AFMC

Medical Entrance Exam

Solved Paper 2013

Physics
1. Six charges, 3 positive and 3 negative of
equal magnitude are to be placed at the
vertices of a regular hexagon such that the
electric field at O is double the electric
field when only one positive charge of
same magnitude is placed at R. Which of
the following arrangements of charges is
possible for P, Q, R, S, T and U
respectively?
P

figure is
I
2V
30

R
S

30

30

1
A
45
1
(c)
A
10
(a)

Q
C

4. The current I in the circuit shows in

1
A
15
1
(d) A
5
(b)

5. A wide vessel of uniform cross-section

(b) [M0 L2 T 0 K 2 ]

with a small hole in the bottom is filled

with 40 cm thick layer of water and 30 cm
thick layer of kerosene. The relative
density of kerosene is 0.8. The initial
velocity of flow of water streaming out of
the hole is (take g = 10 m/s2 )

(c) [ML T 2 K]

(a)

(a) +,,+,,,+
(c) +,+,,+,,

(b) +,,+,,+,
(d) ,+,+,,+,

2. The dimensions of entropy are

(a) [M0 L1 T 0 K]

(d) [ML T

K ]

3. In the fusion reaction 21 H + 21 H 23 He

+ 10 n the masses of deuteron, helium and

neutron expressed in amu are 2.015, 3.017
and 1.009 respectively. If 1 kg of
deuterium undergoes complete fusion,
find the amount of total energy released
[1 amu = 931.5 MeV]
(a) 9.0 1013 J
(c) 5 1016 J

(b) 20 105 J
(d) 8 105 J

2
m/s
5
6
(c)
m/s
5

4
m/s
5
8
(d)
m/s
5
(b)

6. The distance between the poles of a horse

shoe magnet is 10 cm and its pole strength
is 104 Am. The magnetic field induction at
point P midway between poles is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

zero
2 109 T
4 109 T
8 109 T

| AFMC (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013

7. If W1 and W2 represents the work done in

moving a particle from A to B along three
different paths 1, 2 and 3 (as shown in
figure) in the gravitational field of point
mass m, find the correct relation.
1

(a) 1

m
1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 6

13. The circuit shown in figure contains two

diodes, each with a forward resistance of

50 and with infinite backward resistance.
If the battery 6V, the current through the
100 resistance (in ampere) is

(a) W1 > W3 > W2

150

(b) W1 = W2 = W3
(c) W1 < W3 < W2
(d) W1 < W2 < W3

50

8. If one junction of thermocouple is kept at

0C , and its emf is given by e = at + bt2 ,

then the neutral temperature will be
(a) a / b

(b) a / b

(c) a /2 b

(d) a /2 b

100
+

(a) 300

(b) 0.02

(c) 0.03

(d) 0.36

14. Two cars A and B are travelling in the

9. The current in a coil changes from 0 to 2 A
in 0.05 s. If the induced emf is 80 V, then
the self inductance of the coil is
(a) 1 1 H
(c) 1.5 H

(b) 0.5 H
(d) 2 H

10. Two sources I and 4I of waves, which

interfere to produce a resultant intensity
I 0 at a point of phase difference /2. I 0 is
equal to
(a) 5 I
(c) 3 I

(b) 4 I
(d) I

component of vector A along vector B is

1 $
(i +
2
5 $
(c)
(i +
2

$j )
$j )

3 $
(i +
2
7 $
(d)
(i +
2
(b)

(v A v B )2
2a
(v A v B )2
(c) s
2a
(a) s <

(v A v B )2
2a
(v A v B )2
(d) s
2a
(b) s =

15. A body of mass 5 kg rests on a rough

11. Given, A = 2 $i + 3 $j and B = 2 $i + 3 $j. The

(a)

same direction with velocities v A and vB

(v A > vB ). When the car A is at distance s
behind car B, the driver of the car A
applies the brakes producing a uniform
retardation a there will be no collision
when

$j )
$j )

12. The layered lens as shown is made of two

types of transparent material one
indicated by horizontal lines and the
other by vertical lines. The number of
images formed of an object will be

horizontal surface of coefficient of

friction 0.2. The body is pulled through a
distance of 10 m by a horizontal force of
25 N. The kinetic energy acquired by it is
(take g = 10 m/s2 )
(a) 200 J
(c) 100 J

(b) 150 J
(d) 50 J

16. A rod of a diamagnetic material is placed

in a non-uniform strong magnetic field.
Which of the figure below shows the
alignment of the rod in the field?

AFMC (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013 |

21. A man standing on a hill top projects a

stone horizontally with speed v0 as shown
in figure. Taking the coordinate system as
given in the figure. The coordinates of the
point where the stone will hit the hill
surface
Y

17. A body of mass 0.5 kg executes SHM of

(0,0)

frequency 4Hz. The amplitude of SHM is

1 cm. The maximum restoring force is
(take, 2 = 10)
(a) 0.32 N (b) 3.2 N

(c) 32 N

18. 1 g of ice is mixed with one gram of steam

at thermal equilibrium. The temperature
of mixture is
(a) 0C

(b) 100C

(c) 55C

(d) 32 N

(d) 80C

19. A wire of resistance 12 per metre is bent

to form a complete circle of radius 10cm.
The
resistance
between
its
two
diametrically opposite points A and B as
shown in the figure

2 v 2 tan 2 v 02 tan2
(a) 0
,

g
g

2 v 2 2 v 2 tan2
(b) 0 , 0

g
g

2 v 2 tan 2 v 02
(c) 0
,

g
g

2 v 2 tan2 2 v 02 tan
(d) 0
,

g
g

22. A thin uniform disc has mass M and

A

(a) 6

(b) 0.6

(c) 3

(d) 6

radius R. A circular hole of radius R/3 is

made in the disc as shown figure. The
moment of inertia of the remaining
portion of disc about an axis passing
through O and perpendicular to the plane
of the disc is

20. A rectangular wire loop of sides a and b is

R/3

placed in a non-uniform magnetic field

which varies within x as B = Kx where,
K is a constant. The magnetic field is
directed perpendicular to the plane of the
coil as shown in figure. The magnetic flux
through the coil is
Y

(b) Kab 2

(c)

O
2R
3

1
MR 2
9
2
(b) MR 2
9
1
(c) MR 2
3
4
(d) MR 2
9
(a)

(a) 300

1
Kab 2
2

(d) 2 Kab 2

| AFMC (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013

23. The length of metal wire is l1, when the

tension in it is T1 and is l2 when the tension
is T2 . The unstretched length of wire is
(a)

l1 l2

(b) (l1 + l2 ) / 2

(c) MOc 2
(d) (MO 17 mn ) c 2

24. Figure shows a cyclic process ABCA in

V-T diagram. Which of the diagrams
shown in figure shows the same process
on a p-V diagram?

A
T

O
p

p
B

C
V

(a)

(b)
p A

other of thick wire made of same material

and of same length are connected in series
and then in parallel. Which of the
following statement is correct?

28. The

27. Two heating coils, one of thin wire and the

(a) In series, fine thin wire liberates more energy

while in parallel, thick wire liberates more
energy
(b) In series, fine thin wire liberates less energy
while in parallel, thick wire liberates less energy
(c) In series, thick wire liberates more energy while
in parallel it liberates less energy
(d) Both wires liberate equal energies in series
and parallel

M p and M n are the masses of a

proton and a neutron respectively.
The nuclear binding energy of the
isotope is
(b) (MO 8M p 9mn )c 2

l T + l2T1
(d) 1
T1 + T2

17
8O ,

(a) (MO 8M p ) c 2

lT l T
(c) 1 2 2 1
T2 T1

26. If M O be the mass of an oxygen isotope

figure shows the variation of

photo current with anode potential for a
photo-sensitive surface for three different
radiations. Let I a , I b and I c be the
intensities and fa , fb and fc be the
frequencies for the curves a, b and c
respectively. Then
Y

V
(c)

V
c

(d)

25. Mixed He + and O 2 + ions (mass of He +

= 4 amu that of O 2 + = 16 amu) beam
passes a region of constant perpendicular
magnetic field. If kinetic energy of all the
ions is same, then
(a) He + ion will be deflected more than those of
O 2+
(b) He + ion will be deflected less than that of O 2+
(c) All the ions will be deflected eqally
(d) No ions will be deflected

Photo
current

a
b
O

Anode potential

(a) fa = fb and Ia Ib
(b) fa = fc and Ia = Ic
(c) fa = fb and Ia = Ib
(d) fb = fc and Ib = Ic

AFMC (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013 |

29. The error in the measurement of the
radius of a sphere is 1%. The error in the
measurement of the volume is
(a) 1%
(c) 5%

(b) 3%
(d) 8%

30. The image of an object placed infront of a

concave mirror of focal length 12 cm is
formed at a point which is 10 cm more
distant from the mirror than the object.
The magnification of the image is
(a) 1.5
(c) 2.5

(b) 2
(d) 3

31. Three rods made of same material and

same cross-section has been joined as
shown in figure. Each rod is of same
lengths. The left and right ends are kept
at 0C and 90C respectively. The
temperature of the junction of the there
rods will be
90C
2
0C

90C

(a) 45C
(c) 30C

(b) 60C
(d) 20C

32. Two spring of force constant k1 and k2 , has

equal highest velocities when executing
SHM. Then the ratio of their amplitudes
(given their masses are equal) will be
(a)

k1
k2

(b)

k1
k2

(c)

k2
k1

(d)

k2
k1

33. The electric field in a region is given by

E = a $i + b $j. Here a and b are constants.

