion of the kinetic
energy into pressure energy. In its simplest form, the pitot-tube
consists of a glass tube, bent at right angles as shown in Fig. (1).
Fig. (1)
Expr
ession for Rate of Flow Thr
ough V
enturimeter
Expression
Through
Venturimeter
Consider a venturimeter fitted in a horizontal pipe through which a fluid is flowing (say water), as shown in
Fig. (2),
Let
d1 = diameter at inlet or a at section (1)

p1 = pressure at section (1)
v1 = velocity of fluid at section (1)
2
a = area at section (1) = d1
4
and d2, p2, v2, a2 are corresponding values at section (2).
Applying Bernoullis equation at section (1) and (2), we get
..
..
..
d1
...
...
.. 2
Inlet
Throat
Fig. (2)
p1 v 12
p2 v 22
+
+ z1 =
+
+ z2
g 2 g
g 2g
As pipe is horizontal, hence z1 = z2

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p1 v 12
p2 v 22
+
+
=
g 2g
g 2g
But
p1 p2 v 22 v 12
=
g
2g 2g
or
p1 p2
p1 p2
=h
is the difference of pressure heads at sections 1 and 2 and it is equal to h or
g
g
Substituting this value of
p1 p2
in the above equation, we get
g
v 22 v 12
2g 2g
Now applying continuity equation at sections 1 and 2
h =
v1 =
a1v1 = a2v2 or
...(i)
a2v 2
a1
Substituting this value of v1 in equation (i)
h =
or
a2v 2
a
1
v 22
2g
v22 = 2gh
2g
v2 =
Discharge,
Q = a2v2
= a2
v 22
2g
a22 v 22 a12 a22

1 2 =
2
a1 2g a1
a12
a12 a22
2gh
a12
=
a12 a22
a1
2
a1 a22
a1
2gh
2
1
a a22
2gh =
a1a2
2
a1 a22
2gh
...(ii)
Equation (ii) gives the discharge under ideal conditions and is called, theoretical discharge. Actual discharge
will be less than theoretical discharge.
a1a2
Qact = Cd
a1 a22
2gh
...(iii)
where Cd = Co-efficient of venturimeter and its value is less than 1.

Given
Cd = 0.96
venturimeter constant = 0.3 m2.5/s
venturimeter head, h = 0.2 m
Q =
Cd a1a2 2gh
2
a1 a22
venturimeter constant in the sense, a1 a2 are constant and
2g is a known constant i.e.
a1a2 2g
2
a1 a22
is a
constant.
Check with dimensions =
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m 2 m 2 m/s2
(m 2 )2
m 2.5
s
12
a a 2g
1 2
h
Q = Cd 2
2
a1 a2
= 0.96 3.0
0.2 = 0.1287 m3/s
T2 : Solution
For venturimeter
Applying Bernoullis equation
Q = A1V1 = A2V2
P1
V2
P
V2
+ Z1 + 1 = 2 + Z 2 + 2
2g
2g
g
g
V22 V12
= h2 h1 = h
2g
h =
Where
V1 =
Now,
P
+ Z = Piezometric head
g
A2
V2
A1
A2
1
A1
2
V2
= h
2g
V2 =
Q =
2g h
A
1 2
A1
Cd A2 2g h
D
1 2
D1
Head loss between inlet and throat is given by
4
D2
V22 1
2
H = 2g C 2 1 1 D = 1 Cd
1
d
H = (1 Cd2)h
or
1 Cd2 Q 2 D2
.
H =
1
Cd2 2gA22 D1
D 4
2
2
1 V2
D
2
2gCd
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13
As Cd, g, A2, D2, D1 are constant.
H = kQ2
H = (1 Cd2)h = kQ2
K =
1 Cd2
h
Q2
T3 : Solution
d1
d2
D.P.
water
Cd
Cd
Given,
=
=
=
=
=
=
100 mm = 0.1 m
50 mm = 0.05 m
250 Pa (Depression pressure)
1000 kg/m3
0.6
(for orifice plate)
0.9
(for venturi)
Q = C
a1 a2
a12 a22
2gh
a1 = 0.785 0.12 = 7.85 103 m2

a2 = 0.785 0.052 = 1.9625 103 m2
h =
a1a2
a12
a22
2gh =
Qorifice
Qventuri
Q0
QV
=
=
=
=
(D.P.) =
g
250
= 0.02548 m
9.81 1000
7.85 10 3 1.9625
(7.85)
(1.9625)
= 2.0268 10 3 m2
2 9.81 0.02548 = 0.707m/s

0.6 2.0268 103 0.707 = 8.597 104 m3/s
0.9 2.0268 103 0.707 = 1.2896 103 m3/s
0.8597 L/s
1.2896 L/s
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Flow Through Pipes
T1 : Solution
D
All the losses are negligible except friction.

