EE Objective Paper 1

ESE - 2016
Detailed Solutions of
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
PAPER-I
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Directors Message
UPSC has introduced the sectional cutoffs of each paper and screening cut off in
three objective papers (out of 600 marks). The conventional answer sheets of only
those students will be evaluated who will qualify the screening cut offs.
In my opinion the General Ability Paper was easier than last year but Civil
Engineering objective Paper-I and objective Paper-II both are little tougher/
lengthier. Hence the cut off may be less than last year. The objective papers of ME
and EE branches are average but E&T papers are easier than last year.
Expected Minimum Qualifying Marks in Each OBJECTIVE Paper (out of 200 Marks)
Category
GEN
OBC
SC
ST
PH
Percentage
15%
15%
15%
15%
10%
30
30
30
30
20
Marks
Expected Minimum Qualifying Marks in Each CONVENTIONAL Paper (out of 200 Marks)
Category
GEN
OBC
SC
ST
PH
Percentage
15%
15%
15%
15%
10%
30
30
30
30
20
Marks
Expected Screening cut off out of 600 Marks (ESE 2016)
Branch
GEN
OBC
SC
ST
CE
225
210
160
150
ME
280
260
220
200
EE
310
290
260
230
E&T
335
320
290
260
Note: These are expected screening cut offs for ESE 2016. MADE EASY does not
take guarantee if any variation is found in actual cutoffs.
B. Singh (Ex. IES)
CMD , MADE EASY Group
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ESE-2016 : Electrical Engg.

Solutions of Objective Paper-I | Set-A
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3
Paper-I (Electrical Engineering)

1.
Permeance is inversely related to

(a) resistance
(c) reluctance
(b) conductance
(d) capacitance
Ans.
(c)
2.
Consider the following statements regarding an ideal core material:

1. It has very high permeability
2. It loses all its magnetism when there is no current flow.
3. It does not saturate easily.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans.
(d)
An ideal core material should have high permeability which causes the magnetic
field lines to be concentrated in the core material.
The magnetic field is often created by a coil of wire around the core that carries
a current. So if there is no current then it should loose all its magnetism.
Core saturation means the core flux stops increasing with increase in magnetizing
current, which is undersirable. Hence for proper operation the core should not
saturate easily.
3.
The capacitance of a conducting sphere of radius r with a total charge of q uniformly

distributed on its surface is
(a) proportional to qr
(b) independent of r
(c) proportional to
q
r
(d) independent of q
Ans.
(d)
4.
The characteristic impedance of a transmission line depends upon

(a) shape of the conductor
(b) surface treatment of the conductor
(c) conductivity of the material
(d) geometric configuration of the conductor
Ans.
(d)
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4
5.
In a series R-L-C circuit supplied by a source of 125 V at a resonant frequency of 220 Hz,
the magnitudes of the voltages across the capacitor and the inductor are found to be
4150 V. If the resistance of the circuit is 1, then the selectivity of the circuit is
(a) 33.20
(b) 3.32
(c) 0.0301
(d) 0.301
Ans.
(a)
f0 = 220 Hz
VC = VL = 4150 volts
R=1
VL or VC 4150
=
= 33.2
V
125
Selectivity = Q = 33.2
Q=
6.
+
125 V
The value of characteristic impedance in free space is equal to

(a)
0
0
(b)
0 0
(c)
1
0 0
(d)
0
0
Ans.
(a)
7.
The magnitude of magnetic field strength H is independent of

(a) current only
(b) distance only
(c) permeability of the medium only
(d) both current and distance
Ans.
(c)
8.
Consider the following types of transmission lines:

1. Open-wire line
2. Twin-lead wire
3. Coaxial cable
The capacitance per metre will be least in which of the above transmission lines?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans.
(a)
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Scroll down
For Answer Key of ESE-2016
Page 2 of 3

9.
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5
Three equal point charges are located at the vertices of an equilateral triangle on the
circumference of a circle of radius r. The total electric field intensity at the centre of the
circle would be
(a) zero
(b)
(d)
(c)
12 0r 2
3q
4 0r 2
q
3 0r 2
Ans.
(a)
10.
The Poynting vector on the surface of a long straight conductor of radius a and
conductivity 0, which carries current I in the z-direction, is
I2
(a)
(c)
0 b
a
3 r
I2
0 2a
(b)
a
3 r
(d)
I 2
2 0 2 a 2
I 2
2 0 2 a 3
ar
ar
Ans.
(d)
11.
Consider the following applications in respect of a square corner reflector:

1. Radio astronomy
2. Point-to-point communication
3. TV broadcast
Which of the above applications is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans.
(d)
12.
The variation of | B | with distance r from a very long straight conductor carrying a current
I is correctly represented by
(a)
(b)
|B |
|B |
r
(c)
(d)
|B |
r
Ans.
|B |
r
(d)

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13.
The resistivity of hard drawn copper at 20C is 1.9 106 cm. The resistivity of annealed
copper compared to hard drawn copper is
(a) lesser
(b) slightly larger
(c) same
(d) much larger
Ans.
(a)
The mechanical treatment such as cold working produces localized strain in the material
which results in the increase in resistivity of material. A hard drawn copper wire thus
has lower conductivity (i.e., higher resistivity) than annealed copper.
14.
The number of electrons excited into the conduction band from valence band (with
E = forbidden energy gap and k = Boltzmanns constant) is proportional to
Ans.
E
(a) exp
kT
2E
(b) exp
kT
E
(c) exp
kT
2 E
(d) exp
kT
(c)
n = Nce (EC EF )/ kT
= Nce (EC EV )+ (EF EV )/ kT
= Nce E / kT .e (EF EV )/ kT
n e E / kT
15.
Superconductivity in a material can be destroyed by

(a) increasing the temperature above a certain limit
(b) applying a magnetic field above a certain limit
(c) passing a current above a certain limit
(d) decreasing the temperature to a point below the critical temperature
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans.
(c)
Superconductivity can be destroyed
1. by increasing the temperature above a critical temperature (TC).
2. by applying magnetic field greater than the critical magnetic field (HC).
3. by passing a current greater than the critical current (IC) as per Silsbee rule.

16.
Page
7
The relative permeability of a medium is equal to (with M = magnetization of the medium

and H = magnetic field strength)
(a) 1 +
(c) 1 +
Ans.
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M
H
(b) 1
M
H
(d) 1
M
H
M
H
(a)
We have susceptibility
HM =
M
= r 1
H
so relative permeability
r = 1 +
M
H
17.
The electrical resistivity of many metals and alloys drops suddenly to zero when they
are cooled to a low temperature (i.e., nearly equal to liquid helium temperature). Such
materials (metals and alloys) are known as
(a) piezoelectric materials
(b) diamagnetic materials
(c) superconductors
(d) high-energy hard magnetic materials
Ans.
(c)
Superconductors are the materials whose resistivity becomes very small or zero below
a critical temperature.
18.
The dielectric strength of rubber is 40000 V/mm at frequency of 50 Hz. What is the
thickness of insulation required on an electrical conductor at 33 kV to sustain the
breakdown?
(a) 0.83 mm
(b) 8.3 mm
(c) 8.3 cm
(d) 0.083 mm
Ans.
(a)
Dielectric strength of rubber is = 40000 V/mm
Applied voltage = 33 kV
Let us assume thickness is t then
40000V
103 m
t=
33 103V
t
33 103 103
= 8.25 104 m = 0.825 103 m
40000
= 0.83 mm
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19.
The conductivity of insulating materials (a very small value) is called as

(a) residual conductivity
(b) dielectric conductivity
(c) ionic conductivity
(d) bipolar conductivity
Ans.
(c)
20.
An intrinsic semiconductor has equal number of electrons and holes in it. This is due
to
(a) doping
(b) free electrons
(c) thermal energy
(d) valence electrons
Ans.
(c)
In an intrinsic semiconductor if we increase temperature then few of the electrons in
valence band acquire sufficient energy so that they overcome forbidden gap and reach
into the conduction band; and a corresponding hole is generated in valence band. Hence
because of the thermal energy equal number electrons and holes are generated in an
intrinsic semiconductor.
21.
When a very small amount of higher conducting metal is added to a conductor, its
conductivity will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain the same
(d) increase or decrease depending on the impurity
Ans.
(b)
When we add a metal with another metal this makes an alloy. Conductivity of alloy is
less than the conductivity of metal as alloy has less regular structure than metal.
22.
An electrically balanced atom has 30 protons in its nucleus and 2 electrons in its
outermost shell. The material made of such atom is
(a) a conductor
(b) an insulator
(c) a semiconductor
(d) a superconductor
Ans.
(a)
There are 30 protons in electrically balanced atom of material, hence atomic number
of material is 30. So this material is Zn (having atomic number 30, and 2 electrons in
its outermost shell), which is a conductor.

