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INSTITUTE OF AERONAUTICS & ENGG., BHOPAL (M.P.

)
CAR PAPER - I
SET - 1

Q.1 The slaughtering and flaying of animals and of depositing rubbish filth and other polluted matter is prohibited from an aerodrome
reference point within as
1. Radius of 5 km
2. Radius of 10 km
3. Radius of 15 km
4. Radius of 25 km
Q.2 No building or structure shall be constructed or erected or no tree shall be planted on any land from the aerodrome reference point
within the radius of not exceeding
1. 20 km
2. As in 1 & if building already erected to be demolished
3. 10 km if building erected height should not be more than 30
4. 1 & 2 and if central govt. is of opinion that it is necessary for safety of a/c operation
Q.3 The micro light a/c with requirement s relating to the maintenance standards and certification in accordance with
1. Rule 57
2. Rule 60
3. Rule 54
4. Rule 60 sub Rule 2
Q.4 No operator operating a domestic air transport service in India shall
1. Carry a person having high blood pr.
2. Serve any alcoholic drink
3. Not allow any person to consume any alcoholic drink while on board
4. 2 & 3 are correct
Q.5 When an a/c involved in and incident notify the incident to the D.G
1. By the pilot in command
2. By the operator/owner/hirer
3. By the DAW of the region
4. 1 or 2 & also within 48 hrs of the incident
Q.6 DGCA lays down the standards and procedures for ensuring compliance of a/w requirements & continuous monitoring of approved
organization these requirements are aimed to implement the recommended practices laid down in the
1. ICAO annex 2,4 & 7
2. ICAO annex 4,6, & 10
3. ICAO annex 1,6 & 8
4. ICAO annex 2,10 & 12
Q.7 No person shall operate any air transport service in India without obtaining
1. Operating license
2. Operating permit
3. As in 2 shall be maintained current & valid C of A & C of R
4. C of A & C of R
Q.8 To amend the MEL as and when MMEL is amended it shall be the responsibility of the
1. QCM
2. Operator
3. QCM & submit the same to RAO office for scrutiny
4. As in 3 & forward the same with their recommendation to DGCA hq. For approval
Q.9 Regarding major defect the written information containing complete details shall be forwarded in case of schedule operators
1. On the same day of occurrence
2. Within 24 hrs
3. Within 3 days
4. As in 2 & information may be given on telephone
Q.10 In case of defects reported to and a/c at outstations on receipt of information of main base of schedule operator may be sent to RAO
1. Within a max. period of 3 days
2. Within a week
3. As in 1 unless otherwise required by the concerned RAO
4. Information to RAO is not required
Q.11 All defects observed by the flight crew during flight must be recorded soon after the flight in the case of training A/C making a series of
flight on a single day the defect must be recorded after this
1. Each sector or flight
2.As in 1 the A/C to be flown after rectifying the defect
3. Last flight of the day
4. As in 3 & to be counter singed by the concerned AME
Q.12 When the defects are observed at places away from the normal base the defects are to be recorded in the
1. PDR kept in A/C
2. JLB
3. Record on a sheet of paper & recorded in PDR 4. Loose sheets of JLB
Q.13 Engine overhaul records in respect of all but particularly failed engines shall be preserved atleast for
1. 2 Years
2. 5 Years
3. 10 Years
4. For 5 years by overhauling agencies for scrutiny & reference
Q.14 The work performed at predetermined intervals to maintain an A/C components or systems in an airworthy condition means
1. Breakdown maintenance
2. Preventive maintenance
3. Condition monitoring
4. Unscheduled maintenance
Q.15 The storage & handling procedure for electrostatic device components are detailed in for guidance
1. CAR series E part 7
2. CAR series E part 1
3. AAC 6 of 2000
4. AAC 8 of 2000
Q.16 Investigation of major defects reports should be completed within
1. 3 months
2. Fortnight
3. Weeks time
4. 3 days
Q.17 Delay to schedule service of 15 min duration shall be reported to RAO
1. Immediately
2. Within 12 hrs
3. Within 3 days
4. Within 24 hrs
Q.18 The period of training in the approved schools will be counted as
1. Training period
2. Total aeronautical experience
3. As in 2 & to become eligible for appearing in the AME license exam
4. As in 3 & endorsement of specific rating on the license

