Letter Killeth, Spirit Gives Life

CRIMINALISTICS
Criminalistics - is the forensic science of analyzing and

interpreting evidence using the natural sciences.
Calvin Goddard - 1891-1955) father of ballistics. Developed

the technique to examine bullets using a comparison
microscope to determine whether or not a particular gun
fired the bullets.
Forensic science pertains to all sciences applied to legal

problems.
- application of scientific techniques in collecting and
analyzing physical evidence in criminal cases.
Albert Osborn - (1858-1946) father of document examination.

His work led to the acceptance of documents as scientific
evidence by the courts.
Hans Gross - (1847-1915) An Austrian criminalist who in 1891

first used the term criminalistics. Father of forensic
publications. Wrote the book on applying all the different
science disciplines to the field of criminal investigation.
Walter McCrone - (1916-1915) father of microscopic

forensics. He developed and applied his microscopic
techniques to examine evidence in countless court cases.
Sir Arthur Conan Doyle - sci-fi author in late 1800.

Popularized scientific crime detection methods through his
fictional character "Sherlocke Holmes".
Edmond Locard - (1877-1966) father of the crime lab. In

1910, he started the first crime lab in an attic of a police
station. Founded the institute of criminalistics in France. His
most important contribution was the "Locards Exchange
Principle".
Mathiew Orfila - (1787-1853) father of toxicology. Wrote

about the detection of poisons and their effects on animals.
Locard Exchange Principle
Alphonse Bertillon - (1853-1914) father of anthropometry.

Developed a system to distinguish one individual person
from another based on certain body requirements.
Francis Galton - (1822-1911) father of fingerprinting.
Developed fingerprinting as a way to uniquely identify
individuals.
Leone Lattes - (1887-1954) father of blood stain
identification. He developed a procedure for determining the
blood type (A,B,AB or O) of a dried stain.
1. Every contact leaves a trace

2. Every criminal can be connected to a crime by particles
carried from the crime scene
3. When a criminal comes in contact with an object or
person, a cross transfer of evidence occurs.
J. Edgar Hoover - father of the FBI. Director of the FBI during
the 1930s. His leadership spanned 48 years and 8
presidential administration. Organized a national laboratory
to offer forensic services to all law enforcement agencies in
the US.
CRIMINOLOGY REVIEWER COMPILATION
Goals of Forensic Science - to determine the cause, location,

and time of death.
POLICE PHOTOGRAPY
Johann Zahn - in 1685, built the first camera obscura that wa
Joseph Nicephore Niepce - was a french inventor who is note
1920 - the electronic video camera tube was invented, start
William Henry Fox Talbot - a British inventor and pioneer of

Forensic photography - sometimes referred to as police photography, forensic imaging or crime scene photography. - is the art of pr
Lumiere Brothers - introduced the autochrome, the first com

Photography - is the art, science and practice of creating durable images by recording light. The word photography was derived from
Kodachrome - the first modern integral tripack color film, wa

Photograph - is an image created by light falling on a light-sensitive surface usually photographic film or electronic imager.
Sir John Herschel - made the word photography known to the world in a lecture before the royal society of London on 1839.
Camera - is a device that records and stores images.
History of camera
Mo Ti - 5th century BC Chinese philosopher who noted that a pin hole can form an inverted and focused image when light pass
Aristotle - in 4th century BC, described observing a partial solar eclipse in 330 BC by seeing the image of the sun projected thro
Ibn Al-Haytham (Alhazen) - an Egyptian scientist who wrote about observing a solar eclipse through a pin hole and he described
camera obscura
Roger Bacon - English philosopher and Franciscan friar who in his study of optics, included a discussion of the physiology of eye
Camera obscura - obscura means dark or darkened chamber room
Johannes Kepler - a German mathematician and astronomer who applied the actual name of camera obscura and later added a
Basic Modern Camera Parts
1. Lens
- the
light enters
through
the lens,
this
is where photo pr
Robert Boyle - a British scientist who, with his assistant Robert
Hooke
developed
a portable
camera
in the
1660.
2. View Finder - is what the photographer looks through to compo
the picture.
3. Body - the basic most part of a camera. It is the box that holds the film and the camera controls.
4. Shutter Release - is a button found on many cameras used to take the picture.
5. Aperture - is a hole or an opening thorough which light travels. The aperture affects the image's
exposure by changing the diameter of the lens opening which control the amount of light reaching
the image sensor.
6. Image Sensor - converts the optical image to an electronic signal.
7. Memory Card - stores all the image information.
Friction ridge - is a raised portion of the epidermis on the fingers
8. LCD Screen - typically replaced the view finder.
9. Flash - provide extra light during dim, low light situations.
Dermatoglyphics - scientific study of fingerprints.
10. User Control
of Prints
Exposure - total amount of light allowed to fall on the photographic Type
medium
during the process the of taking photograph.
1. Exemplar - "known prints" - fingerprints deliberately collecte

Film Speed - is the measure of a photographic films sensitivity to light.
2. Latent - means chance or accidental impression left by the f
3.Patent
- chance
ridge
impressions
which are obvious
Shutter Cycle - is the process of the shutter opening, closing and resetting
to where
it isfriction
ready to
open
again.
4. Plastic Print - is a friction ridge impression left in a material
5. Electronic
Recording
man selling stolen
Shutter - is a device that allows light to pass for a determined period of
time for the
purpose -ofexample,
exposingaphotographic
film orwatche
light s
Red Eye Effect - is the common appearance of red pupils in color photographs
Notes:
Plantar
refers to feet
and toes.
Photographic Emulsion - is a light sensitive colloid such as gelatin, coated
into a-substance.
In silver
gelatin photography, the emuls
Palmar - refers to finger and palm.
Personal Identification
Personalities who significantly contributed to the science of finge
1. Jan Evangelista Purkinje (1787 - 1869) - a czech physiologist

Fingerprint - is an impression left by the friction ridge of a human finger.
2. Georg Von Meisner (1829 - 1905) - German anatomist who s
3. Sir William James Herschel - initiated fingerprinting in India.
Latent Print - (known as dactyloscopy or hand print identification

4. Henry Faulds - a Scottish surgeon who in 1880, in a Tokyo hospital, published his first paper on the subject in the scientific jour
5. Juan Vucetich - an Argentine chief of police who created the first method of recording the fingerprint of individuals on file, asso
The Most
Popular Ten Print
Classification
System.
6. Alphonse Bertillon - created in 1879 a system to identify individuals
by anthropometric
photographs
and
associated quantitativ
1. Roscher
- developed
in Germany.
Implemented
in Germ
7. Edward Richard Henry - UK home secretary who conducted an inquiry
into System
identification
of criminals
by measurements
and
fing
2. Juan Vucetich System - developed in Argentina. Implemented
Henry
Classification
System
- developed
in India. Implemente
8. Azizul Hague and Hem Chandra Bose - Indian fingerprint expert3.
who
have
been credited
with the
primary development
of a fing
9. Henry P. deForrest - used fingerprinting in the New York civil service in 1902 and by 1906. Pioneered U.S. fingerprinting.
In the Henry System of Classification. There are 3 basic fingerprin
10.
Nehemiah Grew -(1641 - 1712) - in 1684, this English physician, botanist and microscopist published the first scientific pap
11.
Marcelo Malphigi - an anatomy professor at the university of Bologna, noted in his treatise in 1686, ridges, spirals and loo
12.
Mark Twain - in his memoir life on the Mississippi 1883, it mentioned a melodramatic account of a murder in which the kill
1. Loop - constitute 60% to 65% of all fingerprint.
Kinds
of of
Loop
Fingerprint Sensor - is an electronic device used to capture a digital
image
the fingerprint pattern. The captured image is called a
1)ulnar Loop
Biometrics (Biometric Authentication) - refers to the identification of2)radial
humansLoop
by their characteristics or traits.
2. Whorl - constitute 30% to 35% of all fingerprints.

Kinds of Whorl
1)plain Whorl
2)accidental Whorl
3)double Loop whorl
4)central Pocket Loop Whorl.
4. Island - a single small ridge inside a short ridge or ridge ending

ridges.
5. Ridge Enclosure - a single ridge that bifurcates and reunites sh
ridge.
6. Spur - a bifurcation with a short ridge branching off a longer ri
7. Crossover or Bridge - a short ridge that runs between two para
3. Arch - constitute 5% of all fingerprints.
8. Delta - a Y-shape ridge meeting.
Kinds of Arch
9. Core - A U-turn in the ridge pattern.
1)plain Arch
2)tented Arch
Forensic Anthropology - forensic discipline that studies human sk
The Basic Fundamentals of Fingerprints are:
1. Permanence - fingerprints never change.
2. Individuality - no two fingerprints are alike.
Characteristics of a Ridge (minutia Features)
1. Ridge Ending - the end of a ridge.
2. Bifurcation - the Y-shaped split of one ridge into two.
3. Dot - is a very short ridge that looks like a dot.
Forensic Odontology - study of dental features to identify a victim
FORENSIC MEDICINE
Forensic medicine - the science that deals with the
application of medical knowledge to legal question.
When is fingerprint ridges formed? ans. formed during the third to fourth month of fetal development.
Clinical Forensic Medicine - involves an application of
clinical methods for the administration of justice.
Automated Fingerprint Identification System (AFIS) - is the process of automatically matching one of many unknown fingerprints aga
Paulus Zacchias - father of legal medicine as well as
What is a Loop? ans. the ridges enter from one side of the finger, form a curve and then exit on that same side.
father of forensic psychiatry.
What is a whorl? ans. ridges form circularly around a central point on the finger.
Medical Ethics - deals with the moral principles which
What is an Arch? ans. the ridges enter from one side of the finger, rise in the center forming an arch and then exit the other side of t
should guide members of the medical profession in their
dealings with each other, their patients and the state.
What does a Minutiae Include? ans. It includes the following:
1. Ridge Ending - the abrupt end of a ridge.
Medical Etiquette - deals with the conventional laws of
2. Ridge Bifurcation - a single ridge that divides into two ridges.
courtesy observed between members of the medical
3. Short Ridge or Independent Ridge - a ridge that commences, travels a short distance and then ends.
profession.A doctor should behave with his colleagues as
he would have them behave with himself.

Hippocrates - father of medicine, discussed lethality of
wounds and formulated medical ethics.
Forensic Pathology - deals with the study and application
of the effects of violence or unnatural disease in its
various forms in or on the human body, in determining the
cause and manner of death in case of violence,
suspicious, unexplained, unexpected, sudden, and
medically unattended death.
3. To find out the manner of death, whether

accidental, suicidal or homicidal.
4. To establish the identity of the body.
5. In new born infants, to determine live
birth or viability.
Exhumation - is the digging out of an already buried body
from the grave.
Cadaver - also called corpse, is a dead human body.
Carcass - dead body of an animal.
Pathology - is the precise study and diagnosis of disease.

Pathologist - a medical doctor who conducts an autopsy.
Autopsy - post mortem examination of a corpse.
Other names of an autopsy
1. post-mortem examination
2. necropsy -particularly as to non human body
3. autopsia cadavarem
4. obduction
Injury - is damage to a biological organism which can be

classified on various bases.
Wound - is a type of injury in which the skin is torn, cut,
or punctured or where blunt force trauma causes a
contusion.
Classification of wound
1. open wound - is a break in the skin's surface
resulting in external bleeding.
2. closed wound - the skin is not broken open and
remains intact.
Classification/ Categories of open wounds
Objectives of Autopsy
1. To find out the time of death.
2. To find out the cause of death.
1. incised wound - caused by a clean, sharp edged

object such as a knife, razor or a glass splinter.
2. laceration - irregular tear like wound caused by

some blunt trauma.
3. abrasion - (grazes) - superficial wound in which the
top most layer of the skin is scraped off. Are often
caused by a sliding fall into a rough surface.
4. puncture wound - caused by an object puncturing
the skin such as nail.
5. penetration wound - caused by an object such as a
knife entering and coming out from the skin.
6. gunshot wound - caused by a bullet or similar
projectile driving into or through the body. There
may be two wounds, one at the site of entry and one
at the site of exit generally referred to as through
and through.
Classification/Categories of closed wound
1. contusions - commonly known as bruises, caused by
a blunt force trauma that damages tissue under the
skin.
2. hematoma - called blood tumor, caused by damage
to a blood vessel that in turn causes blood to collect
under the skin.
3. crush injury - caused by a great or extreme amount
of force applied over a long period of time.
decomposing tissue.
incised wound
37 degrees celsius or 98 degrees fahrenheit - average

body temperature.
4 Categories of Death
1. natural causes
2. homicide/killing
3. accidental death
Ante Mortem - before death.

Post Mortem - scientific term for after death.
Cadaver tag - an identification tag attached to the
cadaver containing tag number, name if identified,
date/time and place of recovery, date/time of incident,
gender, other pertinent information and name of the
investigator.
In articulo mortis - at the point of death.
Rigor mortis - stiffening of the body after death.
lividity - process through which the body's blodd supply
will stop moving after the heart has stopped pumping it
around the inside of the deceased.
4. suicide
Vital signs -are measures of various physiological
statistics often taken by health professionals in order to
assess the most basic body functions.
1. body temperature
2. pulse rate/heart rate
3. blood pressure
4. respiratory rate
Death - cessation of all biological functions that sustains
a living organism.
Causes of death:
Necrophagus - this type of organism feeds directly on
1. old age
2. predation - biological interaction where a predator
(organism that is hunting) feeds on its prey (the
organism that is attacked).
3. malnutrition
4. disease
5. accidents
6. injury
Signs of death
1. cessation of breathing
2. cardiac arrest - no pulse
3. livor mortis - settling of the blood in the lower
dependents of the body.
4. algor mortis - reduction in body temperature
following death.
5. rigor mortis - the limbs of the corpse become stiff
and difficult to move.
6. decomposition - reduction into simple form of matter
accompanied by strong unpleasant odor.

Cadaveric Spasm - sudden rigidity of the muscle
immediately after death. A rare form of muscular
stiffening that occurs at the moment of death,persists
into the period of rigor mortis and can be mistaken for
rigor mortis.
Other Names of cadaveric Spasm
1. Instantaneous rigor
2. Cataleptic rigidity
3. Instantaneous rigidity
4. Death grip
5. Post Morten spasm
When does the stiffness of death begin to disappear?
after 36 hours.
What is the rate of temperature change to a body after
death? after one hour,body temperature drops 1 to 1 1/2
degrees per hour.
Dying Declaration - is a testimony that would normally
barred as hearsay but may nonetheless be admitted as
evidence in certain kinds of cases because it constituted
the last words of a dying person.
Nemo Morituros Praesumitur Mentiri - a dying person is
not presumed to lie.
Zombie - an animated corpse brought back to life by
mystical means such as witchcraft.
Coffin Birth - (post Morten fetal extrusion) - is the

expulsion of a non viable fetus though the vaginal
opening of the decomposing body of a pregnant woman
as a result of the increasing pressure of the intra
abdominal gases.
aid in legal investigations.
Code of Hammurabi - King of Babylon (4000 to 3000 BC) is

the oldest known medico legal code.
What are the 5 stages of insect development?

1. Eggs
2. Larvae
3. Prepupae
4. Pupae
5. Adult fly
Bologna, Italy - where the first medico-legal autopsy was

done.
What are the 2 methods of biological forensics are

concerned with? entomology and DNA.
Bartolomeo de Varignana - conducted the first medicolegal autopsy in Italy in 1302.

Fortunato Fedele - an Italian physician who in 1602
published the first book on forensic medicine.
Residence time - this defines how long an insect colony

has been at a corpse.
The body farm - used for entomological experiment.This
place exists at the University of Tennessee.
Inquest - is the legal or judicial inquiry to ascertain a

matter of fact.
Euthanasia - (mercy killing) - it means producing painless
death of a person suffering from hopelessly incurable and
painful disease. It is not allowed by law in the Philippines.
Malingering/Shamming - means conscious, planned
feigning or pretending disease for the sake of gain.
The Rule of Haase - is used to estimate age of fetus.The
length of the fetus in cm. divided by five, is the duration
of pregnancy in months.
Forensic Entomology - is the use of insects and their
arthropod relatives that inhabit decomposing remains to
LIE DETECTION AND INTERROGATION (POLYGRAPH)
Polygraph - popularly referred to as lie detector. - measures and r

- literally means "many writings".
- is derived from two Greek words "Poly"which means many and "Graphos"which means writing.
blood pressure - is the pressure exerted by circulating bloo
pulse - represents the tactile arterial palpitation of the hear
10
respiration - the transport of oxygen from the outside air to the cells within tissues and the transport of carbon dioxide in the o
Lie Detection - is the practice of determining whether someone is
skin conductivity - also known as Galvanic sin response - is a method of measuring the electrical conductance of the skin which
Three Basic Approaches To The Polygraph Test
ohmmeter - is an electrical instrument that measures electrical

opposition
an electric
current.
1. resistance,
The Controlthe
Question
Test to
(CQT)
- this test
compares the physio
2. Thecurrent.
Directed Lie Test (DLT) - this test tries to detect lying by co
galvanometer - an instrument for detecting and measuring electric
3. stimulus
The Guilty
Knowledge Test (GKT) - this test compares physiolog
stimuli - is applied to sensory receptor, it influences a reflex via
transduction.
3 Phases Of A Polygraph Examination

Personalities who contributed to the development of the polygraph machine.
1. Pre-Test Phase - the examiner discusses with the subject th
Cesare Lombroso - he invented in 1895 a device to measure changers
in will
blood
forthe
police
that
bepressure
ask during
testcase.
and assess the subjects emo
John Augustus Larson - a medical student at the University of California
at
Berkeley,
invented
the
polygraph
in 1921.The device
undergo the polygraph test.
2. Testing
Phase
- subjects
physiological
responses
are record
Leonarde Keeler - was the co-inventor of the polygraph. He developed
the so
called
cardio-pneumo
psychogram
capable
of dete
reviewedofearlier.
William Marston - an american who used blood pressure to examinequestions
german prisoners
war.
3.
Post
Test
Phase
examiner
reviews
test
data obtained
and
John Reid - In 1948, developed a device which recorded muscular activity accompanying changes
in blood
pressure.
He claimed
Two types of present day polygraph instrumentation
1. analog
2. computerized - most polygraph examiners now used this.
Conclusions That A Polygraph Examiner May Reach

1. Subject is telling the truth
2. Subject is not telling the truth
3. The result is inconclusive
* A polygraph test normally lasts between one and a half hour

Types of Questions in a Polygraph Test
1. Control Question - preliminary information question
* Polygraph test result in the Philippines is not admissible in e
2. Irrelevant Question accused.
3. Relevant Question
- In a polygraph test, the types of questions alternates, the test
is passed
if the
physiological
* Polygraph
test
is voluntary.
responses during the probable lie control questions are larger than those during the relevant
question.
* The accuracy of polygraph test is about 90% provided the ex
11
polygraph machine is in good working condition.

* Polygraph is an investigative tool.
Firearms identification - the identification of fired bullets, cartrid
Rifling - is the process of making helical grooves in the barrel of a
* The principle behind a lie detection test is that when the subject
Projectile
hears a- questions
is any object
which
projected
he or she
into
intends
space to
by lie,
thethe
exertion
brain of
inte
a
Who Uses The Polygraph
1. Law Enforcement Agencies
2. Legal Community
3. Private Sector
Trajectory - is the path that a moving object follows through spac
Firearm - is a weapon that launches one or many projectiles at hi
Ballistic fingerprinting - involves analyzing firearm, ammunition a
Kinds of Errors in a Polygraph Test

1. False Positive - occurs when a truthful examinee is reported
Gunas
ballistic
being deceptive.
- is the work of projectile from the time of shooting t
2. False Negative - when a deceptive examinee is reported as truthful.
Four categories of gun ballistics
Causes of Polygraph Errors
1. Failure of examiner to properly prepare the examinee for the
1.examination.
Internal/interior ballistic - the study of the processes origina
2. Misreading of the physiological data on the polygraph charts.
3. Defective polygraph machine.
2. Transition/intermediate ballistic - the study of the projectile
Reactions - changes in blood pressure, pulse rate, breathing and sweat

3. External/exterior
activity.
ballistic - the study of the passage of the p
4. Terminal ballistic - is the study of the interaction of a projec

FORENSIC BALLISTICS
Colonel Calvin Hooker Goddard - father of forensic ballistic.

Forensic ballistics - is the science of analyzing firearms usage in crimes. It involves analysis of bullets and bullets impact to determin
Some Factors to be Considered in designing a Firearm
1.with
reliability
of firing
Ballistics -(ballein "to throw") - is the science of mechanics that deals
the flight,
behavior and effects of projectiles especially bu
2. accuracy of projectile
3. force
of projectile
Ballistic missile - is a missile, only guided during the relative brief initial
powered
phase of flight whose course is subsequently gove
4.
speed
of
firing
Flight - is the process by which an object moves through an atmosphere by generating aerodynamic lift, propulsive thrust, aerostati
12
Characteristics of a Muzzle Loader Firearm

1. powder and bullet loaded from top of the barrel
2. smooth bore with a round lead ball.
3. limited range and accuracy
Accuracy is Increased
1. by longer bore or length of metal tube
2. putting spiral grooves in the bore (riffling)
5. Breech - the end of the barrel attach to the action
6. Bullets - is a projectile propelled by firearm,sling, airgun. They
round nose - the end of the bullet is blunted.
hollow point - there is a central cavity in the bullet nose no
action 4 - hollow point projectile made of non fragmenting b

Breech loading firearm - is a firearm in which the cartridge or shell is inserted or loaded into a chamber integral to the rear portion o
Sir Hiram Maxim - an American inventor of the machine gun or the maxim
gun.
hydra-Shock
- hollow point projectile with soft deformable a
Richard Gatling - inventor of the Gatling gun, a machine gun with a six barrel
capable
firing
200
rounds per minute
at the
earliest
Jacketed
- theof
soft
lead
is surrounded
by another
metal,
usu
Gatling Gun - a hand driven, crank operated multi barrel machine gun.
wad-cutter - the front of the bullet is flattened.
note: velocities of bullets are increased with the use of a jacket of a metal such as copper or copper alloys that covers a lead core an
semi-wad-cutter - intermediate between round nose and wa
Fouling - deposits of unburned powder residue in the bore of a gun.

7. Butt or Buttstock - the portion of the gun which is held or shou
What is the indispensable tool of the firearm examiner? comparison microscope.

8. Caliber - the diameter of the bore measured from land to land
Firearms Terminology
9. Cartridge - also called a round - packages the bullet, propellan
a containing lever
metallic
case that is precisely made to fit within t
1. Action - the part of the firearm that loads, fires, and ejects a cartridge.Includes
action,pump
Parts of a cartridge
a. bullet
2. Barrel - the metal tube through which the bullet is fired.
b. case/shell
3. Black Powder - the old form of gun powder invented over a thousand years
ago and consisting
c. powder
of nitrate,charcoal,and sulfur.
d. primer
4. Bore - the inside of the barrel.
10. Centerfire - the cartridge contains the primer in the center of

firing pin of the action.
13
and leaves little residue when ignited. For centuries black pow
11. Chamber - the portion of the action that holds the cartridge ready for
firing.at low temperature or shock),was composed of irregu
(ignited
heavy residue after ignition,requiring frequent cleaning of bo
12. Choke - a constriction of a shotgun bore at the muzzle that determines the pattern of the fired
shot.
24. Primer - a volatile substance that ignites when struck to deto
13. Double Action - Pulling the trigger both cocks the hammer and fires
gun. cartridges - have primer inside the base.
the
Rimfire
14. Double Barrel - two barrels side by side or one on top of the other usually on a shotgun.
Centerfire cartridges - have primer in a hole in the middle of
15. Gauge - refers to the diameter of the barrel on a shotgun in terms of the number of lead balls the
Revolver
- handgun
has
a cylinder with holes to contain t
size of the bore it would take to weigh one pound (10 gauge,12 25.
gauge
etc) "410"
gaugethat
really
refer
bring
the
cartridge
into
position
to be fired. This is a single ac
to caliber,but it is worded as such to refer to a shotgun.
before the trigger can fire the weapon. It is double action whe
fires the
the cartridge
gun.
16. Hammer - a metal rod or plate that typically drives a firing pin to strike
primer to
detonate the powder.
26. Riffling - the spiral grooves cut inside a gun barrel that give t
metal between
the grooves
is called a land.
17. Ignition - the way in which powder is ignited. Old muzzle loading weapons
used flintlock
or
percussion caps.Modern guns use primers that are rimfire or centerfire.
27. Rimfire - the cartridge has the primer distributed around the
18. Lands and Grooves - lands are the metal inside the barrel left after the spiral grooves are cut to
28. Safety - a mechanism of an action to prevent firing of the gun
produce the rifling.
Shotgun
- a guninto
withthe
a smooth
bore that shoots cartridges th
19. Magazine - this is a device for storing cartridges in a repeating 29.
firearm
for loading
chamber.
pellets of lead or steel as the projectiles.
20. Magnum - for rifles and handguns, an improved version of a standard cartridge which uses the
Smoothbore
weapons
- have no riflings, typically shotguns. M
same caliber and bullets, but has more powder, giving the fired 30.
bullet
more energy.
For shotgun
riflings.
loads,magnum shells have more powder and may have increased length
with more shot pellets.
21. Muzzle - the end of the barrel out of which the bullet comes.
31. Sights - the device on top of the barrel that allow the gun to b
32. Silencer - a device that fits over the muzzle of the barrel to m
22. Pistol - synonym for a handgun that does not have a revolving cylinder.
work by baffling the escape of gases.
23. Powder - modern gun cartridges use smokeless powder that is relatively stable,of uniform quality,
14
33. Single Action - the hammer must be manually cocked before the trigger can be pulled to fire the
gun
1. letter form which includes curve, connections, slants, size a
34. Smokeless Powder - refers to modern gun powder which is not really
2. line
powder
quality
butwhich
flakesindicated
or
the amount of pressure used by
nitrocellulose and other substances. Not really smokeless but much less so than black powder.
3. Arrangement which refers to spacing, formatting and alignm
35. Stock - a wood,metal,or plastic frame that holds the barrel and action and allows the gun to be held
firmly.
Characteristics which indicate that a handwriting sample has bee
Composition of Gunpowder
1. shaky lines
1. Sulfur
2. Charcoal
2. dark, thick starts and finish
3. Saltpeter (potassium nitrate)
- gun powder first appeared in china but used primarily in firecrackers.
3. numerous pen lifts
Different Firing Mechanisms of Firearm

But they may also be the result of nervousness, alcohol imp
1. Matchlock - employed a burning wick on a spring that was "locked" back and released into a pan of powder upon pulling a trigge
2 Wheellock - in the early 16th century, improvement included the wheellock
mechanism
in which
a spinning
against
a metal
The content
of what
a person
writes iswheel
analyzed
by handwrit
3. Flintlock - developed in the early 17th century, flint is released by the trigger mechanism that strikes a steel plate to shower spa
4. Percussion - evolved in the 19th century, consisted of a hammer that was locked and when released, struck a cap containing a vo
The speed or how fast a person write is not considered in ha
Calligraphy - decorative handwriting or handwritten lettering. Th

QUESTIONED DOCUMENT
Three Stages in the Process of Handwriting Examinations

1. other
Analysis
- the
questioned
and
the known is
items
are analyzed
an
Questioned Document - is any signature, handwriting, typewriting or
mark
whose
source or
authenticity
in dispute
or doubt
characteristics.
2. Comparison - the characteristics of the questioned item are the
Graphology - study of the handwriting to determine personality traits.
standard.
3. Evaluation
Simulation - an attempt to disguise one's handwriting or copy someone
Else's. - similarities and differences in the compared prope
determines which ones are valuable for a conclusion. This dep
frequency of occurrence in the items.
The following trait are considered in handwriting analysis:
Handwriting Exemplar - known standards - is a piece of writing th

15
FORENSIC CHEMISTRY AND TOXICOLOGY

Two Types of Handwriting Exemplars
1. Request Writings - obtained from individual specifically for the purpose
of conducting
Forensic
chemistry -aishandwriting
the application of chemistry to criminal i
comparison.
2. Collected Writings -samples the individual produced for some other
unrelated
reason
the
Forensic
Science
- is generally
the use ofinscience
and technology to enforc
course of their day to day activities.
Blood - a specialized body fluid that circulates in the arteries and
Common Questioned Documents
1. Forgery
Semen - the male reproductive fluid containing spermatozoa in s
2. Counterfeiting
3. Mail Fraud
Moulage - is the art of applying mock injuries for the purpose of
4. Kidnapping
5. embezzlement
Methods of Identifying Unknown Substance
6. Theft
1. Gas Chromatograph-Mass Spectrometer - useful method for t
7. Robbery
identification and quantization of one or more individual com
8. Sex Crime
mixture.
9. Murder
2. Spectroscopy - is the study of the interaction between matte
10.Homicide
Spectrophotometer - instrument used to aide in the identification
Historical Dating - work involving the verification of age and worth of a document or object.
Gas Chromatograph - a chemical analyzer and instrument for sep
Indicators of Forgery
1. Blunt starts ans stops
Mass Spectrometry - is the analytical technique that measures th
2. Pen lifts and hesitations
3. Tremor
Amino Acid - the building blocks of protein coded by triplets of b
4. Speed and Pressure
5. Patching
Ammonia - a colorless gaseous alkaline compound that is very so
Anemia - any condition in which the number of red blood cells, th
Aplasia - failure of an organ or tissue to develop normally.
Autolysis - the destruction of cells after death due to lack of abil
16
Hair - any of the fine threadlike strands growing from the skin of humans, mammals,
5. distribution,
and some
shape,
other
andanimals.
color intensity of the pigment
What types of evidence found at the crime scene are most likely
What are the 3 stages of hair growth?
Hair from different parts of the body vary significantly in its phys
1. Anagen phase - the growth phase. It begins in the papilla and can last up to 8 years. The span at
which the hair remains in this stage is determined by genetics. The
Forensic
longer Toxicology
the hair stays
- deals
in the
with the
anagen
medical
phase,
andthe
legal
faster
aspects
and of
lon
2. Catagen Phase - also known as the transitional phase, allows the Forensic
follicle to- renew
During
this
comes itself.
from the
Latin
word "forensis" meaning forum.
time which last about 2 week, the hair follicle shrinks due to disintegration and the papilla detaches and rests, cutting the hair str
Toxicology - from the Greek word toxicos - "poisonous" and "logos
3. Telogen phase - or resting phase, the hair and follicle remain dormant anywhere
from
to 4months,
10% to 15%
of the hairsand
in one
- it is
the 1study
of the symptoms,
mechanisms
tre
begins again when this phase is complete. The root is club shaped.
Poison - a substance that when introduced into or absorbed by a
Shedding - the process of normal hair loss.
Toxin - an antigenic poison or venom of plant or animal origin esp
Alopecia - a hair loss disease that causes the hair to spontaneously fall out.It
is mainly
characterized
by bald
patches
on the scalp
o
- poisonous
substance
produced
during
the metabolism
and
some higher plant and animal species.
Medulla - inner most layer of the hair shaft.
Venom - poisonous fluid secreted by animals and typically injecte
From which part of the body are most often used for hair comparison?
Acute Poisoning - is exposure to poison on one occasion or during
How to determine the likely race of the person from which a hair originated?
1. Caucasian - evenly distributed, fine pigmentation Wavy withChronic
round cross
section.
Poisoning
- is long term repeated or continuous exposure
2. Mongoloid - Continuous medullation.
3. Negroid - dense, uneven pigmentation.
Antidote - a medicine taken or given to counter act a particular p
- a substance which can counteract poisoning.
Rate of speed of hair growth - 1.25 cm or .05 inches per month or about 6 inches or 15 cm. per year.
Mathieu Orfila - is considered to be the modern father of toxicolo
What aspect of the hair is the criminalist interested in matching?
1. matching color
Dioscorides - a Greek physician in the court of Roman emperor Ne
2. Length
3. Diameter
Jean Stas - a belgian analytical chemist who in 1850 gave the evid
4. presence or absence of medulla
17
Celsus - a roman physician from the first century, considered the father of toxicology. He is credited with the toxicology maxim "all t
1. The basic mission for which the police exist is to prevent crime
Paracelsus - "Theophrastus Phillipus Aureleus Bombastus von Hohenheim
2. The ability
(1493-1541)
of the -police
believe
to that
perform
his studies
their duties
were is
above
dependent
and bey
u
3. Police must secure the willing cooperation of the public in volu
LD50 - is the dose required to kill half the members of a tested population
4. The degree
after aof
specified
cooperation
test duration.
of the public that can be secured dim
5. Police seek and preserve public favor not by catering to public
Dose - a quantity of medicine or drug taken or recommended to be 6.
taken
Police
at a
use
particular
physicaltime.
force to the extent necessary to secure obs
7. Police at all time should maintain a relationship with the public
Overdose - the ingestion or application of a drug or other substance
8.in
Police
quantities
should
greater
alwaysthan
direct
are
their
recommended.
actions strictly towards their
9. The test of police efficiency is the absence of crime and disord
Carcinogen - any substance capable of causing cancer in living tissue.
Administration of Police Organization
Corrosive substance - is one that will destroy or irreversibly damage another surface or substance with which it comes into contact.
Police - one of the pillars of the criminal justice system that has t
Administration - an organizational process concerned with the im

Law Enforcement Administration (L.E.A.)
Organization - a group of persons working together for a common
Police Organization - a group of trained personnel in the field of p
Law Enforcement Administration - the process involved in ensuringEnforcement

strict compliance,
proper
obedience
of laws
related
statutes
- means
to compel
obedience
toand
a law,
regulation
or
Law - the system of rules that a particular country or community recognizes

as regulating
the- pertains
actions of
and may
enforc
Law Enforcement
Agency
toits
anmembers
organization
responsibl
Enforcement - means to compel obedience to a law, regulation or command.

Objectives - refer to the purpose by which the organization was c
Administration - an organizational process concerned with the implementation

objectives
andofplans
and internal
efficien
Supervision of
- means
the act
watching
over theoperating
work or tasks
o
Sir Robert Peel - considered a "father of law enforcement".
Sir Robert Peels Nine Principles of Policing:
Management - the process of directing and facilitating the work o

supplies and time).
Hierarchy - represents the formal relationship among superiors a

18
Authority - the right to command and control the behavior of employees

Division
in lower
- a primary
positions
subdivision
within an of
organizational
a bureau.
hierarchy. Must b
A particular position within the organization. Carries the same regardless of who occupies that position.
Section - functional unit within a division that is necessary for s
Management/Administrative Functions
1. Planning
Unit - functional group within a section or the smallest functiona
2. Organizing
2. Territorial Units
3. Directing
4. Controlling
Post - a fixed point or location to which an officer is assigned fo
5. staffing
6. Reporting
Route - a length of streets designated for patrol purpose, also
7. Budgeting
Principles of efficient Management
Beat - an area designed for patrol purposes whether foot or mo
Sector
an areaof
containing
two or more beat, route or post.
* Division of work - work specialization can increase efficiency with the
same-amount
effort.
District
- a power
geographical
subdivision of a city for patrol purpose
* Authority and Responsibility- authority includes the right to command
and the
to require
obedience. One cannot have authority without responsibility.
Area - the
a section
or the
territorial division of a large city each comp
* Discipline - necessary for an organization to function effectively, however,
state of
disciplinary process depends upon the quality of its leaders.
EVOLUTION OF THE POLICING SYSTEM
* Unity of Command - subordinate should receive
ORIGIN OF THE WORD POLICE
orders from one superior only.
Greek
word
which
means
government
of the
city the v
* Scalar Chain - the hierarchy of authority is the order of ranks fromPOLITEIA
the highest
to the
lowest
levels
of the
organization.
Shows
units from top to bottom describing explicitly the flow of authority.
POLITIA Roman word which means condition of the state or gov
Organizational Units in the Police Organization
POLICE French word which was later adopted by the English lan
1. Functional Units
THEORIES OF POLICE SERVICE
Bureau - the largest organic functional unit within a large department; comprised of several divisions.
19
1. HOME RULE THEORY

the city), which had the primary task of firefighting and polic
- policemen are regarded as servants of the community, who rely for
- the
theVigiles
efficiency
acted
of their
as night
functions
watch, apprehendinng thieves, keep
upon the express needs of the people.
hunting down runaway slaves, and were on occasion used to
- policemen are civil servants whose key duty is the preservation of- public
the Vigiles
peace
dealt
and primarily
security. with petty crimes and looked for di
2. CONTINENTAL THEORY
patrolled the streets
- policemen are regarded as state or servants of the higher authorities
- created a special unit called PRAETORIAN GUARDS, a special f
- the people have no share or have little participation with the dutiesEmperors
nor connection
as the with
Emperors'
the police
personal guards
organization.
- as personal guards of the Emperor, their primary duty was to
assassination and other forms of attack against the Emperor.
CONCEPTS OF POLICE SERVICE
4. ENGLAND
a) FRANKPLEDGE SYSTEM/MUTUAL PLEDGE SYSTEM
1. OLD CONCEPT
- required all males aged 12 and above to join a group of
- police service gives the impression of being merely a suppressive machinery
- members of the tything are called a TYTHINGMEN
- this philosophy advocates that the measurement of police competence is
- athe
CONSTABLE
increasingserved
number
asof
a leader of ten tythings
arrests, throwing offenders in detention facilities rather than trying to prevent
- the primary
them task
fromof
committing
the thingscrimes
was to protect their villa
2. MODERN CONCEPT
- tythings were later organized into SHIRES
- regards police as the first line of defense of the criminal justice system, -an
a shire
organwas
of crime
headed
prevention
by a leader called SHIRE REEVE, wh
- police efficiency is measured by the decreasing number of crimes
- their duty was to apprehend offenders
- broadens police activities to cater to social services and has for its
b)mission
PARISHthe
CONSTABLES
welfare of the
individual as well as that of the community in general.
- a parish official charged with controlling crimes
- appointed to serve for one year
EARLY POLICING SYSTEM
- duties included organizing watchmen to guard the gates
- during trouble, the watchman would raise a HUE AND C
1. KIN POLICING
the parish would stop what they were doing and come
- the family of the offended individual was expected to assume responsibility for justice
- the family of the victim was allowed to exact vengeance
MODERN POLICING SYSTEM
2. EGYPT
- ancient rulers had elite unit to protect them
1) ENGLAND
- created the MEDJAYS, a form of police force whose duties include a.
guarding
of theRUNNERS
tombs and
BOWSTREET
- a group of men organized to arrest o
apprehending thieves
- organized by Henry Fielding, a magistrate in London, in 17
- introduced the use of dogs as guards and protectors.
- the name was adopted from the name of the street where th
3. ROME
located.
- created the first organized police force called VIGILES OF ROME, or -VIGILES
URBANI
(watchmen
when Henry
Fielding
retiredofas magistrate, he was replaced
20
b. METROPOLITAN POLICE OF ACT 1829

- the law that created the first modern police force in London England,
HIGHLIGHTS
calledOF
the
RAMetropolitan
6975 THE DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR AN
Police Service.
- this law was passed through the initiative of Sir Robert Peel, aA.
member
THE DEPARTMENT
of the Parliament
OF THE INTERIOR AND LOCAL
- the headquarters of the Metropolitan Police Service is the Scotland
GOVERNMENT
Yard, now known
(DILG)as the New
Scotland Yard
- formerly Department of Local Government (DLG)
SIR ROBERT PEEL - recognized as the father of modern policing system.
- reorganized under RA 6975
2. UNITED STATES OF AMERICA

ORGANIZATION: - consist of:
a. NEW YORK POLICE DEPARTMENT
a) the Department proper
- created in 1845 in New York, USA
b) existing bureaus and offices of the DLG
- recognized as the first modern style police department in the US.
c) local government units (LGU)
- the largest police force in the world
1) provincial governors
- modelled after the Metropolitan Police Service of London
2) city and municipal mayors
b. BOSTON POLICE DEPARTMENT
d) the National Police Commission
- the oldest police department in the US
e) the Philippine Public Safety College
- the first night watch was established in Boston in 1631.
f) Philippine National Police
- formally founded in May, 1854.
g) Bureau of Fire Protection
h) Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
AUGUST VOLLMER - recognized as the Father of Modern Law Enforcement
- author of the book, Police Administration, which served as the -basic
the PPSC,
guidePNP,
in the
BFP
administration
and BJMP were
of created under RA 6975
the police organization in the US
- headed by the Secretary to be appointed by the President and
- was the first police chief of Berkeley, California.
President
- the Secretary shall be assisted by two (2) Undersecretaries and
Important Personalities in the Evolution of Philippine Policing
a) Undersecretary for Local Government
b) Undersecretary for Peace and Order
Brig.Gen. Rafael Crame - the first Filipino Chief of the Philippine Constabulary
- No retired
in or
1917.
resigned military officer or police official may be a
(1) year from date of retirement or resignation
Col. Antonio Torres - the first Filipino Chief of Police of the Manila Police
- theDepartment
Secretary isin
also
1935.
the ex officio chairman of the National Po
Col. Lambert Javalera - the first chief of police of the Manila Police Department after the Philippine Independence from the United S
POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF THE DILG
Dir.Gen. Cesar Nazareno - the first chief of the Philippine National Police.
1. Assist the President in the exercise of general supervision over
21
2. Advise the President in the promulgation of policies, rules, regulations

POWERS
and
AND
other
FUNCTIONS
issuancesOF
onTHE
the NAPOLCOM
general supervision over local governments and on public
3. Establish and prescribe rules, regulations and other issuance's implementing
A. Exercise administrative
laws on publiccontrol
order and operational supervision ov
and safety, the general supervision over local governments andwhich
the promotion
shall mean
of the
local
power
autonomy
to:
and community empowerment and monitor compliance thereof;
4. Provide assistance towards legislation regarding local governments,
1. Develop
law enforcement
policies and
and
promulgate
public
a police manual prescribing ru
safety; Establish and prescribe plans, policies, programs and projects to promote peace and order,
ensure public safety and further strengthen the administrative,
2. technical
Examine and audit,
fiscal capabilities
and thereafter
of establish standards for such
local government offices and personnel;
3. Establish
a system
uniform
crime reporting;
5. Formulate plans, policies and programs which will meet local emergencies
arising
fromofnatural
and
man-made disasters; Establish a system of coordination and cooperation among the citizenry, local
4. Conduct
surveys
and compile statistical data
executives and the Department, to ensure effective and efficient
delivery annual
of basicself-report
services to
the
situation and the proper evaluation of the efficiency and effective
public;
6. Organize, train and equip primarily for the performance of police functions, a police force that
5. Approve or modify plans and programs on education and traini
is national in scope and civilian in character.
6. Affirm,(DND)
reverse or modify, through the National Appellate Board
RELATIONSHIP OF THE DILG WITH THE DEPARTMENT OF NATIONAL DEFENSE
7. Exercise
jurisdiction
through
thewas
Regional
Appellate
- under RA 6975, the Armed Forces of the Philippines (AFP) was in charge
with appellate
external security
while
the DILG
in charge
with in
- under RA 8551, the Armed Forces of the Philippines is now in charge with both internal and external
8. Prescribe minimum standards for arms, equipment, and unifor
security with the PNP as support through information gathering and performance of ordinary police
Philippine Heraldry Commission, for insignia of ranks, awards, me
functions.
NATIONAL POLICE COMMISSION
9. Issue subpoena and subpoena duces tecum in matters pertaini
- an agency attached to the DILG for policy coordination
- shall exercise administrative control and operational supervision
over the
PNP.
10. Inspect
and
assess the compliance of the PNP on the establis
VISION OF THE NAPOLCOM

11. Monitor the performance of the local chief executives as dep
"We envision the National Police Commission as a highly dynamic, committed
and
responsive
administering
and controlling
body, ac
12. Monitor
and
investigate
police anomalies
and irregularities.
MISSION OF THE NAPOLCOM