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23.
The temperature coefficient of resistance of a doped semiconductor is

(a) always positive
(b) always negative
(c) zero
(d) positive or negative depending upon the level of doping
Ans.
(d)
For a normally doped semiconductor temperature coefficient of resistance is negative.
But a heavily doped semiconductor (i.e. degenerate semiconductor) has metal like
properties, hence it has positive temperature coefficient of resistance.
So the temperature coefficient of resistance for a doped semiconductor can be positive
or negative depending upon level of doping.
24.
In the slice processing of an integrated circuit

(a) components are formed in the areas where silicon dioxide remains
(b) components are formed in the areas where silicon dioxide has been removed
(c) the diffusing elements diffuse through silicon dioxide
(d) only on diffusion process is used
Ans.
(b)
In the slice processing of an integrated circuit the components are formed in selective
areas known as windows where silicon dioxide has been etched.
25.
Permanent magnet loses the magnetic

(a) atomic vibration
(c) realignment of dipoles
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
Ans.
behaviour when heated because of

(b) dipole vibration
(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only
(c)
As a permanent magnet is heated, the electron spins (like tiny magnets) become
more likely to be in high energy state, which leads to atomic vibration. That means
that are less lined up so the total magnetism is reduced.
Heating means providing extra thermal energy because of which it becomes easy
for domain walls (the boundaries between regions that are lined up pointing different
directions) to slide around. Hence the domain walls will rearrange so that they reduce
the large scale field energy by pointing different directions, hence permanent magnet
loses magnetic behaviour.
As we further heat the individual dipole spin (dipole vibration) within domain become
more likely to point opposite to their neighbour which results in losing permanent
magnetic behaviour.

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10
26.
The magnetic field required to reduce the residual magnetization to zero is called
(a) retentivity
(b) coercivity
(c) hysteresis
(d) saturation
Ans.
(b)
The magnetic field required to reduce the residual magnetization (or spontaneous
magnetization) to zero value is applied in reverse direction and is called coercive field.
27.
A certain fluxmeter has the following specifications:

Air gap flux density = 0.05 Wb/m2
Number of turns on moving coil = 40
Area of moving coil = 750 mm2
If the flux linking 10 turns of a search coil of 200 mm2 area connected to the fluxmeter
is reversed in a uniform field of 0.5 Wb/m2, then the deflection of the fluxmeter will be
(a) 87.4
(b) 76.5
(c) 65.6
(d) 54.7
Ans.
(b)
Constant of Fluxmeter
G = Nc Bc Ac
= 40 0.05 750 106 = 1500 106
Flux linkage with search coil = 0.5 200 106
= 1 104 wb
As the flux is reversed, the change in flux linking with search coil is
= 2 1 104 = 2 104 Wb
=
2 104 =
G
N
1500 106
10
= 1.33 rad = 1.33
28.
180
= 76.2
Consider the following statements:

1. Both ferromagnetic and ferrimagnetic materials have domain structures; each domain
has randomly oriented magnetic moments when no external field is applied.
2. Both ferromagnetic and ferrimagnetic materials make those domains that have
favourable orientation to the applied field grow in size.
3. The net magnetic moment in ferromagnetic material is higher than that in ferrimagnetic
material.
4. The net magnetic moment in ferrimagnetic material is higher than that in ferromagnetic
material.
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Page
11