The net flux passing through a square are
of slide l parallel to Y-Z plane is
(a) a2 l 2
(b) a l 2
(c) b 2 l 2
(d) b l 2

34. A current of 16 A flows through molten

NaCl for 10 minutes. The amount of
metallic sodium that appears at the
negative electrode would assuming
(Faraday constant 9.65 104 C/gm-eq)
(a) 0.23 g
(c) 2.3 g

(b) 1.15 g
(d) 11.5 g

35. A source of sound gives 5 beat s 1 when

sounded with another source of frequency
100 Hz. The second harmonic of the source
together with a source of frequency 205 Hz
given 5 beat s 1. What is the frequency of
the source?
(a) 105 H3
(c) 95 H3

(b) 205 H3
(d) 100 H3

36. A simple telescope, consisting of an

objective of focal length 60 cm and a single
eyelens of focal length 5cm is focussed on
a distant object is such a way that parallel
rays come out from the eyelens. If the
object subtends an angle 2 at the
objective, the angular width of the image
(a) 10
(c) 35

(b) 24
(d) 48

37. A point object O is placed on the principal

axis of a convex lens of focal length 20 cm
at a distance of 40 cm to the left of it. The
diameter of the lens is 10 cm. If the eye is
placed 60 cm to the right of the lens at a
distance h below the principal axis, then
the maximum value of h to see the image
will be
(a) 0 cm
(c) 2.5 cm

(b) 5 cm
(d) 10 cm

38. In Youngs double slit experiment , the two

slits act as coherent sources of equal
amplitude A and of wavelength . In
another experiment with the same setup,
the two slits are source of equal amplitude
A and wavelength but are incoherent.
The ratio of the intensity of light at the
mid-point of the screen in the first case to
that in the second case is
(a) 1:1
(c) 2:1

(b) 1:2
(d) 2:1

| AFMC (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013

39. A smooth inclined plane is inclined at an

43. A heavy uniform chain lies on horizontal

angle with the horizontal. A body starts

from rest and slides down the inclined
surface. Then the times taken by it to
reach the bottom

table top. If the coefficient of friction

between the chain and table surface is
0.25, then the maximum fraction of the
length of the chain that can hang over one
edge of the table is

(a)

2h
g

(b)

2
g

(c)

2h
g

(2h)
(d) sin

40. A cubical block of side L rests on a rough

horizontal surface with coefficient of
friction . A horizontal force F is applied
on the block as shown in figure. If the
coefficient of friction is sufficiently high so
that the block does not slide before
topping, the minimum force required to
topple the block is
F
L
A

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

organ pipe is 50 Hz. The frequency of

second overtone is
(b) 150 Hz
(d) 250 Hz

42. When a certain photosensitive surface is

illuminated with monochromatic light of
frequency , the stopping potential for
photoelectric current is V0 / 2. When the
same
surface
is
illuminated
by
monochromatic light of frequency /2, the
stopping potential is V0 . The threshold
frequency for photoelectric emission is
2
3
3
(b)
2
3
(c)
5
5
(d)
3

(c) 35%

(d) 15%

in one dimension varies with time

according to the equation p = a + bt2 ,
where a and b are positive constants. The
net force acting on the body is
(a) proportional to t 2
(b) proportional to t
(c) a constant
(d) inversely proportional to t

45. A bullet of mass 10g strikes a fixed target

and penetrates 8cm into it. If the average
resistance apposed by the target to the
bullet is 100N, the velocity with which the
bullet hits the target is
(b) 20m/s
(d) 40m/s

46. If a photon has velocity c and frequency ,

41. The fundamental frequency of a closed

(a)

(b) 25%

44. The linear momentum p of a body moving

(a) 10 m/s
(c) 30 m/s

infinitesimal
mg/4
mg/2
mg/(1-H)

(a) 100 Hz
(c) 200 Hz

(a) 20%

then which of the following represent its

wavelength?
(a) hc/E
(c) h/c 2

(b) h/c
(d) h

47. A particle of charge q and mass m moves

in a circular orbit of radius r with angular
speed . The ratio of the magnitude of its
magnetic moment to that of its angular
momentum depends on
(a) and q
(c) and m

(b) , q and m
(d) and m

48. A current i flows in a circular

arc of wire which subtends
3
an angle of at the
2
centre. If the radius of the
circle is r , then the magnetic
induction B is
(a) 0 i / r
(c) 3 0 i / 4r

(b) i /2 r
(d) 3 0 i / 8r

AFMC (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013 |

49. A vessel contains a mixture of one mole of

50. A simple pendulum is suspended from the

oxygen and two moles of nitrogen at 300

K. The ratio of the rotational kinetic
energy per O2 molecule to taht per N2
molecle is

roof of trolley which moves in a horizontal

direction with an acceleration a, then the
l
time period is given by T = 2
, where,
g

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

g is equal to

1:1
1:2
2:1
depends on the moment of inertia of the two
molecules

(a) g
(c) g + a

(b) g a
(d) g 2 + a2

Chemistry
1. A boy drinks 250mL of 10% glucose
solution. The number of glucose molecules
he has consumed are
(mol. wt. of glucose = 180)
(a) 8.36 1022
(c) 5.61 1024

(b) 8.36 1021

(d) 56.1 1024

2. Which one of the following is an example

of suboxide?
(a) Fe 3O 4
(c) Al 2O 3

(b) C 3O 2
(d) CO 2

3. When I2 is passed through KCl, KBr or KF

solutions
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Cl 2 is evolved
Cl 2 , Br2 are evolved
Cl 2 ,Br2 and F2 are evolved
None of the above

4. Which one of the following on heating does

not give N2 gas?
(a) Ba(N3 )2
(c) NH4NO 3

5. The gadolinium belongs to 4f series. Its

atomic number is 64. Which of the
following is the correct electronic
configuration of gadolinium?
8

(c) [Xe]4 f 6 s

7. Which one of the following compounds will

be coloured in solid state?
(a) Ag 2SO 4

(b) CuF2

(c) ZnF2

(d) Cu2Cl 2

8. KMnO4 act as an oxidising agent in acidic

medium. The number of moles of KMnO4
that will be needed to react with one mole
of sulphide ions in acidic solution is
1
5
3
(c)
5
(a)

2
5
4
(d)
5
(b)

9. Highest oxidation state of manganese in

(b) (NH4 )2 Cr2O 7
(d) NH4NO 2

(a) [Xe]4f 7 5d 1 6 s 2

(a) They have high melting points in comparison

to pure metals
(b) They are chemically very reactive
(c) They are very hard
(d) They retain metallic conductivity

(b) [Xe]4 f 6 5d 2 6 s 2
(d) [Xe]4 f 9 6 s1

6. Interstitial compounds are formed when

small atoms are trapped inside the crystal
lattice of metals. Which of the following is
not the characteristic property of
interstitial compounds?

fluoride is + 4 (MnF4 ) but highest

oxidation state in oxides is + 7 (Mn2O7 )
because
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

F is more electronegative than O

F does not possess d-orbitals
F stabilises lower oxidation state
in covalent compounds, fluorine can form
single bond only while oxygen forms double
bond

10. Which of the following species is not

expected to be a ligand?
(a) NO

(b) NH+4

(c) NH2CH2CH2NH2

(d) CO

11. The CFSE for octahedral [CoCl 6 ]4 is

18000 cm 1. The CFSE for tetrahedral
[CoCl4 ]2 will be
(a) 18000 cm 1
(c) 8000 cm 1

(b) 16000 cm 1
(d) 20000 cm 1

EMg2+/Mg

| AFMC (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013

EMg2+/Mg

log[Mg2+]
(a)

log[Mg2+]
(b)

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Same in all directions

Different in different directions
Cannot be measured
Always zero

13. Iodine molecules are held in the crystals

lattice by
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

E 0 MnO 4 / Mn 2 + = 1.51V and

water and another containing 10 g sugar

in 100 g water are placed under a belljar
and allowed to stand until equilibrium is
reached. How much water will be
transferred from are beaker to another?
(c) 40.0 g

(d) 80 g

15. Vapour pressure of a saturated solution of

a sparingly soluble salt A2 B3 is 31.8 mm of
Hg at 40C. If vapour pressure of pure
water is 31.9 mm of Hg at 40C, solubility
product ( K sp ) of A2 B3 at 40C will be
(a) 5.672 105
(c) 5.672 107

(b) 5.672 106

(d) 5.672 104

16. K H values for argon, CO2 , HCHO and CH4

are 40.39, 1.67, 1.83 105 and 0.413

respectively. Arrange these gases in the
order of their increasing solubility.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Ar <CO 2 <CH4 <HCHO

HCHO <CO 2 < Ar <CH4
CO 2 < Ar <HCHO <CH4
Ar <CH4 <HCHO < CO 2

17. Electrode potential for Mg electrode

varies
E 2+
Mg

according to the equation

0.059
1
/ = E0 / 2+

log
Mg
Mg
/ Mg
2
[Mg2 + ]

The graph of E

Mg

2+

/ Mg

log[Mg2+]
(d)

strongest reducing agent. E Cr2 O 27 / Cr 3 +

= 1.33V, E 0 Cl 2 / Cl = 1.36 V

14. A beaker containing 20 g sugar in 100 g

(b) 66.8 g

log[Mg2+]
(c)

18. Using the data given below find out the

London forces
dipole-dipole interactions
covalent bonds
Coulombic forces

(a) 33.3 g

EMg2+/Mg

value of the refractive index of quartz glass?

EMg2+/Mg

12. Which of the following is true about the

vs log [Mg2 + ] is

E 0 Cr 3 + / Cr = 0.74 V
(a) Cr

(b) Cr 3+

(c) Cl

(d) Mn2+

19. A current of 1A is flowing through a wire.

Calculate the number of electrons flowing
through the cross section of the wire per
second.
(a) 6.02 1023
(c) 6.24 1019

(b) 6.02 1024

(d) 6.24 1018

20. Which of the following electrolytes will

have maximum coagulating value for
AgI/ Ag + sol?
(a) Na 2S
(c) Na 2SO 4

(b) Na 3PO 4
(d) NaCl

21. Which one of the following is not

applicable to
adsorption?
(a) H > 0
(c) S < 0

the

phenomenon

of

(b) G < 0
(d) H < 0

22. A hydrogenation reaction is carried out at

500K. If the same reaction is carried out in
the presence of a catalyst at the same rate,
the temperature required is 400K.
Calculate the activation energy of the
reaction if the catalyst lowers the
activation energy by 20 kJ mol 1
(a) 25 kJ mol 1
(c) 75 kJ mol 1

(b) 50 kJ mol 1
(d) 100 kJ mol 1

AFMC (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013 |

23. For the reaction, N2O5 (g) 2NO2 ( g)
+ 0.5O2 g; Calculate the mole fraction of
N2O5 (g) decomposed at a constant volume
and temperature, if the initial pressure is
600 mm Hg and the pressure at any time is
960 mm Hg. Assume ideal gas behaviour.
(a) 0.1
(c) 0.3

(b) 0.2
(d) 0.4

24. For

the reduction of FeO at the

temperature corresponding to point D
which of the following statements is
correct?