B. Advise the President on all matters involving police functions a
"To administer and control the Philippine National Police with the end in view of maintaining a highly
professional, competent, disciplined, credible and trustworthy PNP
C. Render to the President and to Congress an annual report of it
22
D. Recommend to the President, through the Secretary, within sixty (60) days before the commencement of each calendar year, a cri
1926 - the academy for officers of the Philippine constabular
E. Perform such other functions necessary to carry out the provisions of R.A. 6975, as amended, other existing laws and Presidentia
1936 - the Philippine Constabulary Academy became the pre
COMPOSITION OF NAPOLCOM
1. One chairperson
1938 - The Philippine Constabulary became the existing and
2. Four regular commissioner
3. The Chief PNP as ex officio member
1966 - congress enacted RA no. 4864, the police act of 1966
Note:
* shall serve a term of office of six (6) years without reappointment or extension
1972 - The POLCOM was reorganized as the National Police C
* three of the four regular commissioners shall come from civilian sector and not former members of
the police or military
1975
- PDeither
765 was
enacted.
This law is called the Police Inte
* the fourth regular commissioner shall come from the law enforcement
sector
active
or retired
* at least one (1) of the four regular commissioners shall be a woman
1985
- TheChairperson
National Police
Commission
was returned to the
* from among the three regular commissioners from the civilian sector,
the Vice
shall
be
chosen
1989 - Executive order 379 placed the Integrated national P
* the Vice Chairperson shall act as the Executive Officer of the Commission
* refer to the organizational structure of the NAPOLCOM
1990 - RA 6975 was passed on December 13, 1990 establish
Important dates in the history of modern Philippine Policing
1998 - congress passed into law RA no. 8551 on February 25
1901 - ACT no. 175 of the Philippine Commission established the Philippine constabulary on august 8, 1901.
FUNCTIONS
A POLICE
ORGANIZATION
1905 - the Philippine constabulary school was established at the
sta.lucia IN
barracks
in Intramuros
on
1. PRIMARY
1908 - the Philippine constabulary school was transferred to Baguio
City. OR LINE FUNCTIONS
- functions that carry out the major purposes of the organization,
directly
with
thePhilippine
public
1916 - the Philippine constabulary school was renamed academy for
officers
of the
constabulary.
- the backbone of the police department
examples
the linebecame
functions
offirst
the Filipino
police are
patrolling,
traffic
1917 - on December 17, 1917, Brigadier General Rafael Crame- from
Rizal of
Province,
the
chief
of the Philipp
2. STAFF/ADMINISTRATIVE FUNCTIONS
- functions that are designed to support the line functions and as
23
functions
- orders or commands must come from the higher l level of autho
- examples of the staff functions of the police are planning, research,
- involves
budgeting
fewand
departments
legal advice
3. AUXILIARY FUNCTIONS
2. FUNCTIONAL
- functions involving the logistical operations of the organization - structure according to functions and specialized units
- examples are training, communication, maintenance, records management,
- depicts staff
supplies
functions
and equipment
of the organization
management
- responsibilities are divided among authorities who are all accou
ORGANIC UNITS IN A POLICE ORGANIZATION
3. LINE AND STAFF

- a combination of the line and functional kind
- combines the flow of information from the line structure with th
advise, and support them
- generally more formal in nature and has many departments
1. OPERATIONAL UNITS
- those that perform primary or line functions
- examples are patrol, traffic, investigation and vice control
2. ADMINISTRATIVE UNITS
- those that perform the administrative functions examples are personnel,
ORGANIZATIONAL
finance, planning
PRINCIPLES
and
training.
3. SERVICE UNITS
FOUR PRIMAL CONDITIONS OF AN ORGANIZATION
- those that perform auxiliary functions
1. AUTHORITY
- examples are communication, records management,supplies.
- the supreme source of government for any particular organ
- the right to exercise, to decide and to command by virtue o
2. MUTUAL COOPERATION
ORGANIZATIONAL STRUCTURE
- an organization exists because it serves a purpose.
- the systematic arrangement of the relationship of the members,3.positions,departments
and functions
DOCTRINE
or work of the organization
- provides for the organizations objectives
- it is comprised of functions, relationships, responsibilities and authorities
of individuals
within
- provides
the various
actions, hence, policies, procedures, r
the organization
based on the statement of doctrines
4. DISCIPLINE
KINDS OF ORGANIZATIONAL STRUCTURES
- comprising behavioral regulations
1. LINE
ELEMENTS OF POLICE ORGANIZATION
- the oldest and simplest kind; also called military
1. UNITY OF COMMAND
- defined by its clear chain of command from the highest to the lowest and -vice
versathat there should only be ONE MAN commandin
dictates
- depicts the line functions of the organization
execution of orders
24
2. SPAN OF CONTROL
- the maximum number of subordinates that a superior can 7.
effectively
COMMAND
supervise
RESPONSIBILITY
- dictates that immediate commanders shall be responsible fo
Factors affecting the span of control:
control.
a) Leadership qualities of the supervisors
c) Complexity of task
b) Nature of the job and work conditions
d) Education and skillBRIEF
of theHISTORY
employees
OF THE PHILIPPINE POLICING SYSTEM
3. DELEGATION OF AUTHORITY
The institution of police in the Philippines formally started during
- conferring of an amount of authority by a superior position to a lower-level position.
Ancient Roots
4. HIERARCHY OF AUTHORITY
- the relationship between superiors and subordinates
The forerunner of the contemporary police system was the practi
- serves as the framework for the flow of authority downward
able-bodied
and obedience
young
upward
men tothrough
protect the
their barangay during the nigh
department
in the fields during daytime.Among the duties of those selected w
of the people in the barangay and protect their crops and livestoc
HIERARCHY - represents the formal relationship among superiors and subordinates in any given
organization
Spanish Period
5. SPECIALIZATION
Carabineros de Seguridad Publica organized in 1712 for the pur
- the assignment of particular personnel to particular tasks of the Department of State; this was armed and considered as th
SPECIALIZATION OF JOBS (AREAS OF SPECIALIZATION)

Guardrilleros/Cuardillo this was a body of rural police by the Roy
- the designation of certain activities or tasks as ones that must be performed in a highlytechnological, scientific or precise manner
Guardia Civil this was created by a Royal Decree issued by the C
- areas of police specialization include undercover works, crime scene operations, legal advising,
computer work, SWAT operations and others
American Period
SPECIALIZATION OF PEOPLE (SPECIALISTS)

The Americans established the United States Philippine Commiss
- the designation of particular persons as having expertise in a specific area of work
- signifies the adaptation of an individual to the requirements ACT
through
extensive
training
NO 175
entitled
An Act Providing for the Organization and
6. CHAIN OF COMMAND
Henry T. Allen - Captain of the 6th US cavalry, a graduate of West
- the arrangement of officers from top to bottom on the basis of rank or position and authority.
25
ACT NO 183 - created the Manila Police Department, enacted on July 31, 1901. Patrol Organization and Operation
CAPT GEORGE CURRY - the first chief of police of the Manila Police Department
1901. patrouiller - to paddle, paw about, patrol.
Patrol - frominfrench
- keep watch over an area by regularly walking or travelin
Act No 255 the act that renamed the Insular Constabulary into Philippine -Constabulary,
enacted
on October
3, keep
1901 watch over an a
a person or group
of people
sent to
Executive Order 389 ordered that the Philippine Constabulary be one

of officers
the four-service
of the Armed
Forces
of the
en
Patrol
are uniformed
officers
assigned
to Philippines,
monitor specifi
Post-American Period
History of Patrol
RA 4864 otherwise known as the Police Professionalization Act of 1.

1966,
enacted
on- September
8, 1966;
created
Commis
Ancient
China
law enforcement
was
carriedthe
outPolice
by prefect.
Pr
training and professionalization of the local police forces under the Office of the President; later POLCOM was renamed into Nationa
2. Ancient Greece - publicly owned slaves were used by magistrat
Martial Law Period
3. Roman empire - the army rather than a dedicated police organ
PD 765 otherwise known as the Integration Act of 1975,enacted on
August
8, 1975;
established
the Integrated
National
Police (INP
away
slaves.
The vigiles
were supported
by the
urban cohorts
wh
- transferred the NAPOLCOM from the Office of the President to the Ministry of National Defense
praetorian guard - bodyguards used by roman emperors.
Post Martial Law Regime
urban cohorts - were created by Augustus to counter balanc

Executive Order No 1012 transferred to the city and municipal government the operational supervision and direction over all INP u
vigiles - (watchmen of the city) - were the firefighters and p

Executive Order No 1040 transferred the administrative control and supervision of the INP from the Ministry of National Defense to
Government
ward - a subdivision
of a municipality.
RA 6975 otherwise known as the Department of the Interior and Local
Act of 1990,
enacted on December 13,1990; reo
Bureau of Fire Protection, Bureau of Jail Management and Penology and the Philippine Public Safety College.
4. Medieval England - the Anglo-Saxon system of maintaining pub
RA 8551 otherwise known as the Philippine National Police Reform and Reorganization Act of 1998, enacted on February 25, 1998;
tithing - was a grouping of 10 households.
RA 9708 - law amending the provisions of RA 6975 and RA 8551 on the minimum educational qualification for appointment to the PN
constable - is a person holding a particular office most comm
- An Act extending for five (5) years the reglementary period for complying with the minimum educational qualification for appointm
5. Spain - modern police in Europe has a precedent in the Herman
26
they could patrol broader areas with greater efficien

6. France - The first police force in the modern sense was created by the government
3. He was of
also
king
theLouis
first XIV
to use
in 1667
the lie
todetector
police the
in city
police
of P
w
7. Britain and Ireland - in England, a system of sheriffs, reeves and investigative

O.W. Wilson - studied under August Vollmer. Became Chief o
Sheriff - is a contraction of the term "shire-reeve" - designated a1.

royal
official
responsible
the peace
through out
requires
new
policemanfor
to keeping
have college
education.
2. use
police
car for patrol,
mobile
radios and use of a mobil
Reeve - a senior official with local responsibilities under the crown.
ex.,of
chief
magistrate
of a town
or district.
3. he believe that the use of a two way radio allowed better su

Shire - traditional term for a division of land in the UK and Australia.
What are
the 3 main
task ofto
supervision?
Jury - is a sworn body of people convened to render impartial verdict
officially
submitted
them by a court or to set a penalty
1. Organize - means planning the work of the department and of
2. Delegate - means giving someone else the responsibility and a
Thief taker - a private individual hired to capture criminal.
3. Oversee - means that the supervisor ensures that the work tha
satisfactorily completed.
Bow street runners - London's first professional police force.
Community policing - is the process by which an organized group

Henry Fielding - a magistrate educated at Elton college who founded the Bow street runners originally numbered just six.
8. In
Beat patrol - the deployment of officers in a given community, are

Statute of Winchester - in 1285, obliged the authorities of every town to keep a watch at the city gates and arrest all suspiciou
Sting Operations - organized groups of detectives who deceived c
Sir Robert Peel - prime minister of England from Dec. 1834 to April 1835 and again From Aug.1841 to June 1846. While home se
Hotspots of Crime - the view that a significant portion of all police
Patrick Colquhoun - (1745 - 1820) - a Scottish merchant and a magistrate who founded the first regular preventive police force
Models of Policing
the US - the first city police services were established in Philadelphia in 1751, Boston 1838 and new york 1845.
1. Neighborhood Oriented Policing - a philosophy of police sugges
at the neighborhood
level, where
issues
not at
far-o
August Vollmer - first police chief of Berkeley California. He is sometimes
called the father
of modern
laworiginate
enforcement
inathe
U
2. Pro Active Policing - aggressive law enforcement style in which
instead of waiting for criminal acts to occur.
1. He was the first chief to require that police officers attain against
college crime
degrees.
3. Problem Oriented Policing - a style of police management that
4. Community
Oriented Policing - programs designed to bring the
2. First police chief to create a motorized force placing officers
on
27
and create more cooperative working environment between them. 3. Processing Time - interval between receiving the call and dis
5. Reactive Policing - the opposite of Pro Active policing where the police
4. Travel
wait for
time
crime
- theto
amount
occur. of time it takes for the police to tra
Blue Curtain - describes the secrecy and insulation from others in society
The Phantom
that is a
Effect
consequence
- "residual
ofdeterrence"
the police subculture.
most people believe t
Cynicism - the belief that most peoples actions are motivated solelySworn
by personal
Date - the
needs
date
and
that
selfishness.
a sworn employee took the oath of offi
Civilian Review Board - ex. PLEB - organized citizen groups that examine
Advantages
police of
misconduct.
Foot/Bicycle Patrol
1. Increased personal contact between the police and citizen
Watchman - style of policing characterized by an emphasis on maintaining
2. Increased
public order.
observation ability.
3. Increased ability to gather information
Fleeing Felon Rule - the oldest standard relating to the use of deadly force.
4. Economical
Beats - designated police patrol areas.
Advantages of Motorized Patrol

1. Increased speed and mobility
Internal Affairs - unit that investigates allegations of police misconduct. 2. Increased conspicuousness
Deadly Force - police killing of a suspect who resists arrest or presents a3.
danger
Availability
to an officer
of additional
or the equipment
community.
4. Increased transportation capability
Booking - the administrative record of an arrest listing the offenders name,
5. Deceased
address, physical
responsedescription,
time
date of birth, time of arres
6. Communications
Line Up - placing a suspect in a group for the purpose of being viewed and identified by a witness.
Basic Preventive Patrol Methods Utilized by an Officer
Stop and Frisk - the situation in which police officers who are suspicious of
1. Frequent
an individual
check
run
and
their
contact
handswith
lightly
business
over the
premises
suspects ou
2. Frequent check of suspicious persons
Foot Patrol - police patrol that takes officer out of cars and puts them in 3.
walking
Fluctuating
beat to
patrol
strengthen
patterns
ties with the community.
4. Maintenance of visibility and personal contact
Excited Delirium - an overdose of adrenaline that can occur in heated confrontation
5. Daily individual
with the
patrol
police.
and community action plan
* Patrol reduces crime by creating an impression of omnipresence. Factors to be Considered in Becoming Familiar with the Communi
1. General population information
Responding to Crime - total response time is comprised of four dimensions.
2. Appropriate geographical information
1. Discovery Time - interval between the commission of the crime and
3. Recent
its discovery.
criminal activity
2. Reporting Time - interval between the discovery of the crime and4.
when
Specific
it is factors
reported
that
to the
maypolice.
influence patrol functions
28
ex. location of hospitals, high crime areas, community habits.

specific incident or series of related incidents. Task Force assig
11. Chief of Police - overall commander of the department.
How to Prepare for a Normal Patrol Shift
12. Chain of Command - a fundamental component of proper supe
1. Gathering information through crime reports and briefings requires that each employee reports and is accountable to o
2. Gathering needed materials ex. report forms, citation books
3. Obtaining and checking equipment
Police Operational Planning
4. Planning work around identified priorities
5. Preparing daily patrol and community action plan
Police Operational Planning - the act of determining policies and
What an Officer on Night time Patrol Should be Looking for
1. broken glasses
Operational Planning - the use of rational design or pattern for al
2. open doors and windows
3. pry marks
Police Planning - an attempt by police administrators in trying to
4. suspicious vehicles
5. persons on foot
Planning - the determination in advance of how the objectives of
6. differences in normal lighting (on or Off)
7. unusual sounds
Plan - an organized schedule or sequence by methodical activities
8. access to roof tops or upper floors
Strategy - a broad design or method or a plan to attain a stated g
Definition of Terms
Tactics - are specific design, method or a course of action to attai
1. Section - a primary subdivision of a bureau with a department wide responsibility for providing a
specific specialized functions.
Procedures - are sequences of activities to reach a point or to att
2. Unit - a subdivision of a section usually small in size with personnel assigned to perform a
specialized activity, one or two employees performing assigned work.
Policy - a course of action which could be a program of
3. Squad - a subdivision of a unit.
actions adopted by an individual, group, organization or governm
4. Detail - a subdivision of a squad.
5. Precinct -the primary geographic subdivision of the patrol operation
bureau.
case operational plan (COPLAN) - a definite target - specific
6. Sector - the primary geographic subdivision of a precinct, supervised by a sergeant.
7. Beat - the primary subdivision of a sector.
command post/holding area - area where case conferences,
8. Watch/Shift - one of several tours of duty.
9. Post - a fixed geographic location usually assigned to an individual officer.
10. Task Force - an adhoc work group normally established by bureau commander to respond to a
29
Intelligence and Secret Service

dragnet operation - is a police operation purposely to seal off the probable exit points of fleeing suspect from the crime scene t
Definition of Terms:
Management or Administrative Functions
1. Planning
5. Staffing
Intelligence Agency - is a government agency responsible for the
2. Organizing
6. Reporting
3. Directing
7. Budgeting
Intelligence Officer - is a person employed by an organization to c
4. Controlling
Counter Intelligence - refers to effort made by intelligence organi
Guidelines in Planning
1. What - mission/objective
Human Intelligence - category of intelligence derived from inform
2. Why - reason/philosophy
3. When - date/time
Dead Drop/Dead Letter Box - is a method of espionage trade craft
4. where - place
5. How - strategy/methods
Live Drop - 2 persons meet to exchange items or information.
Dead Drop Spike - is a concealment device used to hide money, m

Characteristics of a Good Plan
1. A Plan must have a clearly defined objective
Cut-Out - is a mutually trusted intermediary, method or channel o
2. A Plan must be simple, direct and clear
3. A Plan must be flexible
Espionage/Spying - involves a government or individual obtaining
4. A Plan must be attainable
5. A Plan must provide standards of operation
Agent Handling - is the management of agents, principal agents a
6. A Plan must be economical in terms of resources needed for implementation.
Types of Plan
1. Procedural/Policy Plan
2. Operational Plan
3. Tactical Plan
4. Administrative/Management Plan
5. Extra-Departmental Plan
Case Officer - is an intelligence officer who is trained specialist in
Agent - acts on behalf of another whether individual, organization
Cryptography - is the practice and study of techniques for secure
Eaves Dropping - Is the act of secretly listening to the private con
Propaganda - is a form of communication that is aimed at influen

30
Flip - apprehended criminals who turn informants.
Tactical Intelligence - information regarding a specific criminal ev
Snitches - jail house informants.
Open Source - refers to any information that can be legitimately o
Means of Information Gathering

1.Overt
2.Covert
Source - the place or person from which information is obtained.
Intelligence Assessment - is the development of forecasts of beha
Intelligence Cycle - is the process of developing unrefined data intoIntelligence

polished intelligence
Analysis - for
is the
theprocess
use of policy
of taking
makers.
known information
1. Direction - intelligence requirements are determined by a decision maker to meet his/her objective.
2. Collection - is the gathering of raw information based on requirements.
Cryptanalysis - from the Greek word Kryptos-hidden and Analyein
3. Processing - converting the vast amount of information collected into a form usable by analyst.
4. Analysis - conversion of raw information into intelligence. It includes:
Industrial Security Management
(1) integrating
(2) evaluating
(3) analyzing data and preparing intelligence product.
5. Dissemination - is the distribution of raw or finished intelligence to the consumer whose needs
initiated the intelligence requirement.
6. Feedback - is received from the decision maker and revised requirement issued.
Evaluation - systematic determination of merit, worth and significance of something or someone using criteria against a set of stand
Collation - is the assembly of written information into a standard order.
Crime Triangle
1. the offender
2. the victim
3. the location
Crime Intelligence - information compiled, analyzed and/or disseminated in an effort to anticipate, prevent, or monitor criminal activ
Strategic Intelligence - information concerning existing patterns or emerging trends of criminal activity designed to assist in crimina
31
RA no. 5487 - (as amended by PD no. 11) - Private security agency law.
Private Detective Agency - is any person who for hire or reward or on commission conducts or carries on or holds himself out as cond
Private Detective - any person who is not a member of a regular police agency or armed forces who does detective work for hire, rew
PADPAO - Philippine Association of Detective and Protective Agency Operators.
Watchmen/Security Guard - person who offers or renders personal service to watch or secure either residential or business establish
Security Agency - any person, association, partnership or corporation who recruits, trains, muster, furnishes, solicit individuals or bu
Who May Organize Security Agency
1. Any Filipino Citizen or a corporation, partnership or association.
2. With a minimum capital required by law.
In case of corporation, association, or partnership - must be 100 % owned and controlled by Filipino citizen.
No person shall organize or have interest in more than one agency.
Qualification of an Operator or Manager of a Security Agency:

1. At least 25 years of age
2. College graduate and/or commissioned officer in the inactive service of the AFP
3. Good moral character
4. No previous record of any conviction of any crime/offense involving moral turpitude
5. Not suffering from any of the following disqualifications:
1. dishonorably discharged or separate from the AFP
32
2. mentally incompetent
3. addicted to the use of narcotic drugs
4. habitual drunkard
An elective or appointive government employees who may be called upon on account of the function of their respective offices
Basic Qualification of a security Guard

1. Filipino citizen
2. High school graduate
3. Physically and mentally fit
4. Not less than 21 nor more than 50 years old
5. At least 5'4" in height
6. Not suffering from any disqualification under RA 5487
Veterans shall be given priority in employment as security guard or private detective.
Person convicted of any crime involving moral turpitude shall not be employed as security guard or private detective.
Private detective, detective agency, security guard, security agency must first obtain license from the PNP.
Employees employed solely for clerical or manual work need not be licensed.
The license shall be displayed at all times in a conspicuous and suitable place in the agency office.
The PNP shall exercise general supervision over the operation of all private detective and security guard agencies.
The City/Municipal Mayors has the power as director of the City/Municipal civil defense to deputize private detective and securi
33
A security guard or security agency is entitled to possess firearms.
Firearm must not be higher than .45 caliber.
Agency is entitled to possess firearm not exceeding one firearm for every security guard in its employ.
Security guard is entitled to possess not more than one riot gun or shotgun.
Firearms shall be carried by the security guard only during his tour of duty in proper uniform within the compound of the estab
The Chief PNP shall prescribe the uniform, ornaments, equipment and paraphernalia to be worn by the security guards.
Uniforms must be different from the PNP/AFP.
Salary of security guard - not lower than the minimum wage prescribe by law.
Limitations and Prohibitions on a Security Agency

1. No agency operating in the City of manila and suburbs may employ more than 1000 watchmen or
security guards.
2. No agency operating in other cities & first class municipalities may employ more than 500 watchmen
or security guards.
3. No agency operating in municipalities other than first class may employ more than 200 watchmen or
security guards.
4. No person, corporation, partnership/ association may organize more than one agency in any one city
or municipality.
5. No agency shall offer, render or accept services to gambling dens or other illegal enterprises.
6. The extent of the security service being provided by any security agency shall not go beyond the
whole compound or property of the person or establishment requesting the security service except
when they escort big amount of cash.
Who can Issue rules and regulations to carry out the purpose of RA 5487? ans. the chief PNP, in consultation with the Philippines Ass
34
What are the penal provisions for violation of RA5487 or its implementing rules? ans.
1. Suspension, fine or cancellation of license to operate with the forfeiture f bond filed with the
Chief PNP.
2. Imprisonment ranging from 1 to 4 years and fine, in the discretion of the courts.
Physical security - describes the measures that are designed to deny access to unauthorized personnel from physically accessing a b
Security - the predictable state or condition which is free from harm, injury, destruction, intimidation or fear. Freedom from fear or d
Physical Security System - a barrier or system of barriers placed between the potential intruder and the matter to be protected. Pro
Purpose/Goals of Physical security
1. deter potential intruders - ex. warning signs, perimeter markings
2. distinguish authorized from unauthorized people - ex. using pass card
3. delay or prevent intrusion attempt - ex. wall, door lock, safe
4. detect intrusion and monitor/record intruders - e. CCTV, intrusion alarm
5. trigger appropriate incident responses - ex. security guards
How to deter potential intruders
1. install warning signs 2. build fences
3. put vehicle barriers
35
4. install vehicle height restriction

5. implement restricted access point
6. install sight lighting and trenches
How to distinguish authorized from unauthorized people - access control at the
1. gates
2. doors
3. locks
How to detect intrusion
1. install alarms
2. install intrusion detection monitor
3. install video monitoring system - ex. cctv
Vigiles (in Rome) - origin of the watchmen although their principal duty was as a fire brigade.
Notable security guards:
1. Frank Wills - detected the Watergate burglars ultimately leading to the resignation of US president Richard Nixon.
Target hardening - the reduction in criminal opportunity, generally through the use of physical barriers, architectural design and enh
Defensible Space - the range of mechanisms that combine to bring an environment under the control of its residents.
36
Demography - the study of the characteristics of population groups.

Principles of Physical Security
1. An intruder must be able to acquire access to the property in order to benefit.
2. The type of access necessary will depend upon a number of variable factors and therefore may be
achieved in a number of ways.
3. There is no impenetrable barrier.
4. Security is built upon a system of defense in depth resulting to accumulated delay time which may
lead to the apprehension of the intruder.
5. Each installation is different from the others.
2 Kinds of Barriers
1. Natural
2. Artificial
5 Types of Barriers
1. Human
2. Animal
3. Natural
4. Energy/Electrical/Electronic
5. Structural
3 Line of Defense
1. Perimeter Barrier - 1st line of defense.
2. Building Exterior - 2nd line of defense.
3. Interior Controls - 3rd line of defense.
Perimeter Barrier - main purpose is to deny or impede access or exit of unauthorized persons.
Other Purposes
1. It defines the boundary of the property to be secured.
2. It creates a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry.
3. It delays intrusion, thus facilitating apprehension of intruders.
37
4. It assists in a more efficient and economical employment of guards.

5. It facilitates and improves the control of pedestrian and vehicular traffic.
Components:
1. Types of Fencing (solid/full view)
2. The top guard
3. Types of Protective Alarms Systems
4. Types of Protective and Emergency Lighting's
5. CCTV Cameras and other Electronic Security Systems/Energy Barriers
Building Exterior - Components:
1. walls
2. Doors
3. Windows
4. Roof Openings
5. Fire Escapes
6. Protective Alarm Systems
7. Protective and Emergency lightnings
Interior Controls - Components:
1. ID Systems
2. Protective Alarm Systems
3. Protective Emergency Lighting's
4. Communication Systems
6. Restricted Areas (storage areas/utilities)
7. Access Control
8. Key Control
9. Emergency Plans
10.Guards
Natural barriers or features - such as cliffs, ravines, and rivers which delay or make more difficult to entry of intruders.
38
Barriers - any line of boundary and separation, natural or artificial, places, or serving as limitation or obstruction. Anything that bars
Structural barriers - features constructed by man regardless of their original intent that tends to delay the intruder. ex. walls, ceiling
Human barriers - guards, charges of quarters, office personnel, shop workers etc. who stand between the intruder and the matter to
Animal barriers - usually guard dog. ex. trained German shepherds used as guards, goose, and turkeys can also be included.
Energy barriers - usually electrical or electronics devices used to provide assistance to guard personnel. ex. protective lightnings, an
Full view fence - it is designed primarily to prevent physical access between two areas. Constructed in such a way that visual access
Physical Security Features:
1.Natural barriers - natural terrains features must be considered from the stand point of their values to
intruder as cover and concealment. Normally the first type considered very often we have to accept
and work around them.
2. Fences
a. solid fence - one is constructed in such a way that visual access through the fenced structure is
denied.
b. full view fence - constructed in such a way that usual access is permitted through the fence.
Advantages of a full view fence
1. removing patrols and stationary guards are able to keep area surrounding of the installation under
observation.
2. it does not create shadows which would provide cover and concealment for the intruder.
Disadvantages of a full view fence
1. It allows visual access to the installation, its personnel, its guard and its activities.
2. It allows the intruders to become familiar with the movements and the time schedule of the guard
patrols thereafter allowing him to pick the time for attempting penetration which would most
advantageous to the intruder.
Advantages of solid fence
39
1. Denies visual access of the installation of the intruder.

2. Denies the opportunity for the intruder to become familiar with the personnel, activities and the time
schedule of the movements of guards in the installations.
Disadvantages of solid fence
1. It prevents the guards from observing the area around the installation.
2. It creates shadows which may be used by the intruder for cover and concealment.
Minimum acceptable requirements for fence used security barriers

1. Height - 8 feet at a minimum.
2. Slack at the bottom - not to exceed 2 inches. If the fences are not tight then it should extend even
closer to the ground.
3. Wooden fence post - minimum horizontal dimension of 4X4 inches.
4. Steel fence post - the round type should at least be 2 inches at the smallest diameter.
5. Fence post - should be set in concrete or in firm soil using commercial drive anchors to a depth of 3
feet and the maximum distance post is 10 feet.
6. Fence top (Top Guard) - there should be something on the top of the fence to deter persons attempting to go over fence. ex. use o
7. Fence area - it should be declared trees and vegetation and debris of other materials which
would offer concealment of the intruder or would aid him in scaling the fence.
8. Fence Gates - gates should be limited to the no. necessary for efficient and sage operation of the
installation.
9. Fence Opening - all opening in the fence in excess of 96 inches must be locked barbed or screen in
such a way that they may be interlocked and opened from the inside and only by selected personnel.
10. Multiple fence - is used should at least be 10 feet apart and the overhang on the top of the inner fence should point inward.
4 Basic functions that must be accomplished by the guard system
1. Detect intruders
2. Sound alarms
3. Apprehend unauthorized personnel
4. Identify authorized personnel
Personnel Control Identification
2 Types of identification
40
1. Personal Recognition - is the most effective

2. Artificial Identification - badges, passes etc.
System of Employment of Personnel Control Identification
1. Pass system - a method used by security to screen visitors or person admitted into building premises.
2. Single pass or Badge system - the least expensive and the least secure.
3. Group pass and Badge system - one ID for one group.
4. Multiple pass system - separate pass is required for access to various areas in need ex. color coding
5. Spot magnetized identification passes - a code may be placed in the device and when passes through a machine, the code on the
6. Access list - it contains the names of authorized persons or personnel and is checked against
identification cards such as drivers licenses, draft registration etc.
Visitor control - the measures used would depend on the sensibility of the installation but could include the following:
1. Escort - expensive but most secure
2. Time travelled - if there is a long delay or time lapse between the departure and arrival, the visitor
may be required to show cause for the delay.
3. Visitors logs - should contain identifying data, reasons of visit, time in and hour etc.
4. Visitors entrances - separate access for visitors and separate for employees .
Utility and maintenance personnel - escort system could be used. If these people visit the installations on a regular basis some of th
Package control - there should be provisions made to check packages being taken in and taken out.
Photography - extreme caution must be exercised in areas where classified information is displayed to preclude unauthorized taking
Vehicular control and identification
* Most common identification is for registering at the headquarters or gates and putting of sticker on the windows of the vehicles.
* For visitors, the following systems are used:
1. Escort
2. Driver pool - the most secure but the most expensive. In this system, car is driven by qualified
driver employed by the installation from the entrance to its destination and after the conclusion
of the business of the visitor. The car is driven back to the installations entrance.
3. Time travel - used in less sensitive installations
41
4. Grid system - a very complicated system. The installation is divided into grid ad squares like a map.
Each square is given a no. or letter designation. The visitor is then given a map and shown the
route to take to his destination and should not deviate from the prescribed route, otherwise he
could be stopped and questioned by the guards.
5. Search of vehicles - sign should be put at the entrance to the installation that any vehicle entering is
subject to search anytime.
Types of Protective Alarm Systems
1. Central station system - the control station is located outside the installations. When the alarm is
sounded by a subscriber, the central station notifies the police or protection agency.
2. Property system - the control system is located inside the installations with its own firefighter, law
enforcer, ambulance, or bomb disposal unit.
3. Local alarm - the signalling is near the alarm itself. When the intruder enters the installation, the
alarm goes off scaring the intruder. Purpose is just to scare not to apprehend intruder.
4. Auxiliary alarm - the installation owned the protective alarm with a unit in the nearest police station
so that in case of need, direct call is possible.
Kinds of Alarms
1. Intrusion alarm - any detecting devices using electric and their combinations to signal an alarm
when actuated.
2. Laser beam alarm - a laser emitter floods the wall or fence with a beam so that when this beam is
disturbed by a physical object, an alarm is activated
3. Photocell alarm - an invisible or visible beam is emitted and when disturbed, it activates an alarm
or mechanical device that opens a door or lift movable barriers, activated by light.
Basic component of an alarm system
1. Annunciation - the heart of the system of the detecting device and is the component that activates
the triggering unit.
2. Transmission - it transmit what is detected.
3. Triggering device - the one which emits those aural or visual signals or both.
Security Survey - The detailed check and audit of what an installation or plant does not have in relation to its protection from hazard
42
Security Inspection - a process where physical examination is conducted to determine compliance with established security policies
Purpose of security survey
1. To determine existing state or condition of security
2. To locate weaknesses and possible defense
3. To determine degree of protection required
Security hazards - an act or condition which result in a situation conductive to a breach of the protection system and the subsequen
Hazards - exposure to loss or injury.
Two General Categories of Security Hazards
1. Human hazard - caused by human action. Ex.sabotage, pilferage, theft
2. Natural Hazard - caused by natural phenomena.
Types of Human Hazards
1. Human carelessness
2. Accident
3. Disaffection
4. Disloyalty
5. Subversion
6. Sabotage
7. Espionage
8. Pilferage
9. Theft
10.Vandalism
Protective Security - measures taken by an installation or unit to protect against sabotage, espionage or subversion and at the same
3 Aspects of Security
1. Physical Security - measures taken to prevent physical access or entry to an installation.
2. Personnel Security - measures taken to insure that only authorized personnel have access to classified documents or informatio
3. Document and Information Security
43
Types of Security
1. Physical Security - the most broad.
2. Industrial Security - security of business installations and industrial plants.
3. VIP Security - protection of high level officers and important personnel.
4. Bank Security - security of money and assets stored or in transit.
5. Hotel Security - security for hotel guest and their personal belongings and property as well as properties of the hotel.
6. Document security - protection of vital records from loss or unauthorized access.
7. Communication Security - measures to prevent or delay the unauthorized person in gaining information through communication
Physical Security
* Protective barrier - is the physical type of security.
* Barrier - any structure or physical device capable of restricting, deterring, delaying illegal access into
installations.
* Perimeter barrier - a medium or structures which define the physical limits of an installation or area
to restrict or impede access thereto. Any physical barrier used to supplement the protection of the
inside perimeter.
* Inside Perimeter - a line of protection adjacent to the protected area and passing through points of
possible entry into the area. ex. doors and windows
* Outside perimeter - a line of protection but somewhat removed from the protected area. ex.fence
Types of Perimeter Barrier Opening
1. Gates and Doors
2. Elevators
3. Air intakes,Exhaust tunnels
4. Clear Zone
5. Top Guard
6. Guard Control Stations
7. Tower
8. Barrier maintenance
9. Sign and Notices
Protective Alarms - supplemental physical barriers in a form of sound that cause alarm installed indoors or outdoors in an installatio
44
Types of Alarm Systems

1. Metallic foil wire
2. Ultrasonic Detection Device
3. Vibration Detection Device
4. Microwave Motion Detection Device
5. Audio Detection Device
6. Photo Electric or Electric Eye
Kinds of Alarms
1. Bill Traps
2. Foot Rail Activator
3. Knee or thigh button
4. Foot button
5. Double squeeze button
Protective Lighting - provide illumination on areas to be secured that adds psychological deterrence.
Types of protective Lighting
1. Stationary luminary - consist of series of fixed luminaries to flood given area continuously
Example: glare protection type
2. Standby Lighting - provides continuous lighting through manual operations.
3. Movable Lighting - stationary or portable manually operated search lights.
4. Emergency Lighting - duplication of existing lighting system that is utilized in the event of electric
failure.
Types of Lighting Equipment
1. Street lights - used in parking areas
2. Search Lights - highly focused incandescent lamps used to pinpoint potential trouble spot.
3. Flood Lights - project light in a concentrated beam used in boundaries and fences.
4. Fresnel Lights - wide beam units primarily used to extend illumination in long horizontal strips to
protect approaches to perimeter barrier.
45
Protective Locks and Keys

1. Lock - a mechanical, hydraulic, electrical or electronic device designed to prevent entry into a
building, room, container or hiding place and to prevent the removal of items without the consent
of the owner.
2. Padlock - portable and detachable lock having or sliding hasp that passes through a staple ring.
3. Peterman - A term used in England for lock picker, safe cracker and penetrators of restricted areas
or rooms.
Types of Locks
1. Lever locks - used in cabinets, drawers, safe deposit box.
2. Disc-Tumble Locks - used in car doors.
3. Warded Locks - offer little security, used only to provide privacy.
4. Combination Locks
5. Card Operated Locks
6. Electromagnetic Locks
7. Code operated Locks
Types of Keys
1. Master Key - a special key of opening a series locks.
2. Grand Master Key - a key that will open everything in a system involving two or more master key
groups.
3. Change Key - a key to a single lock within a master keyed system.
4. Sub Master Key - a key will open all lock with a particular area or grouping in a given facility.
Types of Security Cabinets
1. Safe
2. vault
3. File Room
Protective Cabinets - considered as the third line of defense against unauthorized persons.
Key Control - a system of controlling keys devised and regulated for disposal, storage and withdrawals.
46
Close-in Security Formations

1. One Man Security - 360 degrees coverage.
2. Two Man Security - Each guard has 180 degrees coverage.
3. Three Man Security - has equal areas of coverage
4. Four Man Security
5. Five Man Security - modified diamond.
6. Six Man Security - (defensive circle) too much crowd requires arm lock formation.
Note: Six Man Security is the most effective.
Defensive In Depth Barriers
1. Outer Ring - securing sidewalks, in front of quarters or offices, covering all entrances, front,
center, side and rear.
2. Middle Ring - security covering inside quarters, office, residence, all stairways and elevators.
3. Inner Ring - immediately outside the high risk personnel door or the one closest to the VIP.
Criminal Jurisprudence and Procedure

The Board of Examiners for Criminologists in the
Philippines is created for the purpose of regulating the
practice of Criminology. It has the power to issue, suspend,
or revoke certificate of registration for the practice of
criminology and to administer oath. All applicants for
registration as criminologists shall be required to undergo
and examination.
The examination shall be in writing and shall
cover the following subjects with their respective relative
weights.
Subjects
Relative Weight
Criminal Jurisprudence and Procedure

20%
Law Enforcement Administration
20%
Correctional Administration
15%
Criminalistics
20%
Criminal Sociology
15%
Ethics and Human Relations
10%
Criminal Jurisprudence and Procedure is further subdivided

into:
47
2. Felonies - sentence of one year or more.