Q.19 Transit line station shall have updated & available for reference & use
1. Troubleshooting charts
2. Maintenance manual
3. List of circulars issued by QC department
4. As in 1 & set of schedules including special inspection schedules
Q.20 A/C & other aeronautical products to be eligible for export to India must meet the requirements of
1. FAR JAR part 23
2. FAR JAR part 21
3. FAR JAR part 33
4. FAR JAR 25
Q.21 Special inspection schedule of A/C such as heavy landing post lightening strike etc may be prepared by the operator & approved by the
1. RAO
2. QCM
3. As in 2 & in accordance with the manufacturers recommendation
4. DGCA hq
Q.22 Basic license holder of mechanical stream may be approved to carry out transit/layover inspection provided
1. Has carried out at least 7 relevant inspections under the qualified AME
2. As in 1 & a certificate to this effect shall be given by the QCM
3. As in 1 & requires association of a DGC A representative for carrying out the relevant inspection & found satisfactory
4. None
Q.23 Most common factors which may cause deterioration in the wooden joints
1. Development of the microbiological growth 2. Knots & spiral grains
2. 3. Checks & shakes
4. As in 1 & mechanical force due mainly to timber shrinkage
Q.24 Water penetration in wooden structure can be detected by
1. Hygrometer
2. Bulging of affected portion
3. The removal of few screws from the area in question will reveal by degree of corrosion
4. 1 & 3 are correct
Q.25 If the glue exhibits a crazing or star shaped patterns this indicates
1. Two rapid setting
2. As in 1 pot life of the glue having been exceeded
3. Moisture in the glued joint
4. Joint is not cured properly
Q.26Perflight inspections & inspections upto 10 hrs schedules on the micro light a/c are carried out by
1.Appropriately licensed AMEs
2. As in 1 or by the persons authorized by the DGCA
3. Pilot of the a/c
4. As in 1 or BAMEL holders
Q.27 Higher inspection upto 25 hrs of hot air balloons is carried out by
1. Appropriately licensed AME
2. Approved or authorized person
3. Appropriately licensed pilot
4. 1 & 2 are correct
Q.28 Procedure/work sheets pertaining to balloons to be preserved after completion of work for at least
1. 5 years
2. 2 years
3. 1 years
4. 10 years
Q.29 In pooling of a/c the pool partner shall be
1. AMO
2. Of a common wealth country
3. As in 1 by the approved regulatory authority 4. As in 2 or member of ICAO
Q.30 No person may operate an A/C that has an experimental certificate
1. For carrying the passengers
2. Over a densely populated area
3. Over congested areas
4. As 2 & 3 unless it is for the purpose of the landing & take off
Q.31 The fuelling of an A/C shall be done under the supervision of a person nominated
1.By AVGAS agencies
2. By operator
3. As in 2 & as specified in the QC manual
4. As in 1 & approved by the inspector of explosives
Q.32 In case of pressure fueling metal to metal contact between the a/c filling & the fueling hose coupling
1. Shall be ensured
2. Shall be avoided
3. As in 1 & in addition a banding pin from the furling hose coupling to a/c structure near the fuel receptable be used to provide
additional safe guard
4. As in 2 & make sure hose coupling don not rub with the a/c structure
Q.33 Before & during fuelling if the hazardous condition exist fuelling operation shall
1. Continue by taking all the precautions
2. Continue provided it is brought to the notice of DGCA
3.
Immediately be suspended
4. 1 & 3 are correct
Q.34 Engine of viechels where fuels is spilled shall not be started until the area is declared safe within
1. 43 mtrs
2. 15 mtrs
3. 6 mtrs
4. None
Q.35 With a newly lined tank to check for soundness & adherence to tank shell an inspection should be completed
1. 5 year after the lining was installed
2. 3 years after the lining was installed
3. 1 year after the lining was installed
4. As in 2 & defects should be rectified before the tank is refilled
Q.36 Floating sections shall be inspected for satisfactory operation
1. Once in a week
2. Once in fort night
3. As in 1 & to be repaired if defective
4. As in 3 & to be epicoated
Q.37 Fuel in delivery hoses should be recirulated if no fuel has been dispensed from an installation
1. For a period of 2 weeks
2. For a longer period as in 1
3. 2 days
4. Unless a sampling check is carried out
Q.38 As a routine measure fuelling vehicles should be purged of water and sediments
1. Weekly
2. Once a day before use
3. As in 2 and should encompass all drain cocks tank compartments and filter separator etc
2. As in 1 and should encompass all drain cocks etc
Q.39 Barrelled fuel should not be used unless it has been assessed
1. As fit for use in a/c by laboratory test
2. As fit for use in a/c by testing for water contamination
3. As in 1 and storage period exceeded more than 6 months
4. As fit for use in a/c by DGCA officials
Q.40 Fuel should be assessed as unsatisfactory for use in a/c if a sample shows
1. Sediments
2. Globules of water
3. Clouilmers
4. All of the above