(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans.
(d)
In ferrimagnetic materials dipoles are oriented in opposite direction but having different
magnitude as shown below:
While in ferromagnetic materials in a domain all the dipoles are oriented in same direction
as shown below:
So net magnetic moment in ferromagnetic materials is higher than that in ferrimagnetic

materials. Hence statement 4 is wrong, so answer will be option (d).
29.
The Hall voltage, VH , for a thin copper plate of 0.1 mm carrying a current of 100 A with
the flux density in the z-direction, Bz = 1 Wb/m2 and the Hall coefficient,
RH = 7.4 x 1011 m3/C, is
(a) 148 V
(c) 74 V
Ans.
(b) 111 V
(d) 37 V
(c)
VH =
t=
I=
B=
RH =
?
0.1 mm
100 A
1 Wb/m2
7.4 1011 m3/c
BI
7.4 10 11 1 100
= 7.4 10 5 V
=
t
0.1 10 3
VH = 74 volt
VH = RH
30.
A Zener regulator has an input voltage varying between 20 V and 30 V. The desired
regulated voltage is 12 V, while the load varies between 140 and 10 k. The maximum
resistance in series with the unregulated source and Zener diode would be
(a) 3.3
(b) 6.6
(c) 36.6
(d) 93.3

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12
(d)
Imin = Iz
min
+ Iz
max
12
0 + Vz
=
140
RL min
R=
20 12
Vmin Vz
=
= 93.3
12/140
Imin
31.
A short in any type of circuit (series, parallel or combination) causes the total circuit
1. resistance to decrease
2. power to decrease
3. current to increase
4. voltage to increase
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1 and 3
Ans.
(d)
A short in any type of circuit causes the total circuit resistance to decrease and thereby
the current to increase.
32.
An air-cored solenoid of 250 turns has a cross-sectional area A = 80 cm2 and length
l = 100 cm. The value of its inductance is
(a) 0.425 mH
(b) 0.628 mH
(c) 0.751 mH
(d) 0.904 mH
Ans.
(b)
L=
N 2 a
250 250 4 10 7 80 10 4
l
= 0r as air r 1
100 102
= 0.628 mH
33.
The current in a coil changes uniformly from 10 A to 1 A in half a second. A voltmeter

connected across the coil gives a reading of 36 V. The self-inductance of the coil is
(a) 0.5 H
(b) 1 H
(c) 2 H
(d) 4 H
Ans.
(c)
V= L
36 = L
di
dt
9
= L = 2H
1/ 2

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13
34.
In a mutually coupled circuit, the primary current is reduced from 4 A to zero in 10 s.

A voltage of 40000 V is observed across the secondary. The mutual inductance between
the coils is
(a) 100 H
(b) 10 H
(c) 0.1 H
(d) 0.01 H
Ans.
(c)
V= M
di
4
4000 = M
dt
10 106
M = 101 M = 0.1 H
35.
N resistors each of resistance R when connected in series offer an equivalent resistance

of 50 and when reconnected in parallel the effective resistance is 2 . The value of
R is
(a) 2.5
(b) 5
(c) 7.5
(d) 10
Ans.
(d)
RP
RP =
R
n
n R = 50
2 =
R
n
50
n
R = 2n
RS = nR
R =
....(1)
....(2)
Multiplying equation (1) and (2)

50
2n = 100 R = 100
n
R = 10
R2 =
36.
For a series R-L circuit

i(t) =
2 sin(t 45)
If L = 1 , the value of R is
(a) 1
(c)
(b) 3
(d) 3 3
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14
(a)
i (t) =
2 sin(t 45)
L = 1
XL
tan =
XL
XL
R =
tan
R
R=
1
R = 1
tan45
37.
A single-phase full-wave rectifier is constructed using thyristors. If the peak value of
the sinusoidal input voltage is Vm and the delay angle is

radian, then the average
3
value of output voltage is
(a) 0.32 Vm
(b) 0.48 Vm
(c) 0.54 Vm
(d) 0.71 Vm
Ans.
(a)
The average output voltage of single phase full wave rectifier is
38.
V0 =
2Vm
2Vm
cos =
cos60
V0 =
Vm
= 0.32 Vm
The potential difference VAB in the circuit

1A
VAB
+
VA
1
4
is
(a) 0.8 V
(c) 1.8 V
3
5V
3
VB
(b) 0.8 V
(d) 1.8 V

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15
(b)
1A
VA
VC = 5 V
VB
5V
4
V C 0 = 5 VC = 5 V
At node A:
1+
VA 5 VA
+
=0
1
4
5 VA = 16 VA =
16
V
5
At node B:
1 +
VB 5 VB
+
= 0 2VB = 8
3
3
VB = 4 V
VAB = VA VB =
16
4 = 0.8 V
5
39.
Two bulbs of 100 W/250 V and 150 W/250 V are connected in series across a supply
of 250 V. The power consumed by the circuit is
(a) 30 W
(b) 60 W
(c) 100 W
(d) 250 W
Ans.
(b)
100W/250 V
150W/250 V
R1 =
V2
250 250
R1 =
R1 = 625
P1
100
R2 =
V2
250 250
R2 =
= 416.67
P2
150
Req = R1 + R2
= 1041.67
P=
V2
250 250
=
; 60 W
Req
1041.66