(c)
[ OCH CH2 C O

CH CH2 C ] n
CH3
O

O
CH2CH3
C 6H5

(d)
[ CH2 CH ==CHCH2 CHCH2 ] n

27. Lysine is least soluble in water in the pH

range
(a) 3 to 4
(c) 6 to 7

(b) 5 to 6
(d) 8 to 9

G(kJmol1) of O2

28. -helix structure of protein is established by

100
200
300
400
500
600
700

A
O2
O+
2C 2CO 2

D
2C

+O

2Fe + O 2
C+O2CO2
2C

2FeO

peptide bond
van der Waals forces
hydrogen bonds
dipole-dipole interactions

29. Which one of the following is used to check

heart attacks by dissolving the blood clot?
(a) Streptokinase
(c) Tyrosinase

400

800 1200 1600 2000

Temp. (C)

(a) G value for the overall reduction reaction with

CO is zero
(b) G value for the overall reduction reaction with
CO is negative
(c) G value for the overall reduction reaction with
a mixture of 1 mole carbon and 1 mole oxygen
is positive
(d) G value for the overall reduction reaction with
a mixture of 2 moles carbon and 1 mole oxygen
will be positive

25. Which of the following enhances lathering

property of soap?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

30. The best reagent for converting 2-phenyl

propanamide into 2-phenyl propanamide is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

excess H2
LiAlH4
NaBH4
Br2 in aqueous NaOH

31. The most reactive amine towards dilute

hydrochloric acid is
(a) CH3NH2

(b) CH3NHCH3

(c) CH3 N CH3

CH3

(d) C 6H5NH2

32. Compounds A and C in the following

Sodium carbonate
Sodium rosinate
Sodium stearate
Trisodium phosphate

reaction are
(i) CH MgBr

3
CH 3CHO
A

(ii) H 2 O

glycol is one of the monomer units?

(b) CH
[
]n
2 CH2

COn

H SO ,

2
4

(i) hydroboration
C
(ii) oxidation

26. In which of the following polymers, ethylene

(a) OCH CH OOC
2
2

(b) Maltase
(d) Isomerases

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

positional isomers
optical isomers
identical isomers
geometrical isomers

10

| AFMC (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013

33. Ozonolysis of an organic compound gives

formaldehyde as one of the products. This
confirms the presence of
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

a vinyl group
an isopropyl group
an acetylene triple bond
two ethylenic double bonds

34. Trichloroacetaldehyde was subjected to

Cannizaros reaction by using NaOH. The
mixture of the products contains sodium
trichloroacetate and another compound.
The other compound is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

chloroform
2, 2, 2 trichloroethanol
trichloromethanol
2, 2, 2trichloropropanol

35. Which of the following is most acidic?

(a) Benzyl alcohol
(b) Cyclohexanol
(c) m-chlorophenol
(d) Phenol

36. Phenol reacts with sodium hydroxide and

carbondioxide to give
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

CH3

(a) CH3 C == CH2

(b) CH3 CH CH2CH3

OCH3
CH3

(c) CH3 C CH2OCH3

H
CH3

(d) CH3 C CH3

OCH3
Light

39. C6H 6 + Cl2 P

(a) C 6H5Cl
(c) C 6H6Cl 6

37. Which of the following compounds will

give racemic mixture on nucleophilic
substitution by OH ion?
Br

CH 3 C CH 3

C2H5
(II)

CH 3

CH 3 C CH 2Br

C2H5
(III)

(a) I
(c) I, III

reaction is
CH 3

CH 3O
CH 3 C CH2 Br
CH 3OH

Product, P is

benzoic acid
phthalic acid
salicylic acid
salicylaldehyde

CH 3 CH Br

C2H5
(I)

38. The major product formed in the following

(b) II, III

(d) I, II, III

(b) C 6H4Cl 2
(d) None of these

40. If a body (mass = 1.00g) is travelling along

the x-axis at 100 cms 1, within 1 cms 1.

What is the theoretical uncertainty in its
position?
(a) 2.636 10 30 m
(c) 263.6 10 30 m

(b) 26.36 10 30 m
(d) 2636 10 3 m

41. With increase in principal quantum

number n, the energy difference between
adjacent energy levels in hydrogen atom
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

increases
decreases
remains constant
decreases for lower values of n and increases
for higher values of n

42. Molar volume of CO2 is maximum at

(a) STP
(c) 273 K and 2 atm

(b) 400 K and 1 atm

(d) 546 K and 2 atm

AFMC (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013 |

43. For the equilibrium,
+

46. Which one of the following salts on being

(NH 3)2+ ;

Ag + 2NH 3

sAg
K = 1.8 10
Ag + Cl sAgCl;
K = 5.6 10
Hence, for the equilibrium
AgCl + 2NH sAg (NH ) + Cl

+
3 2

equilibrium constant is
(a) 0.32 102
(c) 1.01 1017

11

(b) 0.31 1021

(d) 1.01 1017

44. A 0.150 mole sample of an ideal gas is

allowed to expand at 294 K from 10.00 atm
to 1.00 atm. If the external pressure is
kept constant at 1.00 atm, workdone is

dissolved in water gives pH > 7 at 25C?

(a) KNO 3
(c) NH4CN

(b) KCN
(d) NH4Cl

47. Both HCOOH and CH 3COOH solutions

have equal pH.
K
If 1 (ratio of acid ionisation constants) of
K2
these acids in 4, their molar concentration
ratio will be
(a) 2
(c) 4

(b) 0.5
(d) 0.25

48. Which of the following, species exhibits

the diamagnetic behaviour?

p
(atm)
10
1.0

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(c) O 2

(d) NO

the
following
mixtures,
dipole-dipole as the major interaction, is
present in

V (dm3)

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

45. Conjugate acid of HF2 is

(a) H
(c) F2

(b) O +2

49. Among

330 J
3.26 dm3 atm
Both (a) and (b)
None of the above
+

(a) O 2
2

benzene-ethanol
acetonitrile-acetone
KCl-water
benzene and carbon tetrachloride

50. Correct order of bond length is

(b) HF
(d) H2F2

(a) CO 2
3 >CO 2 >CO

(b) CO 2 >CO >CO 2

3

(c) CO >CO 2 >CO 2

3

(d) None of these

Biology
1. Which

of the following restriction

endonuclease was discovered first?
(a) Hind II
(c) Bam HI

(b) Eco RI
(d) Eco RII

2. In which of the following organisms

neoteny occurs?
(a) Cypis
(c) Axolotl

(b) Aphis
(d) All of these

3. In adventive embryony
(a) formation of seed occurs that has an embryo
formed without meiosis and syngamy
(b) an embryo develops dir'ectly from a diploid cell
other than egg

(c) an egg is induced to develop into a complete

individual by artificial stimuli
(d) formation of young ones occurs from
reproductive units

4. Component of seminal vesicles that

provides a forensic test for rape is
(a) prostaglandins
(c) citric acid

(b) fructose
(d) phosphorylcholine

5. The most popular fine wool breed of sheep is

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Suffolk
Rambouillet
Merinos
Lincoln

12

| AFMC (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013

6. Transgenic variety of Oryza sativa is rich

in
(a) vitamin-C
(c) zink

(b) potassium
(d) vitamin-A

7. Assertion (A) The earliest fossils of

Amphibia
were
originated
during
Devonian period and known as
Labyrinthodontia.
Reason (R) Dentine of the teeth of
Amphibians earliest fossils was not of
folded nature.
(a) A is true, but R is false
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(c) Both A and R are true and R is correct
explanation of A
(d) Both A and R are false

8. Which of the following is known as soluble

RNA?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Ribosomal RNA ( rRNA)

Messenger RNA ( mRNA)
Transfer RNA ( tRNA)
Small nuclear RNA (snRNA)

9. Number of ecological age groups in a

population is
(a) 6
(c) 3

(b) 4
(d) 2

10. Which

of the following statements

regarding hot spot is not correct?
(a) Hot spot contain high density of megadiversity
(b) Total area covered by hot spots is less than 2%
of land surface
(c) The number of hot spots identified by
ecologists is 34.
(d) India has four hot spots

11. Podophyllum is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(a) Carboniferous period (b) Jurassic period

(c) Cambrain period
(d) Devonian period

14. Oophorocytosis is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

stage in the production of an ovum

disorder of male reproductive system
stage in the production of an egg
disorder of female reproductive system

15. Which

of the following sexually

transmitted disease is caused by yeast?
(a) Candidiasis
(c) Enterobiasis

(b) Scabies
(d) Syphilis

16. Concordant type of twins are

(a) dizygotic twins
(c) Both (a) and (b)

(b) monozygotic twins

(d) None of these

17. Nephritis is an example of

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Y- linked inheritance
X- linked inheritance
XY- linked inheritance
Autosomal gene inheritance

18. Anemophilous flowers are

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

pollinated by insects
pollinated by water
pollinated by animals
pollinated by wind

19. Which of the following statement is not

correct for entomophilous flowers?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Pollen grains are heavier and sticky

Stigmas are unbranched
Flowers are inconspicuous
Sepals are well developed

20. Freqently found DNA in living cells is

(a) A-DNA
(c) C-DNA

(b) B-DNA
(d) Z-DNA

21. Bomato is

critically endangered
endangered
vulnerable
not evaluated

12. Which of the following species has

undergone anthropogenic extinction?
(a) Mastodon
(c) Wooly mammoth

13. Which period is known as Age of fishes?

(b) Caspian tiger

(d) Giant sloth

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

somatic hybrid between brinjal and tomato

somatic hybrid between beetroot and patato
somatic hybrid between bean and tomato
somatic hybrid between bean and potato

22. Which of the following cattle do not fall

under Milch breeds?
(a) Gir

(b) Sahiwal (c) Deoni

(d) Siri

AFMC (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013 |

23. Lymphoid

organ present
intestine, along the ileum is
(a) spleen
(c) tonsils

in

small

(b) Peyers patches

(d) lymph nodes

24. What percentage of IgE constitutes of all

antibodies in the blood of humans?
(a) 0.001%
(c) 01
. %

(b) 10%
(d) 0.5%

25. Myelogenous leukemia is caused by

(a) complete loss of one chromosome of 21st
chromosome pair
(b) translocation of a part of chromosome number
8 into number 14
(c) deletion in the long arm of chromosome 13
(d) deletion of long arm of chromosome 22 and its
addition to chromosome 9