1. Criminal Law 1 - Study of the Revised Penal Code book
1, special criminal statutes, Presidential
Decrees, and Letters of Instructions.
2. Criminal Law 2 - Study of the Revised Penal Code book 2
3. Criminal Procedure - Study of the Rules of Court and
Criminal Procedure covering the law on arrest, search and
seizure,
Preliminary Investigation and the granting of
bail to an accused person; Rights of the accused person
during the trial and the manner of prosecution of criminal
offenses; Procedures in arraignment and trial and
discharge of one of several defendants as state witness;
Rules governing arrest without warrant and the use of
firearms in case of resistance to an arrest; Study of court
decisions regarding arrest and search and seizure.
4. Criminal Evidence - Study of the fundamental principle of
criminal evidence as embodied in the rules of court.
Civil Law
1. Filed by a private party.
a corporation
an individual person
2. Penalty: a guilty defendant pays the plaintiff for

losses caused by their actions.
no incarceration
Crimes are divided into 2 classes

1. Misdemeanors - less than one year of incarceration
During the times of the Romans, a criminal charge meant

presenting the case before the public. Both the person
accused of the crime and the accuser would give speeches
based on their side of the story. The individual with the best
argumentation would determine the outcome of the case.
Criminal Law
1. Filed by the government
2. Penalty: a guilty defendant is punished by
incarceration in jail or prison
fine paid to the government
execution (death penalty)

Criminal law RPC (Book 1)
Criminal Law - a branch of municipal law which defines crimes,

treats of their nature and provides for their punishment.
Characteristics of Criminal Law
1. General
2. Territorial
3. Prospe
General - binding on all persons who reside or sojourn in the Phili

Exceptions:
1. Treaty Stipulation
2. Laws of Preferential Application
3. Principles of Public International Law
ex. 1. Sovereigns and other chief of state
48
2. Ambassadors, Minister resident, and charges d' affaires

1. Liberally construed in favor of offender.
Example: a. The offender must clearly fall within th
Note: Consuls, Vice Consuls, and other foreign commercial representatives cannot
b. An
claim
act the
is criminal only when made so b
privileges and immunities accorded to ambassadors and ministers.
2. In cases of conflict with official translation, original Spanis
3. No interpretation by analogy.
Territorial - Penal laws of the Philippines are enforceable only within
Limitations
its territory.
on Power of Congress to Enact Penal Laws
Exception: Art. 2 of the RPC - binding even on crimes committed outside
1. the
Ex Post
Philippines.
Facto Law
1. Offenses committed while on a Philippine ship or airship.
2. Bill of Attainder
2. Forging or counterfeiting any coin or currency note of the Philippines
3. Law that
or obligations
violates the
and
equal protection clause of th
securities issued by the government.
4. Law which imposes cruel and unusual punishments
3. Introduction into the country of the abovementioned obligations and securities.
4. While being public officers and employees, an offense is committed in the exercise of
their functions.
5. Crimes against the National Security and the Law
of the Nations.
Introduction:
Prospective - The law does not have any retroactive effect.
Exception: When the law is favorable to the accused.
Etymology:
Criminal Procedure
Krimea [Greek]: meaning, to charge a wrongdoing
Criminal Procedure
Exception to the Exception:
The method prescribed by law for the apprehension and prosecut
1. The New Law is expressly made inapplicable to pending actions or existing causes of
action.
It is concerned with the procedural steps through which a crimina
2. Offender is a habitual criminal.
It is a generic term used to describe the network of laws and rule

Theories of Criminal Law
1. Classical Theory - basis is man's free will to choose between good
and evil,
that is why more stress is placed upon the result of th
Criminal
Jurisdiction
The authority to hear and decide a particular offense and impose
2. Positivist Theory - basis is the sum of social and economic phenomena which conditions man to do wrong in spite of or contrary to
Subject matter cases of the general class where the proceeding

3. Mixed Theory - combination of the classical and positivist theories wherein crimes that are economic and social in nature should b
Territory the geographical limits of the territory over which the
Construction of Penal Laws
49
Person of the accused acquired thru: a) arrest [with warrant or warrantless]

2. Theor
Designation
b) voluntary
ofsurrender.
the offense given by the statute
3. The Acts or omissions complained of as constituting the o
I. Prosecution of Offenses
4.The Name of the offended party
5. The Approximate date of the commission of the offense
How instituted?
6. The Place where the offense was committed.
By filing the: 1) Complaint, or 2) Information.
A complaint or information is sufficient in substance if it doesnt c
Complaint
A sworn written statement charging a person with an offense executed
Note:
andAsubscribed
motion to quash,
by the O.P.A.O.
once granted, is equivalent to dismiss
Information
1. An accusation in writing
2. Subscribed by the Prosecutor
3.Filed with the court
Remedy if a complaint or information is defective:
I. If defective in form
a) court may dismiss the complaint or information motu p
b) accused may move for a BILL OF PARTICULARS
II. If defective in substance No obligation is imposed on the judg

Both are:
1. In writing
Note: For certain classes of Actions, it is the tribunal having juris
2. In the name of the People of the Philippines
3. Directed against all persons who appear to be responsible for the offense involved.
Examples:
Articles of Impeachment in an impeachment proceedings P
Elements of a complaint or information:
1. Formal elements, and
This is not so in criminal proceedings. It is incumbent upon the ac
2. Substantive elements.
It must be:
1. Sufficient in form, and
2. Sufficient in substance
Query:
JP was charged for indiscriminate firing. He claimed that he has t

Thus, under Section 14, of Rule 110, a complaint or information may be amended, in form and in substance .
No. JP cannot claim that the information is defective in substance
A complaint or information is sufficient in form if it states: [N.D.A.N.A.P.]
Any explanation or defense which the defendant may want to inv
1. The Name of the accused
50
2) The individual [whose person, right, honor, chastity, or

Distinction between Acquittal and Dismissal:
or damaged by the same acts or omissions].
1. Acquittal is based on MERITS of the case (substantive) ex: accused A was found innocent of killing B.
2. Dismissal is based on TECHNICALITY (procedural) ex: the crime has
Exception:
already prescribed.
When the infraction falls under the class of offenses called victim
Notes:
1. There are certain classes of offenses that cannot be prosecuted de
Sec.
officio
1, Rule
1private
111 - When
offenses,
a criminal
i.e. adultery,
action isconcubinage,
instituted, the
etc.
civil
and
ac
2. For some offenses, there are conditions precedents before plaintiff can repair
Waives
to thethe
courts
civilfor
action;
redress [i.e. those requiring media
Bejar v. CA, 169 SCRA 566].
Reserves the right to institute it separately; or
3. All criminal actions, whether commenced by filing of complaint or information,
Institutes
are under
thethe
civil
direct
action
control
prior to
of the criminal
prosecutor.
action
Queries:
Principle of preferrence of criminal action over civil action:

After the criminal action has been commenced, the separate civil
I. A, B, C, D were charged with homicide. Preliminary investigation was conducted by the fiscal who found sufficient evidence agains
If the criminal action is filed after the said civil action has already
Under the Rules of Court, the fiscal cannot exclude D without court approval. It would be a grave abuse of discretion on the part of t
Reason for the rule:
Exception:
Criminal action is based on an offense committed against the law
Under the Witness Protection Act, the prosecutor has the discretion of discharging an accused as a state witness and no court appro
Exception to the rule of preferrence of criminal action over civil a
II. Is designation of the offense an essential element of the complaint
When
or information?
the independent
Why?
Civil
Give
Action
the exception,
is based on
if any.
Articles 32, 33, 34
When there is a prejudicial question in the civil case that must be
No. Because in case of conflict between the designation of the offense and the allegations, the allegation prevails.
Elements of Prejudicial Question:
The exception is when the allegation is so ambiguous that it may be interpreted
The previously
to mean
instituted
eithercivil
oneaction
or another
involves
offense,
an issue
then
similar
the des
o
the subsequent criminal action, and
II. Prosecution of Civil Action
The resolution of such issue determines whether or not the crim
Basis:
Queries:
Art. 100, RPC - Every person criminally liable is also civilly liable
1. Nobern married Armie on 2005. On 2006, Nobern married X. On
Generally, when a person commits a crime, he offends two entities, namely:
1) The State [whose laws he violated]; and
Is there a prejudicial question? Why?
51
2. Within 10 days after receipt of subpoena with the complaint an

2. Nobern married Armie on 2005. On 2006, Nobern married X because
3. InXcase
threatened
respondent
to kill
cannot
him unless
be subpoenaed
he marriesorX.does
On 2007,
not submit
Noberc
Is there a prejudicial question? Why?
Clarificatory hearing if there are facts and issues to be clarified
Note:
Resolution within 10 days after the investigation.
Prejudicial question is subject to the principle that he who comes into court must come
Forwarding
with cleanofhands.
fiscals
The
resolution
accusedto
cannot
superiors
be per
Superiors shall act on the resolution within 10

III. Preliminary Investigation
IV. Arrest
- It is an inquiry or proceeding to determine whether there is sufficient

Defined:
ground to engender a well-founded belief that a crime has be
1. [Based on Rules of Court] The taking of a person in custody in
When required?
Before the filing of complaint or information for an offense where the
2. [Based
penaltyon
prescribed
Jurisprudence]
by lawAisrestraint
imprisonment
on person,
of at depriving
least 4 years,
one
When NOT REQUIRED:
How made:
In cases where the penalty imposed by law is NOT at least 4 years, 2 month, & 1 day
In case of a valid warantless arrest [shall proceed in inquest]
As to the manner of enforcement, by:
1) Actual restraint, or
Officers authorized to conduct PI
2) Submission to the custody of the person making arrest
Provincial or City Prosecutors and their assistants;
National and Regional State Prosecutors; and
As to the presence or absence of judicial order:
Other officers as may be authorized by law [COMELEC during Election
1) By
Period,
virtueOmbudsman,
of a warrant,etc.]
or
2) Warrantless arrest, in cases allowed by the Rules
Note: Effective 2004, judges of the lower court canno longer conduct Preliminary Investigations.
As to the person arresting:
Rules:
1) Arrest by peace officer, or
1. The complaint must be sufficient in form [See notes in Prosecution
2) Citizens
of Offenses,
arrest supra]
2. Supported by affidavits of the complainant and his witnesses
3. Numbers of copies are proportionate to the number of respondents
When warrantless
plus 2 official
arrests
copies
allowed:
1. Within 10 days after the filing, fiscal determines if there is prima1.

facie
Inflagrante
case. If no
Delicto
dismiss.
arrestIf yes
when
issue
in hissubpoenas.
presence, the person to
52
2) When the giving of info will imperil the arrest

Committed
Is actually committing an offense
Is attempting to commit
II. Without warrant, by an officer and by private persons:
Inform the person of

Translation: In flagrante delicto [latin] Literally, caught in the act of wrong
1) authority and cause of arrest [if person

2) intent to arrest and cause [if person a
2. Hot Pursuit arrest when an offense has just been committed and
Unless
he has
when
probable
the person
cause to
to be
believe
arrested
based
is either:
on personal knowledge
1) Engaged in the commission of the offense
Tests in determining probable cause based on personal knowledge:
2) Is pursued immediately after its commission
3) Has escaped, flees or forcibly resist before the officer or t
Must be based on the senses, i.e. 1) Sight
the opportunity to inform him of 1 & 2, or
2) Hearing
4) When the giving of info would imperil the arrest
3) Smell
Tests in determining lawfulness of USE OF LETHAL FORCE by the a
Notes:
A. The arresting officer must have personal knowledge of the commission
1) Test of
of the
reasonability
crime through
conduct
his senses.
of the arresting officer is exami
B. The term personal knowledge excludes hearsay as a basis for probable cause.
Where the
precipitate
actionbe
ofreversed
the arresting
officer
resulted
in th
C. There must first be a lawful arrest before any search may be conducted.
The
process cannot
(Dissent
of Chief
Justice
D. For purposes of arrest Officer may break into any building or enclosure where the person to be arrested is or is reasonably belie
2) Testor
ofenclosure
necessity without
conduct
of the person
arrested
is examined
E. For purposes of search and seizure he cannot break into any building
violating
the right
of privacy.
Exceptio
arrested person
to flee, etc.
struck
a policeman
3. Arrest of fugitives from justice persons who has escaped from aWhere
penal the
establishment,
placeattempts
of confinement
while
serving sew
Methods of Arrest:
I. With warrant, by officer:
V. Bail
1) the cause of the arrest
Kinds of bail bonds:
2) fact that warrant exist
1. cash bond
2. property bond
1) When he flees or forcibly resist before 1 & 2 is completed
The officer shall inform the person of:
Exception:
53
3. surety bond
4. recognizance
2. In deportation proceedings, bail is not a matter of right but of

3. Bail is not available to military facing court martial proceeding
Defined:
The security given for the release of a person in custody of the law,4.
furnished
In extradition
by him
proceedings,
or a bondsman,
bail may
to guarantee
be granted
hisprovided
appearance
the b
a
Generally:
VI. Rights of the accused
The right to bail only accrues when a person is under custody. Court must have jurisdiction over the person of the accused either thr
Rights may be waived, unless the waiver is contrary to law, public
Exception:
When the person under investigation cannot personally appear because
In all he
criminal
is hospitalized
prosecutions,
but applies
the accused
for bail
shall
through
be entitled
his counsel,
to the h
f
Where to apply?
Key: [PIPTEC CoSpA]
In the court where the case is pending (if not yet filed, may be filed before any court).
P resumed innocent
Conditions for bail:
I nformed of the nature of the cause and accusation
See Sec. 2, Rule 114
P resent in person and by counsel
T estify in his own behalf
Bail, a matter of right:
E xempt from being compelled to be a witness against himself
1. Before or after conviction by MTC, MTCC or MCTC
C onfront witnesses
2. Before conviction by RTC of an offense not punishable by death, reclusion
C ompulsory
temporal,
process
or life
toimprisonment
secure attendance of witnesses and p
S peedy, impartial and public trial
Bail, a matter of discretion:
A ppeal
1. Upon conviction of RTC of an offense not punishable by death, reclusion perpetua, or life imprisonment.
2. Before conviction for capital offenses [punishable by death], or an offense punishable by reclusion perpetua or life imprisonment,
1) To be presumed innocent until the contrary is proved beyond r
Bail granted in capital offenses despite findings that evidence of guilt is strong (Cited in Cruz, Constitutional Law, 2003 Ed.):
De la Rama v. Peoples Court, 77 Phil. 461 accused was granted bail
Hierarchy
due to tuberculosis
of proof [according
that requires
to degree
confinement
of persuasiveness]:
to the hospital.
People v. Sison, GR 398, September 19, 1946 humanitarian reasons
Absolute
considered
certainty
by SC.
ultimate truth [not required in any legal proc
Moral certainty passed the test of human experience [i.e., guilt
Notes:
Relative certainty so called because a higher degree of proof ex
1. The right to bail flows from the presumption of innocence. This isNotes:
so because accusation is not synonymous with guilt.
54
The starting point is the presumption of innocence (See: Section 3, Par. (a), Rule 131, RRC)
It is incumbent upon the prosecution to demonstrate culpability. The
6) burden
To confront
of proof
and lies
cross-examine
in the prosecution.
the witnesses
Unlessagainst
guilt beyond
him atrea
th
Burden of proof the duty of the affirmative to prove what it alleges. (Africa, The Art of Argumentation and Debate).
Absolute certainty is not demanded by the law to convict but only moral
Reasons:
certainty.
To meet the witness face to face (Bill of Rights, 1987 Constitution
2) To be informed of the nature and cause of the accusation againstTo
him.
enable the court to judge the truthfulness, deportment, and th
Essential to avoid surprise and to afford him the opportunity to prepare

Effecthis
of defense
absence accordingly.
of right to cross examine:
Arraignment serves this purpose by informing him why the prosecuting
Whenarm
there
of the
is express
state isor
mobilized
implied waiver
against him.
no effect
An accused cannot be convicted of an offense unless it is clearly charged
In the in
absence
the compliant
of waiver
orinformation.
testimony ofBasic
the witness
rule you
cannot
cannot
be con
pro
3) To be present and defend in person and by counsel at every stage of the proceedings, from arraignment to promulgation of judgm
Effect when
witness dies:
Express or Implied waiver is renunciation to be present on that particular
date only.
Before
he could
take witness
stand
inadmissible
Escape of the accused is waiver by implication to be present on said
date and
all subsequent
trial
dates.
[Fact of escape made his fa
Afterappoint
giving his
direct testimony
before
cross
examination
Right to counsel is right to effective counsel. It is not enough to simply
a counsel
de officio. but
Counsel
must
have
no conflictof
rule: inadmissible.
Exception:
where the
adverse unless
party wt
When an accused is represented by a fake lawyer who pretended to beGen.
a member
of the bar, his
right to counsel
is violated,
failed to cross examine due to his own fault
After the
defense covered
conducted
admissible
4) To testify as a witness in his own behalf but subject to cross-examination
on matters
by cross
directexamination
examination. His
silence sh
7) To have compulsory process issued to secure the attendance o

5) To be exempt from being compelled to be a witness against himself.
Compulsory process refers to the issuance of the court of:
Right to testify in his own behalf:
Sub-poena for the attendance of witnesses
Once exercised, the accused is subject to limited cross-examination.
Sub-poena
If not exercised, no inference of guilt can be derived from his silence
alone.duces tecum for the production of documents
Notes:
Right against self incrimination:
A.&Iffarsighted.
a sub-poena or sub-poena duces tecum is issued and the per
Intended to shield the guilty & imprudent as well as the innocent
Based on public policy and humanity, otherwise, the accused will be placed on the strongest
B. The coercive powers of the court must be employed in order to
temptation to commit perjury.
8) To have speedy, impartial and public trial.

Notes:
A. Prohibition covers 1testimonial compulsion and 2the production of the accused of incriminating documents and articles demande
Speed:
B. Does not include compulsion to 1submit fingerprints, 2photograph,
3blood or urine samples, and 4others requiring a mere mecha
55
Justice delayed is justice as denied
Procedure:
Arraignment must be made in open court by the judge or the cler
Impartiality:
Accused must be furnished with a copy of the complaint or inform
Every party litigant is entitled to nothing less than the cold neutrality
Complaint
of an impartial
or Information
court (Macalintal
must be read
v. Judge
in a language
Teh, 280 SCRA
or dialect
623).
kn
Accused must be present
Public trial:
Accused must personally enter his plea
So that the public may see that he is fairly dealt with and not unjustly condemned in case of conviction.
So the public may know of the fact or the basis of his innocence in case
I. If under
of acquittal.
preventive detention
Raffle of case and transmittal of records within 3 days
Note: Public trial and Trial by publicity are two different things. They are
Arraignment
not the same.
within
There10
should
days from
be a public
the date
trial,
of raffle
not trial b
Pre trial conference within 10 days after arraignment
9) To appeal in all cases allowed and in the manner prescribed by law.
II. If not under preventive detention
The right to appeal is a statutory right but withdrawal of this right, in the absence
General of
rule
a valid
within
waiver,
30 days
constitutes
from thea date
denial
the
ofcourt
due proc
acq
It is not a natural right or inherent one. The party who seeks to avail of theException
said right must
a shorter
comply
period
with is
the
provided
requirements
by special
of the
lawRule
or
VII. Arraignment and Plea
Rules in entering a plea:

If accused refuses to plead or makes a conditional plea a plea
Arraignment: The initial step in a criminal prosecution whereby theIfdefendant
is brought
the court
to hear theevidence
charges and
accused enters
a pleabefore
but presents
exculpatory
ple
not guilty shall be entered for him. Burden of proof shifts.
Venue for Arraignment and Plea:
If accused enters a plea to a capital offense court shall conduc
Before the court where the complaint or information was filed or is
assigned forand
trial.
voluntariness
full comprehension of the consequences o
prosecution to prove his guilt and the precise degree of culp
Purpose of arraignment [Key: FIG] (14 Am. Jur., p. 939, GV Jacinto, Crim. Proc.)
Pre-trial Conference:
1) To fix the identity of the accused
Private offended party shall be required to appear for purpose
2) To inform him of the charge
1) Plea-bargaining
3) To give the accused an opportunity to plead
2) Determination of civil liability
3) Other matters requiring his presence
Note:
In case of failure of the offended party to appear despite due not
In order for the Court to acquire complete jurisdiction over the person of the accused, arraignment is essential. Unless this proced
Bill of particulars:
56
The accused may, before arraignment, move for a bill of particulars to enable him properly to plead and prepare for trial. The motion
Evidence helps in the determination of Questions of Facts by help
Scope of the Bill of Particular:
Bill of Particulars is a remedy for formal defects and not substantive
C. Factumdefects.
Probandum and Factum Probans
The remedy against an indictment that fails to allege the time of the
Factum
commission
Probandum
of the offense
The ultimate
with sufficient
facts to be
definition
proven. is
These
a Motion
are t
[See discussion in: Elements of Complaint and Information, remedy in case

Examples:
complaint or information is defective, supra]
Modes of discovery:
murder was committed thru treachery
Accused has a right against the suppression of evidence favorable to an accused
which
robbery
is material
was made
as to
through1)
force
guilt,
upon
or 2)
things
as to pun
Suppressed evidence must be of such nature as to affect the outcome

Factum
of the
Probans
trial (US
The
v. Agurs,
evidentiary
US v. Bagley)
Facts. These addresses questio
Notes:
Examples:
exit wounds were in front indicating that victim w

1) Arraignment is important for notifying the accused of the cause he is required
todestroyed
meet. Thelocks
accused
indicative
has the
ofright
forceto
upon
be informed
things
2) The existence of a plea is an essential requisite to double jeopardy
Thus,
(People
the outcome
v. Balicas)
of every trial is determined by:
Propositions of law, and
Questions of fact.
Evidence
D. Proof and Evidence
I. PRELIMINARY CONSIDERATION:
A. Importance of the study of Evidence in Law Enforcement:
Evidence the means to arrive at a conclusion. Under the Revised
Proof the result of introducing evidence. The establishment of a
As an element of our Criminal Justice System, it is the duty of every law enforcement agencies to provide the prosecution with the m
Quantum of evidence the totality of evidence presented for con
Every person is entitled to be presumed innocent of a crime or wrong,

unlessof
proven
Thisdegree
is a prima
facierequired
presumption
wh
Quantum
proof otherwise.
refers to the
of proof
in orde
B. Connecting the chain of events through Evidence during Trial:
Burden of evidence the duty of a party of going forward with ev
Trial refers to the examination before a competent tribunal, according to the laws of the land, of the facts in issue in a cause, for th
57
Burden of proof the duty of the affirmative to prove that which it alleges. 4.
It pertains to the truth respecting a matter of fact e

the prosecution or for the defense where issues (
Variations on degrees of proof based on type of action:
Admissibility of Evidence:
Criminal Action proof beyond reasonable doubt [that degree of proof which produces conviction in an unprejudiced mind]
Civil Action preponderance of evidence [evidence of greater weight
For evidence
or more
toconvincing
be admissible,
thanitthat
must
which
be: is offered to refute it]
Administrative Action sufficiency of evidence [that amount of relevant 1)
evidence
relevant
which
to the
a reasonable
issue [relevancy
mind test],
mightand
accept as adeq
2) not excluded by the law or rules of court [competency
E. Exclusionary Rule. (Fruit of the poisonous tree doctrine)
Note: To determine the relevancy of any item of proof, the purpo
Evidence ILLEGALLY OBTAINED are inadmissible for reasons of public policy. This is so because of the constitutional requirement of d
Test of relevancy of evidence:
As a result, jurisprudence has evolved a rule that renders inadmissible any evidence obtained in an illegal search from being introdu
Whether or not the factual information tendered for evaluation o
F. Principle of Chain of Custody of Evidence
When is evidence relevant?
If the evidence is of a type which cannot be easily recognized or can readily be confused or tampered with, the proponent of the obj
The evidence is identified as the same object which was taken
When
from
it has
theascene;
relation to the fact in issue as to induce belief in it
It was not tampered with, or that any alteration can be sufficiently
1) existence,
explained
or (i.e. discoloration
due to the application of ninhydrine solution, etc.); and 2) non-existence
The persons who have handled the evidence are known and may be examined in court with
regard to the object.
In other words, evidence is relevant when it is:
1) material, and
2) has probative value
II. GENERAL PROVISIONS:
What is meant by probative value?
A. Concepts of evidence:
It is the tendency of the evidence to establish the proposition tha
1. It is a means of ascertainment used to arrive at a legal conclusion
2. It is sanctioned by the rules of court meaning, not excluded
by the
rules onnot
relevancy
and except when it tend in any re
Collateral
Matters
admissible
admissibility
3. It is used in a judicial proceeding there is a jural conflict
involving
different
rights asserted
Collateral
matters
matters
other than the fact in issue and whic
by different parties
1.
2.
3.
58
Collateral matters are classified into:

1. Relevant evidence evidence having any value in reason as t
1. Antecedent circumstances facts existing before the commission of the crime [i.e. hatred,
an action.
bad
moral character of the offender, previous plan, conspiracy,
2.etc.]
Material evidence evidence is material when it is directed t
2. Concomitant circumstances facts existing during the commission of the crime [i.e. opportunity,
by the rules of substantive law and pl
presence of the accused at the scene of the crime, etc.] 3. Competent evidence not excluded by law.
3. Subsequent circumstances facts existing after the commission
4. Direct
of the evidence
crime [i.e.
proves
flight, the fact in issue without aid of infer
extrajudicial admission to third party, attempt to conceal 5.
effects
Circumstantial
of the crime,
evidence
possession
- the
of proof of fact or facts from whic
stolen property, etc.]
the existence of a particular fa
or probable consequence.
Query: Is modus operandi an antecedent, concomitant or subsequent
6. circumstance?
Positive evidence evidence which affirms a fact in issue.
7. Negative evidence - evidence which denies the existence of a
B. Judicial Notice, basis of:
8. Rebutting evidence given to repel, counter act or disprove
party.
Judicial notice is based on necessity and expediency. This is so because
9. Primary/Best
what is known
evidence
need not
that
be proved.
which the law regards as afford
10. Secondary evidence that which indicates the existence of a
Different kinds of judicial notices:
11. Expert evidence testimony of one possessing knowledge not
1. mandatory
12. Prima facie evidence evidence which can stand alone to sup
2. discretionary
13. Conclusive evidence incontrovertible evidence
3. hearing required
14. Cumulative evidence additional evidence of the same kind b
15. Corroborative evidence additional evidence of a different kin
C. Confession and Admission, distinguished:
same point as that of previously
Confession an acknowledgement of guilt.
16. Character evidence evidence of a persons moral standing o
Admission an acknowledgment of facts.
based on reputation or opinion.
Different kinds of confession/admission:
1. Judicial
2. Extrajudicial
3. Oral
4. Written
5. Voluntary
6. Forced
Different kinds of evidence:
17. Demeanor evidence the behavior of a witness on the witnes

by the judge on the issue of credibili
18. Demonstrative evidence evidence that has tangible and exe
19. Hearsay evidence oral testimony or documentary evidence w
from the credit to be attached to the w
20.Testimonial evidence oral averments given in open court by t
21. Object/Auotoptic proferrence/Real evidence those addressed
hearing
22. Documentary evidence those consisting of writing or any ma
59
proof of its contents containing letters, words, numbers,

When figures,
original symbols
document
orisother
in the
modes
custody of:
Best Evidence Rule:

1. adverse party adverse party must have reasonable noti
When the subject of the inquiry is the contents of a document, no evidence satisfactory
shall be admissible
proof ofother
its existence,
than the original
he fails to
of produce
the docume
it,
2. public officer contents may be proved by certified copy
For exceptions, see Sec. 3, Rule 130, Revised Rules of Court.
thereof.
A document is legally considered Original when:

III. TESTIMONIAL EVIDENCE:
1. It is the subject of an inquiry
2. When in two or more copies executed at or about the same Qualifications
time, with identical
of witnesses:
contents.
3. When an entry is repeated in ordinary course of business, one 1.
being
can
copied
perceive
from another at or
near the time of the transaction.
2. can make known their perception to others
3. not disqualified by reason of mental incapacity, immaturit
Question: May a fake document be considered as original or authentic?
communications, or dead mans statute.
Yes. A forged or spurious document when presented in court for examination

Res Inter is
Alios
considered
Acta Rule
as the original fake/forged document. Th
General Rule: The rights of a party cannot be prejudiced by
Secondary Evidence
another.
When the
1.
2.
3.
original document has been:

lost,
destroyed, or
cannot be produced in court.
The offeror without bad faith must:

1. prove its execution or existence, and
2. prove the cause of its unavailability.
Exception:
1. admission
2. admission
3. admission
4. admission
by
by
by
by
a co-partner or agent
a conspirator
privies
silence
In the above cases, the admission of one person is admissible as
Testimonial Knowledge:
Secondary evidence may consist of:
General Rule: A witness can testify only to those facts which he k
1. a copy,
2. recital of its contents in some authentic document, or
Exceptions:
3. by testimony of witnesses.
1. Dying declarations (ante-mortem statements)
60
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
Declaration against interest

Act or declaration about pedigree
Family reputation or tradition regarding pedigree
Common reputation
Part of the res gestae
Entries in the course of business
Entries in official records
Commercial lists and the like
Learned treatises
Testimony or deposition at a former proceeding
Examination of child victim/witness in cases of child abuse
The examination of witnesses presented in a trial or hearing shal
Rights and Obligations of witnesses:

1. To be protected from irrelevant, improper, or insulting question
demeanor.
2. Not to be detained longer than the interest of justice requires.
3. Not to be examined except only as to matters pertinent to the
4. Not to give an answer which will tend to subject him to a penal
provided by law.
5. Not to give an answer which will tend to degrade his reputatio
or to the fact from which the
fact in issue would be presum
facts of his previous final conviction for an offense.
IV. BURDEN OF PROOF AND PRESUMPTIONS:
Order of Examination of individual witnesses:

Burden of proof the duty of a party to present evidence on the facts in issue necessary
Direct examination
to establish
byhis
theclaim
proponent
or defense by the amo
Cross examination by the opponent
Presumption an inference as to the existence of a fact not actually known, arising
Re-direct
from examination
its usual connection
by the proponent
with another which is k
Re-cross examination by the opponent
2 kinds of presumptions:
1. Conclusive presumptions [jure et de jure] based on rules
Direct
of substantive
examination
law
the
which
examination
cannot be in chief of a witness by the
overcome by evidence to the contrary.
Cross examination
the
examination
by the adverse party of the
2. Disputable presumptions [prima facie presumptions, rebuttable
presumptions]
based
on
procedural rules and may be overcome by evidence to the contrary.
Re-direct examination second questioning by the proponent to e
Kinds of Conclusive Presumptions:
Re-cross
examination
second
questioning
the adverse
party
1. Estoppel by record or judgment the preclusion to deny the truth
of matters
set forth
in a record,
whetherby
judicial
or legislative
2. Estoppel by deed a bar which precludes a party to a deed and his privies from asserting as against the other and his privies an
Different
Types
of Questions:
3. Estoppel in pais based upon express representation or statements
or upon
positive
acts or conduct. A party cannot, in the cou
4. Estoppel against Tenant the tenant is not permitted to deny the title of his landlord at the time of the commencement of the re
Leading questions It is one where the answer is already supplied
question
a question which cannot be answered witho
Note: For Kinds of disputable presumptions, see Sec. 3, Rule 131 ofMisleading
the Revised
Rules of Court.
Presentation of Evidence:
Compound question a question which calls for a single answer t
61
Ignorantia facti excusat mistake of fact excuses.

Argumentative question a type of leading question which reflects the examiners interpretation of the facts. [Ex. Why were you driv
Praeter intentionem different from that which was intended.
Speculative question a question which assumes a disputed fact not stated by the witness as true. [Ex. The victim cried in pain, didn
Error in personae mistake in identity.
Conclusionary question a question which asks for an opinion which the witness is not qualified or permitted to answer. [Ex. Asking
Abberatio Ictus mistake in the blow
Cumulative question a question which has already been asked andNulum
answered.
crimen, nulla poena sine lege there is no crime when the
Harassing/Embarrassing question [Ex. Are you a homosexual?]
Actus non facit reum, nisi mens sit rea the act cannot be crimina
Classes of Documents:
Documents are either public or private.
Actus mi invictu reus, nisi mens facit reum an act done by me ag
Mens rea guilty mind.

Public documents are:
1. The written official acts, or records of the official acts of sovereign
official
Actusauthority,
reus guilty
act.bodies and
tribunals, and public officers, whether of the Philippines, or a foreign country.
2. Documents acknowledged before a notary public except last wills
Res and
ipsatestaments.
loquitor the thing speaks for itself.
3. Public records (1) kept in the Philippines, or private documents (2) required by law to be entered
therein.
Causa Proxima proximate cause which produced the immediate
effect.
All other writings are private.
Prima facie at first glance.
SOME USEFUL LATIN TERMS AND LEGAL MAXIMS:
Locus Criminis scene of the crime or crime scene.
Pro Reo principle in Criminal Law which states that where the st
Verba legis non est decendendum from the words of the law there can be no departure.
Dura lex sed lex the law may be harsh but it is the law.
Res Gestae the thing itself.
Falsus in unum, falsus in omnibus false in one part of the statem

Ignorantia legis neminem excusat ignorance of the law excuses no one.
62
Crime Detection, Investigation, and Prevention
Fundamentals of Criminal Investigation
Investigation
or otherwise
for the discovery a
Crime detection begins with the discovery of a crime scene and proceeds
through- an
theinquiry,
processjudicial
of evidence
collection,
- it is the process of inquiring, eliciting, soliciting and
Crime prevention and detection is the major task of the police. In carrying out this task, the police cooperate with the authorities co
Criminal Investigator - a public safety officer who is tasked to con
- a well trained, disciplined and experienced professio
What are the goals of policing?
1. To protect life and property
Custodial Investigation - investigation conducted by law enforcem
2. To maintain peace and order
3. To enforce the law
Neighborhood Investigation - one of the most crucial steps in kidn
4. To prevent and detect crimes
5. To assist the public in circumstances of personal emergency
Crime scene - a venue or place where the alleged crime/incident/e
Problem Oriented Policing - police patrol personnel look at causes of crime and potential crime in particular areas rather than just de
Corpus delicti - (latin for the body of the crime) - used to describe
Community Policing - crime prevention methods involving the wider community.
Confession - is an express acknowledgement by the accused in a
Deterrence by Example - a reactive form of policing and crime prevention through the sight of police officer in uniform.
Admission - refers to statement of facts not directly constituting
Crime Prevention - is the anticipation, recognition, and appraisal of a crime risk and the initiation of action to remove or reduce it.
Organized criminal group - a structured group of three or more pe
crime -agencies
a combination
ofthe
twopolice
or more
who
are
Whose responsibility is crime prevention? ans. everyone, however, Organized
law enforcement
such as
arepersons
the focal
point
evidence -agencies
evidenced
addressed
to the for
senses
of the cou
Whose responsibility is crime detection? ans. police, though specialPhysical
law enforcement
may
be responsible
the discovery
Victimology/victim
profiling - a detailed account of the victims life
Whose responsibility is crime investigation? ans. police and other law
enforcement agencies.
Miranda vs. Arizona - Ernesto Miranda had confessed to rape and

Crime Detection Falls Into 3 Phases
1. The discovery that a crime has been committed.
Waterboarding - refers to the practice of strapping a suspect to a
2. The identification of the suspect
3. The collection of sufficient evidence to indict the suspect before the court of justice.
Chinese water torture - interrogation technique, repeatedly dripp
63
Serial Killer - is someone who murders 3 or more people with "cooling off" periods in between.
1. What specific offense was committed
Police Blotter - is an 18" x 12" logbook with hard bound cover that contains the daily register of all crime incident reports, official su
act of 2004) and RA 9344 ( juvenile justice and welfare act of 2006). 2. How the offense was committed
Actus Reus - proof that a criminal act has occurred.
3. Who committed it
Sketch - a rough drawing or painting, often made to assist in making a4.more

Where
finished
the offense
picture.
was committed
Types of Sketches
1. Floor plan (Birds Eye View)
2. Elevation Drawing
3. Exploded View
4. Respective Drawings
5. When it was committed

6. Why it was committed
Tools of an investigator in gathering facts
Allan Pinkerton - a Scottish american detective who created the Pinkerton

1. Information
National -Detective
data gathered
Agency,
by the
an investigator
first detective
and
agency
other pers
in th
1. public records
Rouges Gallery - is a police collection of pictures or photographs of criminals and suspects
2. private
keptrecords
for identification purposes. A compil
3. modus operandi file
Mugshot - is a photographic portrait taken after one is arrested.
2. Interview - skillful questioning of witness and suspects.
Criminal investigation - it is the collection of facts in order to accomplish
3. Instrumentation
the three fold -aims:
scientific examination of real evidence, app
physical sciences in detecting crime.
3 Fold Aims Of Criminal Investigation
Phases of investigations
1. To identify the guilty party
1.Phase 1 - identify the suspect through:
1. confession
2. To locate the guilty party
2. eyewitness testimony
3. circumstantial evidence
3. To provide evidence of his guilt
4. associate evidence
2. Phase 2 - locate and apprehend suspect.
6 Cardinal points of investigation
3. Phase 3 - gather and provide evidence to establish the guilt o
64
Composition/Organization of an investigation team:

10.
Evidence tag
11.
Evidence bottles/vials
12.
Investigators tickler
1. Team leader
2. Investigator/recorder
3. Photographer
Investigators Tickler
4. Evidence Custodian
1. Investigators checklist
5. Composite illustrator/Artist
2. Anatomical diagram form
Equipment of an Investigator
3. Evidence Checklist
1. Police line
4. Turn-over receipt
2. Video camera
Standard Methods of Recording Investigative Data:
3. Voice recorder
1. Photographs
4. Camera
2. Sketching crime scenes
5. Measuring device
3. Written notes (what you have seen/observed)
6. Gloves
4. Developing and lifting fingerprints found at the crime scene

7. Flashlight
5. Gathering physical evidence
8. Fingerprint kit
6. Plaster cast
9. Evidence bag
7. Tape recording of sounds
65
8. Video tape recording of objects

9. Written statement of objects and witnesses.
Qualifications of Interviewer
1. Salesman
2. Actor
3. Psychologist
2 Kinds of Information
1. Regular sources - ex. citizen, company records
2. Cultivated sources - ex. paid informant
Requisites of an Interview
1. Establish rapport
2. Forcefulness of personality
3. Breadth of interest
Interrogation or questioning witness or suspect who is reluctant to divulge or reveal information with the goal of extracting a c
Setting of Interview
1. Background Interview - time and place of interview are not a
How the Suspect is Identified
person.
1. Confession or Admission - is a declaration of an accused acknowledging
his guilt.
2. Routine Criminal Cases - interview should be carefully planne
2. Eyewitness testimony
at night, privacy is important.
3. Circumstantial evidence
3. Important Criminal Cases - should be conducted in places oth
prevent him/her feeling confident. Investigator should get int
How circumstantial Evidence Obtained
4. Appropriate Time - General rule - (ASAP) as soon possible wh
1. Motive
interviewees.
2. Opportunity
3. Associative Evidence
Methods of Crime Scene Search
1. Strip method - the area is blocked out in the form of a rectang
Types of Interview
slowlyscene
at the
1. Informal (on the scene interview) - conducted by police/investigatorproceed
at the crime
tosame
get pace along paths parallel to one s
2. Double Strip Search Method - modification of the strip search
description of criminal if seen.
first parallel to the base then parallel to a side.
2. Formal - interview conducted by the investigator assigned to the case.
3. Spiral Search Method - The searchers (3 person is good) follow
beginning on the outside and spiraling in towards the center.
4. Zone Search Method - one searcher is assigned to each subdiv
quadrant is cut into another set of quadrants.
Types of Formal Interview
5. Wheel Search Method - the area is considered to be approxim
1. Normal - for willing or cooperative witness.
center and proceed outward along radii or spokes. Proced
2. Group/Pretext Interview - for hostile witness or witness who refusethe
to cooperate.
depending on the size of the circle and the number of searche
3. Follow Up - additional interview in addition to vital points if necessary.
66
4. Abortion
5. Rape
6. Murder
7. Homicide
8. Carnapping
9. Criminal Negligence, Hit and Run cases
10.Drug Cases
11.Bombing
12.Swindling
Fire Technology and Investigation
Fire - exothermic reaction involving the oxidation of some substa

Fire Quadrangle
Special Crime Investigation
Special Crime Investigation - is a special study of modern
techniques in the investigation of serious and specific crimes
including murder, homicide, rape, abortion, robbery, arson
kidnapping, blackmail, carnapping and criminal negligence.
The emphasis is on physical evidence rather than an extra
judicial confession. Special crime investigation focuses on
specific crimes which by their nature are difficult and
complex to investigate.
The following are some example of cases subject to special
crime investigation.
1. Robbery
2. Arson
3. Kidnapping
1. Fuel
2. Oxygen
3. Heat
4. Ignition energy
Triangles of Fire
1. Fuel
2. Oxygen
67
3. Heat
1. Conductive/conduction heat transfer - heat is transferred by
- removal of any of these results in the suppression of the fire.

Some major products of combustion
1. water
2. Convective/convection heat transfer - transfer of heat throu

3. Radiative/radiation heat transfer - heat is transferred if the
8.
Combustion - or burning - is the sequence of exothermic che

oxidant accompanied by the production of heat and conve
the heat can result in the form of either glowing or flame.
3. carbon monoxide
Glowing combustion - occurs when solid fuels are not capab
4. oxides of sulfur
Flaming combustion -commonly recognized type of fire and
Spontaneous combustion - the ignition of organic matter wit
2. carbon dioxide
Definition of terms
Explosive combustion - can occur when vapors, dust of gase

Vapor Density - the density of the vapor relative to the density of air and is calculated by dividing the molecular weight of the
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
Flash point - the lowest temperature at which liquid fuel produces a flammable vapor.
Arson - intentional or malicious destruction of property by fire.

Fire point/flame point - the lowest temperature at which liquid fuel produces a flammable vapor in
sufficient quantity such that if a source of ignition is introduced, the vapour will ignite and is usually
Fire analysis - the process of determining the origin, cause and re
a few degrees above the flash point
Ignition/auto-ignition temperature - the temperature at which a fuel will ignite on its own with out
Fire cause - the circumstances or agencies that bring a fuel and a
any additional source ignition.
Thermal inertia - the ease at which a material can be ignited.
Fire spread - the movement of fire from one place to another.
Heat release rate - is a measure of the amount of energy a specific type of fuel can contribute to the
heat flux in a fire.
Flash fire - a fire that spreads with extreme rapidity such as the o
Heat transfer - the mechanism in which fire can spread from its origin to other sources of fuel.
Methods of heat transfer
Fuel load - the total quantity of combustible contents of the build
68
Point of origin - the exact physical location where a heat source and
Distillation
fuel comes- the
in contact
process
with
of first
eachraising
other and
the a
temperature
fire begins. to separ
Rekindle - a return to flaming combustion after incomplete extinguishment

Duct system
of a fire
- a continuous
reigning at passageway
some time after
for the
being
transmission
put out.
of a
Spalling - chipping or pitting of concrete or masonry surfaces.
Definition of terms - (RA no.9514)
Abatement - any act that would remove or neutralize fire hazard.
Dust - a finely powdered substance which when mixed with air in
Electrical arc - an extremely hot luminous bridge formed by passa
Ember - a hot piece or lump that remains after a material has par
Finishes - materials used as final coating of a surface for ornamen

Administrator - any person who acts as agent of the owner and manages the use of a building for him.
Fire - the active principle of burning characterized by the heat an
Blasting Agent - any material or mixture consisting of a fuel and oxidizer used to set off explosives.
Fire Trap - a building unsafe in case of fire because it will burn ea
Cellulose nitrate or Nitro cellulose - a highly combustible and explosive compound produced by the reaction of nitric acid with a cellu
Fire Alarm - any visual or audible signal produced by a device or s
Cellulose nitrate plastic (Pyroxylin) - any plastic substance,materials or compound having cellulose nitrate as base.
Fire door - a fire restrictive door prescribed for openings in fire se
Combustible/Flammable or Inflammable - Descriptive of materials that are easily set on fire.
Fire Hazard - any condition or act which increases or may cause a
Combustible fiber - any readily ignitable and free burning fiber such as cotton,oakum,rags,waste cloth,waste paper,kapok,hay,straw,
Fire Lane - the portion of a roadway or public way that should be
Combustible liquid - any liquid having a flash point at or above 37.8 degrees Celsius or 100 degrees Fahrenheit.
Fire Protective and Fire Safety Device - any device intended for th
Corrosive liquid - any liquid which causes fire when in contact with during
organicfire.
matter or with certain chemicals.
Curtain board - a vertical panel of non-combustible or fire resistive Fire

materials
to and- extending
below and
the bottom
chordof
of tw
Safetyattached
Constructions
refers to design
installations
Cryogenic - descriptive of any material which by its nature or as a result

its reaction
with other
elementsat
produces
a rapid
dropgiv
in
Flash of
Point
- the minimum
temperature
which any
material
Damper - a normally open device installed inside an air duct system

which- automatically
closes
to restrict
the
of smoke
or
Forcing
a process where
a piece
of metal
ispassage
heated prior
to chan
69
Fulminate - a kind of stable explosive compound which explodes byPublic

percussion.
Way - any street, alley or other strip of land unobstructed
Hazardous operation/process - any act of manufacturing, fabrication,

Pyrophoric
conversion
- descriptive
etc., or produces
of any substance
materials which
that ignites
are likely
spontaneou
to cause
Horizontal exit - passage way from one building to another or through

Refining
or around
- a process
a wall where
in approximately
impurities the
and,or
same
deleterious
floor level.
material
Hose Box - a box or cabinet where fire hoses, valves and other equipment
Self Closing
are stored
Doorsand
- automatic
arrangedclosing
for firefighting.
doors that are designed to
Hose Reel - a cylindrical device turning on an axis around which a fire
Smelting
hose is- connected.\.
melting or fusing of metallic ores or compounds so as
Hypergolic fuel - a rocket or liquid propellant which consist of combinations

Sprinklerof
System
fuels and
- an oxidizers
integrated
which
network
ignite
ofsimultaneously
hydraulically designe
on co
Industrial Baking and Drying - the industrial process of subjecting materials

StandpipetoSystem
heat for
- athe
system
purpose
of vertical
of removing
pipes solvents
in a building
or moistur
to whi
Jumper - a piece of metal or an electrical conductor used to bypass Vestibule

a safety device
- a passage
in an electrical
hall or ante
system.
chamber between the outer doo
Occupancy - the purpose for which a building or portion thereof is used

Vertical
or intended
Shaft - a to
enclosed
be used.
vertical space of passage that extends
RA no.9514 - Revised Fire Code of the Philippines of 2008 (Dec. 1
Occupant - any person actually occupying and using a building or portions thereof by virtue of a lease contract with the owner or ad
PD. 1185 - known as the fire code of the Philippines, was enacted
Organic Peroxide - a strong oxidizing organic compound which release oxygen readily. It causes fire
when in contact with combustible materials especially under conditions
RA no.
of 9263
high temperature.
- Bureau of Fire Protection and Bureau of Jail Manage
Overloading - the use of one or more electrical appliances or devices

BFP
which
Powers/Functions
draw or consume electrical current beyond the designed
Owner - the person who holds the legal right of possession or title to1.a Preventions
building or real
and property.
suppression of all destructive
fires on
Oxidizing Material - a material that readily yields oxygen in quantities sufficient
a. buildings
to stimulate or support combustion.
b. houses
Pressurized or Forced Draft Burning Equipment - type or burner where the
c.fuel
other
is structure
subjected to pressure prior to discharge into the co
d. forest
Public Assembly Building - any building or structure where 50 0r more people
e. land
congregate,
transportation
gather
vehicles
or assemble for any purpose.
70
f. ships/vessels
g. petroleum industry installations
h. plane crashes and similar incidents
2. Enforcement of the Fire Code of the Philippines
3. Investigate all causes of fire
4. File proper complaints with the prosecutors office
BFP
BFP
Provincial Fire Marshall - rank is Superintendent.
District Fire Marshall of Province - rank is Chief Inspector.
Chief of City/Municipal Fire Station - rank is Senior Inspector
note: Vessel/Ship must be docked at piers or wharves or anchored

in major seaport.
Key Positions
- Qualifications
1. Municipal Fire Marshal - should have the rank of Senior Inspect
a. Must have finished at least 2nd year Bachelor of Laws or ear
Organization
degree program in public administration, management, en
other related discipline.
Headed by a Chief who shall be assisted by a Deputy Chief. It shall
composed
of a Provincial,
District,
City and Municipal
statio
b. Must have satisfactory
passed
the necessary
training of
care
established by the fire bureau.
In large provinces, district offices may be established to be headed
by a Marshal
district fire
marshall.
2. City Fire
- should
have the rank of Chief Inspector.
a. Must have finished at least 2nd year Bachelor of Laws or ear
degree
program in public
administration,
In large cities and municipalities, district offices may be established
with subordinate
fire stations
headed bymanagement,
a district fire engi
mar
other related disciplines.
b. city
Must
have
satisfactory passed the necessary training or care
There shall be at least one fire station in every provincial, capital,
and
municipality.
may be established by the fire bureau.
3. District Fire Marshal/Provincial Fire Marshal Assistant Regional
The local government unit shall provide the site of the fire station.
Assistant Regional Director for Operations/ Chief of Directorial
Superintendent.
Key Positions
a. Must be a graduate of Bachelor of Laws or a holder of a Mas
management, engineering, public safety, criminology, or o
The Chief of the Fire Bureau - rank is Director.
b. Must have satisfactory passed the necessary training or care
The Deputy Chief of the Fire Bureau - rank is Chief Superintendent.
4. District Fire marshal for the NCR/Regional Director for Fire Pro
the National Headquarters Office - should have at least the r
Assistant Regional Director for Fire Protection - rank is Senior Superintendent.
a. Must be a graduate of Bachelor of Laws or a holder of maste
management, engineering, public safety, criminology, or oth
District Fire Marshall of NCR District Offices - rank is Senior Superintendent.
b. Must have satisfactory passed the necessary training or care
be established by the fire bureau.
71
5. Deputy Chief for Administration and Deputy Chief for Operation of