40.
Thevenins equivalent of a circuit, operating at = 5 rad/s, has

VOC = 3.71 15.9 V
ZO = 2.38 j 0.667
At this frequency, the minimal realization of the Thevenins impedance will have
(a) a resistor, a capacitor and an inductor
(b) a resistor and a capacitor
(c) a resistor and an inductor
(d) a capacitor and an inductor
Ans.
(b)
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16
Z = 2.38 j 0.667
Z = R j XC
or
Z = R j (X C X L) but X C > X L
Thevenin impedance can be realised by using either R and C or by using R, L and
C but minimal realisation will be with R and C.
41.
Analog-to-digital converter with the minimum number of bits that will convert analog input
signals in the range of 0-5 V to an accuracy of 10 mV is
(a) 6
(b) 9
(c) 12
(d) 15
Ans.
(b)
In A to D converter
Accuracy = Resolution = Error
VFS
2n 1
5V
n
2 1
10 mV
10 mV
2 103
2 1
2n 1 500
2n 501
n9
n
42.
Three 30 resistors are connected in parallel across an ideal 40 V source. What would
be the equivalent resistance seen by the load connected across this circuit?
(a) 0
(b) 10
(c) 20
(d) 30
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17
(a)
40 V
30
30
30
Req
Replacing voltage source by a short circuit
Req = 0
43.
The current i(t) through a 10 resistor in series with an inductance is given by

i(t) = 3 + 4 sin (100t + 45) + 4 sin (300t + 60) A
The RMS value of the current and the power dissipated in the circuit are respectively
(a) 5 A and 150 W
(b) 11 A and 250 W
(c) 5 A and 250 W
(d) 11 A and 150 W
Ans.
(c)
Irms =
=
2
2
Irms
1 + Irms 2 + ........
2
4 4

2 2
(3)2 +
25 = 5A
2
P = Irms
R = (5)2 (10) = 250 W
44.
Thevenins equivalents of the network in Fig. (i) are 10 V and 2 . If a resistance of

3 is connected across terminals AB as shown in Fig. (ii), what are Thevenin's
equivalents?
A
A
3
B
Fig. (i)
(a) 10 V and 1.2

(c) 10 V and 5.2
B
Fig. (ii)
(b) 6 V and 1.2

(d) 6 V and 5.2

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18
(b)
2
10 V
10 V
3 VTh
10
3 = 6V
VTH =
3+2
RTH: Deactivate independent source
2
Rth
RTH =
32 6
=
= 1.2
3+2 5
45.
A voltage source, connected to a load, has an e.m.f. of 10 V and an impedance of

(500 + j 100). The maximum power that can be transferred to the load is
(a) 0.2 W
(b) 0.1 W
(c) 0.05 W
(d) 0.01 W
Ans.
(c)
500 + j100
+
ZL
10 V
For maximum power transfer;

ZL = ZTH
ZL = 500 j100
Irms =
Vrms
z
Z = ZL + ZTH Z = 500 + j100 + 500 j100 = 1000
Irms =
Vrms
10
1
Irms =
=
A
Z
1000 100
2
Pmax = Irms
RL
2
1
500 = 0.05 W
=
100

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19
46.
An ideal transformer is rated 220/110 V. A source of 10 V and internal impedance of

2 is connected to the primary. The power transferred to a load ZL connected across
the secondary would be a maximum, when | ZL | is
(a) 4
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) 0.5
Ans.
(d)
In an ideal transformer
N1
N
Zi = Z L 1
N2
N2
...(1)
V1
N1
N
220 N1
=
1 =2
=
V2
N2
110 N2
N2
As
From equation (1),

Zi = ZL (2)2 Zi = 4ZL
And for maximum power transfer,
Zi = 2
47.
4 ZL = 2 ZL =
1
= 0.5
2
Consider the following values for the circuit shown below :