4fL V 2
.
H =
d 2g
15 =
0.02 1000 V
0.3 2 9.81
H = 15 meter
Additional pipe
2
Q f = 0.02 which is very high.

So it will be friction factor and 4f = 0.02
V2 =
L = 1000 m
300 mm
15 0.3 2 9.81
0.02 1000
V = 2.101 m/sec
& = AV = (0.3)2 2.101

Flow rate, Q
4
& = 0.1485 m3/sec
Q
Now addition same pipe of length is added in later half of pipe as
Q1 = Q2 + Q3
AV = AV + AV
V =
V
2
Friction head is same
hf = 15 =
15 =
4fL V 2 4fL V 2
d 2g
d 2g
0.02 500 V 2 0.02 500 1 V 2
+
.
0.3
2g
0.3
4 2g
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15
15 = 2.124 V2
V = 2.657 m/sec
V =
Discharge rate
V
= 1.329 m/sec
2
Q = A.V =
Increase in discharge =
.(0.3)2 2.657 = 0.18781 m3/sec

4
Q Q
= 26.47%.
Q
T2 : Solution
Using the Bernaullis equation, at points 1 and 2
Let p1, V1, Z1 be the pressure, velocity and head at point 1, and p2 V2, Z2, be the corresponding values
at point 2.
1 V22
hL = 1-
C 2g
30 cm
60 cm
p2 V22
p1 V12
+
+ Z 2 + hL
+
+ Z1 =
rg 2g
r g 2g
1 V22
hL = 1 0.65 2g
hL = 0.2899
V22
2g
Q = A1V1 = A2V2
Also,
p
p
2
2
(60) V1 =
(30) V2
4
4
V1 =
V2
4
Using the Bernaullis equation

2
V2
V2
80 103
100 103
1 V2
+ 2 + Z 2 + 0.2899 2
+
+ Z 1 =
1000 9.81 2g 4
1000 9.81 2g
2g
Flow rate,
10.1936 +
V22
V22
= 8.1549 + 1.2899
32g
2g
10.1936 8.1549 = 1.2899
[ Z1 = Z2]
V22
V2
- 2
2g 32g
2.0387 = 0.06255 V22

V22 = 32.5886
V2 = 5.7086 m/s
Q = A2V2 =
p
2
(0.3) 5.7086
4
Q = 0.4035 m3/s
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1 V22
hL = 1-
Cc 2g
Also,
1 (5.7086)
1

hL =
0.65
2 9.81
hL = 0.48158 m
T3 : Solution
L1 = 1800 m, L2 = 1200 m, L3 = 600 m

D1 = 50 cm = 0.5 m, D2 = 40 cm = 0.4 m, D3 = 30 cm = 0.3 m
(i) We know for the pipe connected in series
Leq
Deq
Leq
5
(0.4)
L
L1
L
+ 25 + 35
5
D1 D2 D3
1800
5
(0.5)
1200
5
(0.4)
600
5
(0.3)
Leq = 4318.22 m
Leq
(ii)
Deq
On solving,
(iii)
On solving,
3600
5
Deq
L
L1
L
+ 25 + 35
5
D1 D2 D3
1800
5
(0.5)
1200
5
(0.4)
600
5
(0.3)
Deq = 0.38570 m
Deq = 38.57 cm
Deq 5
Leq
1/ 2
0.55
L
eq
1/ 2
D15
=
L1
1/ 2
0.5 5
=
1800
D 5
+ 2
L2
1/ 2
1/ 2
D 5
+ 3
L3
0.45
+
1200
1/ 2
1/ 2
0.35
+
600
1/ 2
Leq = 377.345 m
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Dimensional Analysis
T1 : Solution
As per Reynolds model law
rVr lr
= 1
r
Viscosity scale ratio,