Hitthe
and
Fire
runBureau
- is the- act
should
of causing
have the
a traffic accident and failing to
rank of Chief superintendent.
a. Must be a member of the Philippine Bar or must be a holder ofTraffic
a masters
accident
degree
- occurs
in public
when a vehicle collides with another vehi
administration, management, engineering, public safety, criminology or other related disciplines.
b. Must have satisfactory passed the necessary training or career
Mary
courses
Ward
as- may
worlds
be first
established
road traffic
by the
death including a motor vehi
fire bureau.
6. Chief of the Fire Bureau - should have the rank of Director.
Causes of traffic accidents
a. Must be a member of the Philippine Bar or a masters degree in public administration,
management, engineering, public safety, criminology or other related
1. Human
discipline.
factors - ex. driver behavior, visual and auditory acu
b. Must satisfactory passed the necessary the training or career courses for such position as may be
2. Motor vehicle speed.
Traffic Operation and Accident Investigation
3. Driver impairment - factors that prevent the driver at their n
4. Road design
Traffic - may consist of pedestrians, ridden or herded animals, vehicles, street cars and other conveyances either singly or together
5. Vehicle design and maintenance
Traffic laws - laws which govern traffic and regulate vehicles.
seat belts - wearing seat belts reduces the risk of death by t
Traffic signs/road signs - are signs erected at the side of the roads to provide information to road users.
maintenance - a well designed and maintained vehicle with
Rules of the road - are the laws and the informal rules that may have developed overtime to facilitate the orderly and timely flow of
center of gravity - roll overs have become common due to in

Right of way - is a strip of land that is granted, through an easement or other mechanism for transportation purposes such as for a t
- the legal right, established by usage or grant, to pass along a specific route through property
motorcycles - have little protection.
belonging to another.
Skid
- is the mark a tire makes when a vehicle wheel stops r
Traffic signal/Traffic light - a visual signal to control the flow of traffic
at mark
intersections.
skid
are caused by rubbers deposited on the road.
Highway - any public road. A main road especially one connecting major
townmarks
or cities.
one form
of traceusing
evidence,
when
their size and shape can r
Speed limit - define the maximum, minimum or no speed limit and arenormally
indicated
a traffic
sign.
72
Characteristics of Traffic Congestion

1. Slow
speed
of vehicles
the length of the skid mark is closely related to the vehicle speed
at the
instant
of breaking, measuring the marks yields an est
2. Longer travel time
vehicle queuing
Locard exchange principle - was postulated by Edmong Locard3.inIncreased
the 20th century
which states that
Classical Theories of Traffic Flow

1. Free flow
2. Congested
traffic
1. acceleration marks - created on acceleration if the engine provides
more power
that the tire can transmit.
Skid mark are divided into:
Three-Phase Traffic Theory - is an alternative theory of traffic flow

2. braking marks - if the brakes "lock-up" and cause the tire to slide.
1. Free flow
2. Synchronized flow
3. yaw marks - if the tire slide sideways.
3. Wide moving jam
RA 4136 - Land Transportation and Traffic code of the Philippines.
Pedestrian - is a person traveling on foot whether walking or runn
Coefficient of Friction - is a dimensionless scalar value which describes the ratio of the force of friction between two bodies and the
Gridlock - a traffic jam so bad that no movement is possible.
Rail Adhesion - grip wheels of a train have on the rails.
China - (Beijing-Zhangjiakou province) - is considered the worlds
Split Friction - dangerous condition arising due to varying friction on either side of a car.
Brazil - (Sao Paolo) - has the worlds worst daily traffic jams.
Road Texture - affects the interaction of tires and the driving surface.
France - (A6 Auto-route) - between Paris and Lyon was considered
Profilograph - devised used to measure pavement surface roughness.
Tribometer - an instrument that measures friction on a surface.
Drug Education and Vice Control
Traffic Waves - "stop waves" "traffic Shocks" - are traveling disturbances

the distribution
of cars
on a highway.
RA no.in9165
- Comprehensive
Dangerous
Drugs Act of 2002.
Traffic Flow - the total number of vehicles passing a given point in aRA
given
time.- Traffic
flow is
expressed
as vehicle
no 6425
Dangerous
Drugs
Act of 1972
- the per
law hour.
that was rep
Traffic Congestion - "traffic jam" - is a condition on roads, streets orDangerous

highways that
occurs
as(DDB)
use increases.
Drugs
Board
- the policy-making and strategy-fo
73
Duties/Function of the DDB -To develop and adopt a comprehensive, integrated, unified and balanced national drug abuse prevention
11.
National Youth Commission chairman or his/her represe
Composition of the DDB
12.
PDEA director general
1. 3 permanent members
The DDB is under the office of the President.
2. 2 regular members
The Department Secretary's representative shall in no case
3. 12 ex officio members
The Two Regular Members of the DDB are:
The 12 ex officio members are the following:
1. The President of The Integrated Bar of the Philippines (IBP)
1. DOJ secretary or his/her representative
2. The Chairman or President of a non-governmental organizat
2. DOH secretary or his/her representative
Permanent Consultants of the DDB
3. DND secretary or his/her representative
1. Director of the NBI
4. DOF secretary or his/her representative
2. Chief of the PNP
5. DOLE secretary or his/her representative
PDEA - implementing arm of the DDB.
6. DILG secretary or his/her representative
Qualification of the 3 Permanent members of the DDB
7. DSWD secretary or his/her representative
- at least 7 years training and experience in the field of dangerou
8. DFA secretary or his/her representative
The President shall designate a Chairman of the DDB from
9. DECS secretary or his/her representative
The Chairman of the DDB shall have a rank of Under Secreta
Term of office of the permanent members of the DDB - 6 yea
10.
CHED chairman or his/her representative
74
3 Pronged Approached in the Solution of Drug Problems

1. undersecretary.
Law enforcement activities
The PDEA shall be headed by a Director General with the rank of
2. Preventive Drug Education and Information program in schoo
and Rehabilitation programs for drug dependent.
The PDEA Director General shall be appointed by the President 3.
of Treatment
the Philippines.
Classification of Drugs according to effect

Duties/Functions of PDEA Director General
1. Responsible for the general administration and management of the agency.
1. Depressant - "downers" - a drug reducing functional or nerv
2. Perform other duties that may be assigned to him/her by the President.
2. Stimulants
- "Uppers"
- increasetraining
mental and
and/or
physicalin
fun
The PDEA Director General and the 2 Deputy Director General must
possess adequate
knowledge,
experience
th
There are 2 PDEA Deputy Director General

1. One for Administration
2. One for Operation
3. Hallucinogens - "psychedelics" - a drug that causes hallucina

Classification of Drugs according to Pharmacology
1. Depressants
They shall have a rank of Assistant Secretary and both are appointed
by the President of the Philippines upon recommendatio
Mandatory Services of the PDEA

1. Intelligence and Investigation
2. International Cooperation and Foreign Affairs
3. Preventive Education and Community Involvement
4. Plans and Operation
5. Compliance, Legal and Prosecution
6. Administrative and Human Resource
7. Financial Management
8. Logistic Management
9. Internal Affairs
2. Narcotics
3. Tranquilizers
4. Stimulants
5. Hallucinogens
6. Solvents/Inhalants
Classifications of Drugs according to Legal Categories
PDEA Academy - Shall be established either in Baguio City or Tagaytay City and in such other places as may be necessary.
1. Prohibited Drugs
PDEA Academy shall be headed by a Superintendent with the rank of Director. He shall be appointed by the PDEA Director Gen
2. Regulated Drugs
75
3. Volatile substances
Golden Triangle of Drug Trafficking
1. Sedatives - are depressant drugs which reduce anxiety and
2. Stimulants - are drugs which increase alertness and activity
1. Laos
3. Hallucinogen/Psychedelics - drugs which affect sensation, th
2. Thailand
4. Narcotics - drugs that relieve pain and often induce sleep. T
3. Burma
5. Solvents - volatile substances which are found to be the mo
The Golden Crescent
Primary causes of drug addiction:
1. Afghanistan
1. Pride - excessive feeling of self worth or self esteem or sens
2. Pakistan
2. Anger - against, himself, family, friends and society in gener
3. Iran
3. Lust - burning sexual desire can distort the human mind to d
4. India
4. Gluttony - "food trip" in the lingo of junkies.
Classification of Drug user/Abuser
5. Greed - wealth, fame, recognition as exemplified by people u
1. Situational user - those who use drugs to keep them awake or for
6.additional
Envy - to get
energy
attention
to perform
from an
someone
important
as sign
work.
of Such
protest.
individ
2. Spree user - school age user who take drugs for "kicks", adventure,
7. Laziness
daring experience
- "i cant syndrome"
or a means
incapacity
of fun. to achieve is a breed
3. Hardcore addicts - those whose activities revolves almost entirely

Warning
around
Signs
drug
of Commonly
use and securing
Abusedsupplies.
Drugs They show strong ps
4. Hippies - Those who are addicted to drugs believing that drug1.
is Marijuana
an integral part of life.
Commonly abused drugs:
glassy red eye
76
loud talking
anxiety
inappropriate laughter followed by sleepiness
excessive talking followed by depression or excessive sleep
loss of interest, motivation
may go long period of time without eating or sleeping
weight gain or loss
weight loss
dry mouth and nose
2. Depressant
contracted pupils
4. Inhalants - ex. glues, aerosols, vapors
drunk-like
difficulty concentrating
clumsiness
impaired vision, memory and thought
poor judgement
secretions from the nose or rashes around the nose and mou
head aches and nausea
3. Stimulants - ex. cocaine, amphetamines
watery eyes
dilated pupils
appearance of intoxication
hyperactivity
drowsiness
euphoria
poor muscle control
irritability
changes in appetite
77
anxiety
sleeping at unusual time
irritability
sweating
lots of cans,aerosols in the trash
vomiting
coughing, shiffling
twitching
5 . Hallucinogens - ex. LSD, PCP
dilated pupils
bizarre and irrational behavior including paranoia, aggression, hallucination

loss of appetite
mood swings
detachment from people
clumsiness
absorption with self or other objects
difficulty walking
slurred speech
slurred speech
confusion
sleepiness
poor judgement
6. Heroin
7. Alcohol
contracted pupils
dilated pupils
no response of pupils to light
possession of false ID cards
needle marks
8. Tobacco/Nicotine
78
of lives and damage of properties.
smell of tobacco
Tactical interrogation report - the report rendered by an inte

activities,associates/armaments 5. Plans
Analgesic - any drugs such as salicylates, morphine or opiates used primarily for the relief of pain.
Summary of information (SOI) - an intelligence report rende
operations hence, information received should be cared, val
stained fingers or teeth
Police Report Writing (Technical English)

Criminal Sociology
Affidavit - summary judgment. The kind of affidavit necessary Criminal

to support
a summary
judgementthe
is that
affidavit
which it
m
sociology
- investigates
social
causesfrom
of criminal
beh
which dispense with the hearing or trial of the case.(PNP definition).
Criminology Theories
After operation report - it is a report that may be rendered after
any successful
police operation
that leads
to the arrest
of any
1. Strain
Theory - people
has aspirations
like wealth
and educatio
2. Learning Theories - follow the lead of Sutherland's theory of di
After soco report - it is a report rendered by the team leader of
SOCO
that conducted
of the crime
3. the
Control
Theories
- focusesthe
on scene
the relationship
of operations,
a person to pro
th
4. Labelling Theory - People who are branded as criminals will eve
Agents report - it is a report rendered by a documented agent who answers an intelligence requirement.
5. Conflict Theory - society is based on conflict between competi
Radical Theory
- crime is seen
a reflection
class
Agreement - Proposal. A proposal remains an offer even if not6.
answered
and irrespective
of theas
length
of timeofthat
hasstruggle
passed.
7. Left Realism
- people
of the working
class
prey
upon one
Book of account - a book containing charges and showing a continuous
dealing
with persons
generally.
To be
admissible
inanot
evid
8. Peacemaking
Theory
- making "war on crime" will not work. Ma
Case officer - the person responsible for and in charge of the investigation
of the
case.
9. Feminism
- crime
cannot shall
be understood
without
considering
po
Police blotter - a record or log where all types of operational and
under cover
dispatches
be recorded
containing
the 5 "W
10. Critical Theory - Inequality in power and material well being c

Spot report - refers to an immediate initial investigative or incident report addressed to higher headquarters pertaining to the
79
11. Social Disorganization - disorganized communities
cause crime because informal social controls breakdown and criminal culture
3. Chicago school
12. Classical - crime occurs when the benefits outweigh the costs, when people pursue self
Classical school - based on utilitarian philosophy developed in the
13. Positivist - Crime is caused or determined. Placed more emphasis on biological deficiencies, while
1. That people have free will to choose how to act.
14. Individual Trait - criminals differ from non criminals on a number of biological and sociological traits. These traits cause crime in
2. Deterrence is based upon the notion of the human being as
15. Differential Association - crime is learned through associations with criminal definitions. These
including violence may become very high.
3. Punishment of sufficient severity can deter people from crim
16. Anomie - the gap between a persons goal or
economic success and

4. the
The opportunity
more swift and
to obtain
certain
this
thegoal
punishment,
creates structural
the more strain.
effect
17. Rational Choice - Building on classical theory, crime is seen as a choice that is influenced by its costs and benefits, that is, by its
punishment.
Prominent Philosophers of Classical school
18. Routine Activities - crime occurs when their is an intersection in time

1. Cesare
and space
Becarria
of a -motivated
author of offender,
crimes and
anpunishment.
attractive target, an
19. Developmental Life Course - crime causation is a developmental process that starts before birth
continuity and change for the same offender.
2. Jeremy Bentham - inventor of the panopticon - type of instit
20. Integrated - these theories use components from other theories,

Positivist
usually strain,
school control,
- presumes
andthat
social
criminal
learning
behavior
to create
is caused
a new theo
by in
Positivism can be broken in 3 segments which include:

1. Biological
Introduction to Criminology
2. Psychological
3. Social - - one of the largest contributors to biological positivism
Criminology - the scientific study of crime and criminal behavior and law enforcement.
3 Main School of Thought
Italian School
1. Classical school
Cesare Lombroso - an Italian doctor and sometimes regarde
2. Positivist school
Enrico Ferri - a student of Lombroso, believe that social as w
80
punishment.
- ismembership
a wrong doing
classified byor
the
state
as of
a felony
or mis
Sociological positivism - suggest that societal factors such as Crime
poverty,
of subcultures
low
levels
education
ca
Felony
- is a serious
crime punishable
bycrime
at least
year in priso
1. Adolphe Quetelet - made use of data and statistical analysis to
gain insight
into relationship
between
andone
sociological
fa
- is a crime
for and
which
the rates
punishment
is usually
a fi
2. Rawson W. Rawson - utilized crime statistics to suggest a link Misdemeanor
between population
density
crime
with crowded
cities
aresociety
defined
punished
by statutes
and
by the
3. Joseph Fletcher and John Glyde - also presented papers to the*Crimes
statistical
ofand
London
on their
studies of
crime
andcommon
its dist
- study
of causes
and
reasonsand
for crime.
4. Henry Mayhew - used empirical methods and an ethnographic Etiology
approach
to address
social
questions
poverty.
Atavism
- the view
that crimeofiswealth
due toand
a genetic
throwback to
am
5. Emile Durkheim - viewed crime as an inevitable aspect of society
with uneven
distribution
other differences
amo
Elements
Necessary
For
A Crime
To other
Occururban sociologist at the
Chicago school - arose in the early 20th century, through the work of
Robert Park,
Ernest
Burgess
and
1. Desire or motivation on the part of the criminal.
2. The
skills
and tools needed
to commit
the
crime.
Edwin Sutherland - suggested that people learn criminal behavior from older,
more
experienced
criminals
that they
may
associa
3. Opportunity.
2 Main difference between the classical and positivist schools of criminology
Spree
killer - is someone who embarks on a murderous assault on
Classical school
Positivist
school
1.Free will
1. Determinism
Spreemethods
killing - killings at two or more locations with almost no tim
2. Philosophy
2. Scientific
- two
murders
committedofby
an offender/o
De minimis - is an addition to a general harm principle. The generalSpree
harm murder
principle
failsor
tomore
consider
the possibility
other
sanctions
Thanatos - a death wish.
Serial murder - two or more murders committed by an offender/off
Massdefined
murderer
- are defined
by one incident with no distinctive ti
Tagging - like labeling, the process whereby an individual is negatively
by agencies
of justice.
Thrill killing - a premeditated murder committed by a person who

Criminology Consists of 3 Principal Divisions
1. Sociology of Law - which is an attempt at scientific analysis of the conditions under which criminal law
Victimology -studies the nature and cause of victimization.
influences society.
2. Criminal Etiology - an attempt at scientific analysis of the study of causes or reasons for crime.
Psychology
- the scientific
study of the human mind and its functi
3. Penology - concerned with control crime by repressing criminal activities
through
the fear of
81
Psychiatry - the branch of medicine dealing with the diagnosis and treatment
1. legislative
of mental
- create
disorders.
laws
Ecology - the environment as it relates to living organisms.
2. courts - adjudication
Demography - the branch of sociology that studies the characteristics3.

ofcorrections
human populations.
- jail, prison, probation, parole
Epidemiology - the branch of medical science dealing with the transmission
Participants
andof
control
Criminal
of disease.
Justice System
Anthropology - the social science that studies the origins and social relationships
1. police - first
of humans.
contact of offender since they investigate wron
Impulse - a sudden strong urge or desire to act.
2. prosecution - proves the guilt or innocence of wrongdoers.
Kleptomania - is an irresistible impulse to steal in the absence of economic

3. court
motive.
- venue where disputes are settled and justice is admi
Pathological - is caused by or evidencing a mentally disturbed condition.
4. correction - after accused is found guilty, he is put to jail or
5. community - where the convict after service of sentence com

Criminal Justice System
Community Policing - the system of allocating officers to particula

Criminal Justice System - is the system of practices and institutions of governments directed at upholding social control, deterring a
Early History of Punishment
1. Early Greece and Rome
Goals of Criminal Justice
a. most common state administered punishment was banis
b. economic punishment such as fins for such crime as ass
1. to protect individuals and society
2. Middle 5th to 15th century
a. blood feuds were the norm.
2. to reduce crime by bringing offenders to justice
b. law and government not responsible for conflict.
3.
Post
11th century feudal periods
3. to increase the security of the people
a. fine system, punishment often consisted of payment to
b. goals, public order and pacifying the injured.
Criminal Justice System consists of three main parts
c. corporal punishment for poor who cannot pay.
4. 1500's
82
a. urbanization and industrialization, use of torture and mutilation showed and punishment began
to be more monetary based.
Sensational Crime - certain offenses are selected for their sensat
b. use of gallery slaves - ship-rowers.
c. shipped inmates to american colonies
Street Crime - includes a wide variety of acts both in public and p
5. 1700's - early 1800's
a. increase in prison population
Justice - the quality of being just, fair and reasonable.
b. gap between rich and poor widens
c. physicality of punishment increases
Rule of law - is a legal maxim whereby governmental decisions be
Judge - a public officer who presides over court proceedings and h

Goals of Punishment
1. General Deterrence - the state tries to convince potential criminals
that the -punishment
face is for presenting the case in a
Prosecutor
the person they
responsible
certain, swift, and severe so that they will be afraid to commit an offense.
2. Specific Deterrence - convincing offenders that the pains of punishment
greater of
than
theofbenefits
Law - is is
a system
rules
conductof
established by the sovereign
crime so they will not repeat their criminal offending
3. Incapacitation - if dangerous criminals are kept behind bars, theyPlaintiff
will not- be
to repeat
their a case against another in court o
theable
person
who brings
illegal activities.
4. Retribution/Just Desert - punishment should be no more or less than
the offenders
actions deserve,
it
Respondent
- the defendant
in a lawsuit.
must be based on how blameworthy the person is.
5. Equity/Restitution - convicted criminals must pay back their victims
for their
loss,
the justice
Appellee
- the
respondent
in system
a case appealed to a higher court.
for the costs of processing their case and society for any disruption they may have caused.
6. Rehabilitation - if the proper treatment is applied, an offender will
present -no
further
to society
Appellant
the
party threat
who appeals
the decision of the lower court
7. Diversion - criminals are diverted into a community correctional program
for treatment
avoid of determining points in litigatio
Stare Decisis
- the legaltoprinciple
stigma of incarceration. The convicted offender might be asked to make payments to the crime victim
or participate in a community based program that features counseling.
Miranda Doctrine - criminal suspect has the right to remain silent
8. Restorative Justice - repairs injuries suffered by the victim and the community while insuring
reintegration of the offender. Turn the justice system into a healing
rather
than
a distributor
Pro process
Bono - legal
work
done
for free.
of retribution and revenge.
Writ - a form of written command in the name of the court or othe
3 Broad Categories of Crime
1. Sensational crime
Subpoena - writ issued by a court to compel the attendance of a w
2. Street Crime
3. Corporate Crime, White Collar Crime, and Organized Crime.
Summon - a legal document issued by a court or administrative a
83
2. Religion
Discretion - the use of personal decision making and choice in carrying out
3. Schools
operations in the criminal justice system.
4. Media
What is twelve table? early Roman laws written around 450 BC which regulated family, religious, and economic life.
Family - is the primary institution of socialization in society.
What is the medical model of punishment? A view of corrections holding that convicted offenders are victims of their environment or
What is the difference between Indeterminate sentence and Determinate sentence?

1. Indeterminate sentence
a. a term of incarceration with a stated minimum and maximum length. ex. 3-10years
Juvenile Delinquency
b. prisoner is eligible for parole after the minimum sentenced has been served.
c. based on belief that sentences fit the criminal, indeterminate
individualized
PD sentences
603 - Childallow
and Youth
Welfare Code
sentences and provide for sentencing flexibility.
d. judges can set a high minimum to override the purpose of the
indeterminate
sentence.
RA 9262
- Anti Violence
Against Women and their Children Act of
2. Determinate sentence
a. a fixed term of incarceration ex. 3 years
RA 9344 - Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006
b. these sentences are felt by many to be restrictive for rehabilitative purposes.
c. offenders know exactly how much time they have to serve. Youthful offender - over 9 years old but under 18 years old at the
Various Factors Shaping Length of Prison Terms
1. Legal Factors
a. the severity of the offense
b. the offenders prior criminal record
c. whether the offender used violence
d. whether the offender used weapons
e. whether the crime was committed for money
2. Extra Legal Factors
a. social class
b. gender
c. age
d. victim characteristics
What are the institutions of socialization?
1. Family
Crime Theories Applicable to Juvenile Delinquency

1. Rational Choice - causes of crime lie within the individual offe
environment.
2. Social Disorganization - absence or breakdown of communal i
that traditionally encouraged cooperative relationships amon
Communal Institutions
1. Family
2. School
3. Church
4. Social Groups
3. Strain Theory - crime is caused by the difficulty of those in po

by legitimate means.
84
4. Differential Association - young people are motivated to commitYoung

crimes
Adult
by delinquent
- a person peers
between
andthe ages of 20 and 40 whereas ad
learn criminal skills from them.
5. Labelling Theory - once a person is labeled criminal they are more
Types/Categories
likely to offend.
ofOnce
Juvenile
labeled
Delinquency
as
deviant, a person may accept that role and more likely to associate with others who have been
similarly labeled.
1. Delinquency - crimes committed by minors which are dealt w
6. Social Control Theory - proposes that exploiting the process of socialization and social learning
builds self control and can reduce the inclination to indulge in behavior
2. Criminal
recognized
behavior
as anti
- crimes
social.
dealt with by the criminal justice
Four Types of Control That Can Help Prevent Juvenile Delinquency

3. Status offenses - offenses which are only classified as such b
1. Direct - punishment is threatened or applied for wrongful behavior and compliance is rewarded by
parents, family and authority figures.
2. Internal - youth refrains from delinquency through the conscience or super ego.
3. Indirect - by identification with those who influence behavior because
Truancy
his/her
- is any
delinquent
intentional
act
unauthorized absence from compulso
might cause pain and disappointment to parents and others with whom he/she has close
relationships.
Vandalism - Ruthless destruction or spoiling of anything beautifu
4. Control - through needs satisfaction, if all individuals needs are met, there is no point in
criminal activity.
Graffiti - is writing or drawings scribbled, scratched or sprayed ill
Breed vs. Jones - A US court decision where it held that juveniles cannot be tried when acquitted in juvenile court then tried again in
Defacement - refers to marking or removing the part of an object
Juvenile Delinquency - is the participation in illegal behavior by minors who fall under a statutory limit.
Types of Offenders That Emerge in Adolescence
Juvenile Delinquent - is a person who is typically under the age of 18 and commits an act that otherwise would have been charged as
1. Repeat Offender - (life-course-persistent offender) - begins o
Crimes Commonly Committed by Juvenile Delinquents
2. Age Specific Offender (adolescence-limited offender) - juven
1. Status offenses - is an action that is prohibited only to a certain class of people and most often applied to offenses only commi
2. Property crimes - is a category of crime that includes theft, robbery, motor vehicle theft, arson, shop lifting and vandalism.
3. Violent Crime in which the offender uses or threatens to use violent force upon the victim.
Human Behavior and Crises Management
Age of Majority - is the threshold of adulthood as it is conceptualized, recognized or declared by law. The vast majority of country in
Crisis Management - is the process by which an organization deal
85
Crisis - is any event that is expected to lead to an unstable and dangerous

Commonsituation
Type of Confrontation
affecting an individual,
Crises
group, community or soc
1. Boycott
Risk Management - involves assessing potential threats and finding the best
2. Picketing
ways to avoid those threats.
3. Sit-ins
Crisis Management - dealing with threats after they have occurred. Crises
4.Management
blockade
is occasionally referred as incident managem
5. Occupation of buildings
Crisis Negotiation - is a technique for law enforcement to communicate with
6. Resisting/Disobeying
people who are threatening
police violence including barricade
7. Ultimatums to those in authority
Forensic Psychology - forensic discipline that evaluates behavioral patterns and how they relate to crime.
Crises of malevolence - opponents or miscreants individuals use c
Hostage Negotiation - a negotiation conducted between law enforcement agencies, diplomatic or other governmental representative
Crises of Organizational Deeds - occurs when management takes
Crises Management Plan - crises management methods of a business or organization.
3 Types of Organizational Misdeeds
3 Elements of Crises Management
1. Crises of skewed management values
1. threat to the organization or public
2. Crises of Deception
2. element of surprise
3. Crises of Management Misconduct
3. short decision time
Human Behavior - refers to the range of behaviors exhibited by h
Types of Crises
1. Natural Disaster
Factors Affecting Human Behavior
2. Technological Crises
1. Genetics
3. Confrontation
2. Attitude
4. Malevolence
3. Social Norms
5. Organizational Misdeeds
4. Perceive behavioral control
6. Work place violence
5. Core faith
7. Rumors
6. Survival instinct
8. Terrorist attacks/Man made disasters
Psychiatric Disorders Associated with Criminal Behavior
Natural Disaster - considered acts of god - such as environmental phenomena
1. Anxiety
as earthquakes,
Disorders volcanic eruptions, floods, landslides,
Technological Crises - are caused by human application of science and technology.
2. Delirium
Confrontation Crises - occur when discontented individuals and/or groups,
3. fight
Delusional
business,
Disorder
government and various interest groups to
86
4. Dementia
5. Impulse Control Disorder
1. Police Misconduct - is a broad category.The term refers to a
6. Intoxication or withdrawal from medication or drugs
7. Malingering
2. Police Corruption - is the abuse of authority for personal gai
8. Mood disorders such as major depression, anxiety disorders and bipolar disorders
9. Personality disorders, especially anti social personality disorder
Misconduct - is procedural when it refers to police who violate po
10. Pervasive developmental disorder (autism)
11. Psychotic disorder
Criminal - when it refers to police who violate the penal laws.
12. Schizophrenia
13. Schizo-afflective disorder
Civil - when it refers to police who violate a citizens civil right.
14. Schizophreniform disorder
15.Substance dependence and abuse
Common forms of Misconduct
16.Traumatic brain injury
1. Excessive use of physical or deadly force
Mental Illness/Mental Disorder - a health conditions that changes a persons

thinking, feelings
2. Discriminatory
arrest or behavior and that causes the perso
Schizophrenia - a long term mental disorder of a type involving a breakdown

in the
between thought, emotion and behavior,
3. Physical
or relation
verbal harassment
Autism - a mental condition present from early childhood characterized

great difficulty
in communicating
and forming relationship
4. by
Selective
Enforcement
of the law
Hypnosis - the induction of a state of consciousness in which a person5.
apparently
losses
power of voluntary action and is highly
False arrest
and the
imprisonment
Stalking - is a term used to refer to unwanted and obsessive attention6.byPerjured
an individual
or group
toillegal
another
person.
testimony
about
searches
Common Forms of Police Corruption
1. Bribery
Seminar on Contemporary Police Problem
Contemporary Police Problem may be Classified into the following:
2. Extortion
3. Receiving of Fencing Stolen goods
87
Systemic - affecting the entire system, group, body or society as

4. Selling drugs,theft of drugs and money from drug dealer
5. Malicious prosecution
6. Making false report and committing perjury
7. Protecting illegal gambling
8. Theft of seized property
9. Receiving discounts on purchases
10.
Selling information about police operation
Standard strategies for reducing Police Corruption

1. Create permanent external oversight over the police with par
officer behavior.
2. Holding supervisors responsible for the integrity of their subo
3. Reforming merit promotion and assignment.
4. Changing police culture.
5. Creating training programs in integrity for recruits and in-ser
supervisors.
6. Creating an effective internal integrity monitoring unit.
7. Annually evaluating the integrity of all officers.
8. Making the Chief responsible for enforcing all disciplines.
9. Proactively investigate misbehavior.
10. Improving standards for recruitment and training.
What are the safeguards against police misconduct

1. Establish Code of conduct
2. Train new recruit ethically and properly
3. Investigate and Discipline violators
4. Establish independent body ex. Pleb
Information about Police corruption comes from several sources

1. Appointed commission/Body of investigation
2. Civil and Criminal investigations of police behavior
3. Investigations undertaken by the police themselves
4. Accounts by public media
5. Observations by outside witnesses
6. Surveys of police officers and the public
7. Accounts by people involved in corrupt activity
on the
Pad
- this phrase
is associated
with bribery and exto
Despite legal safeguards and well intentioned reforms, Police Being
problems
have
continued
to produce
headlines.
Police Brutality
- actions such
as usingand
abusive
language, making
What can society do against the age-old problem of police misconduct
and corruption?
ans. Monitor
Correct.
Most Common Types of Corruption in the PNP

Trends in the forms of Police Corruption
1. Case prostitution
Fixing - subjective
imposition of penalties or downright sa
1. Drugs - became the major driver of corruption replacing gambling,
and alcohol.
2. Bribery - receipt of cash or a gift in exchange for past of future
2. Corruption is systemic in police departments.
3. Extortion - common practice of holding "street court" where inc
88
4.
5.
6.
7.
Protection - taking of money or other rewards from vice operators or from legitimate companies operating illegally in return for p
Recycling - use or sale of confiscated items and evidence, usually drugs
or narcotics.
Traditions
- bodies of belief, stories, customs and usages ha
Selective Enforcement - occurs when police officer exploit their officer discretion e. areglo, balato.
Internal Pay-Offs - sale of work assignments, day offs, holidays, vacation
period-and
even promotion.
Courtesy
a manifestation
of expression of consideration an
Police Ethics and Community Relations

PNP Philosophy
1. Service
2. Honor
3. Justice
PNP Core Values
1. Makadios (God-Fearing)
2. Makabayan (Nationalistic)
3. Makatao (Humane)
Ethical Acts to be Observed by PNP members
1. Morality
2. Judicious use of authority
3. Integrity
4. Justice
5. Humility
6. Orderliness
7. Perseverance
Definition of Terms
Ceremony - a formal act or set of formal acts established by
Social Decorum - a set of norms and standard practiced by t
Police Community Relation - generally refers to the sum total of a

Public Relations - a collection of communication techniques used
Community Service - refers to the activities whereby police engag

Community Participation - involves members of the community ta
Police Traditions
1. Spiritual beliefs
2. Valor
3. Patriotism
4. Discipline
5. Gentlemanliness
6. Word of Honor
7. Duty
8. Loyalty
9. Camaraderie
Spiritual Beliefs - can refer to an ultimate or an alleged immateria
Valor - great courage in the face of danger. Strength of mind or sp
Customs - established usage or social practices carried on by tradition

that
have
the willingness
force of law.
Patriotism
- love
of obtained
country and
to sacrifice for it.
89
3. To provide humane treatment by affording them human basic n

Discipline - the practice of training people to obey rules or a code of behavior using punishment to correct disobedience.
Bureau of Corrections Operating Institutions
Gentlemanliness - characteristic of or having the character of a gentleman.
1. New
A Bilibid
man whose
Prisons
conduct
- Muntinlupa
conforms
City
to a high standard of pro
2. Correctional Institution for Women - Mandaluyong City
Word of Honor - a verbal commitment by one person to another agreeing
3. Iwahig
to do or
Prison
not to
and
do Penal
something
Farm in
- Puerto
the future.
Princesa City
4. Davao Prison and Penal Farm - Davao del Norte
Duty - a task or action that someone is required to perform.
5. Sablayan Prison and Penal farm - Occidental Mindoro
6. San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm - Zamboanga City
Loyalty - a strong feeling of support or allegiance. Is faithfulness or a devotion
7. Leyte Regional
to a person,
Prison
country,
- Leyte
group or cause.
Camaraderie - mutual trust and friendship among people who spend

Institutional
a lot of time
Programs
together. Goodwill and lighthearted rapport betwe
1. Inmate work program
2. Health care
3. education and skills training
Correctional System of the Philippines
4. Recreation and Sports
5. Religious guidance and behavior modification using the ther
The Correctional System in the Philippines is composed of six agencies under three distinct and separate departments of the nationa
1. The Department of Justice
2. The Department of the Interior and Local Government
3. The Department of Social Welfare and Development
Penal
Managementrehabilitation programs of
Bureau of Corrections - is an agency under the Department of Justice mandated to carry
out institutional
director and the general administration staff are holding official functions.
Corrections - is typically carried out by government agencies and
Bureau of Correction Mandate - The rehabilitation of national prisoners.
Penology - The study of the punishment of crime and prison mana
Bureau of Correction Slogan - bringing back the dignity of man.
Punishment - is the infliction or imposition of a penalty as retribu
Bureau of Correction Principles
Prison reform - is the attempt to improve conditions inside prison
- accomplishing its mandated objectives and performing its assigned
Prison - is a place in which people are physically confined and usu
functions.
1. To confine prisoners by giving them adequate living spaces as the
Jail - is a short term detention facility.
2. To prevent prisoners from committing crime while in custody.
90
Alexander Maconochie - (1787 -1860) - a Scottish naval officer, ge

Halfway house - also called recovery house or sober house - is a place to allow people to begin the process of reintegration with soci
1. as cruelty debases both the victim and society, punishment
Rehabilitation - it came from latin word "habilis" literally fit or suitable. Its meaning was expanded to mean "restore to sound operat
2. a convicts imprisonment should consist of task, not time sen
Solitary confinement - is a special form of imprisonment in which a prisoner is isolated fro any human contact, though often with the
Modern Form/Method of Punishment
Jail
1. Execution - for capital offenses. ex. death by lethal injection
a place of detention; a place where a person convicted or suspected of a crime is detained.
2. Imprisonment/Incarceration
BJMP
3. Fines
DILG
holds people awaiting trial and people sentenced for a short duration.
5. House Arrest - is a measure by which a person is confined by
4. Probation and Parole
Zebulon Reed Brockway - regarded as the father of prison reform in the United States. Believed that the primary reason to have a pr
Ancient Form/Method of Punishment
1. a program of education
2. training in useful trades
3. physical activity
4. indeterminate sentence
5. inmate classification
6. incentive program.
1. shame punishment
2. exile/banishment
3. payment to the victim
4. branding - (Stigmatizing) - is the process by which a mark is
5. flogging - (flagellation) - is the act of methodically beating o
6. mutilation - (maiming) - is the act of physical injury that deg
91
7. burning
1. After having convicted and sentenced a defendant, the trial
8. beheading
2. Probation may be granted whether the sentenced imposed a
9. torture
3. No application for probation shall be entertained or granted
* In the Philippines so far, 17 persons were executed by hanging, 84 persons

4. Filingwere
of application
executed by
forelectric
probation operate as a waiver of the
chair, 7 persons were executed by lethal injection.
5. The order granting or denying probation shall not be appeal
* Majority of inmates confined in national prison did not finish high school, 6% never went to school or
were illiterate and 3% earned a college degree.
6. Accessory penalties are deemed suspended once probation
7. The convict is not immediately put on probation. There shall

Probation Law of the Philippines PD 968
Will Probation be automatically granted to one whose sentence i

The offender
be better
rehabilitated
if he/she
is sent
What is Probation? ans.- is a disposition under which a defendant after1.conviction
andwould
sentence
is released
subject to
conditions
imp
2. There is undue risk that the offender will likely commit anot
3. Probation
Who can apply for Probation? ans. any first time convicted offender who
is 18 yearswill
olddepreciate
or above. the seriousness of the offense com
Under
section
70 of RA Justice
9165, the
Dangerous
Is probation a right? ans. no, it is a mere privilege for adult offenders. Under
RA
9344 (Juvenile
andComprehensive
Welfare Act of 2006)
a ch
What
willbe
happen
if a the
probationer
violates
thesentenced
conditionsthe
of proba
Where shall an application for Probation be filed? ans. the application
shall
filed with
court that
tried and
offen
1. The court may modify the conditions of probation or revoke t
2. If the violation
is serious,
the court may
order
the probatione
What will happen if the application for Probation is denied? ans. the offender
will be sent
by the sentencing
court
to prison
to serve
3. The probationer may also be arrested and criminally prosecu
When should an application for Probation be filed? ans. anytime before the offender starts serving his sentence but within 15 days f
The court order shall not be subject to appeal.

May an offender be released from confinement while his application for Probation is pending?
Probation is not coterminous with its period. There must be
How many times can one be granted Probation? ans. only once.
This shall have the following effects:
RULES ON GRANT OF PROBATION
a. case is deemed terminated.
92
b. all civil rights suspended or lost are restored.

Who may grant parole to a prisoner? ans. the board of pardon an
c. offender's liability for any fine imposed

When
is discharged.
may a prisoner be granted parole? ans. whenever the board
Who are disqualified from the benefits of probation: ans.