100
VR
u(t) = 250 2 sin 600t
150 V
1. VR = 100 2 V
2. I = 2A
3. L = 0.25 H
Which of the above values are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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10
20
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18
MADE EASY Selections
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20
(*)
100
+ VR
+
150 V
v(t)
V 2 = VR2 + VL2
Vrms =
250 2
2
= 250
(250)2 = VR2 + (150)2 VR = 200V

I=
VR
200
=
I = 2A
100 100
VL = IXL XL =
L = 75 L =
150
= 75
2
75
= 0.125 H
600
L = 0.125 H
48.
The response of a series R-C circuit is given by

2V q0
C
I(s) =
1
R s +
RC
where q0 is the initial charge on the capacitor. What is the final value of the current?
(a)
1 2V q0

R C
(b)
(c) Infinity
Ans.
et / RC 2V q0

R
C
(d) Zero
(d)
lim i(t ) = lim s I (s)
s 0
2V q0
C
=0
= lim s
s 0
1
R s +
RC

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21
49.
What should be done to find the initial values of the circuit variables in a first-order R-C
circuit excited by only initial conditions?
(a) To replace the capacitor by a short circuit
(b) To replace the capacitor by an open circuit
(c) To replace the capacitor by a voltage source
(d) To replace the capacitor by a current source
Ans.
(c)
As capacitor does not allow the sudden change in voltage
for initial values we replace capacitor by a voltage source.
50.
In a parallel resistive circuit, opening a branch results in

1. increase in total resistance
2. decrease in total power
3. no change in total voltage and branch voltage
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans.
(d)
+
V1
Req =
R
3
P=
+
V2
+
V3
V2
V2
3V 2
=
=
Req R /3
R
V1 = V2 = V3 = V
V
+
V1
+
V2
Req =
R
2
V2
2V 2
=
R /2
R
V1 = V2 = V
As we can see from above circuits,
Total resistance increases.
Total power decreases.
Total voltage and branch voltage remain unaffected
We have taken equal resistances even unequal values give the same analysis.
P=

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22
51.
The precision resistors are

(a) carbon composition resistors
(b) wire-wound resistors
(c) resistors with a negative temperature coefficient
(d) resistors with a positive temperature coefficient
Ans.
(b)
Wire wound resistors are used as precision resistors. They have high power rating and
low resistance value.
52.
In nodal analysis, the preferred reference node is a node that is connected to

1. ground
2. many parts of the network
3. the highest voltage source .
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans.
(a)
We always prefer to take that node as the reference node which is at ground potential.
53.
Two networks are said to be dual when

(a) their node equations are the same
(b) the loop equations of one network are analogous to the node equations of the other
(c) their loop equations are the same
(d) the voltage sources of one networks are the current sources of the other
Ans.
(b)
Duality means mathematical representation of both the networks should be identical (kVL
and kCL)
Loop equations of one network are analogous to the node euqations of the other.
54.
Reciprocity theorem is applicable to a network

1. containing R, L and C elements
2. which is initially not a relaxed system
3. having both dependent and independent sources
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans.
(a)
Reciprocity theorem is applicable in case of linear and bilateral networks containig only
one independent source.
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23
55.
Which of the following is true for the complete response of any network voltage or current
variables for a step excitation to a first-order circuit?
(a) It has the form k1eat
(b) It has the form k
(c) It may have either the form (a) or the form of (a) plus (b)
(d) It has the form e+at
Ans.
(c)
Total Response = Forced Response + Natural Response
i(t) = i() + [i(0+) i()] et /
v (t) = v () + [v (0+) v () et /
So it can be either in the form
or K + K1 eat
K1 e at
if final valueis zero
56.
A piezoelectric crystal has a coupling coefficient K of 0.32. How much electrical energy
must be applied to produce output energy of 7.06 x 103 J?
(a) 25.38 mJ
(b) 22.19 mJ
(c) 4.80 mJ
(d) 2.26 mJ
Ans.
(b)
57.
If a constant current generator of 5 A, shunted by its own resistance of 1 , delivers

maximum power P in watts to its load of RL , then the voltage across the current
generator and P are
(a) 5 V and 6.25
(b) 2.5 V and 12.5
(c) 5 V and 12.5
(d) 2.5 V and 6.25
Ans.
(d)
+
5A
VL
RL = 1
For maximum power transfer RL = 1
IL
5
1 = 2.5 A
1+ 1
VL = 2.5 1 = 2.5 V
IL =
Pmax = IL2 R = (2.5) 1