Discharge scale ratio,
Vr lr
r = 1
r
lr
Qr = Vr Ar = Vr lr2
Vr =
r
lr2 = r lr
lr
T2 : Solution
According to Reynolds model law
Vr Lr
r = 1
According to Froudes model law,
...(i)
Vr
gr Lr = 1
or
Vr
= 1
Lr
( gr = 1)
Lr
(i) Velocity scale ratio,
Vr =
(ii) Discharge scale ratio,
Qr = ArVr
= Lr2 Vr
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...(ii)
from eq. (ii)
18
= Lr 2 Lr
Q = Lr 5/ 2
(iii) Kinematic viscosity scale ratio,
r = VrLr
r =
from eq. (i)
Lr Lr
= Lr 3/ 2
T3 : Solution
Given:
p is a function of D, l, V , , k
p = f (D, l, V, , , k) or f1 (p, D, l, V, , , k) = 0
...(i)
Total number of variables,
n = 7
Writing dimensions of each variables,
Dimension of
p = Dimension of pressure = ML1T2
D = L, l = L, V = LT1, = ML1T1, = ML3, k = L
Number of fundamental dimensions, m = 3
Number of -terms
= nm=73=4
Now equation (i) can be grouped in 4 -terms as
f1 (1, 2, 3, 4) = 0
Each -term contains m + 1 or 3 + 1 = 4 variables, Out of four variables, three are repeating variables.
Choosing D, V, as the repeating variables, we have the four -terms as
1 = D a1 .V b1 . c1 . p
2 = D a2 .V b2 . c2 . l
3 = D a3 .V b3 . c3 .
4 = D a4 .V b4 . c4 .k
1 = D a1 .V b1 . c1 . p
First -term
Substituting dimensions on both sides,
a1
1
M0L0T0 = L . LT
) .(ML ) .(ML T )
b1
3 c1
Power of M,
0 = c1 + 1
Power of L,
0 = a1 + b1 3c1 1
Power of T,
0 = b1 2
Substituting the value of a1, b1 and c1 in 1,
1 2
c1 = 1
a1 = b1 + 3c1 + 1 = 2 3 + 1 = 0
b1 = 2
1 = D 0 .V 2 .1 . p = p
V 2
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19
Second -term
Substituting dimensions on both sides,
M0L0T0 = La2 . LT 1
) .(ML )
b2
3 c 2
.L
Equation powers of M, L, T on both sides,

Power of M,
0 = c2
Power of L,
0 = a2 + b2 3c2 + 1
Power of T,
0 = b2
Substituting the values of a2, b2, c2 in 2.
2 = D 1.V 0 .0 .l =
c2 = 0
a2 = b2 + 3c2 1 = 1
b2 = 0
l
D
3 = D a3 .V b3 . c3 .
Third -term
Subsituting dimensions on both sides.
M0L0T0 = La3 . LT 1
) .(ML )
b3
c3
.ML1T 1
Equating the powers of M, L, T on both sides,

Power of M,
0 = c3 + 1
Power of L,
0 = a3 + b3 3c3 1
Power of T,
0 = b3 1
Substituting the values of a3, b3 and c3 in 3.
3 = D 1.V 1. 1. =
DV
4 = D a4 .V b4 . c4 .k
Fourth -term
or
c3 = 1
a3 = b3 + 3c3 + 1 = 1 3 + 1 = 1
b3 = 1
M0L0T0 = La4 . LT 1
) .(ML )
b4
Equating the power of M, L, T on both sides

Power of M,
0 = c4
Power of L,
0 = a4 + b4 3c4 + 1
Power of T,
0 = b4
Subsituting the values of a4, b4, c4 in 4.
4 = D 1.V 0 . 0 .k =
c4
.L
(Dimension of k = L)
c4 = 0
a4 = b4 + 3c4 1 = 1
b4 = 0
k
D
Substituting the values of 1, 2, 3 and 4 in (ii), we get

p l
k
f1
, ,
, = 0
2 D DV D
V
or
p
V
l
k
,
= ,
D
DV
D
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Boundary Layer
T1 : Solution
Given:
u
y
=
U

1/ 7
(i) Substituting this value in V

on Kar
man momentum integral equation
Von
Karman
0
u
u
=
1 dy
2
0
U
U
x
U
y

=
x 0
1/7
y 1/ 7 y 1/ 7 y 2 / 7
1 dy =
0 1/ 7 2 / 7 dy

x
y 2 / 7 +1
y 1/ 7 +1
=
x 1 1/ 7 2 2 / 7
+
1
1
7 y 8/7 7 y 9/7
7 8 / 7 7 9 / 7
x 8 1/ 7 9 2 / 7 0 x 8 1/ 7 9 2 / 7
7
7 7
7
=
=
x 8
9 x 72
72 x
In the above expression, the integration limits should be from to . But as the laminar sub-layer is very
thin that is is very small. Hence the limits of integration are taken from 0 to .
Now,
0 =
U 2
72
x
...(i)
But the value of 0 for turbulent boundary layer is given,

0 = 0.0225U 2
U
1/ 4
...(ii)
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Workbook
21
Equating the two values of 0 given by equation (i) and (ii), we have
7
2
U 2
= 0.0225U
72
x
U