What happens if a parolee violates the conditions of his parole? a
1. Those sentenced to serve a prison term of more 6 years.
2. Those convicted of any crime against the national or the public
What
order.
is executive clemency? ans. it refers to the commutation of
3. Those previously convicted of an offense which is punished by imprisonment of not less than
one month and one day imp
4. Those who have been placed on probation once.
What is commutation of sentence? ans. it is the reduction of the
5. Those serving sentence.
6. Those whose conviction is on appeal.
What is conditional pardon? ans. it is the conditional exception of
7. Those convicted of an offense against the omnibus election code, insurgency law, wage rationalization act.
What is absolute pardon? ans. it is the total extinction of the crim
There are two kinds of conditions imposed upon the offender under
Who may file a petition for conditional pardon? ans. a prisoner wh
1. Mandatory or general once violated, the probation is cancelled.
1) To report to the probation officer within 72 hours after he
Who
receives
may grant
the order
commutation
of the court
of sentence and pardon? ans. the pr
granting probation.
2) To report to his probation officer at least once a month. Who may file a petition for commutation of sentence?
3) not to commit any other offense while on probation.
ans. the board may review the petition of a prisoner
for commutation of sentence if he/she meets the following minim
2. Discretionary or special additional conditions which the court may additionally impose for the probationers correction and
at least 1/2 ( one half) of the minimum of his indeterminate
How long is the period of probation? ans.
1. Not more than 2 years if the sentence of the offender is 1 year oratless.
least 10 years for prisoners sentenced to one reclusion pe
2. Not more than 6 years if the sentence is more than one year.
3. When the penalty is a fine only and the offender is made to serve
imprisonment,
probation
atsubsidiary
least 12 years
for prisoners
whose sentences were adjust
shall be twice the total number of days of subsidiary imprisonment.
at least 15 years for prisoners convicted of heinous crimes a

What is Parole? ans. it is the release of a prisoner from prison after serving the minimum period of his indeterminate sentence.
Who cannot be granted parole? ans. generally, those sentenced to a term of imprisonment of one year or less or to a straight penalt
93
2. holder of
of life
a masters
degreeeven
or itsifequivalent
in either
crimin
at least 17 years for prisoners sentenced to 2 or more reclusion perpetua
imprisonment
their sentences
were
adj
3. At least
5 years or
of reduced
supervisory
experience
or be a member o
at least 20 years for those sentenced to death which was automatically
commuted
to reclusion
perpetua.
Regional
Probationpardon
officer if
and
regional
Probation
Office
Who may file a petition for absolute pardon? ans. one may file a petition
for absolute
he Assistant
had served
his maximum
sentence
Provincial
and City
Probation
- appointed by the Secretary
Is a prisoner who is released on parole or conditional pardon with parole
conditions
placed
underofficer
supervision?
Qualifications
of Regional,
PD 968 - Probation law of 1976 - this is the title of the decree/law. It
took effect July
24, 1976. Assistant Regional, Provincial and City
1. Bachelors degree with a major in social work, sociology, psy

Purpose of the law
2. At least 3 years in work requiring any of the above mentione
When
the provincial
or city probation officer sha
1. Promote the correction and rehabilitation of an offender by providing
himpracticable,
with individualized
treatment.
Luck
in Achieving
and accomplishing
of the
2. Provide an opportunity for the reformation of a penitent offenderGood
which
might
be less probable
if he were toone
serve
a prison sen
Greatest Battle of Your Life!
May God be the source and foundation?
3. Prevent the commission of offenses.
Thru His Son Jesus Christ!
Probationer - a person placed on probation.
Probation officer - one who investigates for the court a referral for probation or supervises a probationer or both.
The Probation administration shall be headed by the Probation administrator who shall be appointed by the president of the P
Law Enforcement Administration Review Questions
There shall be an assistant probation administrator who shall assist the administrator perform such duties as may be assigned
1. Registration of a security agency as a corporation must be
processed at what particular government agency.
Qualifications of the Administrator and Assistant Probation Administrator.
A. PNP SAGSD
1. at least 35 years of age
B. NAPOLCOM
C. DND
94
D. SEC
Answer: D
2. Minimum age requirement for security manager or operator of
a security agency.
A. 25 years old
B. 30 years old
C. 35 years old
D. 40 years old
Answer: A
3. He exercises the power to revoke for cause licenses issued to
security guards.
A. Chief PNP
B. DILG Usec
C. NAPOLCOM chairman
D. DILG Secretary
Answer: A
4. Refers to a natural or man made structure which is capable of
delaying illegal access to facility.
A. Wall
B. Fence
C. Barriers
D. Beach fronts
Answer: C
5. It refers to means and ways that personnel and employees
making them security conscious.
A. Security Promotion
B. Security Education
C. Security Investigation
D. Security Seminar
Answer: B
6. Industrial management must establish the first line of physical
defense,it refers to
A. Perimeter barriers
B. The building itself
C. Door,Locks,Window barriers
D. Entry points where security guards are located
Answer: A
7. Physical security is a system of barriers placed between the

potential intruder and the object matter to be protected.As
criminologists,this is simply a denial of
A. Opportunity to commit the offense
B. Opportunity to the object of protection
C. Access to the object of protection
D. Criminal instinct to surface in the potential offender Answer: C
8. Weakest link in the security chain.
A. Security Guards
B. Manager
C. Barriers
D. Personnel
Answer: D
9. Perimeter barriers,protective lighting and ______ system are

known in industrial security as physical security.
A. Guarding
B. Reporting
C. Relieving
D. Accounting
Answer: A
10. This is an additional outward inclined fixed structure usually
barbed wires placed above a vertical fence to increase
95
physical protection from intruders of a certain area,this is

known as
A. Cellar Guard
B. Tower Guard
C. Top Guard
D. Top Tower
Answer: C
11. It is the circumspect inspection of a place to determine its

suitability for a particular operational purpose.
A. Inspection
B. Surveillance
C. Survey
D. Casing
Answer: C
12. In the civil service system, merit and fitness are the primary
considerations in the
A. two-party system
B. evaluation system
C. promotional system
D. spoils system
Answer: C
13. In the
which
A.
B.
de-briefing, the intelligence agent is asked to discuss

of the following:
his educational profile and schools attended
his personal circumstances such as his age, religious
affiliation, address, etc.
C. his political inclination and/or party affiliation
D.
his observations and experiences in the intelligence

Answer: D
14. It is a natural or man-made structure or physical device which

is capable of restricting, determine, or delaying illegal access to
an installation.
A. alarm
B. wall
C. barrier
D. hazard
Answer: C
15. What form of intelligence is involved when information is
obtained without the knowledge of the person against whom
the information or documents may be used, or if the
information is clandestinely acquired?
A. covert
B. overt
C. active
D. underground
Answer: A
16. The provincial Governor shall choose the provincial Director
from a list of ___________ eligible recommended by the
Regional Director, preferable from the same province, city,
municipality.
A. three (3)
B. five (5)
C. four (4)
D. Two (2)
Answer: A
96
17. Republic Act 6975 provides that on the average nationwide,

the manning levels of the PNP shall be approximately in
accordance with a police-to-population ratio of:
A. one (1) policeman for every seven hundred (700)
inhabitants.
B. one (1) policeman for every one thousand five hundred
(1,500) C.inhabitants.
C. one (1) policeman for every five hundred (500)
inhabitants.
D. one (1) policeman for every one thousand (1,000)
inhabitants.
Answer: C
18. In disaster control operations, there is a need to establish a
______where telephones or any means of communication
shall
A.ensure open lines of communication.
B.command post
C.operations center
D.field room
Answer:B
19. Registration of a security agency must be done at the______.
A.Securities and Exchange Commission
B.National Police Commission
C.Department of National Defense
D.PNP Criminal Investigation Group
Answer:D
20. The cheapest form of police patrol.
A. Bicycle Patrol
B. Foot Patrol
C. Motorcycle Patrol
D. Helicopter Patrol
Answer: B
21. The budget is a _________________ in terms of expenditure
requirements.
A.tactical plan
B.financial plan
C.work plan
D.control plan
Answer: B
22. The term used for the object of surveillance is a subject while
the investigator conducting the surveillance is:
A.rabbit
B.surveillant
C.traffic enforcement
D.patrol
Answer: A
23. It is a police function which serves as the backbone of the
police service. In all types of police stations, there is a specific
unit assigned to undertake this function in view of its
importance.
A.vice control
B.criminal investigation
C.traffic management
D.patrol
Answer: D
24. It is the weakest link in security chain.
A.managers
B.Barriers
C.Personnel
97
D.inspections
Answer: C
25. Which of the following is considered as the most important

factor in formulating an effective patrol strategy?
A.training of station commander
B.adequacy of resources of the police station
C.rank of the patrol commander
D.salary rates of police personnel
Answer: B
26. Who among the following have summary disciplinary powers
over errant police members?
A.District Director
B.Provincial Director
C.Chief of Police
D.Chief, PNP
Answer: D
27. You are the Patrol Supervisor for the morning shift. You dont
have enough men to cover all the patrol beats. Which of the
following will you implement?
A. assign roving mobile patrol with no foot patrol
B. assign mobile patrols only in strategic places
C. maintain your patrolmen at the station and just wait
for calls for police assistance
D. assign foot patrol in congested and busy patrol beats
but assign a roving mobile patrol to cover beats which
are not covered by foot patrol
Answer: B
28. The father of organized military espionage was:
A. Akbar
B.
C.
D.
Alexander the Great

Genghis Khan
Frederick the Great
Answer: D
29. Which of the following is the most common reason why informer
can give information to the police?
A.wants to be known to the policeman
B.monetary reward
C.as a good citizen
D.revenge
Answer: B
30. To improve delegation, the following must be done, EXCEPT:
A. establish objectives and standards
B. count the number of supervisor
C. require completed work
D. define authority and responsibility
Answer: C
31. What administrative support unit conducts identification and
evaluation of physical evidences related to crimes, with
emphasis on their medical, chemical, biological and physical
nature.
A. Logistics Service
B. Crime Laboratory
C. Communication and Electronic service
D. Finance Center
Answer: B
32. Those who are charged with the actual fulfillment of the
agencys mission are ________.
A. staff
98
B.
C.
D.
supervision
management
line
C.
D.
an underworld informant
communications media
Answer: B
Answer: D
33. When the subject identifies or obtains knowledge that the

investigation is conducting surveillance on him, the latter is:
A. cut out
B. sold out
C. burnt out
D. get out
Answer: C
34. Small alley like those in the squatters area of Tondo can be
best penetrated by the police through:
A. foot patrol
B. mobile patrol
C. highway patrol
D. helicopter patrol
Answer: A
35. Some of the instructions in foot surveillance are the following,
EXCEPT
A. stop quickly, look behind
B. drop paper, never mind what happens to the paper
C. window shop, watch reflection
D. retrace steps
Answer: B
36. On many occasions, the bulk of the most valuable information
comes from:
A. business world
B. newspaper clippings
37. Highly qualified police applicants such as engineers, nurses and

graduates of forensic sciences can enter the police service as
officers through:
A. regular promotion
B. commissionship
C. lateral entry
D. attrition
Answer: C
38. Police Inspector Juan Dela Cruz is the Chief of Police of a
municipality. He wants his subordinates to be drawn closer to
the people in the different barangays. He should adopt which
of the following projects?
A. COPS on the blocks
B. Oplan Bakal
C. Oplan Sandugo
D. Complan Pagbabago
Answer: A
39. What should be undertaken by a Security Officer before he can
prepare a comprehensive security program for his industrial
plan?
A. security conference
B. security check
C. security survey
D. security education
Answer: C
40. This patrol method utilizes disguise, deception and lying in wait
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rather than upon high-visibility patrol techniques.

A. low-visibility patrol
B. directed deterrent patrol
C. decoy patrol
D. high-visibility patrol
Answer: A
41. It enforces all traffic laws and regulations to ensure the safety
of motorists and pedestrians and attain an orderly traffic.
A. Civil Relations Unit
B. Traffic Operations Center
C. Traffic Management Command
D. Aviation Security Command
Answer: C
42. A method of collecting information wherein the investigator
merely uses his different senses.
A. observation
B. casing
C. research
D. interrogation
Answer: A
43. In stationary surveillance, the following must be observed,
EXCEPT
A. never meet subject face to face
B. avoid eye contact
C. recognize fellow agent
D. if burnt out, drop subject
Answer: C
44. Pedro is a thief who is eying at the handbag of Maria. PO1
Santos Reyes is standing a few meters from Maria.The thiefs
desire to steal is not diminished by the presence of the police

officer but the _______________ for successful theft is.
A. ambition
B. feeling
C. intention
D. opportunity
Answer: A
45. Graduates of the Philippine National Police Academy (PNPA) are
automatically appointed to the rank of:
A. Senior Superintendent
B. Inspector
C. Senior Police Officer 1
D. Superintendent
Answer: D
46. PNP in-service training programs are under the responsibility of
the:
A. PNP Directorate for Plans
B. PNP Directorate for Human Resource and Doctrine
Development
C. PNP Directorate for Personnel and Records
Management
D. PNP Directorate for Comptrollership
Answer: C
47. One way of extending the power of police observation is to get
information from persons within the vicinity.In the police work,
this is called:
A. data gathering
B. field inquiry
C. interrogation
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D.
interview
Answer: B
48. Dogs have an acute sense of _______________ thus, their

utilization in tracking down lost persons or illegal drugs.
A. smell
B. hearing
C. eating
D. drinking
Answer: A
49. Intelligence on _________________ makes heavy use of
geographic information because law enforcement officials must
know exact locations to interdict the flow of drugs.
A. Logistics
B. Human Cargo Trafficking
C. Narcotics Trafficking
D. Economic resources
Answer: C
50. Which of the following is most ideally suited to evacuation and
search-and-rescue duties?
A. motorcycle
B. helicopter
C. patrol car
D. bicycle
Answer: B
51. A method of collection of information wherein the investigator
tails or follows the person or vehicle.
A. research
B. undercover operation
C. casing
D.
surveillance
Answer: C
52. This is a person who does detective work for hire, reward or
commission, other than members of the AFP, BJMP, provincial
guards, PNP or any law enforcement agency of the
government.
A. Secret Agent
B. Tiktik
C. Private detective
D. Undercover
Answer: C
53. The uprightness in character, soundness of moral principles,
honesty and freedom from moral delinquencies is referred to as
A. integrity
B. loyalty
C. discretion
D. moral
Answer: A
54. Going east while foot patrolling and turning right after reaching
the end of your beat and turning right after reaching the other
end of the road and again turning right until you completed
the cycle by reaching back to your origin of patrolling.What
patrol pattern have you applied?
A. clockwise
B. straightway
C. counter clockwise
D. free-wheeling
Answer: A
55. Which theory of patrol state that police visibility increases the
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opportunity to apprehend criminals by soothing them and letting

them believe that their crimes will not be detected?
A. low profile theory
B. high visibility
C. theory of omnipresence
D. team policing
Answer: A
56. Without air force capability, patrol operation that covers large
park areas, grassy fields or wooded areas requires the use of
A. bike patrol
B. horse patrol
C. marine patrol
D. helicopter patrol
Answer: B
57. Which
A.
B.
C.
D.
of the following refers to the long range planning?

Intermediate
Strategic
Medium
short
Answer: B
58. The operational plan which is designed to met everyday or

year round needs is called
A. meeting unusual needs
B. extra office
C. regular operating programs
D. special operating programs
Answer: C
59. Which of the following is the oldest type of patrol?
A. horse
B.
C.
D.
foot
canine
police
Answer: B
60. The act of expelling a squatter by the legal process is called:

A. demolition
B. squadron
C. eviction
D. tear down
Answer: C
61. Which
A.
B.
C.
D.
of the following is not a commissioned officer?

Inspector
senior superintendent
asst. chief
chief superintend
Answer: C
62. Which of the following words has the same meaning as the
word credibility?
A. ability
B. capacity
C. believability
D. vulnerability
Answer: C
63. Which
A.
B.
C.
D.
of the following best defines the word self-reliant?

observation
crime prevention
called for service
criminal apprehension
Answer: C
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64. All but one are the primarily line operation in police organization
A. patrol
B. records
C. investigation
D. traffic
Answer: C
68. Who is the most important officer in the police organization?

A. investigator
B. patrol officer
C. traffic officer
D. The Chief of Police
Answer: B
65. Criminals can hear the sound of the helicopter coming and so
element of surprise is lost which is one of the ________
of air patrol:
A. advantages
B. features
C. disadvantages
D. import
Answer: C
69. Which
A.
B.
C.
D.
66. What is the patrol used to locate prowlers, burglars hiding in

large buildings or stores, and the control of unruly crowds and
riots?
A. foot
B. horse
C. bicycle
D. dog
.
Answer: D
67. Which of the following laws established the Police Organization
under the DILG?
A. R.A.
5487
B. R.A. 8551
C. R.A. 1174
D. R.A. 6975
Answer: D
70. What
A.
B.
C.
D.
of the following is the oldest warning device?

trumpet
horn
radio
siren
Answer: A
type of cover uses actual or true background?

artificial
multiple cover
natural
cover within a cover
Answer: C
71. What is the principle of organization suggesting that

communication should ordinarily go upward and downward
through establish channels in the hierarchy?
A. Chain of Command
B. Span of Control
C. Unity of Command
D. Delegation of Authority
Answer: A
72. What is the optional retirement for officers and new officers of
the police service?
A. 15 years
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B.
C.
D.
25 years
30 years
20 years
Answer: D
73. Governors and mayors, upon having been elected and having
qualified as such,are automatically deputized as representatives
of the
A. NAPOLCOM
B. DND
C. PLEB
D. none of these
Answer: A
74. It is constitutionally and legally mandated to administer and
control the Philippine National Police.
A. DILG
B. DND
C. NAPOLCOM
D. DFA
Answer: C
75. It is the central receiving entity for any citizens complaint
against the members and officers of the PNP.
A. DILG
B. NAPOLCOM
C. PLEB
D. IAS
Answer: C
76. When we say that a commander is directly responsible for any
act or omission of his subordinates in relation to the
performance of their official duties, we are referring to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
chain of command
delegation of responsibility
Command responsibility
span of control
Answer: C
77. A police strategy which aims to directly involve members of the

community in the maintenance of peace and order by police
officers.
A. Integrated Police System
B. Comparative Police System
C. Police Visibility
D. Community Oriented Policing System (COPS)
Answer:D
78. No person in an organization can do all the tasks necessary for
accomplishing group objective. Also, no one should exercise all
the authority for making decisions.This refers to
A. chain of command
B. command responsibility
C. unity of command
D. delegation of authority
Answer: D
79. Under RA 6975, a police officer is entitled to a longevity pay
equivalent to how many percent (%) of his monthly basic salary
for every five years of service, to be reckoned from the date of
his original appointment in the police, fire, jail or other allied
services?
A. 2 percent
B. 5 percent
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C.
D.
10 percent
15 percent
Answer: C
80. This term refers to the period when a police officer is actively
engaged in the performance of his duty.
A. off duty
B. off limits
C. on call
D. on duty
Answer: D
81. The act of temporarily denying an officer the privilege of
performing his police duties in consequence of an offense and
violation of rules and regulations.
A. dismissal
B. restriction
C. suspension
D. reprimand
Answer: C
82. The credential extended by the Civil Service
Commission/National Police Commission for the purpose of
conferring status for permanent appointment in the police
service.
A. police credibility
B. police visibility
C. Criminology Board Examination
D. police patrol examination
E. police eligibility
Answer: E
83. In the history of our police force, who was the first Director
General of the Philippine National Police (PNP)?

A. Gen. Cesar Nazareno
B. Gen. Raul Imperial
C. Gen. Umberto Rodriquez
D. Gen. Recaredo Sarmiento
Answer: A
84. The premier educational institution for the training, human
resource development and continuing education of all the
personnel of BJMP, BFP and PNP.
A. PNPA
B. PCCR
C. PNTC
D. PPSC
Answer: D
85. Under
of __.
A.
B.
C.
D.
the law,the city/municipal jail warden should have a rank

Inspector
Chef Inspector
Senior Inspector
Superintendent
86. The required rank for the Chief of Jail Bureau.

A. Chief Superintendent
B. Director General
C. Director
D. Deputy Director General
Answer: C
Answer: C
87. It exercise supervision and control over the provincial jails.

A. BJMP
105
B.
C.
D.
Bureau of Prisons
Department of Justice
Provincial Government
Answer: D
88. The required rank for the head of the Fire Bureau.
A. Chief Superintendent
B. Director General
C. Director
D. Deputy Director General
Answer: C
89. It exercise supervision and control over all city and municipal
jails.
A. BJMP
B. Bureau of Prisons
C. Department of Justice
D. Local Government
Answer: A
90. The annual reservation percentage quota for women in the
PNP
A. 25%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 20%
Answer: C
91. Which of the following administers and attends to cases
involving crimes against chastity?
A. CIDG
B. DSWD
C. Womens Desk
D. Homicide Division
Answer: C
92. They are automatically deputized as NAPOLCOM

representatives to exercise supervision and control over PNP
units.
A. Chief of Police
B. Judges
C. Local Government Executives
D. Fiscals
Answer: C
93. They have the authority to recommend to the Provincial
Director the transfer, reassignment of PNP members outside
of their town residences.
A. Regional Directors
B. Priests
C. Chiefs of Police
D. Mayors
Answer: D
94. The head of a local peace and order council is the __.
A. judge
B. chief of police
C. mayor
D. governor
Answer: C
95. The utilization of units or elements, of the PNP for the
purpose of protection of lives and properties, enforcement of
laws and maintenance of peace and order.
A. employment
B. deployment
C. assignment
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D.
designation
Answer: A
96. The orderly and organized physical movement of elements or

units of the PNP.
A. employment
B. deployment
C. assignment
D. designation
Answer: B
97. One of the following exercises control and supervision over the
PNP units during elections.
A. NBI
B. Ombusdman
C. COMELEC
D. DILG
Answer: C
98. The number of eligible for which the Regional Director may
recommend for Provincial Director to the governor is __.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 4
Answer: B
99. Who
A.
B.
C.
D.
is the current Chief of the PNP?

Nicanor Bartome
Nicanor Bartomeo
Nick Bartolome
Nicanor Bartolome
Answer: C
100. The amount and nature of the demands of the police service
A.Clientele
B.Purpose
C.Time
D. Process
Answer: C
101. The
A.
B.
C.
D.
current PNP deputy director General for Administration is

Arturo Cacdac Jr.
Emilito Sarmiento
Rommel Heredia
Alexander Roldan
Answer: A
102. The PNP has a program which ensures the deployment of

policemen in busy and crime prone areas. This is called
A. patrol deployment program
B. roving patrol program
C. patrol and visibility program
D. police patrol program
Answer: C
103. All regional appointments of commissioned officers commence
with the rank of:
A. Senior Police Officer I
B. Inspector
C. Police Officer III
D. Senior Inspector
Answer: B
104. In busy and thickly populated commercial streets like those
in Divisoria, police patrol is very necessary. Since there
are several types of patrol, which of the following will you
107
recommend:
A. Horse patrol
B. Mobile patrol
C. Foot patrol
D. Helicopter patrol
A.
B.
C.
D.
a driver and intelligence agent

a driver and traffic man
a driver and a recorder
a driver, recorder and supervisor
Answer: D
Answer: C
105. It is the product resulting from the collection, evaluation,

analysis, and interpretation of all available information which
concerns one or more aspects of criminal activity and which is
immediately or potentially significant to police planning.
A. Investigation
B. Information
C. Data
D. intelligence
Answer: D
106. These are work programs of line divisions which related to
the nature and extent of the workload and the availability
of resources.
A. administrative plan
B. operational plan
C. strategic plan
D. tactical plan
Answer: B
107. It is the premier educational institution for the police,
fire and jail personnel.
A. Philippine Military Academy
B. Development Academy of the Philippines
C. Philippine College of Criminology
D. Philippine Public Safety College
Answer: D
108. A crew which is assigned to a mobile car usually consist of
109. An industrial complex must establish its first line of

physical defense. It must have
A. the building itself
B. perimeter barriers
C. communication barriers
D. window barriers
Answer:B
110. All of the following are members of the Peoples Law
Enforcement Board (PLEB), EXCEPT:
A. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace and Order
Council from among the respected members of the
community.
B. Any barangay Captain of the city/municipality
concerned chosen by the association of the
Barangay Captains.
C. Any member of the Sangguniang
Panglungsod/Pambayan
D. A bar member chosen by the Integrated bar of the
Philippines (IBP)
Answer: D
111. The exterior and interior parallel area near the perimeter
barrier of an industrial compound to afford better observation
and patrol movement is known as
A. Protective zone
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B. Clear zone
C. Twilight zone
D. Patrol lane zone
Answer: B
112. Protective guarding in a compound can be done by the use of

electronic hardware,human guards and even animals.In
England,an owner to protect his compound used this and they
are not only effective but also the cheapest to maintain.This
man is using
A. Doberman
B. Tame Tigers
C. Geese
D. Duck
Answer: C
113. The government agency that issues licenses for private and
government security guard is
A. PNP SOSIA
B. Mayors office
C. PNP FEO
D. PNP SAGSD
Answer: D
114. If access is limited only to unauthorized personnel,this
particular place is referred to as
A. Compromise area
B. Restricted area
C. Danger area
D. Exclusive area
Answer: B
115. First measure undertaking before a comprehensive security
program for an industrial plan could be developed.

A. Security education
B. Security check
C. Security survey
D. Security Inspection
Answer: C
116. A security of a plant or industrial firm is also known by other
terms except
A. Robbery evaluation
B. Vulnerability
C. Risk Assessment
D. Security Audit
Answer: B
117. Today there are 3 categories of security guards belonging to
the blue army.
A. Government security guards
B. Company guards
C. Agency guards
D. Body guards
Answer: D
118. Whether to put up its own security guard organic to the firm
or hire contractual agency guards have their individual merits
and disadvantages.To determine which type of guarding
system an industrial firm will require management must consult
A. A security consultant not connected to or owning a
security agency
B. A military intelligence officer
C. A police officer
D. A security agency owner
Answer: A
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119. As a security officer,you can not prevent nor protect natural

hazards like storm,earthquakes,floods and the like.In order to
reduce the disastrous effects of these natural hazards you
will
A. Call PAGASA and inquire when the next storm is coming
B. Alert your guards when hazards occur
C. Not take any concern of such hazards
D. Prepare a disaster or emergency plan
for these hazards for the firm
Answer: D
120. Practical exercise or test of a plan or activity to determine its
effectiveness is called
A. Sham drill
B. Fire drill
C. Dry run
D. Evacuation plan
Answer: C
121. The main reason for a personnel security investigation is
A. To weed out undesirable employees
B. To check loyalty of employees to the organization
C. To determine the character and reputation of certain
employees secretly tagged as risks.
D. Preclude assignment to sensitive positions for those
who are security risks.
Answer: D
122. In an industrial firm there is a need for document security.As
security officer,you can advice management on this aspect
although this is not totally your assigned work.Document
security is not a protection of vital records from
A. Authorized handlers
B. Theft or loss
C. Compromise or destruction
D. Unauthorized access
Answer: A
123. As a security chief of an industrial firm,inventory shows that

pilferage is rampant in the warehouses.What will be your
choice of action
A. To resign if you have failed your job
B. Deploy intelligence men in pilferage prone areas to
catch the culprit
C. Prepare your protective plans and confer with
management for their immediate implementation
D. Tighten checking at exists of vehicles of the
compound/complex
Answer: B
124. There are many types of electronic and electric protective
devices available for security buildings,storehouses and
compounds.One of the ff: is true
A. Electronics/electrical devices provide total protection
for the place to be safeguarded
B. Types of alarms needed can best be given by the
dealers of said devices
C. Each building or compound requires particular
electronic/electrical protective devices
D. Electronic/electrical devices eliminate human guards
Answer: C
110
125. The management of keys used in plant office or business

organization to prevent unauthorized access is referred to as
A. Security key control
B. Lock control
C. key control
D. Key management
Answer: C
126. It is defined as system of barriers placed between the matters
protected and the potential intruder
A. Computer security
B. Personnel security
C. Document security
D. Physical security
Answer: D
127. This type of alarm system utilizes a station located outside
the compound
A. Auxiliary system
B. Proprietary system
C. Central alarm system
D. Local alarm system
Answer: C
128. It is installed as part of the building which holds up to 10,000
cubic meters of essential items.At least 12 ft. in height with
enough ventilation and fire proof of at least one hour.
A. Protective cabinet
B. File room
C. Vault
D. Safe
Answer: B
129. It is the susceptibility of a plant or establishment to

damage,loss or disruption of operations due to various
hazards.
A. Risk analysis
B. Risk assessment
C. Relative vulnerability
D. Relative criticality
Answer: C
130. It refers to the importance of the establishment with
reference to the national economy and security.
A. Risk analysis
B. Relative vulnerability
C. Risk assessment
D. Relative criticality
Answer: D
131. The association of all licensed security agencies operators
A. POAPAD
B. PADPAO
C. PODPAO
D. PAOPAD
Answer: B
132.Who among below can own or operate security agency?
A. A Filipino citizen
B. Anyone provided he knows the job
C. An alien but living in the Philippines
D. All of them
Answer: A
133. A licensed issued to operate security agency or company
forces.
111
A. Business license
B. License to engage in business
C. License to operate
D. All of them
134. R.A. No. 5487 governs the operation of
A. Private detective
B. Company security
C. Private security forces/agencies
D. All of them
C. Casual
D. Insider
Answer: C
Answer: C
138. A barrier which includes but not limited to mountains, cliffs,

ravines, cliffs, etc.
A. Energy
B. Human
C. Natural
D. Animals
Answer: C
Answer: D
135. A fact-finding prove to determine a plant adequacy and

deficiency all aspects of security with the corresponding
recommendation.
A. Security audit
B. Security survey
C. Security inquiry
D. Security operations
Answer: B
136. Barrier which includes but not limited to wall,fences,grill etc.
A. Structural barriers
B. Man made barriers
C. Physical barriers
D. Natural barriers
Answer: B
137. One who steals due to his inability to resist the unexpected
opportunity and has little fear of detection.
A. Systematic
B. Outsider
139. Issued by the security guard for personnel to be admitted to

the company.
A. Duress code
B. Pass system
C. ID
D. Access list
Answer: B
140. In a close-in security formations, a one man security covers
A. 360 degrees
B. 180 degrees
C. 45 degrees
D. 90 degrees
Answer: A
141. A mechanical device of supplying water which can be manual
or motor driven.
A. Stand pipe
B. Fire extinguisher
C. Fire hydrant
D. Fire pump
Answer: A
112
142.Intrusion alarm devices are designed to ______ and not

prevent criminals from trespassing and should be used normally
as an independent adjunct and not a replacement of the
human guard forces.
A. Detect
B. Deterred
C. Provide
D. Impeded
Answer: A
143. An authenticated list of personnel given to security allowing
entry to compound or installation or part thereof.
A. Pass system
B. ID
C. Access list
D. Duress code
Answer: C
144. The act or condition affecting the safe operation of the
facility caused by human action,accidental or intentional.It
includes sabotage,espionage,pilferage and
theft,disloyalty,disaffection and subversive activities.
A. Electronic hazard
B. natural hazard
C. Artificial hazard
D. Human hazard
Answer: D
145. Example of the Security Communication system.
A. Telephone
B. Paging system
C. Radio
D. All of them
Answer: D
146. The revised rules and regulations governing the organization

and operation of private detective and private security
agencies and company security forces throughout the
country.
A. Private security law
B. International law
C. Private law
D. Security law
Answer: A
147. A metallic container used for the safekeeping of documents
or small items in an office or installation.
A. Steel cabinet
B. Drawer
C. Basket
D. Safe
Answer: D
148. A heavily constructed fire and burglar resistant container
usually a part of the building structure used to keep and
protect cash,document and negotiable instruments.
A. Basket
B. Vault
C. Steel cabinet
D. Concrete coffin
Answer: B
149. Steal or plastic pipes located in the building from the lowest
to the top floor with water under pressure for use in case of
113
fire.
A. Lowering pipe
B. Wet pipe
C. Top pipe
D. Stand pipe
Answer: D
150. Who among below are exempted from pre-licensing training?

A. AFP and PNP retirees
B. Graduate of ROTC basic or advance
C. AFP and PNP veterans
D. All of the above
Answer: D
151. Tenure of security personnel is based on
A. Can be extended by the client
B. The service contract between the agency and the
client
C. Labor only contracting between the agency and the
guard
D. Tenure provided by the labor code
Answer: B
152. Before private security agencies render security services to
its clients,there must be a contract that must bind them,it is
called
A. Contract service
B. Service contract
C. Security contract
D. Security service contract
Answer: D
153. Which below is a qualification for the operator or manager of
security agency.
A. Commissioned officer of AFP or PNP,inactive or retirees
B. At least 25 years of age
C. Filipino citizen
D. All of them
Answer: D
154. A security force maintained and operated by any private
company for its own security requirements only.
A. Insular security force
B. Company security force
C. Government security unit
D. Private security unit
Answer: B
155. A person who offers or renders personal services to watch or
secure a residence or business establishment or both is
A. Watchman
B. Security guard
C. B only
D. B and A
Answer: D
156. Include all the security measures designed to prevent
unsuitable individuals or persons of doubtful loyalty to the
government from gaining access to classified matter or to any
security facility and to prevent appointment or retention as
employees of such individuals.
A. Security personnel
B. Employee security
C. Personnel security
D. Both A and C
Answer: C
114
D. Single pass or badge system

157. It is an inquiry into the character,reputation,discretion and
loyalty of individual in order to determine a persons suitability
to be given security clearance.
A. BI
B. LAC
C. NAC
D. PSI
Answer: D
158. Consist of the investigation of the background of an individual
but limited only to some of the circumstances of his personal
life which are deemed pertinent to the investigation.
A. PSI
B. PBI
C. CBI
D. BI
Answer: B
159. A thorough and complete investigation of all or some of the
circumstances or aspect of a persons life is conducted.
A. PSI
B. PBI
C. CBI
D. BI
Answer: D
160. Among the following,which is the least expensive and least
secure personnel control identification system?
A. Multiple pass system
B. Group pass and badge system
C. Spot magnetized identification pass
Answer: D
161. Factors considered in background investigation except:

A. Integrity
B. Character
C. Personal prestige
D. Loyalty
Answer: C
162. Motives that cause people to be disloyal
A. Character
B. Revenge
C. Moral
D. Reputation
Answer: B
163. Weakness that makes people susceptible to pressure

A. Jealousy
B. Weakness of character
C. Close relative in foreign land
D. All of them
Answer: D
164. A security unit maintained and operated by any government
entity.
D. Private security agency
Answer: C
165. Cosnsist of the investigation of the background of a person
particularly all the circumstances of his personal life
115
A. PSI
B. PBI
C. CBI
D. BI
Answer: C
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
Answer: D
166. Any person,association,partnership,firm or private

corporation,who contracts recruits,trains,furnishes or post
any security guards to do its functions.
D. Private security agency
Answer: D
170. Firearms of security agency should be covered with firearms

license issued by the PNP through its Firearm Explosive
Division under the civil security group renewable every
A. 4 years
B. 3 years
C. 2 years
D. 1 year
Answer: D
167. Shall be responsible to the detachment commander as far as

his shift is concerned.
A. Officer in charge
B. Shift in charge
C. Security guard on duty
D. Assistant detachment commander
Answer: B
171. The aspect of security which involves the application of

security measures For the protection and safeguarding of
classified information
A. Top secret
B. Information security
C. Personnel security
D. Documents security
Answer: D
168. Before a security guard can practice his profession,he shall

possess a valid security license,What is this license?
A. Firearm license
B. License to operate
C. Drivers license
D. Security guard license
Answer: D
169. How many firearms issued for every two guards employed by
the security agency is allowed by law?
172. Refers to assigned information by one of the four classification

categories
A. Reclassify
B. Classified
C. Declassify
D. Security clearance
Answer: B
173. Refers to the administrative determination that an individual is
116
eligible for access to classified matter.

A. Reclassify
B. Classified
C. Declassify
D. Security clearance
C. Confidential matters
D. Top secret matters
Answer: D
174. Means loss of security which results from an unauthorized

persons obtaining knowledge of classified matter.
A. Vulnerability
B. Criticality
C. probability
D. Compromise
Answer: D
175. These are information and material,the unauthorized disclosure
of which would cause exceptional grave damage to the
nation,politically,economically or from a security aspect,this
category is reserved for the nations closest secret and is to
be used with great reserve.
A. Restricted matters
B. Secret matters
Answer: D
176. These information and material,the authorized disclosure of
which would endanger national security,cause serious injury to
the interest or prestige of the nation or of any governmental
activity or would be of great advantage to a foreign nation.
B. Secret matters
Answer: B
177. These information and material,the unauthorized disclosure of

which while not endangering the national security would be
prejudicial to the interest or prestige of the nation or any
government activity or would cause administrative
embarrassment or unwarranted injury to an individual or
would be of the advantage to a foreign nation.
B. Secret matters
Answer: C
178. It is information that in some special way relates to the status
or activities of the possessor and over which the possessor
asserts ownership.
A. Transmission security
B. Trade secret
C. Patents
D. Proprietary information
Answer: D
179. It maybe a formula for a chemical compound,a process of
manufacturing,treating or preserving materials,a pattern for
machine or device or a list of customers.
B. Trade secret
C. Patents
D. Proprietary information
Answer: B
117
180. It is the protection resulting from the application of various

measures which prevent or delay the enemy or unauthorized
persons in gaining information through communication.
B. Cryptographic security
C. Communication security
D. All of the above
Answer: C
181. That component of communication security which results from
the provisions of technically sound crypto system and their
proper use.
B. Cryptographic security
C. Communication security
D. All of the above
Answer: B
182. A system which uses words as the smallest element.
A. Transposition system
B. Code
C. Concealment
D. Cipher
Answer: B
183. A system that manipulate 1,2 or 3 characters at a time.
A. Transposition system
B. Code
C. Concealment
D. Cipher
Answer: D
184. It is the potential damage or loss of an asset.

A. Adversary
B. Risk
C. Security hazard
D. Criticality
Answer: B
185. It is the impact of a loss as measured in financial terms.
A. Adversary
B. Risk
C. Security hazard
D. Criticality
Answer: D
186. Eliminating or removing the risk totally from the
business,government or industrial environment for which the
risk manager has responsibility.
A. Risk self-assumption
B. Risk spreading
C. Risk avoidance
D. Risk avoidance
Answer: C
187. It is an act of spying.
A. Saboteur
B. Espionage
C. pilferer
D. Sabotage
Answer: B
188. It is one of the most annoying and common human hazards

which security has to deal with.
A. Casual pilferage
118
B. Systematic pilferage
C. Pilferage
D. None of the above
D. Protected area
Answer: C
189. One who steals with pre conceived plans and takes always
any or all types of items or supplies for economic gain.
A. Casual pilferage
B. Systematic pilferage
C. Pilferage
Answer: B
190. What date is the Republic Act No. 5487 or the private security
agency law passed?
A. June 13, 1999
B. June 13, 1969
C. June 7, 2009
D. June 31, 1969
Answer: B
191. A natural hazards or acts of god.
A. Calamity
B. Phenomenon
C. Disaster
D. Force majeure
Answer: D
192. A restricted area where visitors are limited in movement and

are usually escorted.
A. Exclusive area
B. Limited area
C. Restricted area
Answer: B
193. A structure placed above a vertical fence to increase

protection from intruder.
A. Guard house
B. Clear zone
C. Tower guard
D. Top guard
Answer: D
194.A conference similar to entrance conference,this is only done
after the completion of security survey.
A. Entrance conference
B. Briefing
C. Debriefing
D. Exit conference
Answer: D
195. It is the lost that would be sustained if a given target or
combination of target where totally removed,destroyed or
both.
A. Risk reduction
B. Probable maximum loss
C. Risk transfer
D. Possible maximum loss
Answer: D
196. Refers to the amount of loss a target would be likely to
sustain through theft and robbery.
A. Risk reduction
B. Probable maximum loss
C. Risk transfer
119
D. Possible maximum loss
Answer: B
C. Local alarm system

D. Central station system
Answer: C
197. A term used in England for lock pickers,safe crackers and

penetrators of restricted rooms or area.
A. Superman
B. Peterpan
C. Batman
D. Peterman
Answer: D
198. The badge or pass coded for authorization to enter specific

areas is issued to an employee who keeps it in his possession
until his authorization terminates.
A. Pass system
B. Pass exchange system
C. Single pass system
D. Multi pass system
Answer: C
199. Company owned alarm system with a unit in the nearest police
station so that in case of need, direct call is possible.
A. Auxiliary alarm
C. Local alarm system
D. Central station station system
Answer: A
200. The system consists of ringing up a visual or audible alarm
system near the object to be protected.
A. Auxiliary alarm
120
C.
D.
Criminalistics Review Questions 1
hyper lividity
rigor mortis
Answer: B
4. Things used by a person in the commission of a crime, or objec

left in a crime scene which are the subjects of criminalistics.
A. testimonial evidence
B. hearsay evidence
C. circumstantial evidence
D. physical evidence
Answer: D
1. A condition of exposure to cold temperature of certain parts of 5. The science dealing with the motion of a projectile and the
the body which produces mechanical disruption of cell structure
conditions governing that motion.
characterized by cold stiffening and diminished body.
A. Ballistics
A. immersion foot
B. Forensic Ballistics
B. trench foot
C. Terminal Ballistics
C. frostbite
D. External Ballistics
Answer: A
D. gangrene
Answer: C
2. A condition of women who have had one or more sexual
experience but not had conceived a child.
A. virgo-intacts
B. demi-virginity
C. moral virginity
D. physical virginity
Answer: A
6. The application of medical knowledge in the solution of crimes

A. Forensic Science
B. Forensic Chemistry
C. Forensic Ballistics
D. Forensic Medicine
Answer: D
7. The science or art of obtaining images in scientific materials by

the action of electro magnetic radiation rays.
3. Fixed discoloration of the blood clothed inside the blood vessels
A. Polygraphy
or has diffused to different parts of the body.
B. Dactyloscopy
A. hypostatic lividity
C. Photography
B. diffusion lividity
D. Chemistry
Answer: C
121
8. Instrument used in the measurement of temperature.

A. Endometer
B. Barometer
C. Thermometer
D. ananometer
Answer: C
9. The scientific detection of deception.
A. Polygraphy
B. Dactyloscopy
C. Toxicology
D. Chemistry
Answer: A
10. The test conducted to determine the presence of gunpowder

residue in the hands of a suspect.
A. diphenylamine test
B. ultra violet test
C. paraffin test
D. Simons Test
Answer: C
A.
B.
C.
D.
3-6 minutes
3-6 hours
20-30 minutes
20-30 hours
13. Post-mortem lividity has the following mechanisms:

A. Hypostatic pressure
B. Diffusion
C. Gravitational pressure
D. All of the above
14. Hanging is asphyxia due to the constriction of the neck as a r

of suspension in which the weight of the body pulls upon the
ligature.What differentiates it from strangulation by a ligature
therefore is:
A. The factor of suspension
B. Hanging raises a presumption of suicide
C. Strangulation is usually homicidal
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
11. To find out the truth is an essential requirement for the

administration of Justice. Which of the following is the commonly
15. Distinctions between ante-mortem from post-mortem clot are
used method of deception detection?
following. Which one is not valid?
A. Lie detection method
A. Ante-mortem clot is firm in consistency
B. Hypnotism
B. Clot is homogenous in construction so it cannot be
C. Use of drugs
stripped into layers
D. Confession
C. Clot with varied colors
D. Surface of the blood vessels are raw after the clots are
12. In molecular or cellular death, death of individual cells is with in
removed
122
A.
B.
C.
D.
Dental examination
Fingerprinting
Photography
Pictures Parle
16. Post-mortem lividity maybe due to any of the following, except:

A. Hypostasis
B. Autolysis
C. Diffusion
D. Suggillation
21. One is a condition that can approximate the time of death.
A. Cadaver
17. Comprehensive study of dead body, performed by a trained
B. Magnus test
Physician, to determine the cause of death:
C. Rigor mortis
A. Autopsy
D. None of these
B. Biophsis
C. Dissection
22. The means sanctioned by the law, of ascertaining the judicial
D. Physicians
power/proceeding, the truth respecting the matter of fact.
A. Polygraph
18. Articles and materials found in the crime scene:
B. Evidence
A. Physical evidence
C. Lie detector
B. Associative evidence
D. All of these
C. Evidence
D. Tracing evidence
23. Determination of individuality of a person or thing:
A. Description
19. Circumscribed extravation of blood or subcutaneous tissue or
B. Perception
underneath the mucous membrane.
C. Identification
A. Contusion
D. All of these
B. Petechia
C. Abrasion
24. Types of fingerprint patters, except:
D. All of them
A. Arches
B. Ordinary
20. Among the following, which has the greatest value in scientific
C. Loop
examination/identification?
D. Whorl
123
D.
Radiation burn
Answer: D
25. It is any unusual pattern of sexual behavior including habitual,

preference and completing need for sexual gratification by any 29. The metal tube through which the bullet is fired is called
means except sexual intercourse which results to bodily
A. Bore
excitement
B. Barrel
A. Virginity
C. Baretta
B. Sexual intercourse
D. Bromet
Answer: B
C. Prostitution
D. Sexual deviation
30. The old form of gunpowder invented over a thousand years ag
and consisting of nitrate, charcoal, and sulfur.
26. An open wound produced by a sharp-pointed instrument and is
A. Chinese Powder
characterized by a small opening of the wound.
B. Black Powder
A. Gunshot wound
C. Gray Powder
B. Stab wound
D. All of these
Answer: B
C. Shrapnel wound
D. Punctured wound
Answer: D
31. The inside of the barrel is generally termed as
A. Bore
27. A physical injury wherein the offended victim is incapacitated for
B. Barrel
work or requires medical assistance for 10 days or more but not
C. Rifling
A. Slight physical injury
D. Primer
Answer: A
B. Mutilation
C. Serious physical injury
32. The portion of the gun which is held or shouldered is called
D. less serious physical injury
Answer: D
A. Buckle
B. Buttstock
28. It is the type of burn due to gamma rays and which is difficult to
C. Handle
remedy:
D. End joint
Answer: B
A. Thermal burn
B. Electric burn
33. In a gun, the portion of the "action" that holds the cartridge r
C. Chemical burn
for firing is called
124
A.
B.
C.
D.
Gas tube
Chamber
Double-action
Trigger
the first Filipino fingerprint technician employed by the Phil.