26. Water content in a dry seed is

(a) 0%
(c) 10-15%

(b) 0.1-0.5%
(d) 45-50%

27. Which of the following component is not

significant in osmosis?
(a) Gravitational potential(b) Matric potential
(c) Solute potential
(d) Pressure potential

28. Pressure potential in a plasmolysed cell

(a) positive
(c) negative

(b) zero
(d) remain same

29. Maximum transpiration occurs in

(a) mesophytes
(c) thallophytes

(b) bryophytes
(d) pteridophytes

30. Which of the following factor do not

contributes to stomatal opening?
(a) Light
(c) Reduced CO 2

(b) Low pH
(d) Water

31. Which of the following is not non-essential

element for plants?
(a) Potassium
(c) Aluminium

(b) Sodium
(d) Cobalt

32. 'X' is an essential micronutrient, which is

required in leaves and roots of plants. Major
function of X is to perform metabolism of
urea and ureides and its deficiency cause
leaf tip necrosis. Identify X.
(a) Sulphur
(c) Zinc

(b) Magnesium
(d) Nickel

13

33. Element involved in nitrogen fixation is

(a) boron
(c) iron

(b) zinc
(d) chlorine

34. What is the value of Respiratory Quotient

(RQ) during germination of fatty seeds?
(a) Equal to unity
(c) Zero

(b) Less than unity

(d) More than unity

35. Which of the following pathway is

amphibiolic?
(a) Glycolysis
(c) Krebs cycle

(b) ETC cycle

(d) Gluconeogenesis

36. Which plant hormone is basic in nature?

(a) Gibberellin
(c) Ethylene

(b) Auxin
(d) Cytokinins

37. Which structure is a component of

Waldeyers ring?
(a) Pharynx
(c) Ileum

(b) Tonsils
(d) Oesophagus

38. Total number of teeth in rat mouth is

(a) 16
(c) 32

(b) 28
(d) 44

39. Among the following, which disease is not

caused by the deficiency of vitamin-D?
(a) Rickets
(c) Pigeon breast

(b) Osteomalacia
(d) Sprue

40. How many cartilages forms larynx ?

(a) 6

(b) 15

(c) 9

(d) 12

41. Brown coloured respiratory pigment is

(a) chlorocruorin
(c) haemocyanin

(b) pinnaglobin
(d) myoglobin

42. Terminology for rapid breathing is

(a) tachypnea
(c) orthopnea

(b) hypercapnea
(d) eupnea

43. Which of the following vein contain

maximum amount of haemoglobin?
(a) Renal vein
(c) Cystic vein

44. Mosquito is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

ammonotelic
uricotelic
ureotelic
guanotelic

(b) Splenic vein

(d) Hepatic vein

14

| AFMC (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013

45. How many sphincters are present in male

urethra?
(a) 4

any other bone in human body.

(b) 3

(c) 2

(d) 1

46. Which of the following bone is a flat bone?

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(a) Hyoid
(c) Tarsus

(b) Femur
(d) Sacrum

49. What is the pH value of cerebrospinal

Carpal
Vertebrae
Incurs
Ribs

fluid?
(a) 1 23
(c) 7 00

47. Still's disease is a type of

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

48. Name the bone, which is not attached to

arthritis
osteoporois
rickets
sprain

(b) 6 82
(d) 7 33

50. X is a small area of optical part of the

retina, which lies opposite to the centre of
the cornea. Identify X.
(a) Black spot
(c) Fovea centralis

(b) Yellow spot

(d) Lens

General Knowledge & Aptitude

1. Which of the following nations has signed
a comperehensive free trade agreement
with European Union?
(a) USA
(c) Japan

(b) Canada
(d) China

2. Jnanpith Awardee, Dr. Ravuri Bhardwaj

who passed away recently, was an
eminent writer in
(a) Telugu
(c) Hindi

(b) Konkani
(d) Bengali

3. At which of the following places, Indias

largest Air Traffic Control Tower has been
inaugurated recently?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Banglore International Airport

Rajiv Gandhi International Airport
Indira Gandhi International Airport
Mumbai International Airport

4. What is the name of joint military

exercise, which was started by Indian and
Russian armies recently?
(a) Indra
(c) Varun

(b) Shakti
(d) Milan

6. Which among the following states in India

has highest child marriage rate?
(a) Rajasthan
(c) Jharkhand

(b) Bihar
(d) Odisha

7. Who among the following has been

appointed as chairperson of State Bank of
India (SBI)?
(a) Kavitha Krishnamurthy
(b) Usha Chandrashekhar
(c) Arundhati Bhattacharya
(d) Sonakshi Vishal

8. Which of the following is the smallest

country in Africa Continent?
(a) Chad
(c) Seychelles

(b) Vgande
(d) Somalia

9. The Constitution of India was adopted by

the
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Governor General
British Parliament
Constituent Assembly
Parliament of India

10. Who among the following was the

biography of which cricket player?

Chairman of the Drafting Committee of

the Indian Constitution?

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

5. At the close of play is an upcoming auto

Brian Lara
Ricky Ponting
Sachin Tendulkar
Chris Gayle

Rajendra Prasad
BR Ambedkar
Tej Bahadur Sapru
C Rajgopalachari

AFMC (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013 |

11. The Government of India Act, 1935 vested
the residuary power in the
(a) British Parliament
(c) State Legislature

(b) Federal Legislature

(d) Government General

12. Which of these was not invented in China?

(a) Ping-Pong
(c) Fireworks

(b) Pasta
(d) Gun power

13. Who is regarded as the Father of the

Science Fiction?
(a) Isaac Asimov
(c) Arthur C Clarke

(b) Jules Verne

(d) HG Wells

14. In which state of India Rural Olympics

happen every year?
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Haryana

(b) Punjab
(d) Uttar Pradesh

15. In recent times, the Indian economy has

become increasingly
(a) export intensive
(b) import intensive
(c) export and import intensive
(d) production intensive

16. A book Fault Lines is written by

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Raghuram Rajan
D Subba Rao
Vimal Jalan
Montek Singh Ahluwalia

17. Which of the following cities is not

connected to an Expressway?
(a) Ahmdabad
(c) Bhopal

(b) Vadodara
(d) Pune

18. Climate change is caused by

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

green house gases

depletion of ozone layer
pollution
All of the above

19. Recently a term Roshni was in the news.

The term is related to
(a) cataract eradication programme
(b) skill development and training programme for
tribal youth
(c) skill development progmramme for tribal
women
(d) a NGO working for the upliftment of slum
workers

15

20. Recently, in which among of the follwoing

states, land acquisition for the Posco Steel
Plant is re-started?
(a) Bihar
(c) Odisha

(b) Paschim Banga

(d) Jharkhand

21. Which of the following nation tops, the list

of top 10 nations in Global Competitiveness
Index 2012-13?
(a) Switzerland
(c) Finland

(b) Singapore
(d) Sweden

22. Which among the films has won the award

in the best film category at the BAFTA
Award, 2013?
(a) Life of Pie
(c) Lincoln

(b) Les Miserables

(d) Argo

23. The Maheshwar Power Project, which is

recently in news is located in?
(a) Maharashtra
(c) Madhya Pradesh

(b) Odisha
(d) Karnataka

24. The new Comptroller and Auditor-General

(CAG), taken charge on 23rd may, 2013 is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Nirbhay Sharma
Radha Krishan Mathur
Shashi Kant Sharma
Vinod Rai

25. Who on 4th March, 2012 became only the

second ICC referee to officiate in 200
ODIs, when he took the field for the toss in
the first Tri-series final between Australia
and Sri Lanka in Brisbane?
(a) Andrew Hoare
(c) Owen Franks

(b) Chris Broad

(d) Kevin Williams

26. Indian Batting Maestro and Former

Captain Rahul Dravid on 9th March, 2012
announced
his
retirement
from
international cricket. How many test
matches did he play for India?
(a) 138

(b) 156

(c) 164

(d) 171

27. Which of the following places made news

in March, 2012 due to the resumption of
trial against the translation of the book
Bhagavad Gita as it is?
(a) Munich
(c) Belgrade

(b) Tomsk
(d) Prague

16

| AFMC (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013

28. Who is newly Chairperson of the National

Commission for women?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Mamta Sharma
Girija Vyas
Nirmala Venkatesh
Poonam Pirya Sen

35. Find the greatest number that will divide

43, 91 and 183, so as to leave the same
remainder is each case.
(a) 4
(c) 9

(b) 7
(d) 13

36. If the length of the diagonal AC of a

29. Who among the following is the Chairman

of National Knowledge Commission?

square ABCD is 4.2 cm, then the area of

the square is

(a) Sam Pitroda

(c) Nandan Nilkeni

(a) 10.42 cm2

(c) 7.92 cm2

(b) Deepak Nayyar

(d) Dr. Pushp Bhargav

30. China emerged as the worlds second

largest economy in 2010 overtaking
(a) France
(c) Germany

(b) Britain
(d) Japan

31. If < means minus, > means plus, =

means multiplied by and $ means
divided by then what would be value of
27> 81$ 9< 6?
(a) 6
(c) 36

(b) 3
(d) None of these

Directions (Q. Nos. 32-34) Read the

condition given below and answer the
questions that follow.
The sum of the incomes of A and B is more
than that of C and D taken together. The
sum of the incomes of A and C is the same
as that of B and D together. Moreover, A
earns half as much as the sum of the
incomes of B and D.