7
= 0.0225
U
72 x
1/4 = 0.0225
Integrating, we have
1/ 4
1/ 4
1
1/ 4
72
7 U

1/ 4 +1
= 0.2314
U
1
+ 1
4
1/ 4

x = 0.2314
U
1/ 4
1/ 4
x+C
1/ 4

4
x+C
5 / 4 = 0.2314
U
5
Where C is constant of integration.
To determine the value of C, let us assume turbulent boundary layer starts from the leading edge, though
in actual practice the turbulent boundary layer starts after the transition from laminar boundary layer. The
laminar layer exists for a very short distance and hence this assumption will not affect the subsequent
analysis.
At x = 0, = 0 C = 0
or
4 5 / 4 = 0.2314
U
5
5/4
1/ 4
0.2314 5
=
U
4
1/ 4
0.2314 5 1/ 4
=
U
4

= 0.37
U
4/5
0.2314 5
=
4/5
1/ 5
x4 / 5
1/ 5

= 0.37
U x
x4 / 5
1/ 5
1/ 5
4/5
1
= 0.37
Re x
1/ 5
x=
0.37 x
(R )
1/ 5
...(iii)
ex
From eq. (iii), it is clear that varies as x4/5 in turbulent boundary layer while in case of laminar boundary
layer varies as
x.
(ii) Shear stress ((0) at any point from leading edge is given by eq. (ii)
2
0 = 0.0225U
U
1/ 4
Substituting the value of from eq. (iii), we have
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22
0 = 0.0225U 2
1/ 5

4/5
U 0.37
x
0.0225 2
4 / 5
U 2
=
4/5
4/5
2
0.37 (U ) x
= 0.0225 2
U 2
1
(0.37)1/ 4 U x
U 2
= 0.0577
2 U x
1/ 4
1/ 4
1/ 5
1/ 5
...(iv)
(iii) Drag force (FD) on one side of the plate is

U 2
FD = 0 b d x = 0.0577
0
0
2
U
L
U 2
= 0.0577
2
U
= 0.0577
U 2
2 U
1/ 5
1
x
1/ 5
b dx
b x 1/ 5d x
0
1/ 5
5 U 2
= 0.0577
4
2 U
U 2
= 0.072
2
U
1/ 5
x4 / 5
b
4/ 5 0
1/ 5
b L4 / 5
1/ 5
b L4 / 5
(iv) Drag co-efficient, CD is given by
CD =
FD
, where A = L b
1
AU 2
2
1/ 5
U 2

0.072
b L4 / 5
2 U
=
U 2
bL

= 0.072
U
0.072
Re1/L 5
1/ 5

1
= 0.072
UL
L1/ 5
1/ 5
UL
Q ReL =
This is valid for ReL > 5 105 but less than 107.
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Workbook
23
T2 : Solution
Given:
Ist velocity profile
u
3 y 1 y
=
U
2 2
or
u =
3U y U y
2 2
Differentiating w.r.t y, the above equation becomes,

2
u
3U 1 U
y 1
3
=
y
2 2

At y = 0,
2
u
3U 3U 0 1 3U

=
=
y y =0
2 2 2
u
As y
is positive. Hence flow will not separate or flow will remain attached with the surface.
y = 0
elocity pr
ofile
2 nd V
Velocity
profile
2
u
y y
= 2
U

y
y
u = 2U U
at y = 0,
u
y 1
y 1
= 2U 2 U 3
y

2
u
0 1
0 1

2 U 3 = 0
2
U
=
y y =0

u
= 0 , the flow is on the verge of separage.
As y
y = 0
3 rd velocity profile
u
y y
= 2 +
U

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y
y
u = 2U + U
24
At y = 0,
u
1
y 1
= 2U + 2U
y

u
2U
2U
0 1
+ 2U =

=
y
y = 0

u
As y
is negative the flow has separated.
y = 0
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Laminar and Turbulent Flow
T1 : Solution
Reynolds number,
Re =
VD 1260 5.0 0.10

=
= 420
1.50
(a) As this value is less than 2000, the flow is laminar. In laminar flow in a conduit
0 =
8V 8 1.50 5.0
=
= 600 Pa
D
0.10
(b) In laminar flow the head loss
hf =
(c) Power expended
32 VL
D
32 1.50 5.0 12
(1260 9.81)(0.1)2
= 23.3 m
P = Qhf
2
Discharge
Power,
(0.1)
5.0 = 0.03927 m3 /s
4
P = (1260 9.81) 0.03927 23.3
= 11309.8 W = 11.31 kW
Q = AV =
T2 : Solution
(a) For two-dimensional laminar flow between parallel plates
um = Maximum velocity =
(b) Since
Copyright
3
V
2
3
1.40 = 2.10 m/s
2
2
dp B
V =
d x 12
26
12V 12 0.105 1.40

dp
=
= 12250
d = B2
x
(0.012 )2
0.012
dp B
0 =
2 = 12250 2 = 73.5 Pa
x
d
(c) Shear stress at any y from the boundary