Constabulary was
A. Mr. Generoso Reyes
Answer: B
B. Mr. Amado Delos Santos
C. Mr. Calixto Solis
34. A metal rod or plate that strikes the cartridge primer to detonate
D. None of these
Answer: A
the powder.
A. Spring
38. The first leading judicial decision in the Philippine jurispruden
B. Trigger guard
the science of fingerprinting was the case of
C. Hammer
A. People vs Medina
D. Revolver
Answer: C
B. People vs Pineda
C. People vs Amador
35. This is a device for storing cartridges in a repeating firearm for
D. People vs. Rosas
Answer: A
loading into the chamber. Also referred to as a "clip".
A. Clipper
39. What is the intermediate and the thickest layer of the hair an
B. Holder
composed of elongated, spindle-shaped fibrils which cohere?
C. Pin or pinhead
contain pigment granules in varying proportion depending on
D. None of these
Answer: D
type of hair.
A. Medulla
36. A device that fits over the muzzle of the barrel to muffle the
B. Cortex
sound of a gunshot. Most work by baffling the escape of gases.
C. Core
A. Buffer
D. Cuticle
Answer: B
B. Silencer
C. Magazine
40. Who was the noted British Examiner of questioned documents
D. Hanger
Answer: B
that an intelligent police investigator can detect almost 75% o
forgeries by careful inspection of a document with simple
37. Under the management of Lt. Darby during the American
magnifiers and measuring tools?
occupation in the Philippines, a modern and complete fingerprint
A. Dr. Arthur Stoll
file has been established for the Philippine commonwealth. In 1937, B. Dr. Aristotle Curt
125
C.
D.
Dr. William Harrison

Dr. Benjamin Jones
of the details of the offense for which he is being interrogated

Answer: C
the investigation, or by other persons or from other sources li
the print media?
41. In police photography studies, what are called the thin, gelatinous, A. Peak of Tension test
light-sensitive coatings on film that react chemically to capture
B. Control test
the color and shadings of a scene?
C. IQ Test
A. Films
D. Guilt Complex Test
Answer: A
B. Emulsions
C. Chemical Coatings
45. In fingerprinting, the space between shoulders of a loop, free
D. None of these
Answer: B
any appendage, and a butting at right angle.
A. Complete curve
42. A medium that divert or absorb light, but does not allow lights to
B. Sufficient Recurve
pass though, they absorb most of the light while reflecting some of
C. Straight arrow
it is called
D. Core
Answer: B
A. Opaque object
B. Convection
46. The term use to refer to a single recurving ridge enclosing on
C. Visible light
more rods or bars of a fingerprint.
D. Prisms
Answer: A
A. None of these
B. Envelope
43. In the practice of polygraphy, what do you call questions
C. Furrows
unrelated to the matter under investigation but are of similar
D. Bifurcation
Answer: B
nature although less serious as compared to those relevant
questions under investigation?
47. These are depressions or canals between the ridges of a
A. Irrelevant questions
fingerprint which maybe compared with the low area in a tire
B. Relevant questions
tread.
C. Control questions
A. None of these
D. Interrogative questions
Answer: C
B. Envelope
C. Furrows
44. What test is given if a subject of interrogation is not yet informed
D. Bifurcation
Answer: C
126
D.
Ecology
Answer: A
48. In the study of questioned documents, what do you call the

quality of paper that does not allow light to pass through or which
52. In a fire, the presence of reddish brown smoke indicates
prevents dark objects from being seen through the paper?
A. Nitrocellulose
A. Opacity
B. Sulfuric acid
B. Watermarks
C. Nitric acid
C. Skid marks
D. All of these
Answer: D
D. Invisibility
Answer: A
53. The bending of light around an object gives rise to the
49. What is the oldest ink material known?
phenomenon called
A. Ball point pen ink
A. attraction
B. Chinese Ink
B. diffraction
C. Aniline Ink
C. light curve
D. White Ink
Answer: B
D. light fingerprint
Answer: B
50. It is the art of extracting and working on metals by the application

54. Under the law of reflection, The angle of reflection depends u
of chemical and physical knowledge.
the angle of the light striking the material, which is referred t
A. Cryptography
the
B. Metallurgy
A. angle of incidence
C. Casting
B. angle of biometry
D. Matalisky
Answer: B
C. angle of light
D. none of these
Answer: A
51. The branch of geology that deals with the systematic
classification and identification of rocks, rock forming minerals 55.
andIn ballistics, what is the pressure generated within the chamb
soil.Also includes study of dust, dirt, safe insulation, ceramics and erroneously called breeched pressure?
other such materials, both natural and artificial.
A. Chamber Pressure
A. Petrography
B. Barrel Pressure
B. Serology
C. Gunpowder
C. Anthropology
D. None of these
Answer: A
127
C.
D.
Wong Cho
Tiang Hin
56. The ratio of the weight of the powder charge to the weight of the
Answer: A
projectile is called
A. Power to speed ratio
60. Who has given the fame title as Father of Dactyloscopy?
B. Charge weight to bullet weight ratio
A. Johannes Purkinje
C. Firing pin stroke ratio
B. Leonard Keeler
D. All of these
Answer: B
C. Charles Darwin
D. Sir Francis Galton
Answer: A
57. Chemical rearrangement of molecules into gas instead of solids to
cause the high explosives to exert full power of shock. The speed
61. In Hoogly, district of Bengal, India, he used fingerprints to pre
varies in different explosive but in some it is as high as 7000 yards fraudulent collection of army pay account and for identificatio
in a second. This refers to
other documents. He was known as the Father of Chiroscopy.
A. Energy
A. William Herschel
B. Gas
B. Francis Galton
C. Detonation
C. Gilbert Thompson
D. Gun powder
Answer: C
D. Alphonse Bertillon
Answer: A
58. What occurs when a cartridge fails to explode on time or delayed

62. A noted British anthropologist who began observation which l
in firing?
the publication in 1882 of his book Fingerprints. That
A. Knocking Power
established the individuality of classifying fingerprint pattern
B. Hang fire
A. Francis Galton
C. Recoil
B. Gilbert Thompson
D. None of these
Answer: B
C. Wayne Kate
D. Alphonse Bertillon
Answer: A
59. In China, fingerprint is called ___. It was valued for purposes of
identification since time immemorial as found on a Chinese clay63. The notorious gangster and a police character, who attempted
seal made not later than the 3rd Century B.C.
erase his fingerprints by burning them with acid but as time w
A. Hua Chi
by the ridges were again restored to their natural feature.
B. Mah Whang
A. John Fielding
128
B.
C.
D.
64. What
A.
B.
C.
D.
Johanes Curie
John Dellinger
Billy the Kid
D.
Answer: C
is the science of palm print identification?

Chiroscopy
Poroscopy
Podoscopy
Astrology
Answer: B
68. Which
A.
B.
C.
D.
Dr. John Larson
Answer: A
evidence offers least resistance to decomposition?

Semen
Urine
Hair
Blood
Answer: C
69. One in which the facts appearing therein may not be true, and
contested either in whole or part with respect to its authentic
65. A single ridge which splits into two ridges forming a Y shape
identity, or origin.
formation or structure is commonly known as
A. Questioned document
A. Diverging ridges
B. Illegal document
B. Bifurcating ridges
C. Falsified document
C. Loop
D. Disputed facts
Answer: A
D. Delta
Answer: B
70. Are condensed and compact set of authentic specimens whi
66. Symbolized by letter W in the fingerprint classification. It is a
if adequate and proper, should contain a cross section of th
fingerprint pattern which there are two deltas and in which at
material from a known source for questioned document
least one ridge makes a turn through one complete circuit.
examination.
A. Plain whorl
A. Basis products
B. Central pocket loop whorl
B. Standards
C. Accidental loop
C. Handwriting
D. Ulnar loop
Answer: A
D. Signatures
Answer: B
67. Father of Criminalistics.
A. Dr. Hans Gross
B. Dr. Cesare Lombroso
C. Dr. John Reid
71. A term used by some document examiners and attorneys to

characterize known material.
A. Basis
B. Exemplar
129
C.
D.
Xerox copies
Reproduced
Answer: B
determine the presence of erasures, matching of serrations an

some other types of alterations.
A. Microscopic examination
B. Ultra violet examination
C. Photographic examination
D. Transmitted light examination
Answer: D
72. When a document is issued and notarized by a notary public or

competent public official with solemnities required by law, it is
called
A. Official document
B. Public document
76. Ultraviolet radiation is invisible and occurs in the wave length
C. Commercial document
below the visible blue-violet end of the spectrum (rainbow). Th
D. Private Document
Answer: B
visible rays react on some substances so that visible light is
reflected, a phenomenon known as
73. What is known as the blotting out or shearing over the writing to
A. Prism
make the original invisible to as an addition?
B. Fluorescence
A. Obliteration
C. Infrared
B. Obscuration
D. Radiation
Answer: B
C. Forged
D. None of these
Answer: A
77. It is the result of a very complicated series of facts, being use
whole, combination of certain forms of visible mental and mus
74. In legal language, it refers to the document examiner's conclu
habits acquired by long, continued painstaking effort.Some
In Court, he may not only express it but demonstrates the
defined it as visible speech.
reasons for arriving at his conclusion.
A. Typewriting
A. Remarks
B. Money Bills
B. Testimony
C. Handwriting
C. Opinion
D. All of these
Answer: C
D. Reasoning
Answer: C
78. In document examination, what is the relation of parts of the
75. In this kind of document examination, the document is viewed withwhole of writing or line of individual letters in words to the
the source of illumination behind it and the light passing through baseline?
the paper.Documents are subjected to this type of examination to
A. Proportion
130
B.
C.
D.
Alignment
Lining
Letter forms
particular physical and mental condition, using particular

implements, and with a particular reason and purpose for reco
Answer: B
his name.
A. Fraudulent Signature
79. Any property or mark which distinguishes and in document
B. Freehand forged signature
examination commonly called to as the identifying details si called
C. Guided Signature
A. Standard
D. Evidential Signature
Answer: D
B. Characteristics
C. Attribute
83. It is the crime of making, circulating or uttering false coins an
D. Form
Answer: B
banknotes. Literally, it means to make a copy of; or imitate; t
make a spurious semblance of, as money or stamps, with the
80. The act of setting two or more items side by side to weigh their
intent to deceive or defraud.
identifying qualities; it refers not only a visual but also the mental
A. Counterfeiting
act in which the element of one item are related to the
B. Falsification
counterparts of the other.
C. Forgery
A. Collation
D. Fake money bills
Answer: A
B. Analysis
C. Comparison
84. A fluid or viscous marking material used for writing or printin
D. Recording
Answer: C
A. Pen
B. Ink
81. In the study handwriting, the movement of the pen toward the
C. Coal
writer is called
D. Chalk
Answer: B
A. Downstroke
B. Backstroke
85. In 1884, who was this insurance agent in New York who paten
C. Sidestroke
the first practical fountain pen containing its own ink reservo
D. None of these
Answer: A
A. Lewis Waterman
B. John Loud
82. It is a signature, signed at a particular time and place, under
C. Peter Reynolds
particular conditions, while the signer was at particular age, in a
D. Henry Ball
Answer: A
131
B.
C.
D.
X-Ray Films
B&W Films
Colored Films
86. What do you calle the type of instrument used in measuring pitch
of rifling firearms
Answer: B
A. Pinometer
B. Helixometer
90. Which film is suitable for general use in the preparation of bla
C. Thermometer
and white photography because it produces the most natural
D. Caliper
Answer: B
recording of colors?
A. Panchromatic film
87. This valuable instrument is specially designed to permit the
B. Chrome Films
firearms examiner to determine the similarity and dissimilarity
C. X-Ray Films
between two fired bullets or two fired shells, by simultaneously
D. Color Films
Answer: A
observing their magnified image in a single microscopic field.
A. Magnetic field device
91. One film maybe rated ISO 100, and another film ISO- 200. Th
B. Compound microscope
means that the 200 films are twice as fast (twice more sensitiv
C. Bullet comparison microscope
to light) than the ISO-100 film. This statement is
D. Photographic microscope
Answer:C
A. true
B. false
88. Consist of a wooden box, 12 x12x 96, with a hinged to cover
C. partly true
and with one end open. This long box is filled with ordinary cotton
D. partly false
Answer: A
and separated into sections by cardboard petitions use in
ballistics.
92. Among the following speed of film, which has the fastest spee
A. Firing point box
A. ISO 25
B. Bullet recovery box
B. ISO 100 to ISO 200
C. Slug collection box
C. ISO 400
D. All of these
Answer: B
D. ISO 1000 and up
Answer: D
89. Photographic films maybe classified according to their forms and

93. Chromatic aberration is the failure of different colored light ra
types. What are the films that are sensitive to radiation?
focus after passing through a lens, focusing of light of differe
A. Chrome Films
colors at different points resulting in a blurred image.
132
A.
B.
C.
D.
Astigmatism
Bended light
Chromatic aberration
Pragmatic rays
B.
C.
D.
Shutter speed
Aperture
Lens
Answer: B
Answer: C
97. What makes a bullet spin? Without spin, a bullet would not stay
94. What is the defect in which the light coming from an off-axis
pointed forward in flight, but would tumble over and over. The
object point is spread along the direction of the optic axis? If the spinning motion increases the accuracy of a bullet.
object is a vertical line, the cross section of the refracted beam at A. Bore
B. Gunpowder
successively greater distances from the lens is an ellipse that
C. Rifling
collapses first into a horizontal line, spreads out again, and later
D. Shell
Answer: C
becomes a vertical line.
A. Astigmatism
98. What component of the polygraph machine records the changes in
B. Bended light
the breathing of the subject?
C. Chromatic aberration
A. Pneumograph
D. Pragmatic rays
Answer: A
B. Cardiograph
C. Galvanograph
95. Depth of field is the range in front of and behind a sharply focused
D. Kymograph
Answer: A
subject in which details also look sharp in the final photographic
image.
99. In fingerprinting, it refers to the process of counting the
A. Focus
intervening ridges that touch or cross an imaginary line drawn
B. Depth of field
between the core and the delta.
C. Camera trick
A. Ridge counting
D. Aperture
Answer: B
B. Ridge tracing
C. Delta tracing
96. In photography, what determines how effectively a moving object
D. All of these
Answer: A
can be stopped, that is, how sharply it can be reproduced without
blurring, or streaking in the final image?
100.For many years the most commonly used preliminary test for blood
A. Focus
A. Plasma count
133
B.
C.
D.
Serum test
Benzidine test
Barberios test
Answer: C
B.
C.
D.
questioned document
standard document
requested document
3. Specimens of hand writing or of typescript which is of known

origin.
A. Letters
B. Samples
C. Exemplars
D. Documents
Criminalistics Review Questions 2
4. A document which is being questioned because of its origin, its

contents or the circumstances or the stories of its production.
A. disputed document
B. standard document
C. requested document
D. questioned document
1. There is freehand invitation and is considered as the most skilful

class of forgery
A. simulated or copied forgery
B. simple forgery
C. traced forgery
D. carbon tracing
5. The art
A.
B.
C.
D.
2. Condensed and compact set of authentic specimen which is

adequate and proper, should contain a cross section
of the material from known sources.
A. disguised document
6. Any written instrument by which a right or obligation is

established.
A. Certificate
B. Subpoena
C. Warrant
of beautiful writing is known as

Drafting
Calligraphy
Art appreciation
Gothic
134
D.
Document
7. A type of fingerprint pattern in which the slope or downward

flow of the innermost sufficient recurve is towards the
thumb of radius bone of the hand of origin.
A. ulnar loop
B. tented arch
C. accidental whorl
D. radial loop
8. The forking or dividing of one line to two or more branches.
A. Ridge
B. Island
C. Delta
D. Bifurcation
9. The point on a ridge at or in front of and nearest the center of
the divergence of the type lines.
A. Divergence
B. Island
C. Delta
D. Bifurcation
10.The following are considerations used for the identification
of a loop except one:
A. Delta
B. Core
C. a sufficient recurve
D. a ridge count across a looping bridge
11.The process of recording fingerprint through the use of

fingerprint ink.
A. Pathology
B. Fingerprinting
C. Dactyloscopy
D. Printing press
12.The fingerprint method of identification.
A. Pathology
B. Fingerprinting
C. Dactyloscopy
D. Printing press
13.Two lines that run parallel or nearly parallel, diverge and
surround the pattern area.
A. Ridges
B. Delta
C. Type line
D. Bifurcation
14.A part of the whorl or loop in which appear the cores, deltas
and ridges.
A. type line
B. bifurcation
C. pattern area
D. furrow
15.Fingerprints left on various surfaces at the crime scene which are
135
not clearly visible.

A. plane impressions
B. visible fingerprints
C. rolled impressions
D. latent fingerprints
16.The impressions left by the patterns of ridges and depressions on
various surfaces.
A. kiss marks
B. finger rolls
C. thumb marks
D. fingerprints
17.Which
A.
B.
C.
D.
among the following is not considered as a basic fingerprint

Arch
Accidental
Loop
Whorl
B.
C.
D.
double loop
central pocket loop
accidental
20.A fingerprint pattern which one or more ridges enter on either side
of the impression by a recurve, and terminate on the same side
where the ridge has entered.
A. Loop
B. radial loop
C. ulnar loop
D. tented arch
21.A person allowed who gives his/her opinion or conclusion on a
pattern?
given scientific evidence is considered
A. interrogator
B. expert witness
C. prosecutor
D. judge
18.The minimum identical characteristics to justify the identity

between two points.
A. Eighteen
B. Fifteen
C. Twelve
D. Nine
22.The application of scientific knowledge and techniques in the

detection of crime and apprehension of criminals.
A. Law Enforcement Administration
B. Forensic Administration
C. Criminal Psychology
D. Criminalistics
19.A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges form a sequence of

spirals around core axes.
A. whorl
23.Lens that is characterized by a thicker center and thinner sides.

A. concave lens
B. convex lens
136
C.
D.
negative lens
positive lens
24.The normal developing time of a paper or film.

A. 30-60 minutes
B. 20-30 minutes
C. 5-10 minutes
D. 1- 2 minutes
25.This part of a camera is used to allow light to enter the lens for
a predetermined time interval.
A. holder of sensitized material
B. view finder
C. shutter
D. view finder
26.A lens with a focal length of less than the diagonal of its negative
material.
A. telephoto lens
B. long lens
C. normal lens
D. wide angle lens
27.Chemical used as an accelerator in a developer solution.
A. Potassium Bromide
B. Sodium Carbonate
C. Sodium Sulfite
D. Hydroquinone
28.A part
A.
B.
C.
D.
of a camera used in focusing the light from the subject

view finder
lens
shutter
light tight box
29.A component of the polygraph instrument which records the

breathing of the subject.
A. Cardiosphygmograph
B. Pneumograph
C. Galvanograph
D. Kymograph
30.A component of the polygraph instrument which records the
blood pressure and the pulse rate of the subject.
B. Pneumograph
C. Galvanograph
D. Kymograph
31.A component of the polygraph instrument which is a motor that
drives or pulls the chart paper under the recording pen
simultaneously at the rate of 6 or 12 inches per minute.
B. Pneumograph
C. Galvanograph
D. Kymograph
32.The following are specific rules to be followed in the formulation of
137
the questions in a polygraph test except one.

A. Questions must be clear and phrased in a language the
subject can easily understand.
B. Questions must be answerable by yes or no.
C. Questions must be as short as possible.
D. Questions must all be in the form of accusations
33. In polygraph examination, the term examination means a
detection of
A. Forgery
B. Emotion
C. the mind
D. deception
34. It refers to an emotional response to a specific danger, which
appears to go beyond a persons defensive power.
A. Fear
B. Stimuli
C. Response
D. Reaction
35. The primary purpose of pre-test interview.
A. Prepare subject for polygraph test
B. Obtain confession
C. Make the subject calm
D. Explain the polygraph test procedures
36. The deviation from normal tracing of the subject in the relevant
question.
A.
B.
C.
D.
positive response
specific response
normal response
reaction
37. The study of the effect of the impact of a projectile on the

target.
A. Terminal Ballistics
B. Internal Ballistics
C. External Ballistics
D. Forensic Ballistics
38. The unstable rotating motion of the bullet is called
A. Trajectory
B. Yaw
C. Velocity
D. Gyroscopic action
39. The part of the mechanism of a firearm that withdraws the shell
or cartridge from the chamber.
A. Extractor
B. Ejector
C. Striker
D. Trigger
40. The pattern or curved path of the bullet in flight.
A. Yaw
B. Range
C. Velocity
138
D.
Trajectory
41. This refers to the deflection of the bullet from its normal path
after striking a resistant surface.
A. Misfire
B. Mushroom
C. Ricochet
D. Key hole shot
42. A type of primer with two vents or flash holes.
A. Bordan primer
B. Berdan Primer
C. Baterry Primer
D. Boxer Primer
43. This refers to the helical grooves cut in the interior surface of
the bore.
A. swaging
B. ogive
C. rifling
D. breaching
44. It refers to the unstable rotating motion of the bullet.
A. Trajectory
B. Yaw
C. Velocity
D. Gyproscopic action
45. It is the measurement of the bore diameter from land to land.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Calibre
Mean diameter
Gauge
Rifling
46. He is known as the Father of Ballistics.

A. Hans Gross
B. Charles Waite
C. Albert Osborne
D. Calvin Goddard
47. A document in which some issues have been raised or is under
scrutiny.
A. Void Document
B. Illegal Document
C. Forged Document
D. Questioned Document
48. The following are characteristics of forgery except one:
A. Presence of Natural Variation
B. Multiple Pen Lifts
C. Show bad quality of ink lines
D. Patchwork Appearance
49. Standards which are prepared upon the request of the
investigator and for the purpose of comparison with the
questioned document.
A. relative standards
B. collected standards
139
C.
D.
extended standards
requested standards
50. Any stroke which goes back over another writing stroke.
A. natural variation
B. rhythm
C. retracing
A. shading
51. The name of a person written by him/her in a document as a sign
of acknowledgement.
A. Opinion
B. Document
C. Signature
D. Handwriting
52. A kind of document which is executed by a private person
without the intervention of a notary public, or of
competent public official, by which some disposition of
agreement is proved.
A. commercial document
B. official document
C. public document
D. private document
53. An instrument that can be legally used in comparison with a
questioned document, its origin is known and can be proven.
A. simulated document
B. forged document
C.
D.
standard document
compared document
54. The process of making out what is illegible or what has been
effaced.
A. Comparison
B. Collation
C. Obliteration
D. Decipherment
55. A document which contains some changes either as an
addition or deletion.
A. inserted document
B. altered document
C. disputed document
D. obliterated document
56. A kind of erasure by using a rubber eraser, sharp knife, razor
blade or picking instrument.
A. mechanical erasure
B. electronic erasure
C. magnetic erasure
D. chemical erasure
57. It is the periodic increase in pressure, characterized by
widening of the ink stroke.
A. Shading
B. pen lift
C. pen emphasis
140
D.
pen pressure
58. A kind of document executed by a person in authority and by

private parties but notarized by competent officials.
A. private document
B. commercial document
C. public document
D. official document
59. The detection and identification of poisons.
A. Bacteriology
B. Posology
C. Toxicology
D. Chemistry
60. The specimen that is preferably used in the determination of
abused drugs in the body.
A. blood
B. saliva
C. body fluid
D. urine
61. A forensic chemist is tasked to examine the chemical nature
and composition of the following except one:
A. Fingerprint
B. Explosives
C. Blood
D. Body fluids
Answer: A
62. Who qualifies a forensic chemist as expert?

A. defense lawyer
B. judge
C. prosecutor
D. the chemist himself/herself
Answer: B
63. Methamphetamine hydrochloride is commonly known as
A. Coke
B. LSD
C. Heroin
D. shabu
Answer: D
64. An area surrounding the place where the crime occurred.
A. crime scene
B. police line
C. area of operation
D. area of responsibility
Answer: A
65. The body of the crime.
A. Evidence
B. body of the victim
C. criminology
D. corpus delicti
Answer: D
66. One of the following is a derivative of the opium poppy.

A. Demerol
141
B.
C.
D.
Caffeine
Morphine
nicotine
C.
D.
Criminalistics
Forensic Chemistry
Answer: D
Answer: C
67. Number restoration is necessary in determining whether there is

tampering of serial number in
A. Typewriter
B. Firearm
C. Prisoners
D. Bank notes
Answer: B
68. In forensic examination, a tip of the hair is examined to
determine if it was
A. Bend
B. Folded
C. Stretched
D. Cut
Answer: D
69. All of the following are accurate tests for the presence of alcohol
in the human body except one:
A. Saliva test
B. Harger Breath Test
C. Fecal test
D. Blood test
Answer: C
70. The application of chemical principles and processes in the
examination of evidence.
A. Forensic Medicine
B. Forensic Evidence
71. Volatile poisons may be isolated by means of this process.

A. Dialysis
B. Dilution
C. Distillation
D. Extraction
Answer: C
72. The process in reproducing physical evidence by plaster moulds.
A. Casting
B. Cementing
C. Moulage
D. Sticking
Answer: C
73. The test used to determine the presence of semen particularly
in stained clothing.
A. Florence Test
B. Barberios Test
C. Microscopic Test
D. Ultra-Violet Test
Answer: A
74. The test used to determine the presence of blood in stained
material.
A. Florence Test
B. Barberios Test
C. Takayama Test
D. Phenolphtalein Test
Answer: C
75. It is the major component of a glass.
142
A.
B.
C.
D.
Lime
Soda
Silica
Gel
Answer: C
76. Poisons which produce stupor and less feeling.

A. Narcotics
B. Irritants
C. Depressants
D. Stimulants
Answer: A
77. A supercooled liquid which possess high viscosity and rigidity.
A. dry ice
B. cartridge case
C. gel
D. glass
Answer: D
78. The study and identification of body fluids.
A. Pharmacology
B. Serology
C. Posology
D. Immunology
Answer: B
79. The test to determine whether blood is of human origin or not.
A. Blood typing
B. Precipitin Test
C. Confirmatory Test
D. Preliminary Test
Answer: B
80. The circulating tissue of the body.

A. Blood
B. Cells
C. Muscles
D. Liver
Answer: A
81. The complete, continuous, persistent cessation of respiration,

circulation and almost all brain function of an organism.
A. Apparent death
B. Molecular death
C. Cellular Death
D. Somatic death
Answer: D
82. The approximate time for the completion of one case for DNA
Testing.
A. minimum of eight weeks
B. minimum of six weeks
C. minimum of four weeks
D. minimum of two weeks
Answer: C
83. DNA stands for
A. Deonatural Acid
B. Deoxyribonucleic Acid
C. Denaturalized Acid
D. Deoxy Nucleic Acid
Answer: B
84. The Geneticist from Great Britain who pioneered DNA testing and
fingerprinting.
A. Alec Jeffries
143
B.
C.
D.
Lowell C. Van Berkom

William Reynolds
Henry Van Dyke
Answer: A
85. The cause of death of a person who immediately died because of

lack of oxygen for around 3 to five minutes.
A. Stroke
B. Asphyxia
C. Stupor
D. Exhaustion
Answer: B
86. The most serious burn involving skin, nerves, muscles and bones,
causing death due to loss of fluids and electrolytes in
the body and massive infection.
A. First Degree Burn
B. Second Degree Burn
C. Third Degree Burn
D. Sunburn
Answer: C
87. A discoloration of the body after death when the blood tends
to pool in the blood vessels of the most dependent portions
of the body and starts 20 to 30 minutes after death and is
completed by 12 hours.
A. livor mortis
B. primary flaccidity
C. maceration
D. rigor mortis
Answer: A
88. A wound which if inflicted in the body so serious that it will
endanger ones life.

A. mortal wound
B. trauma
C. coup injury
D. superficial wound
Answer: A
89. A wound produced by a blunt instrument such as club and stone.

A. incised wound
B. hack wound
C. lacerated wound
D. punctured wound
Answer: C
90. A displacement of the articular surface of the bone without
external wounds.
A. Hematoma
B. Fracture
C. Sprain
D. Dislocation
Answer: D
91. The following are types of medical evidence, except:
A. Photographic evidence
B. Experimental evidence
C. Testimonial evidence
D. Autoptic evidence
92. The art of identification by comparison of fingerprint is called:
A. Dactylography
B. All of the these
144
C.
D.
93. Some
A.
B.
C.
D.
Dactyloscopy
Palmistry
scientific methods of identification are the following, except:
Fingerprinting
Handwriting
Dental identification
Identification by close friends and relatives
94. The greater the number of points of similarities and dissimilarities of

two persons compared, the greater the probability for the
conclusion to be correct is found in the
A. Law of Municipality of Evidence in Identification
B. All of the these
C. Identification by Comparison and Exclusion
D. Law of Super Imposition
95. In the
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
strict sense of the word, Forensic Medicine means

application of medicine to legal cases
application of medical science to elucidate legal problems
knowledge of law in relation to practice of medicine
none of the above
all of the above
96. The different test to determine peripheral circulation are the

following, except
A. Magnus test
B. Diaphanous test
C. I cards test
D.
Winslows test
97. The following officials of the Philippine Government are authorized to

conduct death investigation, except A. Public Prosecutor
B. Judges of the regional trial court
C. Director PNP
D. SOCO team
98. The following statements are important in death determination.
Which is not valid?.
A. Civil personality of a natural person is extinguished by
death
B. Civil property of a person is transmitted to the heirs, if
not, to the government
C. The death of the partner is one of the causes of
dissolution of partnership agreement
D. The criminal liability of a person is extinguished by death
99. The following are kinds of death, which one is not?
A. Somatic or Clinical Death
B. State of Suspended Animation
C. Cellular or Molecular Death
D. Regulated Death
100. Of the following kinds of death, which one is relevant to Organ
Transportation?
A. Somatic or clinical Death
B. State of Suspended Animation
145
C.
D.
Molecular Death
Cellular Death
D.
Qualified Homicide
B
Answer:
2. PO3 Bagsik entered the dwelling of Totoy against the latters will
on suspicion that Bitoy keep unlicensed firearms
in his home. What was the crime committed by PO3 Bagsik?
A. Trespass to Dwelling
B. Violation of Domicile
C. Usurpation Of Authority
D. Forcible Trespassing
B
Answer:
3. Charlie and Lea had been married for more than 6 months.They
live together with the children of Lea from her first husband.
Charlie had sexual relation with Jane, the 14 year old daughter of
Lea.Jane loves Charlie very much.What was the crime committed
by Charlie?
A. Simple Seduction
B. Qualified Seduction
C. Consented Abduction
D. Rape
Answer: B
Criminal Jurisprudence Review Questions 1
1. Berto, with evident premeditation and treachery killed his father.
What was the crime committed?
A. Murder
B. Parricide
C. Homicide
4. Prof. Jose gave a failing grade to one of his students, Lito. When
the two met the following day, Lito slapped
Prof. Jose on the face. What was the crime committed by Lito?
A. Corruption of Public Officials
B. Direct Assault
C. Slight Physical Injuries
D. Grave Coercion
B
146
Answer:
5. A warrant of arrest was issued against Fred for the killing of his
parents. When PO2 Tapang tried to arrest him,Fred gave him 1
million pesos to set him free. PO2 Tapang refrained in arresting
Fred. What was the crime committed by PO2 Tapang?
A. Indirect Bribery
B. Direct Bribery
C. Corruption of Public Officials
D. Qualified Bribery
d
Answer:
6. Which of the following is the exemption to the hearsy rule made
under the consciousness of an impending death?
A. Parol Evidence
B. Ante mortem statement
C. Suicide note
D. Dead man statute
d
7. Factum
A.
B.
C.
D.
probans means __.

preponderance of evidence
ultimate fact
evidentiary fact
sufficiency of evidence
Answer: C
8. It refers to family history or descent transmitted from one

generation to another.
A.
B.
C.
D.
inheritance
heritage
pedigree
culture
Answer: C
9. The authority of the court to take cognizance of the case in the

first instance.
A. Appellate Jurisdiction
B. General Jurisdiction
C. Original Jurisdiction
D. Exclusive Jurisdiction
d
Answer: C
10.A person designated by the court to assist destitute litigants.
A. Counsel de officio a
B. Attorney on record
C. Attorney at law
D. Special counsel
11. Which of the following is not covered by the Rules on Summary
Procedure?
A. Violation of rental laws
c
B. Violation of traffic laws
C. The penalty is more than six months of imprisonment
D. The penalty does not exceed six months imprisonment
Answer:
12. It refers to a territorial unit where the power of the court is to
147
be exercised.
A. jurisdiction
B. jurisprudence
C. venue
c
D. bench
Answer: C
13.The Anti-Bouncing Check Law.
A. RA 6425
B. RA 8353
C. BP.22 c
D. RA 6975
14. The taking of another persons personal property, with intent to
gain, by means of force and intimidation.
A. qualified theft
B. robbery b
C. theft
D. malicious mischief
Answer: B
15. Felony committed when a person compels another by means of
force, violence or intimidation to do something against his will,
whether right or wrong.
A. grave threat
B. grave coercion b
C. direct assault
D. slander by deed
Answer: B
16. These are persons having no apparent means of subsistence but

have the physical ability to work and neglect to apply himself or
herself to lawful calling.
A. Pimps
B. prostitutes
C. gang members
D. vagrants
d
Answer: D
17. A medley of discordant voices, a mock serenade of discordant
noises designed to annoy and insult.
A. Tumultuous
B. charivari
b
C. sedition
D. scandal
Answer: B
18. The unauthorized act of a public officer who compels another
person to change his residence.
A. violation of domicile a
B. arbitrary detention
C. expulsion
D. direct assault
Answer: C
19. The deprivation of a private person of the liberty of another
person without legal grounds.
A. illegal detention
148
B.
C.
D.
arbitrary detention
forcible abduction
forcible detention
Answer: A
20. An offense committed by a married woman through carnal

knowledge with a man not her husband who knows her to be
married, although the marriage can be later declared void.
A. concubinage
B. bigamy
C. adultery
c
D. immorality
Answer: C
21. Age of
A.
B.
C.
D.
absolute irresponsibility in the commission of a crime.

15-18 years old
18-70 years old
9 years old and below c
between 9 and 15 years old
Answer: C
22. Those who, not being principals cooperate in the execution of

the offense by previous or simultaneous acts.
A. Accomplices a
B. Suspects
C. principal actors
D. accessories
Answer: A
23. The loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to execute

the final sentence after the lapse of a certaintime fixed by law.
A. prescription of crime
B. prescription of prosecution
C. prescription of judgement
D. prescription of penalty
d
Answer: D
24. A kind of executive clemency whereby the execution of penalty
is suspended.
A. Pardon
d
B. commutation
C. amnesty
D. reprieve
Answer: D
25. Infractions of mere rules of convenience designed to secure a
more orderly regulation of the affairs of the society.
A. mala prohibita a
B. mala in se
C. private crimes
D. public crimes
Answer: A
26. Felony committed by a public officer who agrees to commit an
act in consideration of a gift and this act is connected with the
discharge of his public duties.
A. qualified bribery
B. direct bribery
b
149
C.
D.
estafa
indirect bribery
C.
D.
omission
act
Answer: C
27. The willful and corrupt assertion of falsehood under oath of

affirmation, administered by authority of law on a material matter.
A. libel
B. falsification
C. perjury
c
D. slander
Answer: C
28. Deliberate planning of act before execution.
A. Treachery
B. evident premeditation b
C. ignominy
D. cruelty
Answer: B
29. Whenever more than 3 armed malefactors shall have acted
together in the commission of a crime.
A. gang
B. conspiracy
C. band
c
D. piracy
Answer: C
30. The failure to perform a positive duty which one is bound to.
A. Negligence
B. imprudence
31. Ways and means are employed for the purpose of trapping and
capturing the law breaker in the execution of his criminal plan.
A. Misfeasance
B. entrapment
C. inducement
D. instigation
Answer: B
32. Those where the act committed is a crime but for reasons of
public policy and sentiment there is no penalty imposed.
A. impossible crimes
B. aggravating circumstances
C. absolutory causes
D. Complex Crimes
Answer: C
33. One of the following is an alternative circumstance.
A. Insanity
B. intoxication
C. passion or obfuscation
D. evident premeditation
Answer: B
34. If the accused refuse to plead, or make conditional plea of guilty,
what shall be entered for him?
150
A.
B.
C.
D.
a plea of not guilty

a plea of guilty
a plea of mercy
a plea of surrender
C.
D.
bail
warrant
Answer: C
Answer: A
35. At what time may the accused move to quash the complaint or
information?
A. at any time before his arrest
B. only after entering his plea
C. any time before entering his plea
D. Monday morning
Answer: C
36. The process whereby the accused and the prosecutor in a
criminal case work out a mutually satisfactory
disposition on the case subject to court approval.
A. Arraignment
B. plea bargaining
C. preliminary investigation
D. trial
Answer: B
37. The security given for the release of a person in custody,
furnished by him or a bondsman, conditioned upon his
appearance before any court as required under the conditions
specified by law.
A. Subpoena
B. recognizance
38. The examination before a competent tribunal, according to the

laws of the land, of the acts in issue in a case, for the purpose
of determining such issue.
A. Trial
B. Arraignment
C. pre-trial
D. judgment
Answer: A
39. The adjudication by the court that the accused is guilty or is not
guilty of the offense charged, and the imposition of the proper
penalty and
A. trial
B. Pre-trial
C. Arraignment
D. Judgment
Answer: D
40. It is an inquiry or proceeding for the purpose of determining
whether there is sufficient ground to engender a well founded
belief that an offense has been committed and the offender is
probably guilty thereof and should be held for trial.
A. pre-trial
B. arraignment
C. preliminary investigation
D. plea bargaining
151
Answer: C
41. It is evidence of the same kind and to the same state of facts.
A. secondary evidence
B. prima facie evidence
C. corroborative evidence
D. best evidence
Answer: C
42. It is that which, standing alone, unexplained or uncontradicted is
sufficient to maintain the proposition affirmed.
A. secondary evidence
B. prima facie evidence
C. corroborative evidence
D. best evidence
Answer: B
43. A form of evidence supplied by written instruments or derived
from conventional symbols, such as letters, by
which ideas are represented on material substances.
A. documentary evidence
B. testimonial evidence
C. material evidence
D. real evidence
Answer: A
44. When the witness states that he did not see or know the
occurrence of a fact.
A. positive evidence
B.
C.
D.
corroborative evidence
secondary evidence
negative evidence
Answer: D
45. Personal property that can be subjects for search and seizure.
A. used or intended to be used as means in committing an
offense
B. stolen or embezzled and other proceeds or fruits of the
offense
C. subject of the offense
D. all of the above
Answer: D
46. All persons who can perceive and perceiving, can make known
their perception to others.
A. Suspects
B. witnesses
C. victims
D. informers
Answer: B
47. The unlawful destruction or the bringing forth prematurely, of
human fetus before the natural time of birth which results in
death.
A. abortion
B. infanticide
C. murder
D. parricide
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Answer: A
48. Felony committed when a person is killed or wounded during the
confusion attendant to a quarrel among several persons not
organized into groups and the parties responsible cannot be
ascertained.
A. alarm and scandal
B. mysterious homicide
C. death under exceptional circumstances
D. tumultuous affray
Answer: D
49. A question which arises in a case the resolution of which is the
logical antecedent of the issue involved in said case and the
cognizance of which pertains to another tribunal.
A. legal question
B. juridical question
C. prejudicial question
D. judicial question
Answer: C
50. The RPC was based on the
A. Spanish penal code
B. English penal code
C. American penal code
D. Japanese penal code
Answer: A
51. An act or omission which is a result of a misapprehension of facts
that is
A.
B.
C.
D.
voluntary but not intentional.

impossible crime
mistake of facts
accidental crime
complex crime
Answer: B
52. Infanticide is committed by killing a child not more than.

A. 36 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 48 hours
D. 72 hours
Answer: D
53. Ignorance of the law excuses no one from compliance therewith.
A. ignorantia legis non excusat
B. parens patriae
C. res ipsa loquitur
D. dura lex sed lex
Answer: A
54. An act which would be an offense against persons or property if
it was not for the inherent impossibility of its accomplishment.
A. compound crime
B. impossible crime
C. complex crime
D. accidental crime
Answer: B
55. The law which reimposed the death penalty.
153
A.
B.
C.
D.
RA 5425
RA 8553
RA 7659
RA 8551
Answer: C
56. One who is deprived completely of reason or discernment and
freedom of the will at the time of the commission of the crime.
A. discernment
B. insanity
C. epilepsy
D. imbecility
Answer: D
57. The quality by which an act may be subscribed to a person as its
owner or author
A. responsibility
B. duty
C. guilt
D. imputability
Answer: D
58. Something that happen outside the sway of our will, and
although it comes about through some acts of our will,
lies beyond the bound s of humanly foreseeable consequences.
A. fortuitous event
B. fate
C. accident
D. destiny
Answer: C
59. A sworn written statement charging a person with an

offense,subscribed by the offended party, any peace
officer or other public officer charged with the enforcement of
the law violated.
A. subpoena
B. information
C. complaint
D. writ
Answer: C
60. This right of the accused is founded on the principle of justice
and is intended not to protect the guilty but to prevent as far as
human agencies can the conviction of an innocent person.
A. right to due process of law
B. presumption of innocence
C. right to remain silent
D. right against self-incrimination
Answer: B
61. Known in other countries as the body of principles,
practices,usages and rules of action which are not
recognized in our country.
A. penal laws
B. special laws
C. common laws
D. statutory laws
Answer: C
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62. Circumstances wherein there is an absence in the agent of the

crime any of all the conditions that would make
an act voluntary and hence, though there is no criminal liability
there is civil liability.
A. Exempting
B. alternative
C. justifying
D. aggravating
Answer: A
63. Circumstances wherein the acts of the person are in accordance
with the law, and hence, he incurs no criminal and civil liability.
A. exempting
B. alternative
C. justifying
D. aggravating
Answer: C
64. When the offender enjoys and delights in making his victim
suffers slowly and gradually, causing him unnecessary physical
pain in the consummation of the criminal act.
A. Ignominy
B. cruelty
C. treachery
D. masochism
Answer: B
65. One, who at the time of his trial for one crime shall have been
previously convicted by final judgment of another crime embraced
in the
A.
B.
C.
D.
same title of the Revised Penal Code.

Recidivism
habitual delinquency
reiteracion
quasi-recidivism
Answer: A
66. Alevosia means

A. Craft
B. treachery
C. evident premeditation
D. cruelty
Answer: B
67. The law hears before it condemns, proceeds upon inquiry and
render judgment after a fair trial.
A. ex post facto law
B. equal protection of the law
C. rule of law
D. due process of law
Answer: D
68. A person if within a period of 10 years from the date of his
release or last conviction of the crime of serious or less serious
physical injuries, robbery, theft, estafa or falsification, he is
found guilty of any of the said crimes a third time or oftener.
A. Recidivist
B. quasi-recidivist
C. habitual delinquent
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D.
hardened criminal
Answer: C
69. A kind
A.
B.
C.
D.
of evidence which cannot be rebutted or overcome.

Primary
Best
Secondary
Conclusive
Answer: D
70. A kind
A.
B.
C.
D.
of evidence which cannot be rebutted or overcome.

Primary
Best
Secondary
Conclusive
Answer: D
71. These questions suggest to the witness the answers to which an

examining party requires.
A. leading
B. misleading
C. stupid
D. hearsay
Answer: A
72. A method fixed by law for the apprehension and prosecution of
persons alleged to have committed a crime, and
or their punishment in case of conviction
A. Criminal Law
B.
C.
D.
Criminal Evidence
Criminal Procedure
Criminal Jurisprudence
Answer: C
73. The period of prescription of crimes punishable by death.

A. 20 years
B. 15 years
C. 10 years
D. 40 years
Answer: A
74. Persons who take direct part in the execution of a crime.
A. Accomplices
B. Accessories
C. Instigators
D. Principals
Answer: D
75. A crime against honor which is committed by performing any act
which casts dishonor, discredit, or contempt upon another
person.
A. libel
B. slander by deed
C. incriminating innocent person
D. intriguing against honor
Answer: B
76. The improper performance of some act which might lawfully be
156
done.
A.
B.
C.
D.
C.
D.
misfeasance
malfeasance
nonfeasance
dereliction
Answer: B
77. A sworn statement in writing, made upon oath before an

authorized magistrate or officer.
A. subpoena
B. writ
C. warrant
D. affidavit
Answer: D
78. Any other name which a person publicly applies to himself
without authority of law.
A. alias
B. common name
C. fictitious name
D. screen name
Answer: C
79. A special aggravating circumstance where a person, after having
been convicted by final judgment, shall commit a new felony
before beginning to serve such sentence, or while serving
the same.
A. quasi-recidivism
B. recidivism
80. Which
A.
B.
C.
D.
reiteracion
charivari
Answer: A
of the following is not a person in authority?
Municipal mayor
Private School Teacher
Police Officer
Municipal Councilor
Answer: C
81. In its general sense, it is the raising of commotions or

disturbances in the State.
A. Sedition
B. Rebellion
C. Treason
D. Coup d etat
Answer: A
82. The length of validity of a search warrant from its date.
A. 30 days
B. 15 days
C. 10 days
D. 60 days
Answer: C
83. The detention of a person without legal grounds by a public
officer or employee.
A. illegal detention
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B.
C.
D.
arbitrary detention
compulsory detention
unauthorized detention
Answer: B
A.
B.
C.
D.
Estafa
Murder
Rebellion
Rape
Answer: C
84. A breach of allegiance to a government, committed by a person

who owes allegiance to it.
A. treason
B. espionage
C. rebellion
D. coup d etat
Answer: A
85. A building or structure, exclusively used for rest and comfort.
A. sanctuary
B. prison
C. jail
D. dwelling
Answer: D
88. It means that the resulting injury is greater than that which is
intended.
A. Aberratio ictus
B. Error in personae
C. Dura Lex Sed lex
D. Praeter Intentionem
Answer: D
89. It means mistake in the blow.
A. Aberratio Ictus
B. Error in Personae
C. Dura lex sed lex
D. Praeter Intentionem
Answer: A
86. The mental capacity to understand the difference between right

and wrong.
A. treachery
B. premeditation
C. recidivism
D. discernment
Answer: D
87. Conspiracy to commit this felony is punishable under the law.
90. A stage of execution when all the elements necessary for its
execution and accomplishment are present.
A. Attempted
B. Frustrated
C. Consummated
D. Accomplished
answer:
C
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91. An act or omission which is the result of a misapprehension of

facts that is voluntary but not intentional.
A. Absolutory Cause
B. Mistake of facts
C. Conspiracy
D. Felony
Answer: B
92. Crimes that have three stages of execution.
A. Material
B. Formal
C. Seasonal
D. Continuing
Answer: A
95. Acts and omissions punishable by special penal laws.