Pmax = 6.25 W

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24
58.
Three star-connected loads of 360 each and three delta-connected loads of 960
each are connected in parallel and fed from a three-phase balanced source having lineto-neutral voltage of 120 V. The line currents drawn from the supply will be
(a) 10 A each
(b) 20 A each
(c) 80 A each
(d) 160 A each
Ans.
(c)
R
360
960
Y
B
Converting -Load into star

R
80 A
360
120 V
120 V
360
Y
B
120
= 40A
3
= 40 + 40 = 80 A
I=
Itotal
59.
A wattmeter reads 10 kW, when its current coil is connected in R phase and the potential
coil is connected across R and neutral of a balanced 400 V (RYB sequence) supply.
The line current is 54 A. If the potential coil reconnected across B-Y phases with the
current coil in R phase, the new reading of the wattmeter will be nearly
(a) 10 kW
(b) 13 kW
(c) 16 kW
(d) 19 kW
Ans.
(b)
R
N
B
Y

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25
P = Vph Iph cos

10 103 =
R
400
54 cos
3
W
B
Y
cos = 0.8
P = VLIL sin
= 400 54 0.6 = 12.46 kW 13 kW
60.
The phase voltage of a three-phase, star-connected alternator is V. By mistake, the

connection of R phase got reversed. The new line voltages will have a relationship
VYB
(a) VRY = VBR =
VBR
(b) VRY = VYB =
VRY
(c) VYB = VBR =
(d) VRY = VYB = VBR
Ans.
(a)
61.
Two-wattmeter method of power measurement in three-phase system is valid for

(a) balanced star-connected load only
(b) unbalanced star-connected load only
(c) balanced delta-connected load only
(d) balanced or unbalanced star- as well as delta-connected loads
Ans.
(d)
62.
Consider the following statements regarding the effect of adding a pole in the openloop transfer function on the closed-loop step response:
1. It increases the maximum overshoot.
2. It increases the rise time.
3. It reduces the bandwidth.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

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26
Ans.
(a)
We know that adding a pole i.e., the order of denominator increase then
(i) maximum overshoot increase
(ii) rise time increases
(iii) unstability increases
(iv) reduces band width
so answer is (a)
63.
A CRO screen has 10 divisions on the horizontal scale. If a voltage signal 5 sin (314t + 45)
is examined with a line base setting of 5 ms/div, the number of signals displayed on
the screen will be
(a) 1.25 cycles
(b) 2.5 cycles
(c) 5 cycles
(d) 10 cycles
Ans.
(b)
Time period of I/P signal 5 sin (314 t + 45)
2
= 314
T
T = 20 m sec
CRO horizontal scale has 10 divisions with base setting 5 ms/div
Total time period of horizontal scale = 10 5 = 50 m sec
No. of cycle =
50 msec
20 msec = 2.5
64.
A series R-L-C circuit is connected to a 25 V source of variable frequency. The circuit

current is found to be a maximum of 0.5 A at a frequency of 400 Hz and the voltage
across C is 150 V. Assuming ideal components, the values of R and L are respectively
(a) 50 and 300 mH
(b) 12.5 and 0.119 H
(c) 50 and 0.119 H
(d) 12.5 and 300 mH
Ans.
(c)
Imax = 0.5 A ; fr = 400 Hz, VC = 150 V
As the circuit is in resonance,
VL = VC and VR = VS
VR = 25 V
25
R = 50
0.5
150
= 300
VL = I XL XL =
0.5
VR = IR R =
XL = L L =
300
L = 0.119 H
2 400
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65.
The resonant frequency for the circuit