Boundary shear stress
dp B
y
=
d x 2
At y = 0.002 m
1.
Velocity
0.012
0.002 = 49 Pa
2
(12250 )
1 dp
By y 2
2 d x
1
2
12250 0.012 0.002 (0.002 )
2 0.105
= 1.167 m/s
T3 : Solution
Given:
At R:
R
2
Flow is turbulent
At
We know
Given, at
Also at,
u = 1.5 m/s
u = 1.35 m/s
y
u -u
= 5.75log10 + 3.75
R
U*
y = R, u = 1.5 m/s
1.5 - u
= 3.75
U*
y =
...(i)
R 0.1
=
0.05 m, u = 1.35
2
2
1
1.35 - u
= 5.75log10 + 3.75
2
U*
1.35 - u
= 2.0190
U*
...(ii)
Dividing eq. (i) by eq. (ii)

1.5 - u
= 1.857
1.35 - u
1.5 - u = 1.857(1.35 - u )
1.5 - u = 2.507 - 1.857u
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27
1.857 u - u = 1.007
0.857 u = 1.007
u = 1.175 m/s
Q = u R 2
Q = 1.175 (0.1)2
Q = 0.0369 m3/s
R
u
= 5.75log10 + 4.75
k
U*
Also, from eq. (i)
15 - u
= 3.75
U*
Also,
1.5 - 1.175
= 3.75
U*
U* = 0.0866 m/s
0.1
1.175
= 5.75log10 + 4.75
0.0866
k
k = 2.9 103 m
k = 2.9 mm
R
1
= 2log10 + 1.74
k
f
0.1
1
+ 1.74
= 2log10
2.9 10-3
f
f = 0.043
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10
Hydraulic Machines
T1 : Solution
Given: Velocity of jet,
V1 = 35 m/s
Velocity of vane,
u1 = u2 = 20 m/s
Angle of jet at inlet,
= 30
Angle made by the jet at outlet with the direction of motion of vanes = 120
Angle
= 180 120 = 60
(a) Angle of vanes tips
From inlet velocity triangle
u2
Vw 2
V2
Vf
Vr 2
Vw1 = V1 cos = 35 cos 30 = 30.31 m/s
Outlet velocity
triangle
2
120
Vf1 = V1 sin = 35 sin 30 = 17.50 m/s

Vf1
17.50
tan = V u = 30.31 20 = 1.697
w1
1
By sine rule,
Motion
of vane
= tan1 1.697 = 59.49.

Vr1
sin90
Vf1
sin
or
Vr1
17.50
=
sin59.49
1
Vr1 =
Now,
Vr2 = Vr1 = 20.31 m/s
Direction of
motion of
vane
V1
Vr 1
Vf1
u1
Vw1
17.50
= 20.31 m/s
0.862
From outlet velocity triangle, by sine rule

Vr2
sin120
u2
sin (60 )
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Workbook
29
20
20.31
=
sin (60 )
0.886
or
20 0.866
= 0.852 = sin( 58.50)
20.31
sin(60 ) =
60 = 58.50
= 60 58.50 = 1.49
(b) Work done per unit weight of water entering =
1
V + Vw 2 u1
g w1
...(i)
Vw1 = 30.31 m/s and u1 = 20 m/s

The value of Vw 2 is obtained from outlet velocity triangle
Vw 2 = Vr 2 cos u2 = 20.31cos1.49 20.0 = 0.30 m/s

Work done/unit weight
1
[30.31+ 0.30] 20 = 62.40 Nm/N
9.81
(c) Efficiency
Work done per kg

Energy supplied per kg
62.40 62.40 2 9.81
=
= 99.94%
35 35
V12
2g
T2 : Solution
Gross head, Hg = 220 m, Net head, H = 200 m, CV = 0.98, N = 200 rpm, power = 3.7 MW, u1=u2=u
u
V1 = 0.46, D = ?
Given:
Speed of jet at vena contracta i.e. max. speed of jet
V1 = CV 2gH
= 0.98
u1
2 9.81 200
V1 = Vw1
Vr1
= 61.4 m/sec
A
Speed of wheel
u = 0.46 V1
= 0.46 61.4 = 28.24 m/sec
u=
DN
= 28.24
60
[u = u1 = u2]
28.24 60
D =
200
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Vr2
B
V2
= 16
u2
Vf
C
Vw2
D = 2.697 m
Vr2 = Vr1 = V1 u
= 61.4 28.24
= 33.16 m/sec
30
Vw2 = Vr2 cos 16 u