Q.41 Gyro instruments in first year of shelf should be


1. Exercised as per approved test schedules 2. Exercised by fotting in aircraft
3. As in 1 and bearing lubricated as per makers recommendation
4. All are correct
Q.42 The sholf life for each type of instruments must be reflected in the
1. Quality control manual
2. Maintenance system manual
3. Operational manual
4. All are correct
Q.43 Land planes when flying and at a distance of more than 50 N.M away from the shore shall carry
1. One life jacket or equivalent individual floatation device for each person on board
2. One raft for individual person
3. As in 1 and stowed in a position easily accessible from the seat or birth of the person for whose use it is provided
4. None of the above
Q.44 All aeroplanes operated on long range over water flights shall be equipped with at least two ELTS one of which shall be automatic from
1. 1st Jan 2006
2. 1st Jan 2005
3. 12th April 2005
25th Dec 2004
Q.45 All aeroplanes operating over water beyond a distance of 100 NM from the sea shore shall be equipped with
1. One water activated ELT
2. Two ELTs
3. Two water activated ELTs
4. None of the above
Q.46 No. passenger will be carried on board a glider
1. When flown above 10,000
2. When flown during water
3. When flown on international routes
4. During planned/international cloud flying
Q.47 Type I FDR is capable of recording aeroplane parameters and is capable of retraining the information recorded during at least
1. 22 parameter ad the last 50 hrs of its operation
2. 32 parameter
3. As in 2 and the last 25 hrs of its operation
4. As in 2 and the last 30 hrs of its operation
Q.48 No person shall operate turbine engined aeroplane unless it is equipped with
1. GPS
2. CFIT
3. GPWS
4. SSR
Q.49 No person shall operate piston engined aeroplane of max take off mass in excess of 5700 kg or type certified to carry more than
1. 9 passengers unless it is equipped with GPWS
2. 9 passengers unless it is equipped with GPS
3. 30 passengers unless it is equipped with GPWS
4. 30 passengers unless it is equipped with GPS
Q.50 All turbo jet aeroplanes of max. certificated take off mass in excess of 5700 kg or authorized to carry more than 9 passengers may be
equipped with a
1. GPWS
2. GCAS
3. As in 1 and forward looking wind shear warning
4. None of the above
Q.51 The candidate who is declared failed in the oral cum practical test can avail the subsequent chance
1. Provided he has gained 3 months additional experience on the particular A/C or engine
2. Provided he has gained 6 months additional experience on the particular A/C or engine
3. No additional experience is required for the subsequent chance
4. None of the above
Q.52 AME licence holders in cat B if required endorsement in cat-A must
1. Required to pass paper III of LA
2. Require to pass paper III of CP
3. Not required to pass paper III of LA
4. Not eligible for endorsement in cat A
Q.53 No person acting as or carried in aircraft for the purpose of acting as engineer shall have taken or used any alkolic drink, sedative,
narcotic or stimulant drug within
1. 24 hrs of the commencement of the flight
2. 12 hrs of the commencement of flight
3. As in 2 or use any such preparation in the course of flight
4. As in 3 and shall not exercise privileges of his licence
Q.54 No person holding an open rating endorsement on the AME licence shall exercise the privileges of that rating on any aircraft
1. Unless he has familiarized and worked for a minimum period 3 months
2. Unless he has familiarized and worked for a minimum period of one month
3. Unless he has familiarized and worked for a minimum period of at least a year
4. As in 1 and before exercising the privileges
Q.55 The guidelines for the refresher course required for the renewal of AME licence and the exemptions there of are given in
1. CAR series L part VI
2. AAC 8 of 2000
3. AAC 8 of 2002
4. 1 & 3 are correct
Q.56 The candidates AME licence has remained lapsed for a period of more than one year and less than two year the candidate
1. Will have to appear in the written paper followed by an oral check
2. Will have to appear for oral check conducted by the regional office
3. As in 2 and required a certificate certified by the employer/CE/QCM that he has not exercised the privileges during the lapsed
period of licence
4. As in 2 and will be renewed with as warning to the AME
Q.57 Requirement for the grant of approval and
1. Must hold BAMEC in LA, CP, ES, IS
2. Applicant must have one year experience in overhaul +1
3. The application must be forwarded to the RAO by the QCM of the organization with the request of grant for approval
4. As in 3 & applicant must hold BAMEC in HA, JE, ES, IS, RN
Q.58 C of C holder the NDT shall have passed
1. At last 10th class
2. At least 12th class with science & maths
3. At least B.Sc with maths
4. At least middle & ITI certificate holder
Q.59 C of C may be suspended or cancelled by DGCA in accordance
1. Sub rule 14 of rule 64
2. Sub rule 16 of rule 62
3. Sub rule 10 of rule 61
4. Sub rule 14 of rule 61
Q.60 Flight time for the helicopter starts
1. Take off to touch down
2. When helicopter moves with own power till its come to halt after a stroke
3. The moment the helicopter rotors are engaged until the moment the rotors are disengaged

4.