32. Whose income is the highest?

(a) A
(c) C

(b) B
(d) D

33. Which of the following statements is not

correct?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

A earns more than B

B earns more than D
C earns more than D
B earns more than C

37. Find the term which does not fit into the
series.
1CV, 5FU, 9IT, 15LS, 17OR
(a) 5FU
(c) 9IT

(b) 15LS
(d) 17OR

38. Find the cost of Carpeting a square room

of side 8 m with carpet at the rate of ` 44
per m 2 .
(a) ` 400
(c) ` 2816

(b) ` 500
(d) ` 250

39. _ _aba _ _ ba _ ab
(a) abbba
(c) baabb

(b) abbab
(d) bbaba

40. Ornaments : Gold : : Needdle : ?

(a) Stitch
(c) Steel

(b) Prick
(d) Thread

41. Pointing to a photograph a woman says

This man sons sister is my mother-in-law,
how is the womans husband related to the
man in the photograph?
(a) Grandson
(b) Son
(c) Son-in-law
(d) Nephew

Directions (Q. Nos. 42-45) Read the

following passage given below and answer
the questins that follow.

34. If As income be ` 80000 per annum and

the differencee between the incomes of B
and D be the same as As income, Bs
income is
(a) ` 40000
(c) ` 80000

(b) 9.00 cm2

(d) 8.82 cm2

(b) ` 60000
(d) ` 120000

Harold a professional man who had

worked in an office for many years had a
fearful dream. In it, he found himself in a
land, where small slug-like animals with
slimy tentacles lived on peoples bodies.
The poeple tolerated the loathsome

AFMC (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013 |

creatures because after many years, they
grew into elephants which then became
the nations system of transport, carrying
everyone, wherever he wanted to go.
Harold suddenly realised that he himself
was covered with these things and he
woke up screaming.

45. Harolds dream was fearful because

(a) it brought him face to face with reality
(b) it was full of vivid pictures of snakes
(c) he was huge elephant in it
(d) in, it he saw slimy creatures feeding on
peoples bodies

Directions (Q. Nos. 46-48) In the

following questions choose the word
which best express the meaning of the
given word.

In a vivid sequence of pictures, this dream

dramatised for Harold what he had never
been able to put into words; he saw
himself as letting society feed on his body
in his early years, so that it would carry
him when he retired. He later threw off
the security bug and took up freelance
work.

46. Corpulent

42. In his dream, Harold found the loathsome

(a) Limited
(c) Little

creatures
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

in his village
in his own house
in a different land
in his office

43. Which of the following phrases best helps

to bring out the precise meaning of
loathsome creatures?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Security bug and slimy tentacles

Fearful dream and slug-like animals
Slimy tentacles and slug-like animals
Slug-like animals and security bug

44. The statement that he later threw off the

security bug means that
(a) Harold succeeded in overcoming the need for
security
(b) Harold stopped giving much importance to
dreams
(c) Harold started tolerating social victimisation
(d) Harold killed all the bugs troubled him

17

(a) Lean
(c) Emaiated

(b) Gaunt
(d) obese

47. Brief
(b) Balance
(d) Short

48. Embezzle
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Misappropriate
Balance
Remunerate
Clear

Directions (Q. Nos. 49-50) In the

following questions choose the word is the
exact opposite of the given words.

49. Enormous
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Soft
Average
Tiny
Weak

50. Commissioned
(a) Started
(b) Closed
(c) Finished
(d) Terminated

18

| AFMC (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013

Answers
Physics
1.
11.
21.
31.
41.

(d)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(d)

2.
12.
22.
32.
42.

(d)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(b)

3.
13.
23.
33.
43.

(a)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(a)

4.
14.
24.
34.
44.

(c)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(b)

5.
15.
25.
35.
45.

(d)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(d)

6.
16.
26.
36.
46.

(d)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(a)

7.
17.
27.
37.
47.

(b)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(c)

8.
18.
28.
38.
48.

(d)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(d)

9.
19.
29.
39.
49.

(d)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(a)

10.
20.
30.
40.
50.

(a)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(d)

(*) None option is correct.

Chemistry
1.
11.
21.
31.
41.

(a)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(b)

2.
12.
22.
32.
42.

(b)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(b)

3.
13.
23.
33.
43.

(d)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(a)

4.
14.
24.
34.
44.

(c)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(a)

5.
15.
25.
35.
45.

(a)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(d)

6.
16.
26.
36.
46.

(b)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(b)

7.
17.
27.
37.
47.

(b)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(d)

8.
18.
28.
38.
48.

(b)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(a)

9.
19.
29.
39.
49.

(d)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(b)

10.
20.
30.
40.
50.

(b)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(a)

2.
12.
22.
32.
42.

(c)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(a)

3.
13.
23.
33.
43.

(b)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(b)

4.
14.
24.
34.
44.

(b)
(d)
(c)
(b)
(b)

5.
15.
25.
35.
45.

(c)
(a)
(d)
(c)
(c)

6.
16.
26.
36.
46.

(d)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(d)

7.
17.
27.
37.
47.

(a)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(a)

8.
18.
28.
38.
48.

(c)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(a)

9.
19.
29.
39.
49.

(c)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(d)

10.
20.
30.
40.
50.

(d)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(b)

(b)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(d)

6.
16.
26.
36.
46.

(b)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(d)

7.
17.
27.
37.
47.

(c)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(d)

8.
18.
28.
38.
48.

(c)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(a)

9.
19.
29.
39.
49.

(c)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(c)

10.
20.
30.
40.
50.

(b)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(d)

Biology
1.
11.
21.
31.
41.

(a)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(b)

General Knowledge & Aptitude

1.
11.
21.
31.
41.

(b)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(a)

2.
12.
22.
32.
42.

(a)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(c)

3.
13.
23.
33.
43.

(d)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(c)

4.
14.
24.
34.
44.

(a)
(c)
(c)
(d)
(a)

5.
15.
25.
35.
45.

Hints & Solutions

Physics
1. When charges are arranged according to
the option (d), the electric fields due to P
and S and due to Q and T add to zero,
while due to U and R will be added up.

2. Entropy S is defined through the relation

dQ
dS =
T
where, dS is the change in entropy, dQ is
the change in heat energy and T is the
absolute temperature.
Dimension of entropy
dimension of heat energy
=
dimension of temperature
=

[ML2 T 2 ]
= [ML2 T 2K 1]
[K]

3. m = 2(2.015) (3.017 + 1009

.
) = 0.004 amu
Energy released = (30.004 9315
. )
= 3.726 MeV
Energy released per deutron
3726
.
MeV
=
= 1863
.
2
6.02 10 26
2
= 3.01 10 26

Number of deutrons in 1 kg =

Energy released per kg of deuterium

function = (3.01 10 26 1863
.
)

Now, 30 and 60 are in parallel

1
1
1
3
=
+
=
R 60 30 60
R = 20
Now,

kerosene.
The initial weight of liquid in the vessel
h ag + hK K ag where hw an hk are the
thickness of water and kerosene layers and
a is the cross-sectional area of the vessel.
Let this weight be equivalent to water layer
of thickness h, then

h w ag or h = hw + hk k
w

= 0.4 + 0.3 0.8 = 0.64 m

From Torricelis theorem, the velocity of
efflux is v = 2 gh
= 2 10 0.64 =

6. B = B1 + B2 =
As,

0
4

8
m/s
5

m1 m2
2 + 2
r2
r1

m1 = m2 and r2 = r1
B=

0 2 m1
2 10 4
= 10 7
2
4 r1
(5 10 2 )2

B = 8 10 9 T

7. Gravitational force is conservative. The

30

30
30

work done by a conservative force on a

particle moving between two points does
not depend on the path take by the particle.

8. e = at + bt 2

30

1
10

5. Let w and k be the densities of water and

= 5.6 10 26 MeV 9.0 1013 J

4. The equivalent figure is

V = IR 2 = I 20 , I =

60

de
= a + 2 bt
dt

de
An neutral temperature, = 0
dt
a
0 = a + 2 bt n or t n =
2 b

20

| AFMC (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013

dI
dt
L = self inductance

9. Since, induced emf E = L

Now,

dI
= rate of change of current
dt
dI (2 0 )
2
=
=
= 40
dt
0.05
0.05
dI
( In magnitude)
E=L
dt
80 = L 40

10. As we know that

R 2 = a12 + a22 + 2 a1 a2 cos
[as intensity (amplitude)2 ]
or I0 = I + 4I + 2 I

should be reduced to speed of car, B vB

before the cars meet, i.e., final velocity of
car A with respect to car B is zero i.e vr = 0
Here initial relative velocity , u r = vA vB
Relative acceleration; ar = a 0 = a
Let relative displacement = 5r
The equation,
vr2 = u r2 + 2 ar sr
(0 )2 = (vA vB )2 2 aS r
(vA vB )2
2a
For
no
collision
(vA vB )2 / 2 a s

L=2

14. For no collision, the speed of car A, vA

4I cos
2

Sr =

Sr s

15. Friction force = mg

= 0. 2 5 10 = 10 N
Effective force F = applied force

I0 = I + 4I = 5 I

frictional force

11. The component of A along B = (A B ) B$

B
B$ =
|B |
Now, (A B ) = (2 $i +3j$ ) ($i + $j )

where

also,

=2+ 3= 5
$i + $j
B
1 $ $
B$ =
=
=
(i + j )
2
2
$i + $j
|B|
2

5 $ $
So, (A B )B =
(i + j )
2

12. According to Lens Makers formula,

1
1 1
1
= ( 1)
v u
R1 R2
The lens is made of two materials, so for a
single object distance, two different image
distance are obtained, i.e., two images are
formed.

13. Here, the lower diode junction is reverse

biased and hence there will be no
conduction across this diode and the
above diode is forward biased and there
will be conduction through this diode. The
total resistance of the circuit
= 100 + 150 = 250
6
Current in 100 =
= 0.02 A
250

i.e.,

= 25 10 = 15 N
Kinetic energy = work done by force F in
pulling the body through a distance
S(= 10 m)
= 15 10 = 150 J

16. When a diamagnetic substance is placed in

a non-uniform strong magnetic field, it
always aligns itself perpendicular to the
lines of induction, hence repulsion, also
susceptibility is negative .

17. Maximum restoring force = m 2 a

= 4 2 2 ma
= 4 10 (0.5)

1
100

= 3.2
Here

a : amplitude of oscillation (in m)

m: mass of body (in kg)
: frequence of SHM (in Hz)
: angular frequency ( = 2)

18. Heat required to melt 1 g of ice at 0C to

water at 0C = mass of ice latent heat of
fusion = 1 g 80 cal.
Heat required to raise the temperature of
1g of water from 0C to 100C.