= 33.16 cos 16 28.24
Vw2 = 3.635 m/sec
Blade efficiency,
b =
2u ( Vw1 + Vw2 )
V12
2 28.24 (61.4 + 3.635)

61.42
b = 0.974
Hydraulic efficiency
=
u ( Vw1 + Vw2 )
gH
28.24 (61.4 + 3.635)

9.81 200
= 0.936 = 93.6%
T3 : Solution
Given: Gross head,
Hg = 500 m
Head lost in friction,
hf =
Net head,
Discharge,
Angle of deflection
Angle,
Speed ratio,
Co-efficient of velocity,
H = Hg hf = 500 166.7 = 333.3 m

Q = 2.0 m3/s
= 165
= 180 165 = 15
= 0.45
Cv = 1.0
Velocity of jet,
V1= Cv 2gH = 1.0 2 9.81 333.3 = 80.86 m/s
Hg 500
=
= 166.7 m
3
3
2gH
Velocity of wheel,
u = Speed ratio
or
u = u1 = u2 = 0.45
2 9.81 333.3 = 36.387 m/s
Vr1 = V1 u1 = 80.86 36.387
= 44.473 m/s
u2
Vw1 = V1 = 80.86 m/s
Also
Vw
From outlet velocity tringle, we have
15
Vr
Vf
V2
Vr2 = Vr1 = 44.473

Vr2 cos = u2 + Vw 2
or
44.473 cos 15 = 36.387 + Vw 2
Vw 2 = 44.473 cos 15 36.387
or
B
Vr
Vw
C
1
165
V1
= 6.57 m/s
Work done by the jet on the runner per second is given by equation as
aV1 Vw1 + Vw 2 u = Q Vw1 + Vw 2 u
( aV1 = Q)
= 1000 2.0 [80.86 + 6.57] 36.387 = 6362630 Nm/s

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Workbook
31
Power given by the water to the runner in kW

=
Work done per second 6362630

=
= 6362.63 kW
1000
1000
Hydraulic efficiency of the turbine is given by equation as

h =
2 Vw1 + Vw 2 u
V12
2 [80.86 + 6.57] 36.387

80.86 80.86
= 0.9731 or 97.31%
T4 : Solution
Given data
H = 32 m; Q = 0.18 m3/s; A = 7500 mm2; S.P. = 44 kW; m = 94%

(i) Horse power at the base of nozzle =
QH
9.81 0.18 32 103
=
= 56.51 kW
1000
1000
Kinetic energy of jet per second, KE =
1
Qv2
2
where V is the velocity of jet

2
1
0.18
1
KE = 1000 0.18
= 51.84 kW
6
2
1000
7500 10
Power lost in the nozzle = Power at the base of nozzle KE

= 56.51 51.84 = 4.67 kW
m =
(ii)
Power available at the shaft

Power delivered by water to runner
44
94
=
Runner
Power
100
Runner Power = 46.81 kW

Power supplied to the runner is equal to the kinetic energy of the jet
i.e.
KE = 51.84 kW
Power lost in runner = KE Runner power
= 51.84 46.81 = 5.03 kW
(iii) Power lost in mechanical friction = Runner power shaft power
= 46.81 44 = 2.81 kW
T5 : Solution
Given: Head,
H = 60 m
Speed,
N = 200 rpm
Shaft power,
SP = 95.6475 kW
Velocity of bucket,
u = 0.45 Velocity of jet
Overall efficiency,
0 = 0.85
Co-efficient of velocity,
Cv = 0.98
Design of Pelton wheel means to find diameter of jet (d), diameter of wheel (D), Width and depth of buckets
and number of buckets on the wheel
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32

(i) Velocity of jet,
V1 = Cv 2gH = 0.98 2 9.81 60 = 33.62 m/s

Bucket velocity,
u = u1 = u2 = 0.45 V1 = 0.45 33.62 = 15.13 m/s
But
u =
15.13 =
or
D=
(ii) Diameter of the jet (d)

Overall efficiency
But
DN
60
where D = Diameter of wheel
D 200
60
60 15.13
= 1.44 m
200
0 = 0.85
0 =
SP 95.6475 95.6475 1000