A. Offenses
B. Misdemeanors
C. Felonies
D. Ordinances
Answer:
A
96. A character of Criminal Law, making it binding upon all persons
who live or sojourn in the Philippines.
A. General
B. Territorial
C. Prospective
D. Retroactive
Answer: A
93. Felonies where the acts or omissions of the offender are

malicious.
A. Culpable
B. Intentional
C. Deliberate
D. Inculpable
Answer: B
97. A legislative act which inflicts punishment without judicial trial.

A. Bill of Attainder
B. Bill of Rights
C. Ex Post Facto Law
D. Penal Law
Answer: A
94. It indicates deficiency of perception.

A. Negligence
B. Diligence
C. Imprudence
D. Inference
Answer: A
98. The taking of a person into custody in order that he may be

bound to answer for the commission of an offense.
A. Search
B. Seizure
C. Arrest
D. Detention
159
Answer: C
99. Pedro
A.
B.
C.
D.
stole the cow of Juan. What was the crime committed?

Robbery
Farm Theft
Qualified Theft
Simple Theft
Answer: C
100.Pedro, a 19 year old man had sexual intercourse with her 11 year
old girlfriend without threat, force or intimidation. What was
the crime committed?
A. Child rape
B. Qualified Rape
C. Statutory Rape
D. None of these
Answer: C
Sociology of Crimes Review Questions

1. An old woman approached PO3 Gomez asking the police officer to
run after an unidentified young man who allegedly snatched her
Gomez declined claiming that the man was
already a block away from them and besides the police officer
160
mob
alleged that he is rushing home for an urgent matter. The

officers refusal to help the old woman is an example of
A. nonfeasance
B. malfeasance
C. misfeasance
D. misconduct
Answer: A
2. When the accused is found not guilty of the charges presented
before the court, he is
A. convicted
B. suspended
C. acquitted
D. absuelto
Answer: C
3. Guilty
A.
B.
C.
D.
by act means
Actus Reus
Actus Numbus
Giltus reus
Rea mensa
Answer: A
4. If physiological or psychological dependence on some agent are

obviously detected from a person, he is in the state of
A. dependency or addiction
B. comatose
C. insanity
D. metamorphosis
Answer: A
5. Which of the following is described as the threatening behaviors,
either verbal or physical, directed at others
A. Abnormality
B. Dependency
C. Aggression
D. Violence
Answer: C
6. What aggressive behavior includes repeated noncompliance to a
direct command, verbal abuse-name calling, verbal abuse-threat,
and physical abuse?
A. Interactive
B. Isolated
C. Covert
D. Overt
Answer: A
7. What aggressive behavior includes cursing/swearing, intentional
destruction of property, and self destructive behaviors?
A. Isolated
B. Covert
C. Interactive
D . Overt
Answer: A
8. What aggressive behavior includes the emotional and cognitive
components of aggression such as anger and hostility?
161
A.
B.
C.
D.
Covert
Dynamic
Interactive
Directive
Answer: A
9. When there is an apparent, intentional, and physically aggressive

act irrespective of severity against another person, there is
A. Battering
B. Assault
C. Chaos
D. Crisis
Answer: B
10.What kind of assault committed when it includes kicking,
punching,deliberately throwing an object and drawing a lethal
weapon against someone?
A. Mental
B. Physical
C. Sexual
D. Verbal
Answer: B
11.Allege
A.
B.
C.
D.
means
Assert or make an accusation
remove from its position
direct an act from doing
intentional mutilation
Answer: A
12.What do you call measures other than judicial proceedings used

to deal with a young person alleged to have committed an
offense?
A. Rehabilitation
B. Alternative measures
C. Individual response against bad behavior
D. Extra judicial proceedings
Answer: B
13.What do we call the psychological, emotional and behavioral
reactions and deficits of women victims and their inability to
respond effectively to repeated physical and psychological
violence?
A. Woman Menopausal Syndrome
B. Battered Woman Syndrome
C. Violence against women
D. M'Naghten Rule
Answer: B
14.What is the theory that tumors and seizures have been
associated with aggression and violent behavior?
A. Brain lesion theory
B. Conspiracy theory
C. Neurotic Mind theory
D. Dementia praecox
Answer: A
15.A term used to describe a clinical condition in young children who
have received non-accidental, inexcusable violence or injury,
ranging from minimal to severe or fatal trauma, at the hand of
an adult in a position of trust, generally a parent or guardian
A. Battered Child Syndrome
162
B.
C.
D.
Incapacitated Child Syndrome

Abuse Trauma Syndrome
None of these
Answer: A
16.When we say capital offense, it means:

A. a very serious crime, for which the death penalty is
imposed
B. the highest penalty for selected offenses
C. total punishment of offender by incarceration
D. all of the above
Answer: A
17.At trial, the authenticity of an item as evidence is crucial,
whether it be a physical object like a bullet, a medical record or a
photograph. The item cannot be offered in court without a
testimonial sponsor who can vouch for its unaltered authenticity
to the court and the jury. To validate an items unaltered
authenticity, a record must be kept of each and every time the
item changes hands. This refers to
A. Records management
B. Presentation of evidence in court
C. Chain of custody
D. Laboratory analysis of items
Answer: A
18.The negligent treatment or maltreatment of a child by a parent or
caretaker under circumstances indicating harm or threatened
harm to the child's health or welfare is known as
A. Child Abuse
B. Child Neglect
C. Child Dilemma
D.
Child in conflict with the law
Answer: C
19.The exchange of sexual favors for money or other material goods

without any emotional involvement involving a person under the
age of 18 years is called
A. Child prostitution
B. Child trafficking
C. Both A and B are correct
D. Both A and B are wrong
Answer: A
20.An abuse that is kept secret for a purpose, concealed, or
underhanded is called
A. Clandestine abuse
B. Clinical abuse
C. Overt abuse
D. Abuse of authority
Answer: A
21.A false belief based on an incorrect inference about external
reality and firmly sustained despite clear evidence to the
contrary, and which is not related to cultural or religious beliefs
A. False alarm
B. Wrong perception
C. Incoherence
D. Delusion
Answer: D
22.Which of the following is an act committed by a juvenile for
which an adult could be prosecuted in a criminal court?
A. Adult offense
B. Status offense
163
C.
D.
Delinquency offense
Children in conflict with the law
Answer: C
23.Anything that has been used, left, removed, altered or

contaminated during the commission of a crime by either the
suspect or victim is part of
A. Evidence
B. Modus operandi
C. Recidivism
D. Preservation of crime scene
Answer: A
24.Generally, putting to death a person, as a legal penalty, is called
A. Infliction
B. Execution
C. Murder
D. Capital punishment
Answer: B
25.Among the following, what is the form of abuse where the use of
the victim is for selfish purposes and or financial gain?
A. Verbal Abuse
B. Exploitation
C. Racketeering
D. Khotongism
Answer: C
26.The most common legal grounds for termination of parental rights,
also a form of child abuse in most states. Sporadic visits, a few
phone calls, or birthday cards are not sufficient to maintain
parental rights.
A. Exploitation
B.
C.
D.
Abuse
Neglect
Abandonment
Answer: D
27.Which of the following is defined as acts or omissions by a legal

caretaker that encompasses a broad range of acts, and usually
requires proof of intent.
A. Abuse
B. Exploitation
C. Neglect
D. Abandonment
Answer: A
28.The phase of a delinquency hearing similar to a "trial" in adult
criminal court,except that juveniles have no right to a jury trial, a
public trial, or bail.
A. Acquittal
B. Conviction
C. Adjudication
D. Entertainment
Answer: C
29.Any of the processes involving enforcement of care, custody, or
support orders by an executive agency rather than by courts or
judges.
A. Criminal procedure
B. Administrative procedure
C. Summary procedure
D. Trial
Answer: B
30.A legal relationship between two people not biologically related,
164
usually terminating the rights of biological parents, and usually

with a trial "live-in" period. Once it is finalized, the records are
sealed and only the most compelling interests will enable
disclosure of documents.
A. Adoption
B. Foster parenting
C. Common law relationship
D. Brotherhood
Answer: A
31.What is the legal doctrine establishing court as determiner of best
environment for raising child which is an alternative to the Parens
Patriae Doctrine?
A. Rights of Society
B. Miranda Doctrine
C. Best interest of the Child Rule
D. Parental Obligation
Answer: C
32.What was the case that allowed second prosecution in adult
court for conviction in juvenile court which was based on idea
that first conviction was a "civil" matter?
A. Case Law
B. Breed v. Jones
C. Miranda v. Arizona
D. Matt v. Jeff
Answer: B
33.The Law established by the history of judicial decisions in cases
decided by judges, as opposed to common law which is
developed from the history of judicial decisions and social
customs.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Case Law
Breed v. Jones
Miranda v. Arizona
Matt v. Jeff
Answer: A
34.The filing of legal papers by a child welfare agency when its

investigation has turned up evidence of child abuse. This is a
civil,rather than criminal, charge designed to take preventive
action, like appointment of a guardian for at-risk children before
abuse occurs.
A. Child prosecution
B. Child protection action
C. Parens Patriae
D. Preliminary investigation
Answer: B
35.The act of being responsible for enforcing child support
obligations is known as
A. Childs care
B. Parental Guidance
C. Child at risk
D. Child support
Answer: D
36.A court order for placement in a secure facility, separate from
adults, for the rehabilitation of a juvenile delinquent.
A. Summon
B. Subpoena
C. Custodial confinement
D. Rehabilitation order
Answer: C
165
37.___ is anyone under the care of someone else. A child ceases to

be a dependent when they reach the age of emancipation.
A. Delinquent
B. Dependent
C. Independent
D. Recognizance
Answer: B
38.It a phase of delinquency proceeding similar to "sentencing"
phase of adult trial. The judge must consider alternative,
innovative, and individualized sentences rather than imposing
standard sentences.
A. Preliminary investigation
B. Judgment
C. Disposition
D. Probationary period
Answer: C
C.
D.
Parens Patriae
Diversion
Answer: B
41.What is the legal doctrine preventing unemancipated children

from suing their parents?
A. Parens Patriae Doctrine
B. Equal Protection
C. Family Immunity Doctrine
D. Poisonous Tree Doctrine
Answer: C
42.What is the legal doctrine holding parents liable for injuries caused
by a child's negligent driving or other actions?
A. Family Purpose Doctrine
B. Family Immunity Doctrine
C. Parens Patriae Doctrine
Answer: A
39.The independence of a minor from his or her parents before

reaching age of majority is known as
A. Enlightenment
B. Recognizance
C. Emancipation
D. Freedom from parental obligation
Answer: C
43.Guardian ad litem means:

A. For the Proceeding"
B. Protection of child by the law
C. Guardians of the little children
D. Legal authority
Answer: A
40.A clause requiring government to treat similarly situated people

the same or have good reason for treating them differently.
Compelling reasons are considered to exist for treating children
differently.
A. Bill of Rights
B. Equal Protection
44.A court order giving an individual or organization legal authority

over a child. A guardian of the person is usually an individual and
the child is called a ward. A guardian of the estate is usually an
organization, like a bank, which manages the property and assets
of a child's inheritance. Guardians are usually compensated for
their services.
166
A.
B.
C.
D.
Guardianship
Order of Authority
In Loco Parentis
Parens Patriae
Answer: A
45.Teachers, administrators, and babysitters who are viewed as

having some temporary parental rights & obligations are
considered
A. Guardianship
B. Order of Authority
C. In Loco Parentis
D. Parens Patriae
Answer: C
46.What is the legal doctrine establishing "parental" role of state
over welfare of its citizens, especially its children?
A. Guardianship
B. Order of Authority
C. In Loco Parentis
D. Parens Patriae
Answer: D
47.The emergency, temporary custody by a child welfare agency,
police agency, or hospital for reasons of immanent danger to the
child is called
A. Preventive detention
B. Diversion
C. Witness protection program
D. Protective custody
Answer: D
48.What is the legal doctrine granting custody to the parent whom
the child feels the greatest emotional attachment to?

A. Psychological Parent
B. Maternity
C. Paternity
D. Parental Selection
Answer: A
49.A disposition requiring a defendant to pay damages to a victim.
The law prohibits making it a condition of receiving probation.
Poor families cannot be deprived of probation simply because
they are too poor to afford it.
A. Bond
B. Surety
C. Restitution
D. Protection money
Answer: C
50.An activity illegal when engaged in by a minor, but not when done
by an adult. Examples include truancy, curfew, running away, or
habitually disobeying parents.
A. Adult Offenses
B. Minor Offenses
C. Status Offenses
D. Stubbornness
Answer: C
51.A spouse of a biological parent who has no legal rights or duties
to the child other than those which have been voluntarily
accepted.
A. Maternity
B. Paternity
C. Stepparent
167
D.
Foster parent
Answer: C
52.A parent who provided an egg, sperm, or uterus with an intent of

giving the child up for adoption to specific parties.
A. None of these
B. Stepparent
C. Foster Parent
D. Surrogate Parent
Answer: D
53.What is the legal doctrine that unless the mother is "unfit", very
young children should be placed in custody with their mother
following a divorce?
A. Tender Years Doctrine
B. Psychological Parent Doctrine
C. Unwed Mothers Doctrine
D. Illegitimacy
Answer: A
54.What is declared of a temporary or permanent termination of
parental rights in the best interest of the child usually for
reasons of abandonment, abuse, or neglect, but also including
mental illness, addiction, or criminal record?
A. Unfit Parent
B. Psychological Incapacitation
C. Mental Disturbance
D. Child at risk
Answer: B
55.It refers to the security given for the release of the person in
custody of the law, furnished by him/her or a bondsman, to
guarantee his/her appearance before any court.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Surety
Money order
Conditions
None of these
Answer: D
56.It refers to the totality of the circumstances and conditions most

congenial to the survival, protection and feelings of security of
the child and most encouraging to the childs physical,
psychological and emotional development.
A. Best interest of the child
B. Rights
C. Obligations
D. Childs role
Answer: A
57.Children who are vulnerable to and at the risk of committing
criminal offenses because of personal, family and social
circumstances are considered
A. Abused Children
B. Neglected Children
C. Children in conflict with the law
D. Children at risk
Answer: D
58.A child who is alleged as, accused of, or adjudged as, having
committed an offense under Philippine laws is considered
A. Child at risk
B. Child in conflict with the law
C. Minor offense
D. Juvenile offender
Answer: B
168
59.The apprehension or taking into custody of a child in conflict with

the law by law enforcement officers or private citizens is termed
as:
A. Arrest
B. Initial contact
C. Child custody
D. All of the above
Answer: B
60.The series of activities designed to address issues that caused
the child to commit an offense. It may take the form of an
individualized treatment program, which may include counseling,
skills training, education, and other activities that will enhance
his/her psychological, emotional and psycho-social well-being is
called
A. reformation guide
B. intervention
C. diversion
D. welfare procedures
Answer: B
61.An undertaking in lieu of a bond assumed by a parent or
custodian who shall be responsible for the appearance in court of
the child in conflict with the law, when required is known as
A. Status offense
B. None of these
C. Recognizance
D. Bail
Answer: C
62.What is the type of offense committed where there is no private
offended party involved?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Status offense
Victimless crime
Minor crime
None of these
Answer: B
63.What is the doctrine that requires a process of resolving conflicts

with the maximum involvement of the victim, the offender and
the community?
A. Proactive justice
B. Restorative justice
C. Reactive justice
D. All of the above
Answer: B
64.One of the following is an act constituting exploitation and sex
abuse among children in exchange of any form of incentive.
A. Child trafficking
B. Child abuse
C. Child prostitution
D. Child racketeering
Answer: C
65.Centuries ago, criminal behavior was believed to be the result of
evil spirits and demons.Guilt and innocence were established by a
variety of procedures that presumably called forth the
supernatural allies of the accused. The accused were innocent if
they could survive an ordeal, they were guilty if they died at the
stake or if omens were associated with them. In the 18th
century,this spiritual determination began to give way to:
A. The belief that there is no such thing as bad spirits
B. The belief that humans are rational creatures with free
169
C.
D.
will,who seek happiness and pleasure and avoid pain

The belief that man is a demon and devil
The belief that man is evolved from the animal ape.
Answer: B
66.Among the following classical thoughts in Criminology is not

correct:
A. The Classical school of Criminology is spearheaded by
Bentham and Beccaria.
B. The Classical School of Criminology is an advocate of
punishment as a deterrent to crime.
C. The Classical School of Criminology argues that criminals
were primitive creatures, incapable of living normally in
society.
D. The Classical School of Criminology also argued that
nature has placed mankind under the governance of two
sovereign masters, pain and pleasure.
Answer: C
67.What school of thought in Criminology challenges the proposition
that man has absolute free will to choose between good and evil
and states that it is not absolute as presumed to be because
free will can be diminished by pathology, mental disorders and
other conditions that may instigate personal responsibility?
A. Neo-classical School of Criminology
B. Positivism
C. Hedonistic Calculus
D. Radical Criminology
Answer: A
68.The Classical School of thoughts in Criminology is based on the

principle of free will. The positivist thoughts on the other hand is
focused on the principle of:
A. Darwinism
B. Determinism
C. Cognitive Functioning
D. Conceptual Thinking
Answer: B
69.The Differential Association Theory provides a good illustration of
a social learning approach perspective in Criminology Criminal
behavior according to this theory is:
A. A result of an emotional disturbance
B. An inmate quality of goodness or badness
C. Learned and not inherited
D. An excess of wisdom
Answer: C
70.What perspective in Criminology probes the situational or
environmental action and examines the underlying conditions with
in the environment that may encourage criminal behavior?
A. Psychiatric Criminology
B. Psychological Criminology
C. Sociological Criminology
D. Criminal Anthropology
Answer: C
71.In the past, psychologist assumed that they could best
understand human behavior by searching for a stable, consistent
personality dispositions or traits that exert orderly generalized
effects on behavior. Which among the following theory on
170
Criminal Behavior is not consistent with the previous statement?

A.Psychoanalytical Theory
B.Strain Theory
C.Behavioral descriptions
D.Psychological Determination
Answer: B
72.Based on the Lombrosos works, he classified criminals as: the
born criminal, the habitual, the passionate and the criminoloid.
Which of the following statements describe a criminoloid?
A. the morally insane and hysteric criminal
B. the impulsive and cruel criminal
C. the weak natures susceptible to bad examples
D. the primitive and atavist
Answer: C
73.Some criminology theorists have linked physical characteristics
with personality. Among these theories is William Sheldons
Somatotyping theory. He classified body physique into three
categories as the endomorphic, the mesomorphic and the
ectomorphic body. Of the following statements, which
appropriately describes the mesomorphic?
A. the twin and fragile with withdrawn behavior
B. the muscular and hard physique
C. the attractive and beautifully shaped
D. the fat and soft body type
Answer: B
74.According to Hans Eyesenck, in his study about the behavioral
character and incidence to crime, the typical extravert is one
who is:
A. sociable, impulsive, optimistic and has high needs for
B.
C.
D.
excitement
reserved, quiet and cautious
undersized, short and untidy
over sized, heavy and firm
Answer: A
75.To explain human behavior, social learning theorists place great

emphasis on cognitive variables. Social learning reflects the
theorys strong assumption that we learn primarily by observing
and listening to people around usA. the social environment
B. the stimulus that elicit response
C. the mental state and brain-mediation processes.
D. the reinforcements for behavior
Answer: A
76.In the study of juvenile delinquency, which of the following
projects paved the way for a reassessment of existing
treatment and prevention programs for delinquents?
A. Chicago Area Project of 1930
B. Illinois Legislature
C. Boston Child Guidance Clinic
D. Presidents Commission on Law Enforcement in the
U.S.
Answer: A
77.One family background predictors in juvenile delinquency is
broken home. The term broken home is ambiguous but can be
characterized by:
A. Inadequate type of family structure
B. Anti-social type of family structure
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C.
D.
Discordant or disturbed family structure

Disrupted or incomplete family structure Answer: D
78.Parental discipline appears relation to delinquency. Harsh

discipline in the home may result in more delinquencies than
consistent and reasoning forms of discipline. Aside from this,
screaming at the child, calling the child insulting names,
excessive criticizing or generally ignoring the child is also
contributory to delinquency. These actions simply refers to:
A. Physical Abuse
B. Emotional abuse
C. Unfair parent
D. Parental neglect
Answer: B
79.When a person is seen to show indiscriminate giggling or crying,
emotional flatness, the voice is monotonous, the face immobile
and expressionless and manifest highly bizarre and add behavior
then appropriately he is:
A. suffering from neurotic behavior
B. suffering from psychopathic behavior
C. suffering from schizophrenia or psychotic behavior
D. suffering from sexual dysfunctions Answer: C
80.It is a popular notion that the brutal, violent and apparently
senseless crime is usually committed by someone who is mentally
ill or sick. Or if not sick, then the person is an animal. The kind of
alternate explanation is an influence of the:
A. Positivist theory of Criminology
B. Classical theory of Criminology
C.
D.
Neoclassical theory of Criminology

Differential Association theory of Criminology Answer: A
81.Which of the following is not a symptom of dyssocial behavior?

A. Failure to conform to social norms.
B. Consistent irresponsibility, as reflected in a poor work
history
C. Lack of guilt for wrongdoings.
D. Episode of schizophrenia like illogical thinking Answer: D
82.A Scottish woodcutter was accused of killing a man he believed
to be Prime Minister for thought that he was persecuted by the
Tories and their leader, Robert Peel, however turned out to be
another person. The court believed he was so mentally deranged
that it would be inhuman to convict him since it was clear he
was not in control of his faculties.This case became known as:
A. the Mnaghten Rule
B. the Durham Rule
C. the Brawner Rule
D. the Irrational Mind Rule
Answer: A
83.One day we maybe cool and withdrawn and the next day, warm
and sociable. This condition may fall into the disorder known as:
A. Bipolar disorder
B. Schizophrenia
C. Psychopathic behavior
D. Amnesia
Answer: A
84.A bank robber who kills some individual with in the bank, flees
172
with hostages, and kills a number of people while in flight diving a

chase would be an example of:
A. Serial Murder
B. Spree Murder
C. Mass Murder
D. Multiple Murder
Answer: A
85.Pedro engaged in a multiple means of torture, using psychological
torment combined with physical methods to lighten his sexual
arousal is suffering from:
A. Sexual Pyromania
B. Sexual Sadism
C. Sexual Torture
D. Masochism
Answer: B
86.There are many pathways to delinquency and a variety of family
circumstances contribute to negative behavior in children. Which
of the following developmental pathways to delinquency begins
with stubborn behavior, then defiant behavior, and developing
later into avoidance of authority figures like truancy, running
away, staying out late, etc.?
A. Authority conflict pathways
B. Covert pathway
C. Overt pathway
D. None of these
Answer: A
87.Which of the following refers to juveniles who have doli incapax?
A. Children aging from 7 to 12 years
B. Children above 9 that below 15 years old
C.
D.
Children at puberty age

Children in conflict with the law
Answer: B
88.Recent research and legal literature suggest that a useful away

of classifying juvenile crime is to distinguish between serious and
non-serious acts and between serious and non-serious offenders.
Among the following, which is not considered a serious juvenile
act?
A. Forcible sexual intercourse
B. Larceny
C. Homicide
D. Vagrancy
Answer: D
89.The best PCR a police officer can do to the community is
A. harass the people
B. perform his job well
C. dress well
D. always present in the office
Answer: B
90.Which of the following is the basic political unit of the Filipino
nation that implements the policies of the national and local
government?
A. family
B. society
C. community
D. barangay
Answer: A
91.In crisis management, the teams under the support unit are under
the control of the ground commander. Which is responsible for
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the collection and processing of all information needed by the on

scene commander?
A. Security element
B. Support unit
C. Negotiation unit
D. Intelligence team
Answer: D
92.What is known to be the oldest but commonly used terrorist
tactic where target are often police, military officials or political
features?
A. Hijacking
B. Assassination
C. Ambush
D. Kidnap for Ransom
Answer: B
93.The one who makes complete estimate of the crisis situation and
plans his courses of actions upon arrival at the incident area
while negotiation is in progress is the
A. Chief Negotiator
B. Tactical Commander
C. Fire fighting team
D. Support Unit Commander
Answer: B
94.A comprehensive plan which delineates responsibilities and
specific action to be taken when a bomb incident or bomb threat
occurs is called
A. Floor plan
B. Bomb threat plan
C. Drill
D.
Contingency plan
Answer: B
95.What do you call the phenomenon where a hostage begins to

identify his captor and give his sympathy to his own hostage
taker?
A. Holmshock syndrome
B. Traumatic syndrome
C. Withdrawal syndrome
D. none of these
Answer: D
96.Among the following, which is most contagious on human
emotion?
A. Fear
B. Panic
C. Worry
D. Dementia Praecox
Answer: A
97.In Stockholm syndrome, some of the causes why a hostage
becomes cooperative with the hostage taker is due to
A. selfishness
B. personal grudge
C. personal affection
D. personal interest
Answer: C
98.The stage of advance planning, organization and coordination
and control in response to an anticipated future crisis occurrence
is called
A. Proactive Crisis Management
B. Reactive Crisis Management
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C.
D.
Performance Stage
Reaction Phase
Answer: A
99.What stage is the performance of the crisis management plan

when a crisis situation occurs?
A. Pro-active Phase
B. Reactive Phase
C. Prediction
D. None of these
Answer: B
100.What model of insurgency does the New Peoples Army in the
Philippines is employing?
A. Communist Model
B. Socialist Model
C. Democratic Model
D. None of these
Answer: A
175
Crime Detection Review Questions

1. An extra judicial confession obtained from a suspect is admissible
in a court of law if it was made in the presence of a counsel
of his own choice and must be in
A. the presence of a fiscal
B. the presence of a police investigator
C. writing
D. front of a judge
2. Fiscals and Prosecutors are under the control and supervision
of the
A.National Bureau of Investigation
B. Department of the Interior and Local Government
C. Supreme Court
D.Department of Justice
C. Espionage
D. Undercover work
5.A type of surveillance in which extreme precautions and actions
are taken in not losing the subject.
A. loose tail
B. casing
C. pony tail
D. close tail
6.A type of shadowing employed when a general impression of the
subjects habits and associates is required.
A. loose tail
B. casing
C. pony tail
D. close tail
3.The questioning of a person in a formal and systematic way and is

most often used to question criminal suspects to determine their
probable guilt or innocence.
A. Inquiry
B. Interview
C. polygraph examination
D. interrogation
7.A surveillance activity for the purpose of waiting the anticipated

arrival of a suspect or observing his actions from a fixed location.
A. Casing
B. Tailing
C. Stake out
D. Espionage
4.A form of investigation in which the investigator assume a

different and unofficial identity.
A. Tailing
B. Casing
8.An examination of an individuals person, houses, or effects or a

building, or premises with the purpose of discovering contraband's
or personal properties connected in a crime.
A. Search
B. Raid
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C. Investigation
D. Seizure
9.A kind of evidence that tends to prove additional evidence of a
different character to the same point.
A. Corroborative evidence
B. Circumstantial evidence
C. Direct evidence
D. Real evidence
10.The process of bringing together in a logical manner all evidence
collected during the investigation and present it to the
prosecutor.
A. case preparation
B. order maintenance
C. crime prevention
D. public service
11.Ways and means are resorted for the purpose of trapping and
capturing the law breaker during the execution of a criminal act.
A. Instigation
B. Inducement
C. Buy bust operation
D. Entrapment
12.A special qualification for an undercover agent.
A. excellent built
B. excellent eyesight
C. excellent looks
D.
excellent memory
13.The discreet observation of places, persons and vehicles for the

purpose of obtaining information concerning the identities or
activities of suspects.
A. close observation
B. espionage
C. tailing
D. surveillance
14. The questioning of a person by law enforcement officers after
that person has been taken into custody.
A. preliminary investigation
B. interrogation
C. custodial investigation
D. cross examination
15.As a
A.
B.
C.
D.
general rule, a warrant of arrest can be served at

day time
night time
any day and at any time of the day or night
weekdays
16.Measures through which police seek to detect crimes, or

attempts to be present when they are committed, through the
use of the undercover agents, electronic devices for wiretapping
or bugging, and stakeouts.
A. preventive measures
B. countermeasures
177
C.
D.
pro-active measures
tape measures
17.A police activity directed toward the identification and

apprehension of alleged criminals and the accumulation,
preservation, and presentation of evidence regarding their
alleged crimes.
A. police patrol
B. police intelligence
C. Criminal procedure
D. Criminal investigation
18.An extension or continuation of the preliminary investigation.
A. initial investigation
B.custodial investigation
C.secondary investigation
D.follow-up investigation
19.To obtain admission and confession of guilt is the primary purpose
of
A. Interview
B. Surveillance
C. Investigation
D.Interrogation
20.Such facts and circumstances that would lead a reasonably
discreet and prudent man to believe that an offense has been
committed and that the object sought in connection with the
offense are in the place sought to be searched.
A. prima facie evidence

B. probable cause
C. prejudicial question
D.res ipsa loquitur
21.A search warrant shall be valid for _____ days from its date.
Thereafter, it shall be void.
A. 10
B. 15
C. 30
D. 45
22.It means that a specific crime was committed at a specified time,
date and place, and that the person named in his report
committed the crime.
A. corpus delicti
B. sufficiency of evidence
C. stare decisis
D. parens patriae
23.Police seek to prevent crime by being present in places where
crimes might be committed and by alerting citizens to refrain from
practices that make them or their property vulnerable.
A. opportunity denial
B. order maintenance
C. criminal investigation
D. police intelligence
24.A statement of the suspect directly acknowledging his guilt.
178
A.
B.
C.
D.
Admission
Confession
Deposition
Accusation
25.It may be a direct acknowledgement of the truth of the guilty

fact as charge or of some essential part of the commission of the
criminal act itself.
A. Admission
B. Confession
C. Deposition
D. Accusation
26.It may be a self-incriminatory statement by the subject falling
short of an acknowledgement of guilt.
A. Admission
B. Confession
C. Deposition
D. Accusation
27.The simplest type of interview which concerns with the gathering
of information regarding the personal circumstances of a
person who is the subject of investigation.
A. background interview
B. personal interview
C. intimate interview
D. pre-game interview
28.It means method of operation.
A.
B.
C.
D.
corpus delicti
parens patriae
stare decisis
modus operandi
29.It is one which induces the criminal to act and need not be
shown in order to obtain conviction.
A. Intent
B. Motive
C. Opportunity
D. Inducement
30.The three tools in criminal investigation, whereby their
application varies in proportion on their necessity to establish
the guilt of the accused in a criminal case.
A. information, interrogation, instrumentation
B. detection, apprehension, conviction
C. inquiry, observation, conclusion
D. magnifying glass, pencil, tape measure
31.The simple questioning of a person who is cooperating in the
investigation.
A. Interview
B. Inquiry
C. Interrogation
D. Instrumentation
32.It involves a number of persons who might have handled
evidence
between the time of the commission of the alleged
179
offense and the disposition of the case, should be kept to

a minimum.
A.chain of command
B.chain of custody
C.evidence tracking
D.tracing evidence
33.A kind of evidence which may link the suspect to the crime scene
or offense. Examples are fingerprints, impressions, blood etc.
A. physical evidence
B. associative evidence
C. tracing evidence
D. factual evidence
34.Articles and materials which are found in connection with an
investigation and which help in establishing the identity of the
perpetrator or the circumstances under which the crime was
committed or which in general, assist in the prosecution of the
criminal.
A. physical evidence
B. documentary evidence
C. tracing evidence
D. testimonial evidence
35.The following are different techniques in interrogation except
one:
A. sympathetic approach
B. emotional appeal
C. financial assistance
D. friendliness
36.This may be applicable to a crime scene which is approximately
circular or oval. The searchers gather at the center and proceed
outward along radii or spokes.
A. strip method
B. wheel method
C. spiral method
D. zone method
37.The area to be searched is divided into quadrants and each
searcher is assigned to one quadrant.
A. strip method
B. wheel method
C. spiral method
D. zone method
38.The searchers follow each other in the path of a crime scene
beginning in the outside and circling around a central point.
A. strip method
B. wheel method
C.spiral method
D.zone method
39.A kind of gathering information whereby a subject is being
followed.
A. Convoy
B. Caravan
C. Tailing
180
D.
Surveillance
40.Another term for tailing.

A.Impersonating
B.Backing
C.Supporting
D.Shadowing
41.A person who gives necessary information to the investigator.
He may give the information openly and even offer to be a
witness or he may inform the investigator surreptitiously and
request to remain anonymous.
A. Witness
B. Expert witness
C. Hostile witness
D. Informant
42.The use of an equipment or tool to listen and record discreetly
conversations of other people.
A. Bugging
B. Dubbing
C. Mimicking
D. Tapping
43.The questioning of persons not suspected of being involved in a
crime,but who knows about the crime or individuals involved in it.
A. Interrogation
B. rumor mongering
C. interview
D. inquiry
44.An objective of criminal investigation.
A. determine the motive
B. identify criminals
C. rehabilitate criminals
D. prevent crimes
45.A term used to describe a transition which occur in the

development of a fire, when, for example, most of all the
combustible surfaces within a room are heated above their
ignition temperature at the same time.
A. Intensity
B. Ignition
C. Flash over
D. Starter
46.A term of the start of the combustion, its detailed process of
a solid is very complicated, since the proportion of different
flammable vapors varies from one material to another and
contact with oxygen must take place before combustion can
begin.
A. Intensity
B. Ignition
C. Flash over
D. Starter
47.The term describes the transfer of heat through a gas or vacuum
181
in a similar way to that of light.

A. Ignition
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Conduction
48.The transfer of heat within a solid material from hotter to
cooler parts.
A. Ignition
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Conduction
B. run for your life

C. call an ambulance
D. raise the alarm
Answer: D
52.The main product of the combustion of carbon. It is not

poisonous but is an asphyxia which lowers the proportion of
oxygen available for breathing.
A. carbon oxide
B. carbon monoxide
C. carbon paper
D. carbon dioxide
Answer: D
49.The greatest concern of the firemen at the fire/crime scene is to

A. interview witnesses
B. view the site of the crime
C. preserve the fire/crime scene
D. opportunity in the fire/crime scene
53.A normal product of combustion, and is poisonous, especially

when the air supply to the fire is restricted.
A. carbon oxide
B. carbon monoxide
C. carbon paper
D. carbon dioxide
Answer: B
50.Most malicious fires are set by individuals secretly; it is

either set for revenge or self aggrandizing; or set by psychotic
fire setter, or for sexual gratification.
A. group fire setter
B. arson for profit
C. fire starter
D. solitary fire setter
54.The fire resisting property of structural elements and the

behavior of a building material in a fire, it is used to predict
how long it will resist the effect of a fire before it fails.
A. fire resistance
B. fire duration
C. fire proof
D. fire strength
Answer: A
51.The primary course of action in case of a fire.

A. pack up and flee
55.A type of fire that is the result of the combustion of certain

metals in finely divided forms; magnesium, potassium, zinc, etc.
182
A.
B.
C.
D.
class A
class B
class C
class D
C.
D.
Answer: D
56.A type of fire which results from burning of wood, paper,

textiles, and other carbonaceous materials.Extinguishment of
this fire is by quenching and cooling.
A. class A
B. class B
C. class C
D. class D
Answer: A
57.The following are components of fire except one:
A. Gas
B. Fuel
C. Oxygen
D. Heat
Answer: A
58.It is observed in structural fires and can be an indicator of
the fire travel and point of origin.
A. Charring
B. Alligatoring
C. V pattern
D. Pour pattern
Answer: A
59.A pattern or network of fine, irregular lines in glass and wood.
A. Crazing
B. Spalling
Light bulbs
Charring
Answer: A
60.A tool employed by an arsonist to delay the start of the fire

and allow him to establish an alibi.
A. Accelerants
B. delaying tactic
C. timing device
D. stopper
Answer: C
61.It can be readily identified by their distinctive odors, and the
most common examples are gasoline, turpentine and kerosene.
A. Accelerants
B. Trailers
C. timing device
D. Stopper
Answer: A
62.This catalytic combustion device is the most common means
employed to detect flammable vapors.
A. Accelerant
B. Sniffer
C. timing device
D. stopper
Answer: B
63.The irresistible impulse or compulsion to start a fire and
experience gratification and satisfaction from it.
A. fire starter syndrome
B. pyrotechnic disease
C. pyromania
183
D.
pyrophobia
Answer: C
64.It is known as the Fire Code of the Philippines.

A. PD 1108
B. PD 1017
C. PD 1081
D. PD 1185
Answer: D
65.Any material or mixture consisting of a fuel and oxidizer used
to set off explosives.
A. blasting agent
B. blasting cap
C. gun powder
D. explosive primer
Answer: A
66.These are description of materials or compounds that are
easily set on fire except one:
A. Combustible
B. Corrosive
C. Flammable
D. Inflammable
Answer: B
67.Any material having a flash point at or above 37.80 degree
Celsius or 100 degree Fahrenheit.
A. combustible liquid
B. flammable liquid
C. inflammable liquid
D. corrosive liquid
Answer: A
68.Any liquid that causes fire when in contact with organic matter.
A. combustible liquid
B. flammable liquid
C. inflammable liquid
D. corrosive liquid
Answer: A
69.An extremely hot luminous bridge formed by the passage of an
electric current across the space between two conductors.
A. electrical arc
B. damper
C. duct system
D. ember
Answer: A
70.The active principle of burning, characterized by the heat
and light combustion.
A. explosion
B. arson
C. combustion
D. fire
Answer: D
71.A type of fire, of flammable liquid and gasses.
A. class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
Answer: B
72.A mass movement in a fluid, an example a liquid or a gas where
fluid at one temperature and density moves under the influence
184
of gravity at different temperatures.

A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Combustion
B. spot report
C . triangulation
D. accident investigation
Answer: B
73.The temperature at which a liquid is transformed or converted to

vapor.
A. burning point
B. melting point
C. freezing point
D. boiling point
Answer: B
74.The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from a
collision course or to avoid hazard.
A. point of no return
B. point of no escape
C. start of evasive action
D. final position
Answer: C
75.The movement of vehicles, and pedestrians in a road or highway.
A. Traffic
B. Flight
C. Trip
D. Journey
Answer: A
76.A method of locating a spot in the area by measurements from
two or more reference points.
A. traffic report
Answer: C
77.The force that tends to pull all objects to the center of the
earth.
A. Inertia
B. Friction
C. Energy
D. Gravity
Answer: D
78.Any motor vehicle accident that results in no death, but only
injuries to one or more persons.
A. Fatal
B. Chronic
C. Non fatal
D. Injurious
Answer: B
79.The Traffic and Land Transportation Code of the Philippines
A. RA 7160
B. RA 8551
C. RA 6425
D. RA 4136
Answer: D
80.An occurrence in a sequence of events, which usually produces
unintended injury, death or property damage.
A. traffic incidents
B. traffic accidents
C. traffic hazards
185
D.
traffic events
Answer: B
81.Any motor vehicle accident occurring on a traffic way.

A. non motor vehicle traffic accident
B. non motor vehicle non-traffic accident
C. motor vehicle non-traffic accident
D. motor vehicle traffic accident
Answer: D
82.An order wherein a violator is commanded to appear in court,
but without detaining him.
A. traffic citation
B. traffic request
C. traffic warrant
D. D. traffic violation
Answer: A
83.The first accidental touching of an object collision course
or otherwise avoid a hazard.
A. primary contact
B. secondary contact
C. disengagement
D. initial contact
Answer: D
84.The following are the three Es of Traffic Management and
Operation except one:
A. Engineering
B. Education
C. Enforcement
D. Evaluation
Answer: D
85.The Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002.

A. RA 9870
B. RA 9165
C. RA 1017
D. RA 6195
Answer: B
86.Drugs that produce perceptual alteration, varying emotional
change, thought disruption and ego distortion. They are called
psychedelics.
A. Tranquillizers
B. Hallucinogens
C. Stimulants
D. Depressants
Answer: B
87.Drugs which produce insensibility, stupor, melancholy or
dullness of the mind with delusions.
A. Stimulants
B. Narcotics
C. Depressants
D. Hallucinogens
Answer: B
88.The practice or profession of having sexual intercourse for
money or profit.
A. Gynecology
B. Prostitution
C. White Slavery
D. Sex Trade
Answer: B
89.The scientific name of Indian hemp plant.
186
A.
B.
C.
D.
cannabis sativa L
Papaver somniforum
deoxyribonucleic acid
methamphetamine HCl
D.
Answer: A
90.The original components of heroin and morphine.

A. Codeine
B. Caffeine
C. Opium
D. Methamphetamine
Answer: C
91.An inter department agency that enforce and carry out the law
against illegal drugs.
A. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
B. Bureau of Foods and Drugs
C. Dangerous Drug Board
D. Food and Drug Administration
Answer: A
92.A harmful conduct or habit, the indulgence of which leads to
depravity, wickedness and corruption of the mind and body.
A. Vice
B. Abuse
C. Addiction
D. Virtue
Answer: A
93.The most common form of stimulant.
A. Heroin
B. Codeine
C. Morphine
Shabu
Answer: D
94.It is chemically known as methamphetamine hydro chloride.

A. Heroin
B. Codeine
C. Morphine
D. None of these
Answer: D
95.A derivative of opium which is used a cough reliever.
A. Codeine
B. Heroin
C. Morphine
D. Caffeine
Answer: A
96.Any part of the plant of the papaver somniferum, including the
seeds.
A. opium poppy
B. marijuana
C. caffeine components
D. codeine
Answer: A
97.Another term for psychological drug addiction.
A. drug habituation
B. drug net consciousness
C. drug pushing
D. drug dependence
Answer: D
98.Commercially produced drugs that can be legally sold or
dispensed only by a physicians order.
187
A.
B.
C.
D.
illegal drugs
prohibited drugs
regulated drugs
prescription drugs
Answer: D
99.Any chemical substance that by virtue of its chemical nature

alters the structure and functioning of living organism.
A. Alcohol
B. Poison
C. Drug
D. Vice
Answer: C
100.It is, in most cases, the initial step for obtaining information
to determine the origin and cause of fire.
A. Evidence collection
B. laboratory examination of evidence
C. interview witnesses
D. interrogation of suspects
Answer: C
Correctional Administration Review Questions

1. It is the authority of the President of the Philippines to
suspend the execution of a penalty, reduce the sentence and
extinguish criminal liability.
A. Parole
B.Executive clemency
C. Pardon
D.Presidents clemency
Answer: B
2. The B.J.M.P. is under the administration of the:
A. Executive Department
B. P.N.P.
C. D.I.L.G.
D. D.O.J
Answer: C
3. There are three (3) casework techniques applied by the parole
officer, which is not included?
A. The trick and treat techniques
B.The executive techniques
C.The guidance, counseling and leadership techniques
D.The manipulative techniques
Answer: A
4. The basis of this old school of penology is the human free-will.
A. Penology School
188
B.
C.
D.
Classical School
Neo-classical
Positivist
Answer: B
5. This helps the prisoner/detainee in the resolution of his problems

A. Meeting
B. Working
C. Recreation
D. Counseling
Answer: D
6. Takes charge of financial matters especially in programming,
budgeting, accounting, and other activities related to financial
services. It consolidates and prepares financial reports and
related statements of subsistence outlays and disbursements in
the operational of the jail.
A. Budget and finance branch
B. General services branch
C. Property and supply branch
D. Mess services branch
Answer: A
7. Operation conducted by the BJMP wherein a prisoner maybe
checked at any time. His bedding's, lockers and personal
belongings may also be opened at anytime, in his presence,
whenever possible. This practice is known as:
A. Check and balance
B. S.O.P.
C. Inventory
D. Operation Greyhound
Answer: D
8. Pardon cannot be extended to one of the following instances.