AFMC (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013 |

= mass of water specific heat change in
temperature

21

21. (a) Range of projectie on an inclined plane

(down the plane) is,

= 1 1 (100 0 )

v2

= 100 cal

Total heat required for maximum

temperature of 100C = 80 + 100 = 180 cal

As one gram of steam given 540 cal of heat

when it is converted to water at 100C.

Temperature of mixture would be 100C.

R=

19. Length of wire = (2 0.1)m

u2
[sin(2 + ) + sin ]
g cos 2

Length of arc ACB = ( 0.1) m

u = v0 , = 0 and = 0

R=

Resistance of arc ACB,

R1 = (12 0.1) = 1.2
Resistance of arc ADB, R2 1.2
Total resistance between A and B is
R R
R= 1 2
R1 + R2
=

1.2 1.2
= 0.6
1.2 + 1.2

20. Since the magnetic field varies with x, we

find the flux by considering a small element
of the loop of width dx and length a at a
distance x from O, as shown in figure.
The total magnetic flux is
Y

2 v02 sin
g cos 2

Now x = R cos =

2 v02 tan
g

and y = R sin =

2 v02 tan 2
g

M
.
R 2
Therefore, mass of the removed portion
(hole of radius R/3) is

22. Mass per unit area of the disc =

m=

M
M
R
=
3
9
R 2

The moment of inertia of complete disc

about an axis passing through its centre O
and perpendicular to its plane is
1
I = MR 2
2
Using the parallel axis theorem, the
moment of inertia of the removed portion of
the disc about the axis passing through O
and perpendicular to the plane of the disc is
I = MI of mass m about O + m OO

a
X

dx x = b
x

1 R
2 R
m + m
3
2 3

1 M R 2 M 4R 2
1

+
=
MR 2
2 9
9
9
9
18

= BdA = kx (adx )
0

= ka xdx =
0

1
kab2
2

Therefore, the moment of inertia of the

remaining portion of the disc about O
1
1
4
= I I ' = MR 2 MR 2 = MR 2. .
2
18
9

22

| AFMC (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013

23. If a wire is stretched by a force F and

qvB =

extension is l, then
F = kl
where,
k: is a constant
Let the unstretched length be l, then
and

T1 = k(l1 l )

...(i)

T2 = k(l 2 l )

...(ii)

or

r=

or

C
V

Along the path BC the volume V is

constant. Hence the graph of p against V is
a straight line perpenducular to V-axis. On
a p-V diagram, the corresponding path is
BC as shown in figure.
For the path AB, V is directly proportional to
T pressure remaining constant. The
corresponding path AB is, therefore a
straight line parallel to the V-axis. Thus, the
cyclic process on a p-V diagram is
represented by choice (d) in figure.

v=

2E
m

12

qO
qHe

2e
=1
e

26. Binding energy = (mass of nucleus Mass

along the path CA, p will be inversely

proportional to V along this path. Hence, as
decrease in a
p increases, V must
non-linear fashion. This is represented by
the curve CA in figure.

1
2

4
=
16

1/ 2

All ions deflected equally.

24. Since the temperature T remains constant

25. (c ) As, E = mv 2

m
q

rHe = rO

T1l 2 T1l = T2 l1 T2l

l T l T

l= 12 21
T2 T1

mv m
2E
2 Em
=

=
qB qB
m
qB

rHe mHe
=

rO mO

Dividing Eq. (i) by Eq. (ii), we get

T1 (l1 l )
=
T2 (l 2 l )

mv 2
r

of nucleons) c 2

(Mo 8Mp 9Mn ) c 2

where, c = velocity of light.

27. Thin wire has larger resistance than thick

wire for same length and same material.
In series current I is same, so heat
produced
H = I 2 RT R
i . e in series thin wire liberates more heat.
In parallel potential difference V is same,
V2
heat produced H =
t
R
1

H
R
So, a parallel thick wire liberates more
heat.

28. It obvious from the figure that the stopping

potential for curve a and b is the same.

fa = fb

This is because,the stopping potential VO is

frequency dependent (h W0 = eV0 ). Here,
W0 is the work function of the metal.
We also know that saturation current is
proportional to intensity of the incident
radiation so, Ia < Ib i.e., Ia Ib
4
29. As, V = r 3
3
Taking log on both sides, we have
log V = log 4 + log + 3 log r log 3

AFMC (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013 |

Differentiating we get
V
r
=3
V
r
V
100
V
r
r

= 3 100
100 = 3%
r

k : spring constant
m : mass of body executiing SHM
Their highest velocities are equal so that

= 3 1%
= 3%
So, error in measurement of volume is 3%

30. Let object be placed at a distance x from

mirror.
v = ( x + 10 )

x = 20 cm

u = 20

k2
k1
(Since m1 = m2 given)

33. A square area of side l parallel to y z place

( area vector will be perpendicular to Y-Z

plane i.e., along x-axis)
Given
E = a $i + b $j

f = 12 cm
1 1 1
+ =
v u f
1
1
1
+
=
( x + 10 ) x 12

A1 1 = A2 2
A1 2
k2 / m2
=
=
A 2 1
k1 / m1

in vector form can be written as

S = l 2 $i

u = x

Since

23

Electric flux passing through the given

area will be
e = E S = (a $i + b $j ) (l 2 $i ) = al 2

34. 9.65 10 4 C of charge liberates 23 g sodium,

v = 30 cm
v (30 )
So, m= =
= 15
.
u
20

as chemical equivalent of sodium is 23.

Now charge flows in 10 minutes

(ve sign shows image is real)

So, 9.65 10 4 C of charge liberates 23 g of

sodium.
23 9600
9600 C will liberate =
9.65 10 4

| m| = 1.5

31. Let the temperature of junction be Q. In

equilibrium, rate of flow of heat through
rod 1 = sum of rate of flow of heat through
rods 2 and 3.
dQ
dQ
dQ
= +
dt 1 dt 2 dt 3
( 0 )
(90 ) KA(90 )
KA
= KA
+
l
l
l
= 2 (90 )

32. Maximum velocity or highest velocity is

given by = A
A : amplitude

35. Two possibly frequencies are = 100 5

105 or 95 Hz

Frequencies of 2nd harmonic

= 210 or 190 Hz
Now, according to question,
5 beats with source of frequency 205 Hz are
possible only when 2nd harmonic has
frequency = 210 Hz

: angular frequency
=

= 2.3 g

= 2 times frequencies of 1st harmonic

= 60

also

= 16 10 60 = 9600 C

k
m

Frequency of source = 105 Hz

24

| AFMC (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013

36. As, m =
Where

I2 ( A2 + A2 ) or I2 = k 2 A2

fo
fe
m = Magnification
fo = Focal length of objective
fe = Focal length of eye piece

Also, we know that

angle subtended by an image
m=
angle subtended by an object
fo
=
fe

39. As shown in figure

Here

F = mg sin
ma = mg sin

a = g sin

v = 0 + at (as it shorts from rest)

v
...(ii)
t =
a

But v = (2 gH )

t =
I
P

u = 40cm

Q
h
B

v = 40cm

f = 20 cm, u = 40 cm
1 1 1
= gives
f v u
1 1 1
1
1
= + =
+
v f u 20 40

v = 40 cm

The situation is shown in above figure.

From similar triangles PAI and IQB
5 40
=
h 20
5

h = = 2.5 cm
2

38. If the two sources are coherent, the

resultant amplitude at the mid-point of the
screen due to interference = A + A = 2 A
Therefore, intensity is
I1 (2 A)2

...(iii)

From Eq. (ii),

5cm

...(i)

Now v = u + at
or

fo 2 60
=
= 24
fe
5

37.

I1 4 kA2 2
=
= =2
I2 2 kA2
1

or I1 = k 4 A2

where k is a constant of proportionality. But if

the source are not coherent, their intensities
simply add up at the mid-point, i.e.,

2 gh
1
2h
=
g sin
sin g

40. Torque due to F about A is 1 = FL

Since, the weight mg acts through the
centre of mass of the block (which is at a
L
distance from the side of the block) the
2
torque due to weight mg about A is
L
2 = mg
2
The minimum torque required to topple the
block is obtained when 1 is slightly greater
than 2 , i.e., in this limit
L
(1 )min = 2 or Fmin L = mg
2
or

mg

Fmin = 2

41. Given,
(fundamental mode or first hormonic)
f1 = 50 Hz
Now, second overtone in a closed organ
pipe is fifth hormonic (as even hormonic
are absent), so
(fifth harmonic) f5 = 5f1, = 250 Hz

42. h = h 0 + eV , where V is the stopping

potential. For frequency , we have
eV
h = h 0 + 0
2

...(i)

AFMC (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013 |

and for frequency /2, we have
h
= h 0 + eV0
2

25

47. Magnetic moment, M = current area

...(ii)

From Eqs. (i) and (ii) on eliminating V0 , we

get 0 = 3 / 2.

43. Let length of chain be l and mass m. Let a

charge area
time period

q r 2 1
= q r2
T
2

Q =

Angular momentum, L = m r 2

part x of chain can change over edge of

table having coefficient of friction
(l x)

1
qr 2
M 2
q
=
=
L
2m
mr 2

48. For a circular zero

Pulling force,

F=

mx
g
l

and friction force, f = N =

m
(l n ) g
l

For equilibrium, F = f , hence

mx
m
g = (l x ) g
l
l
mx
m

g = 0. 25 (l x )g
l
l
x 1

= = 0. 2
l 5
Fraction of part (or %)
x
= 100 = 20%
l

Bc =

where is in radian
i
3
3 0i

Bc = 0
=
2r 2 2
8r

49. As both gases are diatomics each has two

degrees of freedom associated with
rotational motion.
According to the law of equipartition of
energy, the rotational kinetic energy per
1
degree of freedom is
kT. Since, the
2
temperature of the two gases are equal.
Their rotational kinetic energy will be equal.

44. Force (F) = Rate of change of linear

dp
momentum =
dt
F=

d ( p)
d
F = (a + bt 2 )
dt
dt

F = 2 bt

50.

F t

45. By work energy theorem

1
mv 2 = F s
2
1 10 2
8

v = (100 )

100
2 1000

0i

2r 2

a2 + g 2
g

v = 40 m/s
The effective value of acceleration due to

46. E = h
hc
c
=h =

E

gravity is

a2 + g 2 (i.e., resultant of both

acceleration).