=
=
WP
g Q H
WP
1000
95.6475 1000
1000 9.81 Q 60
95.6475 1000
95.6475 1000
=
= 0.1912 m3 /s
0 1000 9.81 60 0.85 1000 9.81 60
Q =
But the discharge,
Q = Area of jet Velocity of jet
0.1912 =
d =
( WP = gQH)
d V1 = d 2 33.62
4
4
4 0.1912
= 0.085 m = 85 mm
33.62
(iii) Size of buckets

Width of bucket
= 5 d = 5 85 = 425 mm
Depth of bucket
= 1.2 d = 1.2 85 = 102 mm
(iv) Number of buckets on the wheel is given by eq. as
Z = 15 +
D
1.44
= 15 +
2d
2 0.085
= 15 + 8.5 = 23.5 Say 24

T6 : Solution
Inlet diameter,
D1 = 1.0 m
Rotational speed,
N = 400 rpm
Area of flow,
A = 0.25 m2
Net available head,
H = 65 m
Velocity of flow at inlet,
Vf1 = 8.0 m/s
Velocity of whirl at inlet,
Vw1 = 25.0 m/s
Flow is radial at outlet i.e. velocity of whirl at outlet, Vw2 = 0

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Workbook
33
Let the peripheral velocity at inlet and outlet be u1 and u2 respectively
u1 =
D1N
1 400
=
= 20.94 m/s
60
60
Discharge,
Q = A Vf1 = 0.25 8 = 2 m3/s
Power developed by the wheel is expressed as
P = Q(u1Vw1 u2Vw2)
= 1000 2 (20.94 25 u2 0) 103 = 1047 kW
h =
Hydraulic efficiency,
u1Vw1 u2 Vw2
100
gH
20.94 25 u2 0
=
100 = 82.1%
9.81 65
T7 : Solution
Given data:
Discharge,
Head,
Speed of runner,
Q = 10 m3/s
H = 30 m
N = 300 rpm
Peripheral velocity at inlet, u1 = 0.9 2gH

Radial velocity of flow at inlet, Vf1 = 0.3 2gH
Overall efficiency, 0 = 80%
Hydraulic efficiency, h = 90%
(i) The power developed by the turbine is given by
P = QH 0
= 9.81 1000 10 30
80
= 2354.40 kW (Ans.)
100
(ii) Peripheral velocity at inlet is given by
u1 = 0.9 2gH
But,
u1 =
D1N
60
where D1 is the diameter of runner at inlet
0.9 2gH =
D1N
60
D1 300
60
= 1.39 m (Ans.)
0.9 2 9.81 30 =
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D1
Also,
Q = D1B1Vf1 where B1 is the width of runner at inlet
10 = 1.39 B1 0.3 2gH
10 = 1.39 B1 0.3 2 9.81 30

B1 = 0.315 m (Ans.)
34

(iii) Mechanical efficiency is given by
m =
u1Vw1 u2 Vw 2
gH
where Vw1 is whirl velocity at inlet and Vw2 is whirl velocity at outlet
But it is given that discharge at outlet is radial.
Vw2 = 0
m =
m =
u1Vw1 u2 0
gH
u1Vw1
gH
0.9 2 9.81 30 Vw1

90
=
100
9.81 30
Vw1 = 12.13 m/s
If is the guide vane angle at inlet, then

tan =
tan =
Vf1
Vw1
0.3 2 9.81 30
12.13
= tan1 (0.6)
= 30.96 31 (Ans.)
(iv) If is the inlet angle at runner vane, then

Vf1
tan = V u
w1
1
tan =
0.3 2 9.81 30
12.13 0.9 2 9.81 30
= 36.87
Negative sign indicates that u1 is greater than Vw1
= 180 = 180 36.87 = 143.13 (Ans.)
(v) Diameter of runner at outlet is given by
D2 =
D1
1.39
=
= 0.695 m
2
2
T8 : Solution
Given:
Head,
Hub diameter,
Speed,
H = 12 m
Db = 0.35 D0
N = 100 rpm
Where D0 = Dia. of runner
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35
Workbook
Vane angle at outlet,
u2
= 15
Flow ratio
Vf1
2gH
= 0.6
Vf = V2
2
Vr 2
Vf1 = 0.6 2gH = 0.6 2 9.81 12 = 9.2 m/s
From the outlet velocity triangle, Vw 2 = 0

tan =
Vf2 Vf1
=
u2 u2
(Q Vf
= Vf1 = 9.2
)
V1
9.2
= u
2
tan 15
But for Kaplan turbine,
9.2
= 34.33 m/s
tan15
u1 = u2 = 34.33
Now, using the relation,
u1 =
D0 100
D0 N
or 34.33 =
60
60
D0 =
60 34.33
= 6.55 m
100
Vr1
Vf1
u2 =
Db = 0.35 D0 = 0.35 6.35 = 2.3 m