A. Murder
B. Brigandage
C. Rape
D. Impeachment
Answer: D
9. It refers to commission of another crime during service of
sentence of penalty imposed for another previous offense.
A. Recidivism
B. Delinquency
C. Quasi-recidivism
D. City prisoner
Answer: C
10. A person who is detained for the violation of law or ordinance
and has not been convicted is a A. Detention Prisoner
B. Provincial Prisoner
C. Municipal Prisoner
D. City Prisoner
Answer: A
11. The
A.
B.
C.
D.
following are forms of executive clemency, EXCEPT

Commutation
Reform model
Amnesty
Pardon
Answer: B
12. It is that branch of the administration of Criminal Justice

System charged with the responsibility for the custody,
supervision, and rehabilitation of the convicted offender.
189
A.
B.
C.
D.
conviction
corrections
penalty
punishment
D.
Answer: B
13. Which of the following instances Pardon cannot be exercised?

A. before conviction
B. before trial
C. after conviction
D. during service of sentence
Answer: B
14. This is a procedure which permits a jail prisoner to pursue
his normal job during the week and return to the jail to serve
his sentence during the weekend or non-working hours.
A. Amnesty
B. good conduct time allowance
C. probation
D. delayed sentence
Answer: D
15. The
A.
B.
C.
D.
following are the justifications of punishment, EXCEPT

Retribution
Deterrence
Redress
Expiration or atonement
Answer: C
16. Pardon is exercised when the person is __.

A. already convicted
B. not yet convicted
C. about to be convicted
serve the sentence
Answer: A
17. The idea that punishment will be give the offender lesson by
showing to others what would happen to them if they have
committed the heinous crime.
A. Protection
B. Deterrence
C. Lethal injection
D.Stoning
Answer: B
18. For
A.
B.
C.
D.
a convicted offender, probation is a form of __.

Punishment
Treatment
Enjoyment
Incarceration
Answer: B
19. For amnesty to be granted, there should be __.

A. Recommendation from U.N.
B. Recommendation from C.H.R.
C. Application from C.H.R
D. Concurrence of the congress
20. The
A.
B.
C.
D.
head of the Bureau of Corrections is the

Director
Secretary of the DND
Chief of Executive
Prison Inspector
Answer: D
Answer: A
21. Which program plays a unique role in the moral and spiritual
190
regeneration of the prisoner?

A. None of these
B.Work programs
C.Education programs
D.Religious programs
Answer: D
22. It is a penalty wherein a convicted person shall not be permitted

to enter the place designated in the sentence or within the radius
therein specified, which shall not be more than 250 and not less
than 25 kilometers from the place designated.
A. Fine
B. None of these
C. P22.00/day
D. P19.00/day
Answer: B
23. Giving punishment to a person so to serve as an example to
others is the theory of
A. Self-defense
B. Social defense
C. Exemplary
D. Equality
Answer: C
24. The purpose of the decree on probation shall be to
A. provide an opportunity for the reformation of a
penitent offender
B. prevent the commission of offenses
C. promote the correction and rehabilitation of an offender
by providing him with individualized treatment
D. All of these
Answer: D
25. In the Philippines, the most common problem of the

National Prison is
A. Excessive number of escapes
B. Overcrowding
C. Disagreement about their mess
D. Lack of adequate funding
Answer: D
26. A justification of penalty which states that nobody can assume
the suffering for a crime committed by others.
A. Justice
B. Personal
C. Legal
D. Certain
Answer: B
27. These are the factors considered in diversification, EXCEPT;
A. Age of offenders
B. Mother of offender
C. Sex of offenders
D. Medical condition
Answer: B
28. This branch takes charge of the preparation of the daily menu,
makes foodstuff purchases, prepares and cooks the food and
serves it to the inmates.It maintains a record of daily purchases
and consumption and submits a daily report to the warden.
A. General Services Branch
B. Mittimus Computing Branch
C. Budget and Finance
D. Mess services Branch
Answer: D
191
29. Under Article VII, Section 10 paragraph (B) of the Philippines

Constitution, pardoning power is vested with the
A. Department of Justice
B. Judiciary
C. Chief Executive
D. Legislative
Answer: C
30. The
A.
B.
C.
D.
temporary stay of execution of sentence is called

Reprieve
Pardon
Communication
Amnesty
Answer: A
31. Parole is a matter of ___.

A. Privilege
B. Right
C. Grace
D. Requirement
A.
B.
C.
D.
President
Board of Pardons and Parole
Director of Prison
Court
Answer: B
34. A recipient of absolute pardon is ________ from civil

liability imposed upon him by the sentence.
A. partially exempted
B. exempted
C. conditionally exempted
D. not exempted
Answer: D
35. It is an act of clemency which changes a heavier sentence to
a less serious one or a longer term to a shorter term.
A. Amnesty
B. Commutation
C. Reprieve
D. none of these
Answer: B
Answer: A
32. This group consists of chronic troublemakers but not as

dangerous as the super security prisoners. They are not
allowed to work outside the institution.
A. maximum security prisoners
B. super security prisoners
C. minimum security prisoners
D. medium security prisoners
Answer: A
33. Among the following, which has the authority to grant parole?
36. ___ is an act of grace and the recipient is not entitled to

it as a matter of right.
A. Pardon
B. Parole
C. Probation
D. none of these
Answer: B
37. In probation systems philosophy and concept, it is stated
that the individual has the ability to ____ and to modify
his anti-social behavior with the right kind of help.
192
A.
B.
C.
D.
38. The
A.
B.
C.
D.
challenge
none of these
change
aggravate his behavior
Answer: C
Bureau of Corrections is under the _____.

Department of Social Welfare and Development
Department of Justice
Department of the Interior and Local Government
Department of Health
Answer: B
39. A person who is sentenced to serve a prison term of over three

(3) years is a _________________.
A. Municipal prisoner
B. Detention prisoner
C. National or Insular prisoner
D. City prisoner
Answer: D
40. The
A.
B.
C.
D.
Head of Bureau of Corrections is also the

Chief of the Bureau of Corrections
Director of the Bureau of Corrections
Superintendent of the Bureau of Corrections
Warden
Answer: B
41. What is the type of Jails under the Supervision of the BJMP?
A. Provincial and sub-Provincial Jails
B. City and Municipal Jails
C. Lock up Jails
D. Insular Jails
Answer: B
42. Provincial Jails were first established in 1910 under the

American Regime. At present, who supervises and controls the
said jails?
A. BJMP
B. Provincial Government
C. DOJ
D. Municipal or City Mayor
Answer: B
43. What is the primary purpose of imprisonment?
A. Rehabilitation and Reformation
B. To stand trial
C. Punishment
D. Socialization
Answer: A
44. Which is a place of confinement for persons awaiting trial or

court action and where the convicted offenders serve short
sentences or penalty of imprisonment?
A. Jail
B. Lock-up
C. Penitentiary
D. Detention Cells
Answer: A
45. Which is a warrant issued by the court bearing its seal and
signature of the judge directing the jail or prison authorities to
receive the convicted offender for service of sentence or
detention?
A. Mittimus
B. Detention Mittimus
193
C.
D.
Sentence Mittimus
Detention Warrant
Answer: C
46. The maintenance or care and protection accorded to people who

by authority of law are temporarily incarcerated for violation
of laws and also those who were sentenced by the court to serve
judgment is called
A. custody
B. safe-keeping
C. classification
D. caring
Answer: A
47. Which of these refers to the assigning or grouping of offenders
according to their sentence, gender, age, nationality, health,
criminal record, etc.?
A. None of these
B. Custody
C. Security
D. Safe-keeping
Answer: A
48. The institution for dangerous but not incorrigible prisoners
in the Philippines is the
A. NBP
B. Medium Security Institution
C. Maximum Security Institution
D. Minimum Security Institution
Answer: B
49. The act of grace from a sovereign power inherent in the
state which exempts an individual from the punishment which the
law imposes or prescribes for his crime, extended by the President

thru the recommendation of the Board of Parole and Pardon is
called
A. Amnesty
B. Parole
C. Pardon
D. Probation
Answer: C
50. Under the prison service manual, the prescribed color of prison
uniform for maximum security prison is A. Orange
B. Brown
C. Stripe Orange
D. Blue
Answer: A
51. When an inmate is given a shakedown before admission, it
means:
A. He has taken the process of identification, record,
fingerprint and photograph
B. He has been examined for contraband
C. His commitment paper are delivered to record clerk
D. All of these
Answer: B
52. An inmate maybe granted parole if he
A. earned good conduct time allowance credit
B. serve minimum sentence
C. earned good behavior while serving prison term
D. all of these
Answer: D
194
53. Aside from protecting the public, imprisonment has for its
latest objective, the
A. reformation of offenders
B. deterrence
C. segregation of offender
D. confinement of Offender
Answer: A
54. In the New Bilibid Prison, all medium security prisoners are
confined at the
A. NBP Main Prison
B. Camp Bukang Liwayway
C. Camp Sampaguita
D. Medium Security Prison
Answer: C
55. Under the prison rules, who is charged for the hearing of
disciplinary cases in prison?
A. Classification Board
B. Parole Board
C. Administrative Board
D. Disciplinary Board
Answer: D
56. The form of conditional release that is granted after a
prisoner has served a portion of his sentence in a correctional
A. Conditional pardon
B. Probation
C. Parole
D. Commutation
Answer: C
57. In jails or prisons, which of the following is a function of
the
A.
B.
C.
D.
Custodial Division?
Supervision of prisoners
Escort of inmates or prisoners
Keeping of records
None of the above
Answer: B
58. The putting of offenders in prison for the purpose of protecting

the public and at the same time rehabilitating them by requiring
the latter to undergo institutional treatment program is
referred to as:
A. Imprisonment
B. Trial
C. Conviction
D. Detention
Answer: A
59. The Sablayan Penal Colony and Farm, a National Penitentiary in
the Philippines under the BUCOR is located in ____.
A. Palawan
B. Zamboanga
C. Davao
D. Occidental Mindoro
Answer: D
60. In Babylon, about 1990 BC, this is credited as the oldest
code prescribing savage punishment but in fact ___ is nearly.
100 years older
A. Hammurabic Code
B. Sumerian Code
C. Justinian Code
D. Code of Draco
Answer: B
195
D.
61. The penalty imposed for offenders must be certain. This means
that:
A. The guilty one must be the one to be punished, no proxy.
B. No one must escape its effect
C. It must be equal for all persons
D. The consequence must be in accordance
with law.
Answer: B
62. The following are the duties of the custodial force in prison,
except:
A. Censor offenders items
B. Escort inmates
C. Inspect security devices
D. Conduct disciplinary hearing
Answer: D
to give warning shots
Answer: A
65. Which of these is known as the Adult Probation Law, which

grants probation to prisoner sentenced to term in prison of not
more than six (6) years?
A. PD 603
B. RA 698
C. PD 968
D. PD 869
Answer: C
66. The continuing relationship between probation officer and
probationer is known as
A. Affiliation Guidance
B. Pre-sentenced Investigation
C. Supervision
D. Probation Guidance
Answer: C
63. As a rule, when a jailbreak, escape or riot is in progress or has

just been perpetuated in the jail, the officer at the control
centers shall immediately:
A. sound the alarm
B. locked prisoners in their respective cells
C. Notify the nearest police precinct
D. call the warden or the director
Answer: A
67. Those who have been once on probation under the Probation
Law:
A. are qualified to apply for probation
B. are disqualified to apply for probation
C. may be granted for another probation
D. should be confined in prison
Answer: B
64. In case of mass jailbreak, all members of the custodial force

shall immediately issued firearms and assigned to critical posts to:
A. plug off the escape routes
B. to shoot the escapees
C. protect the other inmates
68. This pillar/component of our criminal justice system has been

regarded the weakest pillar due to its failure to eliminate
recidivism and habitual offenders.
A. law enforcement
B. prosecution
196
C.
D.
69. The
A.
B.
C.
D.
court
correction
traditional goal of penology is
Retribution
Deterrence
Incapacitation
Rehabilitation
D. Rehabilitation
Answer: D
Answer: B
70. The attempt to prevent future crimes through fear of

punishment.
A. Retribution
B. Deterrence
C. Incapacitation
D. Rehabilitation
Answer: B
71. The
may
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: A
task of changing an offenders attitude so that he or she

not commit another crime in the future.
Retribution
Deterrence
Incapacitation
Rehabilitation
Answer: D
72. The idea that re-entry of an offender should be in the

mainstream of society rather than the usual abrupt re-entry
at the end of a prison sentence.
A. Reintegration
B. Deterrence
C. Incapacitation
73. They were known as Bridewells, which started in 1553 and

served as training schools for delinquent youths, provided
housing and support for older and poorer persons,
and detained vagrants.
A. House of Corrections
B. Workhouses
C. Common jails
D. Penal colonies
Answer: B
74. It direct, supervise and control the administration and operation
of all district, city and municipal jails to implement a better
system of jail management nationwide
A. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
B. Department of Justice
C. Bureau of Corrections
D. Parole and Probation Administration
Answer: A
75. It exercise supervision and control over provincial jails.
A. BJMP
B. Bureau of Corrections
C. Provincial Government
Answer: C
76. An agency under the Department of Justice that is charged with
custody and rehabilitation of national offenders, that is, those
sentenced to serve a term of imprisonment of more than three
(3) years
197
A.
B.
C.
D.
BJMP
Bureau of Corrections
Provincial Government
Parole and Probation Administration
Answer: B
77. The New Bilibid Prison, the Correctional Institution for Women
(CIW), Iwahig Prison and Penal Farm, and Sablayan Prison and
Penal Farm are all under this agency.
A. BJMP
D. Department of Justice
Answer: B
78. An attached agency of the Department of Justice which provides
a less costly alternative to imprisonment of offenders who are
likely to respond to individualized community based treatment
programs.
A. BJMP
Answer: D
79. Prisoners whose sentences are more than three years to capital
punishment are considered
A. municipal prisoners
B. provincial prisoners
C. city prisoners
D. insular prisoners
Answer: D
80. Prisoners whose sentences are from one day to six months are
A. municipal prisoners
B. provincial prisoners
C. city prisoners
D. insular prisoners
Answer: A
81. A prison model which sought penitence (hence the term
penitentiaries) through total individual isolation and silence.
A. Pennsylvania Prison Model
B. Auburn Prison Model
C. Work Release
D. Halfway Houses
Answer: A
82. A prison model where incarcerated persons are allowed to work
outside the institution that houses them.
A. Pennsylvania Prison Model
B. Auburn Prison Model
C. Work Release
D. Halfway Houses
Answer: B
83. An alternative to incarceration granted after a convicted person
served a part of his sentence and is allowed to complete a
sentence at large, subject to restrictions and supervision.
A. Probation
B. Work release
C. Parole
D. Halfway houses
Answer: C
84. An alternative to incarceration that allow convicted persons
198
to remain at large and under varying degrees of restriction

and supervision and certain conditions imposed by the
granting court.
A. Probation
B. Work release
C. Parole
D. Halfway houses
Answer: A
85. A correctional institution that has the authority to detain
persons awaiting trial or adjudication or confine convicted
offenders for a short period of time.
A. Halfway houses
B. Penal colonies
C. Jails
D. All of these
Answer: C
88. Who among the following is a provincial prisoner?

A. A prisoner serving a term below six (6) years
B. A prisoner serving a term of six (6) years and up
C. A prisoner serving a term of six (6) months and one
(1) day to three (3) years
D. A prisoner serving a term of three (3)years and one
(1) day up
Answer: C
89. This theory in criminology states that people are totally
responsible for their behaviors and the stress is more on the
effect of their felonious act than upon the criminal.
A. Positivist Theory
B. Psychological Theory
C. Biological Theory
D. Classical Theory
Answer: D
86. A correctional institution that has the authority to detain

convicted offenders for longer or extended period of time,
including those who are waiting their death sentence.
A. Halfway house
B. Farm house
C. Jail
D. Prison
Answer: D
90. Which of the following is an executive clemency that requires

the concurrence of congress?
A. Probation
B. Pardon
C. Amnesty
D. Parole
Answer: C
87. The
A.
B.
C.
D.
91. The Parole and Probation Administration administers the _____

Correctional Program.
A. Institutional
B. Integrated
C. Community based
law creating the Bureau of Jail Management and Penology.

RA 8551
RA 9165
RA 6975
RA 4890
Answer: C
199
D. Traditional
Answer: C
D. Victimless crimes
Answer: D
92. A minimum and maximum amount of time to be served in prison is

referred to as
A. a corporal punishment
B. a determinate sentence
C. an indeterminate sentence
D. a capital punishment
Answer: C
96. Which agency performs the evaluation of prisoners fitness and

qualifications for the grant of pardon or parole?
A. Punishment, confinement retribution, treatment
B. Retribution, Deterrence, incapacitation, rehabilitation
C. Deterrence, retribution, punishment treatment
Answer: D
93. Pedro was required to provide financial remuneration for the

losses incurred by the victim. What is the type of penalty
described?
A. Bond
B. Retribution
C. Restitution
D. Remuneration
Answer: C
97. Which of the following should a probationer avoid?

A. Make periodic report
B. Go and play in the gambling den
C. Work regularly to support family
D. Stay away from bad associates.
Answer: B
94. What kind of program employs prisoners in various product or

good producing tasks?
A. Agricultural
B. Operational
C. Industrial
D. Administrative
Answer: C
95. What crimes apparently have no complaining victims such as
gambling, prostitution and drunkenness?
A. Complex Crime
B. Compound Crime
C. Blue Collar crimes
98. The Supreme Court automatically reviews the cases of criminals

convicted and meted out the penalty of
A. 12 years 6 months and one day
B. Death
C. Life imprisonment
D. 6 years one month and one day
Answer: B
99. The ________ theory in crime causation focuses on the criminal

disorders, chromosomes irregularity and abnormal brain activity.
A. None of these
B. Age Reform
C. Age of Discernment
D. Age of Reason
Answer: A
200
D.
100. What correctional institution houses accused persons awaiting
trial?
A. Rehabilitation center
B. Jail
C. Halfway house
D. Prison
Answer: B
101. Articles 1706 - 1727 of the revised Administrative Code as
amended is known as
A. Correction Law
B. Jail Management Law
C. Prison Law
D. Parole and Probation Law
Answer: C
102. The mechanical device or contrivance, tools or implement used
to hold back, keep in check or under control is the
A. Instrument of Restraint
B. Iron leg Lock
C. Handcuffs
D. Metallic chains
Answer: A
103. Who is tasked with the gathering and collecting of information
and other data of every prisoner into a case study to determine
the work assignment, the type supervision and degree of
custody and restriction under which an offender must live in jail?
A. Classification Board
B . Board of Custody
C. Diagnostic Board
Treatment Board
Answer: A
104. The imprisonment a convicted offender may serve, at the rate

of PhP8.00 a day subject to certain rules, for failure to pay a
fine and if ordered to do so by the judgment is referred to as
A. Subsidiary imprisonment
B. Secondary imprisonment
C. Preventive imprisonment
Answer: A
105. The meaning of the word oblivion is
A. forgetting completely
B. class of persons
C. abolish
D. community based treatment
Answer: A
106. The process of determining the needs and requirements of

prisoners for assigning them to programs according to their
existing resources is called:
A. classification
B. quarantine
C. diversification
D. quality control
Answer: C
107. Public humiliation or public exhibition also mean:
A. public execution
B. social degradation
C. banishment
D. public trial
Answer: B
201
108. During the 16th up to the 18th century, a criminal may be sent
away from a place carried out by prohibition to coming against a
specified territory. This is an ancient form of punishment called:
A. Exile
B. Transportation
C. Banishment
D. Public trial
Answer: C
109. One of the following represents the earliest codification of the
Roman law, which was incorporated into the Justinian Code.
A. Twelve Tables
B. Burgundian Code
C. Code of Draco
D. Hammurabic code
Answer: A
110. In the history of correction, thinkers during the reformatory
movement were the major influences of todays correctional
system. Alexander Macanochie was the one who introduced the __
of correction
A. Solitary system
B. Irish System
C. Marked System
D. Congregate system
Answer: C
111. What law renamed the Bureau of Prison to Bureau of Correction
during the Aquino administration in the Philippines?
A. E.O 727
B. E.O 292
C.
D.
E.O 645
E.O 104
Answer: B
112. Retaliation is the earliest remedy for a wrong act to any one (in
the primitive society). The concept follows that the victims
family or tribe against the family or tribe of the offender, hence
blood feuds was accepted in the early primitive societies.
Retaliation means:
A. Personal Vengeance
B. Tooth for a tooth
C. Eye for an Eye
D. All of these
Answer: A
113. In 1936, the City of Manila exchanges its Muntinlupa property
with the Bureau of Prisons originally intended as a site for boys
training school. Today, the old Bilibid Prison is now being used as
the Manila City Jail, famous as the :
A. May Halique Estate
B. Tandang Sora State
C. New Bilibid Jail
D. Muntinlupa Jail
Answer: A
114. The sheriff of Bedsfordshire in 1773 who devoted his life and
fortune to prison reform.After his findings on English Prisons, he
recommended the following: single cells for sleeping, segregation
of women, segregation of youth, provision of sanitation facilities,
and abolition of fee system by which jailers obtained money from
prisoners.
A. John Howard
202
B.
C.
D.
Robert Peel
William Penn
Manuel Montesimos
Answer: A
115. Mr. Cruz was convicted of the crime of murder. After 10 days
from the promulgation of the sentence, he escaped from his
place of confinement. He maybe
A. liable for evasion of service of sentence
B. considered as an escaped prisoner
C. not liable for evasion of service of sentence
D. All of these
Answer: A
116. Ms. Bantog was convicted for the crime of infanticide. After
serving her sentence she committed again the same crime.Ms.
Ines Bantog maybe considered as a
A. recidivist
B. quasi-recidivist
C. habitual delinguent
D. mentally retarded person
Answer: A
117. Ramon, a basketball player, arrested Berto for some legal ground
but he failed to file a complaint against the latter with in the
prescribed period of filing. What crime did Ramon committed?
A. arbitrary detention
B. illegal Detention
C. illegal arrest
D. no crime committed
Answer: B
118. The Camp Sampaguita of the national Bilibid Prison houses
A.
B.
C.
D.
Super Maximum Security Prisoners

Maximum Security Prisoners
Medium Security Prisoners
Minimum Security Prisoners
Answer: C
119. The only early Roman place of confinement which was built
under the main sewer of Rome in 64 B.C.
A. Bridewell Workhouse
B. Wulnut Street Jail
C. Burgundian House
D. none of these
Answer: D
120. The punishment should be provided by the state whose sanction
is violated, to afford the society or individual the opportunity of
imposing upon the offender suitable punishment as might be
enforced. Offenders should be punished because they deserve
it.This is one justification of punishment called:
A. Atonement
B. Incapacitation
C. Deterrence
D. Retribution
Answer: D
121. The purpose of commutation of sentence is to:
A. do away with the miscarriage of justice
B. break the rigidity of the law
C. restore the political and civil rights of the accused
D. all of the above
Answer: D
122. One of the following is an admission procedure which involves
203
the
A.
B.
C.
D.
frisking of the prisoner.

Identification
Searching
Briefing/Orientation
minimum security prisoners
Answer: B
123. If the warden is taken as the hostage, for all intents and
purposes, he ceases to exercise authority and the next in
command or the __________ officer present shall assume the
command.
A. Veteran
B. Assistant
C. Most senior
D. Custodian
Answer: C
124. Upon receipt of the probation officer investigation report, the
court shall resolve the application for probation not later thanA. 60 days
B. 5 days
C. 15 days
D. 45 days
Answer: B
criminal justice under its common law, originated probation.

A. England
B. United States
C. Greece
D. France
Answer: A
127. Which of the following does not belong to the common law
practices to which the emergence of probation is attributed?
A. Recognizance
B. Reprieve
C. Benefit of the Clergy
D. Penance
Answer: D
128. Benefit of clergy, judicial reprieve, sanctuary, and abjuration
offered offenders a degree of protection from the enactment of
A. harsh sentences
B. soft sentences
C. criminal liabilities
D. code of Hammurabi
Answer: A
125. Who is the Father of Philippine Probation?

A. Jose Lacson
B. Juan Ponce Enrile
C. Antonio Torres
D. None of these
Answer: D
129. In the United States, particularly in Massachusetts, different

practices were being developed. "Security for good behavior,"
also known as good aberrance, was much like modern bail.
A. Penalizing
B. Good aberrance
C. Paying in cash
D. Collateral
Answer: B
126. What is the country, whose early schemes for humanizing the
130. Who among the following was the builder hospice of San
204
Michelle, a reformatory for delinquent boys

A. Montesquieu
B. Pope Clement XI
C. Samuel Romily
D. John Howard
Answer: B
131. The advocate of ultimate prison known as the Panopticon was
A. Jeremy Bentham
B. Samuel Romily
C. Walter Crofton
D. John Howard
Answer: A
132. The founder of the Classical School of Criminology and published
a short treaties On Crimes and Punishments which contains
his reformatory ideas was
A. Jeremy Bentham
B. Cesare Lombroso
C. Cesare Beccaria
D. Enrico Ferri
Answer: C
133. Diversification means
A. Proper integration of prisoners
B. Proper classification of prisoners
C. Proper segregation of prisoners
D. Welfare of prisoners
Answer: C
134. Filipino female national prisoners are confined at the

A. Mental hospital
B. CIW
C.
D.
Manila City Jail

Iwahig Penal Colony
Answer: B
135. An offender who surrenders from escaping because of calamity

immediately 48 hours after the pronouncement of the
passing away of calamity shall be granted
A. 1/5 reduction of sentence
B. reduction of sentence
C. 2/5 reduction of sentence
D. 2/6 reduction of sentence
Answer: B
136. What is the name of the prison institution situated in
Zamboanga, named after Capt. Blanco of the Spanish Royal
Army?
A. Old Bilibid Prison
B. Sablayan Prsions and Penal Farm
C. San Ramon Prison & Penal Farm
D. Iwahig Penal
Answer: C
137. A branch or division of law which defines crimes, treat of their
nature and provides for their punishment
A. Remedial law
B. Criminal law
C. Civil law
D.Political law
Answer: B
138. One who investigates for the court a referral for probation or
supervises a probationer or both
A. police officer
205
B. probationer officer
C. intelligence officer
D. law enforcer
Answer: B
139. Post sentence investigation report must be submitted by the

probation officer to the court within
A. 20 days
B. 30 days
C. 60 days
D. 90 days
Answer: C
140. Parole in the Philippine is governed by the
A. determinate sentence law
B. Indeterminate sentence law
C. Board of pardon and parole
D. Parole and probation administration
Answer: B
141. A detention jail in Philadelphia but it was converted into state
prison and became the first American penitentiary.
A. Auburn Prison
B. Walnut Street Jail
C. Pennsylvania Prison
D. Bride Well
Answer: B
142. The system of prison were the confinement of the prisoners in
single cells at night and congregate work in stop during the
day.
A. Pennsylvania prison
B. Auburn prison
C. Elmira reformatory
D. Alcatraz prison
Answer: B
143. Under the rules, the chairman of the classification board and
disciplinary board for jails should be
A. Warden
B. Assistant warden
C.Custodial officer
D. Security officer
Answer: B
144. A special group of prisoners composed of incorrigible, intractable
and dangerous persons who are so difficult to manage inside
prisons.
A.Medium Security prisoners
B. Maximum security prisoners
C. Super maximum security prisoners
D. Minimum Security Prisoners
Answer: B
145. One of the following is considered as the corner stone in
reformation n which includes all the life experiences which
shape a persons attitudes and behaviors.
A. Recreational program
B. Religious program
C. Educational program
D. Work program
Answer: C
146. It involves supervision of prisoners to insure punctual and
orderly movement from the dormitories, place of work, hospital
and churches in accordance with the daily schedules.
A. Control
206
B.
C.
D.
Custody
Discipline
Inspection
D.
Answer: A
147. It is a special unit in prison where by newly arrived prisoners

will be admitted for diagnostic examination, observation
A. Reception and Diagnostic Center
B. Medium Security Compound
C. Maximum Security Compound
D. Minimum Security Compound
Answer: A
148. Under the jail rules, the following are authorized disciplinary
measures imposable to inmate offender except
A. Reprimand
B. Cancellation of visiting privilege
C. Cancellation of food allowance
D. Extra fatigue duty
Answer: D
149. The principle of an eye for an eye tooth for a tooth doctrine
is common among ancient laws, specifically t
A. Code of Draco
B. Hammurabic Code
C. Summerian Code
D. Code of Solomon
Answer: B
150. Lex Tallionis means
A. Punishment
B. Law of retaliation
C. Retribution
Suffering
Answer: B
151. These were abandoned or unusable transport ships use to

confine criminals during the early period of treating criminal
offenders.
A. Hulks
B. Gaols
C. Transportation
D. Galleys
Answer: A
152. He wrote his book State of the Prisons and he was also
considered as the great prison reformer.
A. John Howard
B. John Augustus
C. William Penn
D. Domets of France
Answer: A
153. The first house of correction in London England was the
B. Walnut Street Jail
C. Mamertine Prison
D. Panopticon
Answer: A
154. ___
A.
B.
C.
D.
- known as the Rock build in San Francisco Bay

Walnut prison
Alcatraz prison
New York prison
Red Rock penitentiary
Answer: B
207
155. Anything that is contrary to prison or jail rules and regulations

are considered
A. Firearms
B. Contrabands
C. Greyhounds
D. Personal belongings
Answer: B
156. It is the suffering that is inflicted by the state for the
transgression of a law for the purpose of controlling criminals.
A. Prevention
B. Revenge
C. Penalty
D. All of the above
Answer: C
157. Parole and Probation Administration is under the direction of
the
A. Department of Finance
B. Department of Justice
C. Department of Interior and Local Government
D. BJMP
Answer: B
B.
C.
D.
Solitary system
Benefits of a clergy
Congregate system
Answer: A
160. The following are considered as discretionary conditions of

probation except
A. Drinking intoxicated liquor to excess
B. Abstain from visiting house of ill repute
C. Meet his family responsibilities
D. Cooperate with the program of probation Answer: C
161. The first convict in the Philippines, sentenced to death by
means of Lethal injection was
A. Baby Ama
B. Asiong Salonga
C. Leo Echagaray
D. Gregorio S. Mendoza
Answer: C
158. What is nature in hearing the violation of a probation?

A. Formal
B. Summary
C. Due process
Answer: B
162. In the 13th C, a criminal could avoid ________ by claiming

refugee in a church for a period of 40 days at the end of which
compelled to leave the realm by a road or path
assigned to him.
A. Penalty
B. punishment
C. trial
D. conviction
Answer: D
159. Which is considered the forerunner of parole?

A. Mark system
163. Long, low, narrow, single decked ships propelled by sails, usually
rowed by criminals, a type of ship used for transportation of
208
criminals in the 16th century. This referred to as the:

A. Gaols
B. Galleys
C. Hulks
D. Stocks
Answer: B
164. The Classical School of penology maintains the doctrine of
psychological hedonism or __________. That the individual
calculates pleasures and pains in advance of action and
regulates his conduct by the result of his calculations.
A. denied individual responsibility
B. free will
C. pleasures and avoiding pain
D. natural phenomenon
Answer: C
165. History has shown that there are three main legal systems in the
world, which have been extended to and adopted by all
countries aside from those that produced them. Among the
three, it was the _____ that has the most lasting and most
pervading influence.
A. Mohammedan Law
B. Anglo-American Law
C. Roman Law
D. Hammurabic Code
Answer: C
166. Hanging is for death penalty, maiming is for
A. Social degradation
B. Exile
C. Physical torture
D. Slavery
Answer: C
167. Who is the Director of the English Prison who opened the Borstal
Institution for young offenders? The Borstal Institution is
considered as the best reform institution for young offenders
today.
A. Evelyn Brise
B. Manuel Montesimos
C. Zebulon Brockway
D. Walter Crofton
Answer: C
168. The __________ is considered forerunner of modern penology
because it has all the elements in a modern system.
B. Elmira Reformatory
C. Wulnut Street Jail
D. Borstal Institution for Boys
Answer: B
169. Capital punishment refers to:
A. Life imprisonment
B. Death Penalty
C. Reclusion Perpetua
D. All of these
Answer: B
170. One of the following is not an administrative function exercised

by the executive branch of the government.
A. Probation
B. Pardon
C. Parole
209
D.
Amnesty
Answer: A
171. Pardon granted by the Chief Executive

A. extinguishes criminal liability of offender
B. does not extinguish civil liability of offender
C. must be given After the prosecution of the offense
D. all of the above
Answer: D
172. The enactment of Republic Act no. 6975 created the BJMP. It
operates as a line bureau under the Department of Interior and
Local Government (DILG). This statement is:
A. partially true
B. partially false
C. true
D. false
Answer: C
173. The Jail Bureau shall be headed by a chief with a rank of
Director General, and assisted by Deputy Chief with the Rank of
Chief Superintendent. This statement is:
A. partially true
B. partially false
C. true
D. false
Answer: D
174. The group having the responsibility of providing a system of
sound custody, security and control of inmates and their
movements and also responsible to enforce prison or jail
discipline is the:
A. Security group for jails
B.
C.
D.
Escort Platoon
Control Center groups
Warden
Answer: A
175. A unit of the prison or a section of the RDC where the prisoner is
given thorough physical examination including blood test, x-rays,
vaccinations and immunity is the:
A. Quarantine cell
B. NBP
C. Death row
D. Control Area
Answer: A
176. Imprisonment is not always advisable. Placing a person to
custodial coercion is to place him in physical jeopardy, thus
drastically narrowing his access to source of personal
satisfaction and reducing his self-esteem. This principle is based
on the ____ of community based treatment programs.
A. Restorative aspect
B. Humanitarian aspect
C. Managerial aspect
D. Legal aspect
Answer: A
177. The case where the Supreme Court laid down the doctrine that
the absolute pardon removes all that is left of the consequences
of conviction, and that it is absolute in so far it restores the
pardonee to full civil and political rights.
A. Cristobal vs. Labrador
B. Fernandez vs. Aquino
C. People vs. Galit
210
D.
None of these
Answer: A
178. The power of the chief Executive to grant pardon is limited to

the following, except:
A. Pardon can not be extended to cases of impeachment.
B. No pardon, parole or suspension of sentence for the
violation of any election law may be granted without
favorable recommendation of the Commission
of Elections.
C. Pardon is exercised only after conviction
D. Pardon is administered by the court
Answer: D
179. In determining the fitness of a prisoner for release on conditional
pardon, the following points shall be considered as guides,
except:
A. The political, organizational or religious affiliation of the
prisoner should be disregarded.
B. Due regard should be given the attitude of the people in
the community from which he was sentenced.
C. The background of the prisoner before he was committed
to prison social, economic.
D. Financial capacity of the prisoner.
Answer: D
180. Prisoners who are nearly to leave the institution, awaiting
transfer,those in disciplinary status, and those who are
chronically ill with mental disabilities are considered:
A. unassignable prisoners to undergo prison programs
B. all of these
C. special group of offenders
D.
minimum security prisoners
Answer: D
181. Parole is not claimed as a right but the Board of Parole grants it
as a privilege to a qualified prisoner. This statement is:
A. partially true
B. partially false
C. true
D. false
Answer: B
182. Every violation of jail/prison discipline shall be dealt with
accordingly. In extreme cases, where the violation necessitate
Immediate action, the warden or the Officer of the Day may
administer the necessary restraints and reports the action
taken to
A. an SOP
B. an emergency plan
C. a general rule
D. not applicable to prisoners
Answer: C
183. Which of the following is a maximum security prison in Ossining,
New York, USA? It is located approximately 30 miles (48 km)
north of New York City on the banks of the Hudson River which
the Auburn Prison system was applied
A. Alcatraz prison
B. Sing Sing Prison
C. Wulnut Street Jail
D. Silver Mine Farm
Answer: B
184. A ___, also called a 'block' or 'isolation cell', used to separate
211
unruly, dangerous, or vulnerable prisoners from the general

population, also sometimes used as punishment.
A. Segregation Unit
B. Reception Unit
C. Quarantine Unit
D. Cell 45
Answer: A
185. What is the place in some prisons, or a section in prisons where
criminals are placed awaiting execution?
A. Execution room
B. Death row
C. Garotine
D. Galley room
Answer: B
186. The Auburn system is a penal method of the 19th century in
which persons worked during the day in groups and were kept in
solitary confinement at night, with enforced silence at all times.
The Auburn system is also known as
A. Albany system
B. Irish system
C. New York System
D. None of these
Answer: C
187. Bedford Hills Correctional Facility for Women is a prison in
Bedford Hills, Westchester County, New York, USA. It is the
largest women's prison in New York State and has hosted many
infamous prisoners. It is the only women's maximum security
prison in New York State. This statement is:
A. True
B.
C.
D.
False
Partially true
Partially false
Answer: A
188. The Panopticon is a type of prison building designed by English

philosopher Jeremy Bentham in 1785. The concept of the design
was derived from the word meaning of pan and opticon.
Opticon means:
A. to allow an observer to observe
B. with out the prisoner
C. avoid watching
D. To walk in military manner
Answer: A
189. Elmira Correctional Facility, known otherwise as ___, is a
maximum security prison located in New York in the USA. The
prison is located in Chemung County, New York in the City of
Elmira.
A. the school
B. the hill
C. the rock
D. the dungeon
Answer: B
190. Who among the following was given the title father of Prison
Reform in the United States?
A. Zebulon Brockway
B. Robert Peel
C. John Howard
D. Alexander Macanochie
Answer: A
212
191. It is the idea that the moral worth of an action is solely

determined by its contribution to overall utility, that is, its
contribution to happiness or pleasure as summed among all
persons. It is thus a form of consequentialism, meaning that the
moral worth of an action is determined by its outcomethe ends
justify the means.
A. Hedonism
B. Positivism
C. Determinism
D. Penology
Answer: A
192. The concept of probation, from the Latin word probatio which
means ___, has historical roots in the practice of judicial
reprieve.
A. walk with faith
B. live with integrity
C. testing period
D. out of prison
Answer: C
193. In the history of capital punishment, what do they call this
frame, typically wooden, used for execution by hanging?
A. Galley
B. Gallows
C. Hulk
D. Double blade
Answer: B
194. Lethal injection refers to the practice of injecting a person with
a fatal dose of drugs for the explicit purpose of causing the
death of the subject. The main application for this procedure is
capital punishment. Which of the following drug is injected to

stops the heart thus causing death by cardiac arrest?
A. Sodium thiopental
B. Pancuronium
C. Potassium chloride
D. Bicarbonate
Answer: C
195. Execution by electrocution (referred to as the Electric Chair) is
an execution method originating in the United States in which
the person being put to death is strapped to a specially built
wooden chair and electrocuted through electrodes placed on
the body. In the Philippines, its first use was in :
A. 1924
B. 1976
C. 1972
D. 1918
Answer: A
196. Who was the British prison administrator and reformer, and
founder of the Borstal system?
A. Zebulon Brockway
B. Alexander Mocanochie
C. Evelyn Ruggles Brise
D. Sir John Watson
Answer: C
197. Besides religious laws such as the Torah, important codifications
of laws were developed in the ancient Roman Empire, with the
compilations of the Lex Duodecim Tabularum.This law refers to
A. the Corpus Juris Civilis
B. the Twelve Tables
213
C.
D.
the Hammurabic code

lex taliones
Answer: B
198. The first permanent system of codified laws could be found in

China, with the compilation of the
A. Tang Code
B. Wong Code
C. Ting Code
D. Chang Code
Answer: A
convenient time for __.

A. Execution
B. Pardon
C. Parole
D Amnesty
Answer: A
199. Opponents of capital punishment claim that a prisoner's isolation

and uncertainty over their fate constitute a form of mental
cruelty and those especially long-time death row inmates are
liable to become mentally ill, if they are not already. This is
referred to as
A. death row phenomenon
B. Cruelty syndrome
C. Execution syndrome
D. None of these
Answer: A
200. After individuals are found guilty of an offense and sentenced to
execution, they will remain on death row while following an
appeals procedure, if they so choose, and then until there is a
214

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CRIMINALISTICS

Criminalistics - is the forensic science of analyzing and

Calvin Goddard - 1891-1955) father of ballistics. Developed

Forensic science pertains to all sciences applied to legal

Albert Osborn - (1858-1946) father of document examination.

Hans Gross - (1847-1915) An Austrian criminalist who in 1891

Walter McCrone - (1916-1915) father of microscopic

Sir Arthur Conan Doyle - sci-fi author in late 1800.

Edmond Locard - (1877-1966) father of the crime lab. In

Mathiew Orfila - (1787-1853) father of toxicology. Wrote

Locard Exchange Principle

Alphonse Bertillon - (1853-1914) father of anthropometry.

1. Every contact leaves a trace

Goals of Forensic Science - to determine the cause, location,

Johann Zahn - in 1685, built the first camera obscura that wa

Joseph Nicephore Niepce - was a french inventor who is note

1920 - the electronic video camera tube was invented, start

William Henry Fox Talbot - a British inventor and pioneer of

Lumiere Brothers - introduced the autochrome, the first com

Kodachrome - the first modern integral tripack color film, wa

CRIMINOLOGY REVIEWER COMPILATION

1. Exemplar - "known prints" - fingerprints deliberately collecte

1. Jan Evangelista Purkinje (1787 - 1869) - a czech physiologist

3. Sir William James Herschel - initiated fingerprinting in India.

CRIMINOLOGY REVIEWER COMPILATION

Latent Print - (known as dactyloscopy or hand print identification

2. Whorl - constitute 30% to 35% of all fingerprints.

CRIMINOLOGY REVIEWER COMPILATION

4. Island - a single small ridge inside a short ridge or ridge ending

Forensic Odontology - study of dental features to identify a victim

he would have them behave with himself.

3. To find out the manner of death, whether

Pathology - is the precise study and diagnosis of disease.

Injury - is damage to a biological organism which can be

1. incised wound - caused by a clean, sharp edged

CRIMINOLOGY REVIEWER COMPILATION

2. laceration - irregular tear like wound caused by

CRIMINOLOGY REVIEWER COMPILATION

37 degrees celsius or 98 degrees fahrenheit - average

Ante Mortem - before death.

Necrophagus - this type of organism feeds directly on

CRIMINOLOGY REVIEWER COMPILATION

accompanied by strong unpleasant odor.

CRIMINOLOGY REVIEWER COMPILATION

Coffin Birth - (post Morten fetal extrusion) - is the

aid in legal investigations.

Code of Hammurabi - King of Babylon (4000 to 3000 BC) is

What are the 5 stages of insect development?

Bologna, Italy - where the first medico-legal autopsy was

What are the 2 methods of biological forensics are

Bartolomeo de Varignana - conducted the first medicolegal autopsy in Italy in 1302.

Residence time - this defines how long an insect colony

Inquest - is the legal or judicial inquiry to ascertain a

LIE DETECTION AND INTERROGATION (POLYGRAPH)

Polygraph - popularly referred to as lie detector. - measures and r

blood pressure - is the pressure exerted by circulating bloo

pulse - represents the tactile arterial palpitation of the hear

CRIMINOLOGY REVIEWER COMPILATION

ohmmeter - is an electrical instrument that measures electrical

3 Phases Of A Polygraph Examination

Conclusions That A Polygraph Examiner May Reach

* A polygraph test normally lasts between one and a half hour

CRIMINOLOGY REVIEWER COMPILATION

polygraph machine is in good working condition.