26

| AFMC (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013

Chemistry
1. 100 mL of glucose solution has
= 10 g glucose
250 mL of glucose solution has
10 250
=
= 25 g
100
25
Moles of glucose =
180
Number of glucose molecules
=

25 6.02 10 23
180

= 0.836 10 23
= 8.36 10 22 molecules

2. C 3O 2 is an example of suboxide. These

oxides contain less oxygen atoms as
required by the normal oxidation number of
2 of oxygen.

3. I2 being the weakest oxidising agent cannot

displace stronger oxidising agents such as
F2 , Cl 2 or Br2 from their salt solutions.

4. NH 4NO 3 N 2O+2H 2O
5.

=[Xe]54 4 f 7 5 d 1 6s2 due to extra stability

of half filled 4f subshell.
6 Gd

6. Interstitial compounds are chemically inert.

7. A salt is coloured if transition metal ion
contains unpaired d-electrons which is so
in case of CuF2 .

8. 2KMnO 4 + 3H 2SO4 + 5H 2S K 2SO 4

2 mol

5 mol

+ 2MnSO 4 + 8H 2O+ 5S
According to equation; 5 moles of S 2 ions
require = 2 moles of KMnO 4
So, 1 mole of S 2 ions will require
2
2
= 1 = mol
5
5

9. In covalent compounds, fluorine can form

single bond only while oxygen forms
double bond because of its ability to form
multiple bonds with metal atoms.

10. NH+4 ion has no lone pair of electrons so, it

will not act as a ligand.

4
9

4
9

11. t = O = 18000 cm 1
= 8000 cm 1

12. Quartz glass in amorphous and hence

refractive index is same in all directions.

13. I2 molecules are non-polar and are held

together by London forces in the crystal
lattice.

14. At equilibrium, both solutions will have

same vapour pressures and same molar
concentrations. Therefore, some water
from dilute solution will be transferred to
concentrated solution.
Suppose w g water is transferred from
beaker 1 (which contains 10 g sugar in 100
g H 2O) to the beaker 2 (20 g sugar in 100 g
H 2O). Assuming density of both the
solutions to be nearly same.
Molar concentration of sugar in beaker 1
10 1
m

=
1000 d =
100 w

v
342
d
10 1 d 1000
=
mol L1
342 (100 w )
Similarly molar concentration of sugar in
beaker 2
20 1 d 1000
=
mol L1
342 (100 + w )
At equilibrium, molar conc. of sugar
solution in beaker 1 = Molar conc. of sugar
solution in beaker 2.
10 1 d 1000 20 1 d 1000

=
342 (100 w )
342 (100 + w )
or

10
20
=
(100 w ) (100 + w )
30 w = 1000 or w = 33.3 g

15. For A2 B3 type electrolyte, i = 5

(as it gives 5 ions on ionisation)
p p
n
=i 2
p
n1
If w1 = 1000 g, n1 =

1000
= 55.55 moles H 2O
18

27

AFMC (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013 |

31.9 31.8 5 n2
=
31.9
55.55
0.1 55.5
n2 =
= 0.035 mol
5 31.9

the coagulating powers of the anions are in

the order
2
2
PO 3
> Cl
4 > SO 4 = S

n2 = molality; Hence, m = 0.035 mol kg 1

(and for dilute solutions, m = M )

22. lf activation energy in the absence of

Solubility of the salt = 0.035 mol L1

catalyst is Ea and in the presence of catalyst

is Ec then,

A2 B3 2 A3++ 3B 2
2s
3

3s

Ksp =(2 s) (3s) =108 s =108 (0.035)

Ksp = 5.672 10 6

16. Lower the value of KH, higher is the

solubility, Hence, for the given gases, order
of their increasing solubility
Ar < CO 2 < CH 4 < HCHO
0.059
0
17. E = E +
log[Mg 2+ ]. Hence, plot of E
2
vs log [Mg]2+ will be linear with positive
slope and intersept = E 0 .

18. Strongest reducing agent is one which

oxidised most easily. It means which has
highest oxidation potential. Given values
are reduction potential. Reversing the sign
will give oxidation potential. Thus, Cr/Cr3+
will have highest oxidation potential i.e.,
(0.74V) Hence, Cr is oxidised most easily
(Cr Cr 3+ + 3 e ) and therefore it is the
strongest reducing agent.

19. Quantity of electricity flowing through the

cross section of the wire per second
= 1 A 1 s = 1 Coulomb
1F = 96500 C
96500C is equivalent to flow of 1 mole of
electrons i.e., = 6.02 10 23 electrons
1C will be equivalent to flow of electrons
6.02 10 23 1
=
= 6.24 1018 electrons
96500

20. AgI / Ag+

21. In adsorption, H < 0, hence, (a) is not

correct.

Molarity = 0.035 mol L1

Hence, PO 3
4 ions are more effective.

is positively charged sol

electrolyte whose anion has least negative
charge will require maximum amount and
hence will have minimum coagulating value
and vice-versa. For positively charged sol

k = Ae

Eal 500 R

= Ae ECl 400 R

(as k is same in both the cases)

Ea
E
Hence,
= c
500 R 400 R
4
Ec = Ea
5
But
or

Ea EL = 20 kJ
4
1
Ea Ea = 20 or Ea = 20
5
5

or

Ea = 100 kJ mol 1

23. Suppose initial pressure of N 2O 5 is p mm

and decrease in the pressure of N 2O 5 in
time t is p mm.
Initial
N 2O 5 (g )
2 NO 2 (g )+ 0.5 O 2 (g )
Initial pmm after time

(t ) ( p p)

0
2p

0
p

Total = p+ 1.5 p
p 600 mm and (p+1.5p) 960 mm
1.5 p 360 mm or p 240 mm
Mole fraction of N 2O 5 decomposed
p 240
= =
p 600
= 0.4

24. Since, fG curve for the formation of FeO

and that of CO 2 from CO intersect at a point
D, therefore, at this point r G for the overall
reduction of FeO with CO is zero.

25. Sodium rosinate enhances the lathering

property of soap.

26. Monomer of glyptal ethylene glycol and

phthalic acid.

28

| AFMC (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013

27. Lysine is a basic amino acid, therefore its
isoelectric point lies in the basic range 8-9,
At the isoelectric point an amino acid has
the lowest solubility.

OH

29. Streptokinase dissolves the blood clot so, it

is used to check heart attacks.
CH 3

LiAlH 4
30. C 6H 5 C HCONH 2

(ii) H+
OH

CH 3

C 6H 5 C HCH 2NH 2
2 -phenyl propanamine

31. The amine which is most basic is more

reactive i.e., (CH 3 )2 NH.
OH

(i) CH3 MgBr

32. CH 3CHO CH 3 C HCH 3
(ii) H2 O

COOH (Salicylic acid)

2hydroxy benzoic acid

37. CH 3 C HBr contains a chiral carbon

C 2H 5
and gives a racemic product if it undergoes
SN1 reaction.

38. Since, CH 3O is a strong nucleophile as well

2 -phenyl propanamide

ethanal

( A)

as a strong base, so it can either bring

about substitution or elimination. CH 3
group at -carbon causes steric hindance
to nucleophilic substitution SN2 therefore
elimination (E2 ) occurs preferentially to form
2-methyl propene.
CH3

CH3O /CH3OH
CH3CCH2Br
E2(HBr)

H
CH

CH2
CH3C

H2SO 4 ,

CH 3CH ==CH 2
dehydration
(B)

39. Benzene reacts with chlorine in presence of

light to give benzene hexachloride.
hv
C 6H 6 + 3Cl 2
C 6H 6Cl 6

Hydroboration

CH 3CH 2CH 2OH

oxidation
(C )
CH 3CHOHCH 3 and CH 3CH 2CH 2OH are
position isomers.
(i) O 3

33. C == CH 2 C==O+ HCHO

formaldehyde

Vinylgroup (ii) Zn /H 2O

34. 2 Cl 3CCHO

NaOH

Cannizaro reaction

Cl 3C COONa

+ Cl 3C CH 2OH

sodium tricholoro acetate

(i) CO2

NaOH

28. -helix structure of protein is established by

hydrogen bonds, these bonds are formed
between the C == O of one amino acid
residue and the NH of the fourth amino
acid residue in the chain.

ONa

2, 2, 2 trichloroethanol

35. Alcohols are less acidic than phenol.

Further, electron withdrawing groups
increase the acidity of phenols, therefore,
m-chlorophenol is the most acidic.

Benzene

BHCorgammexane
(insecticide)

40. There is uncertainity with 1cm s 1 hence,

velocity varies between 99 cm s 1 to
101 cms 1. Thus,
v = (v2 v1 )
h
x=
4mv
v = 101 99 = 2 cm s 1, = 0.02 ms 1
x=

6.626 10 34
22
4
1 10 3 0.02
7

= 2.636 10 30 m.

AFMC (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013 |

41. The higher the value of n (principal quantum

=
Similarly,

I
T
; therefore, greater the value of ,
p
p
greater the molar volume.

43. Ag +2NH 3

sAg

(NH 3 )+2 ; K1

=1.8 10

sAg +Cl ; K = K1 = 5.6 110

AgCl+2NH sAg (NH ) + Cl
+

AgCl

+
3 2

K = K1K 2 =

K2 =

48.

O 2
2

species has 18 electrons which are

filled in such a way that all molecular
orbitals are fully filled so diamagnetic.
1 s2 . 1 s2 * 2 s2 * 2 s2

nRT 0.150 0.0821 294

V (initial) =
=
p
10

* 2 p2
p32 . 2 p2x = 2 py2 ,
x

= 0.362 dm 3
=

* 2 p2
=
y

0.150 0.0821 294

1

49.

= 3.62 dm 3

W = pV
= 1 (3.62 0.362 )
= 3.26dm 3atm
3.26 8.314
=
J
0.0821

50.

= 330 J

45. HF2 +H+

base

Molecules

Interactions

A.

Benzene-ethanol

Dispersion force

B.

Acetonitrile and
acetone

Dipole-dipole

C.

KCl and water

Ion-dipole

D.