Chocks to chocks

Q.61 A helicopter shall not be refueled with passengers embarking or disembarking


1. When the engine is running
2. When the rotor is turning
3. When the engine is off & hot
4. As in 2 & unless the operator is granted specific authorization by DGCA
Q.62 Hang gilders of powered the max. all of weight should be
1.Less than275 kg for a single seater
2. Less than 475 kg for a double seater
3. As in 2 is not capable of more than 70 knots at full power in level flight
4. As in 1 & 3 has a power of stall speed which does not exceed 30 knts
Q.63 For the hang gliders production of C of C shall be prerequisite for the issue of
1. C of A
2. Certificate of safety
3. Permit to fly
4. FRC
Q.64 Operators can not operate a twin engine a/c of AUW more than
1. 3000 kg beyond 60 min
2. 5700 kg beyond 60 min
3. As in 2 on single engine inoperative cruise speed unless approved by DGCA for ETOPS
4. As in 1 on single engine inoperative cruise speed unless approved by DGCA for ETOPS
Q.65 The manual shall be submitted to the RAO before seeking approval of ETOPS flight
1. 6 months in advance
2. 2 months in advance
3. Within 2 months
4. No time limit
Q.66 No person or operator shall use aeroplane flight simulator for imparting trg to flight crew for a/c whose max take off weight is more
than 5700 kg unless it has been approved
1. By the chief flying instructor of the organization
2. By the ACM for the specific purpose of training
3. By the DGCA for the specific purpose of training
4. By the manufacturer of simulator
Q.67 In case of experiencing any difficulty in complying with the modification the operator may apply for a concession with proper
justification to the
.
1. DGCA hq
2. RAO
3. Manufacturer of aircraft
4. Regulating authority of country of manufacturer
Q.68 Regarding installation of a/c radio equipment and after feasibility study on appropriately licenced AME shall prepare the structural
installation drawing and the system wiring diagram number of copies submitted for approval
1. Six copies of the drawing along with the modification details
2. As in a to the local airworthiness office
3. To DGCA hq
4. To the country of manufacture of the a/c
Q.69 Inspection after flying through electrical storm or lightening strike
1. Radio installation is to be checked for bonding
2. Loop antenna is to be demagnetized
3. Insulation of RF cable is to be checked
4. As in 1 and 3 and if lightening arrestors are installed in antenna circuit
Q.70 The radio equipment removed from a damaged aircraft shall be
1. Rejected
2. Subjected to through visual inspection
3. As in 2 and carried out FTD check before they are put in service again
4. As in 1 or to be sent for overhauling
Q.71 All scheduled airlines capable of carrying more than 30 passengers including crew when engaged in commercial flights shall carry
1. 2 standard first aid kit and one physician kit
2. One standard first aid kit and one physician kit
3. One standard first aid kit and automated external defibrillators
4. As in 2 and automated external defibrillators
Q.72 Extension of weighment of Aircraft beyond 3 months may be granted by
1. Director of airworthiness DGCA hq
2. DAW of concerned region
3. As in 2 and under intimation to head quarters promptly
4. No extension of weighment is granted
Q.73 Other than the aircraft engine and propeller log book shall be preserved
1. For two years form the date the a/c met to an accident and damaged beyond economical repair
2. For one year after the equipment is permanently with drawn from service
3. For two years from the last entry here in
4. For three years from the last entry there in
Q.74 A minor modification shall be one
1. Which has an appreciable effect on the weight and balance
2. Which has no appreciable effect on weight and balance
3. Which has an appreciable effect on design data
4. None of the above
Q.75 Gyro instruments should not be removed from their installation mountings
1. Within at least 20 minutes after power has been removed from this unit
2. Till they are unchanged
3. Within at least half an hour after power has been removed from this unit
4. During the ground running of aircraft
Q.76 Banner towing is considered as a commercial activity and shall be performed by an operator holding
1. Scheduled operators permit
2. Non scheduled operators permit
3. Air operators certificate
4. As in 2 & 3 issued by DGCA indicating o0erations specification for banner towing operations
Q.77 If an operator complying any foreign AME the AME will be authorized to certify the a/c if
1. He has 2 years experience
2. Pass oral check from RAO
3. Have current and valid AME licence
4. All of the above
Q.78 Procedure of periodical validation of software of computer used as test equipment is given in
1. QC manual
2. Operation manual
3. QC manual and maintenance system manual
4. Maintenance system manual
Q.79 An a/c which conduct series of flight during a day in the vicinity of aerodrome should record the parameters
1. After last flight of the day
2. When serious defect/damage occurs
3. In a/c defect register
4. All
Q.80 By the 10th of month operator will report to RAO
1. No. of shut down (engine)
2. Reliability index
3. As in 1 & 2
4. As in 3 and symptom observed that led the shut down