Discharge through turbine is given by eq. as
Q =
D0 Db2 Vf1 = 6.552 2.32 9.2
4
4
(42.9026 5.29 ) 9.2 = 271.77 m3 /s

4
=
=
=
=
25 m
200 rpm
9 cumec = 9 m3/s
90% = 0.90
T9 : Solution
Given:
Head,
Speed,
Discharge,
Efficiency,
H
N
Q
0
Now using relation,
0 =
Work developed
P
=
g Q H
Water power
1000
P = 0
=
(Take the efficiency as overall )
g Q H
1000
0.90 9.81 1000 9 25

= 1986.5 kW
1000
(i) Specific speed of the machine (Ns)

Using equation
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Ns =
N P
H
5/4
200 1986.5
255 / 4
= 159.46 rpm
36
(ii) Power generated

P = 1986.5 kW
(iii) As the specific speed lies between 51 and 255, the turbine is a Francis turbine.
T10 : Solution
Given:
Q = 0.04 m3/s
Hg = 20 m
0 =
f
l
D
0
=
=
=
=
rgQH
P
0.015
100 m
0.15 m
70%, 0 = 0.7
2
4 0.015 100 (0.04)

4f lQ 2
hf =
= 10.534 m
5
5 =
12D
12 (0.15)
Hnet = Hg + hf = 20 m + 10.534
Hnet = 30.534 m
0 =
rgQHnet
1000
P
1000 9.81 0.04 30.534 kW

1000
0.70 =
P
P =
9.81 0.04 30.534

kW
0.7
P = 17.116 kW
Hence power required to derive the pump is 17.116 kW.
Copyright

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Try Yourself Questions

Shear stress on one side of the plate = =

2 0.64 1.5 0.15

g (volume of the plate)

Shear stress on the inclined wall

Considering an elemental area (2r ds) = 2r

Using the quation

Kinematic viscosity is given by

= 0.125 102 104 cm2/s = 0.125 102 cm2/s

fH1 = w A1h1 = 9.81 3 2

fH2 = w A2h2 = 9.81 3 1

fH = fH1 fH2 = 58.86 14.715 = 44.145 kN

fr1 = w Volume submerged

fr2 = w Volume submerged

F = rgAh = 1000 9.81 A h

(rur ) + (u ) = 0 should be satisfied.

( sin is constant w.r.t. r)

(rur ) + (u ) = 2r sin 2r sin = 0

Mechanical Engineering Fluid Mechanics and Machines

Substituting the values of

and Resultant velocity,

V = x2 yi + y2zj (2xyz + yz2) k is a possible case of fluid flow.

42 + 32 + ( 21) = 21.59 units

Substituting these values in acceleration components, we get acceleration at (2, 1, 3)

ax = x2y (2xy) + y2z (x)2 (2xyz + yz2) 0

ay = x2y (0) + y2z (2yz) (2xyz + yz2) (y2)

az = x2y (2yz) + y2z (2xz z2) (2xyz + yz2) (2xy 2yz)

Acceleration = axi + ay j + azk = 28i 3j + 123k

15922 = 126.18 units

Increase in hydraulic grade line rises by 10 mm or 0.01 m

Applying continuity equation between section (1) and (2), we get

16V22 V22 9V22

Head loss at the expansion,

By applying Bernoulli equation to sections (1) and (2)

d1 = diameter at inlet or a at section (1)

As pipe is horizontal, hence z1 = z2

Substituting this value of

Substituting this value of v1 in equation (i)

a22 v 22 a12 a22

where Cd = Co-efficient of venturimeter and its value is less than 1.

venturimeter constant in the sense, a1 a2 are constant and

2g is a known constant i.e.

Mechanical Engineering Fluid Mechanics and Machines

0.2 = 0.1287 m3/s

Head loss between inlet and throat is given by

As Cd, g, A2, D2, D1 are constant.

a1 = 0.785 0.12 = 7.85 103 m2

2 9.81 0.02548 = 0.707m/s

Flow Through Pipes

All the losses are negligible except friction.

Q f = 0.02 which is very high.

& = AV = (0.3)2 2.101

Now addition same pipe of length is added in later half of pipe as

Friction head is same

.(0.3)2 2.657 = 0.18781 m3/sec

Using the Bernaullis equation

10.1936 8.1549 = 1.2899

2.0387 = 0.06255 V22

Mechanical Engineering Fluid Mechanics and Machines

L1 = 1800 m, L2 = 1200 m, L3 = 600 m

Viscosity scale ratio,

(i) Velocity scale ratio,

(ii) Discharge scale ratio,