Benzene and carbon

tetrachloride

Dispersion (London
force)

C == O

Bond order = 3

H2F2

O ==C ==O
Bond order = 2

conjugate acid

46. KCN is a salt of weak acid and strong base

hence, on being dissolved in water it gives
basic solution, i.e., pH > 7at 25C.

47. pH of HCOOH solution = pH of CH 3COOH

+

1
4

= 0.25

44. pV = n RT

V (final)

[H + ]2
[CH 3COOH ]

[HCOOH]2
K
= 2
[CH 3COOH ] K1

K1 1.8 10 7
=
= 3.21 10 3
K 2 5.6 10 9

[H + ]2
[HCOOH ]

K1 [HCOOH ] = K 2 [CH 3COOH ]

[H + ][HCOO ]
[HCOOH ]

K1 =

number) smaller the energy difference

between the successive levels because of
the increased distance from the nucleus.
RT
42. pV=RT or V =
p

29

solution [H ] in HCOOH solution = [H ] in

CH 3COOH solution

O C
O
Bond order = 1.33 (due to resonance)

Bond length increases when bond order

decreases hence, the correct order of bond
length CO 2
3 > CO 2 > CO.

30

| AFMC (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013

Biology
1. Hind

II was the first restriction

endonuclease isolated by Smith, Wilcox
and Kelley in 1968 from Haemophilus
influenzae bacterium. It was formed to cut
the recognition sequence of DNA.

2. Neoteny occurs in the larva of Ambystoma,

i.e, axolotl. In neoteny, larva retains the
adult characters such as gonads and starts
producing young ones by sexual
reproduction.

3. Adventive

embryony or sporophytic
budding involves an embryo development
from a diploid cell like nucellus and
integument. It occurs in Citrus, Opuntia.

4. Fructose, which is produced by the seminal

vesicles, is not present anywhere else in the
body, provides, a forensic test for rape. The
presence of fructose, in the females genital
tract confirms sexual intercourse.

5. The Merino is an economically influential

breed of sheep prized for its wool. Merino
wool is generally less than 24 micron in
diameter.

6. Golden rice is a transgenic variety of Oryza

10. India has three hot spots Indo-Burma,

Himalayas, Western Ghats-Sri Lanka.

11. Podophyllum is a critically endangered

genus of herbaceous perennial plants.
Which are woody land plants and typically
grows in colonies.
Podophyllum is facing very risk of extinction
in the wild and can become extinct any
moment in the immediate future.

12. Caspian

tiger
has
undergone
anthropogenic extinction who had been
recorded in the wild till 1970's. The major
habitat the species was in the patchy
regions of Caspian sea. Wooly mammoth,
mastodon and giant sloth had undergone
mass extinction during Pleistocene age.

13. Devonian period is known as the 'Age of

Fishes'. Some fossil fish are found in
Silurian period but more well present in
Devonian period Carboniferous period is
the Age of amphibians and Jurassic
period is called Age of reptiles.

14. Oophosocytosis is also known as Ovarian

sativa. It contains good quantity of

-carotene, which is a principal source of
vitamin-A. Since, the grains of the rice are
yellow in colour due to -carotene, the rice
is commonly called as golden rice.

cysts. They are fluid filled tumours of the

ovary. Such cysts sometimes rupture and
regress (get smaller) during pregnancy.
In old women they are surgically
removed.

7. Earliest fossils of Amphibia are known as

15. Candidiasis is caused by yeast pathogen

Labyrinthodontia because of the folded

nature of dentine of their teeth.
Ichthyostega is a primitive fossil amphibian
included in Labyrinthodontia.

Candida albicans (vaginal yeast). This

yeast is normally found in mouth, colon and
vagina. This infection spread through
sexual contact.

8. tRNA is also called soluble RNA (sRNA) in

16. Monozygotic twins are concordant type.

which form it was known before the

discovery of genetic code, it is called
soluble because a soluble segment of RNA
from liver cells did not sediment after
several hours of centrifuging.

They have identical characters and they are

of the same sex. Dizygotic twins are of
non-concordant type, i.e., they may be of
same sex or of different sexes.

9. A population has three ecological age

groups; pre-reproductive, reproductive and
post-reproductive.
Their abundance
determines the reproductive status of
population.

17. Nephritis is a kidney disease, which is

inherited by XY-linked genes. XY-linked
genes occurs in homologous sections of
X and Y-chromosomes. Another example
of XY-linked inheritance is xeroderma
pigmentosa.

AFMC (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013 |

31

18. Anemophilous flowers are colourless,

27. The surface to which water molecules are

odourless and nectarless. These small

plants are pollinated by wind as there pollen
grains are light, small and dusty,
e.g., maize, Cannabis and date palm.

adsorbed is called matric. Matric potential

is influenced by the polymers present in the
cell wall. It is not significant in osmosis
because it is limited in cells and has
negative value.

19. The flowers of entomophilous plants are

gaudy due to the presence of bright colours
in corolla, sepals, bracts, etc. These flowers
are pollinated by many insects such as
moths, butterflies, wasps and bees.

20. B-DNA (Balanced DNA) has right handed

duplex model. It is the stable and
physiologically active form of DNA. It is right
handed double helix with 10 base pair per
turn of helix.

28. Pressure potential has negative pressure

potential. It operates in plant cells as wall
pressure and turgor pressure. Negative
pressure potential develops in xylem due to
loss of water in transpiration.

29. Maximum

transpiration
occurs
in
mesophytic plants. Mesophytes have
broad, flat and green leaves, which provide
maximum surface area for transpiration.

21. Bomato is produced by fusion of somatic

30. Instead of low pH, high pH govern the

cells of brinjal and tomato. This process is

known as somatic hybridisation and it
involves the fusion of protoplasts of the
two cell.
Somatic hybrids in plants were first
obtained between two species of tobacco.

stomatal opening. At low concentration of

CO 2 , pH of guard cells rises.

22. Siri is the drought breed of cattles. The

bullock of these breeds are good for
working but cows are poor milk producers.
Gir, Sahiwal and Deoni are milch breeds
having poor quality of bullocks but good
milk production.

23. Payers patches are clusters of lymph

nodules that are found along the ileum.
They are involved in the production of
lymphocytes.

24. IgE constitutes less than 0.17 of all

antibodies in the blood. These antibodies
are involved in allergic and hypersensitivity
reactions. They exhibits the unique property
of heat lability.

25. Myelogenous leukemia is caused by

reciprocal translocation between a part of
longarm
of
chromosomes
22
to
chromosome 9. It brings about change in the
conformation of C- Abl protein.

26. A seed, which appears dry has 10-15%

water. This quantity of water helps the seed
to respire and withstand unfavourable
conditions. Without this water seed will stop
respiring and die.

31. Potassium is one of the 17 elements that

have been found to be essential. Potassium
maintain
cell
turgidity,
respiration,
cation-anion balance protein synthesis, etc.
sodium, aluminium and cobalt are the
non-essential elements required by higher
plants.

32. Nickel (Ni 2+ ) is a micronutrient, which is

required in small amount (0.1 mg/gm) by
plants. Slightly quantity of Ni 2+ becomes
toxic to plants Ni 2+ is constituent of urease.

33. Nitrogenase is an enzyme that is actively

involved in the process of nitrogen fixation.
This enzyme has two elements, iron and
molybdenum. Both of them attaches to a
molecule of nitrogen.

34. Value of RQ is less than unity during seed

germination. During this period, the
respiration is aerobic, but the respiratory
substrate is either fat or protein.

35. (c) Krebs cycle is amphibiotic in which both

catabolism and anabolism reactions occur.
Krebs cycle takes place in the matrix of
mitochondria and it does not consume
ATP.

36. Cytokinins are either amino purine or phenyl

urea derivatives and hence, they are basic
in nature. Auxin and gibberellin are weakly
acidic and ethylene is a gaseous hormone.

32

| AFMC (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013

37. Tonsils are consist in Waldeyer's ring. This

44. Mosquito is uricotelic as it lives in dry

ring consist of pharyngeal tonsil, tubal

tonsil palatine tonsil and lingual tonsil. This
structure resemble the shape of a ring
therefore it is named Waldeyers ring.

conditions and have to conserve water in

their body. Therefore, mosquitoes forms
the crystal of uric acid from ammonia.

38. Total number of teeth in rat is 16. Dental

45. Male urethra has two sphincter,one internal

1003
2, i.e., canines and
1003
premolars are absent in rat. Rat has
12 molars and 4 incisors.

and one external. Internal sphincter is

supplied by both sympathetic and
parasympathetic nervous system and
external sphincter is supplied by somatic
nerve.

39. Sprue is caused due to the deficiency of

46. There are 12 pairs of ribs which falls under

formula of rat is

folacin. This disease is characterised by

ulaceration of mouth, inflammation of bowel,
indigestion, diarrhoea and weakness.

40. Larynx is consists of nine cartilages. Three

cartilages are single and three are paired.
Larynx is also called as voice box and it is
present at the opening of trachea.

41. Pinnaglobin is a manganese containing

pigment, which is brown in colour. It occurs
in the blood of some molluscs,
Haemocyanin contain copper and appear
blue in colour. Chlorocruorin is a green
pigment that contain iron.

42. Tachypnea is condition of rapid breathing.

the category of flat bones. Vertebrae are

irregular bone and carpals are short bonds.
Incus is a cartilage bone.

47. Still's disease is a kind of rheumatoid

arthritis that occurs in younger people.
Therefore, Stills disease is also known as
juvenile rheumatoid arthritis. It is
characterised by the inflammation of
synovial membrane.

48. Hyoid is a horse-shoe shaped bone

present in neck between lower jaw and
larynx. Some muscles of the tongue and
floor of mouth attaches to this bone.

The term eupnea represent normal

breathing hypercapnea is excess of CO 2 in
blood and orthopnea is the inability to
breathe in a horizontal position.

49. Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF) is slightly

43. Splenic vein is also known as lienal vein. It

50. Yellow spot is also known as macula lutea.

collects blood from spleen and pancreas.

Due to the presence of excess of RBCs in
spleen, splenic vein receive blood rich in
haemoglobin. Hepatic vein contain
maximum amount of urea.

It contain yellow pigment and no nerve

starts from this spot. It is the place where
image is formed.

alkaline fluid and has pH 7.33. CSF is a

blood filtrate, which is colourless and found
inside the ventricles of the brain.