L
for L = 0.2 H, R = 1 and C = 1 F, is

(a) 1 rad/s
(b) 2 rad/s
(c) 3 rad/s
(d) 4 rad/s
Ans.
(b)
L
Zeq
Zeq = jL + Z
1
R
1 j RC
j c
=
Z=
1
1 + j RC 1 j RC
R+
j c
R
Z=
R j R 2C
1 + 2R 2C 2
Zeq = j L +
=
R j R 2C
1 + 2R 2C 2
j L 1 + 2 R 2C 2 + R j R 2C
2
1 + R 2C 2
L + 3R 2C 2L R 2C
=
+j
1 + 2 R 2C 2
1 + 2 R 2C 2
At resonance impedance is purely resistive in nature.
Equating Imaginary part to zero.
L + 3R2C2L R2C = 0
3R2C2L = [R2C L]
R
2 =
R 2C
2
R C L
1
2
R C 2L
1
1
1
1
2 2 2 =
LC R C
10.21 1
2 = 5 1 2 = = 2 rad/sec
2 =
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28
66.
Which one of the following conditions will be correct, when three identical bulbs forming
a star are connected to a three-phase balanced supply?
(a) The bulb in R phase will be the brightest
(b) The bulb in Y phase will be the brightest
(c) The bulb in B phase will be the brightest
(d) All the bulbs will be equally bright
Ans.
(d)
67.
For the two-port network shown in the figure

+
I1
I2
V1
+
V2
V1 = 60I1 + 20I2 and V2 = 20I1 + 40I2

Consider the following for the above network :
1. The network is both symmetrical and reciprocal.
2. The network is reciprocal.
3. A = D
1
4. y11 =
50
(a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 only
(d) 1 and 3
Ans.
(b)
V1 = 60I1 + 20 I2
V2 = 20I1 + 40I2
Comparing (1) and (2) with standard Z-parameters equations i.e.
V1 = Z11 I1 + Z12 I2
V2 = Z21I1 + Z22 I2
Z11 = 60 Z12 = 20
Z21 = 20 Z22 = 40
For symmetry
Z11 = Z22 but as in the given case
60 40 Network is not symmetrical
For reciprocity
Z12 = Z21
and
20 = 20 Network is reciprocal.
From equation (2)
20I1 = V2 40I2
I1 =
1
V2 2 I2
20
...(1)
...(2)
...(3)

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29
Substituting (3) in (1):
V1 = 60 V2 2 I 2 + 20 I 2
20
V1 = 3V2 120 I2 + 20I2

V1 = 3V2 100I2
Comparing (3) and (4) with standard ABCD parameters equation i.e.
V1 = AV2 BI2
I1 = CV2 DI2
A=3
B = 100
1
20
A D
C=
Y11 =
=
Y11 =
68.
D=2
Z 22
Z 22
=
| Z | Z 11Z 22 Z 12 Z 21
40
40
1
=
=
60 40 20 20 2000 50
1
50
If the total powers consumed by three identical phase loads connected in delta and star
configurations are W1 and W2 respectively, then W1 is
(a) 3W2
(c)
Ans.
...(4)
3W2
(b)
W2
3
(d)
W2
3
(a)
P = 3PY
W1 = 3 W2
69.
A 100 Aammeter has an internal resistance of 100 . For extending its range to measure
500 A, the required shunt resistance is
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 20
(c) 25
Ans.
(d)
Rsh =
Rm
I 1
m
100
= 25
500
100
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30
70.
A 200 V PMMC voltmeter is specified to be accurate within 2% of full scale. The limiting
error, when the instrument is used to measure a voltage of 100 V, is
(a) 8%
(b) 4%
(c) 2%
(d) 1%
Ans.
(b)
% Error at any reading
71.
Full scale error Full scale value

Full scale reading value
2 200
= 4%
100
How many poles does the following function have?
F(s) =
(a) 0
(c) 2
Ans.
s 3 + 2s + 1
s 2 + 3s + 2
(b) 1
(d) 3
(c)
s 3 + 2s + 1
Since function is f(s) =
s 2 + 3s + 2
Nothing is common between numerator and denominator so number of pole is 2.
72.
The degree to which an instrument indicates the changes in measured variable without
dynamic error is
(a) repeatability
(b) hysteresis
(c) precision
(d) fidelity
Ans.
(d)
73.
Loading by the measuring instruments introduces an error in the measured parameter.

Which of the following devices gives the most accurate result?
(a) PMMC
(b) Hot-wire
(c) CRO
(d) Electrodynamic
Ans.
(c)

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31
74.
A moving-coil galvanometer can be used as a DC ammeter by connecting

(a) a high resistance in series with the meter
(b) a high resistance across the meter
(c) a low resistance across the meter
(d) a low resistance in series with the meter
Ans.
(c)
75.
Consider the following types of damping :

1. Air-friction damping
2. Fluid-friction damping
3. Eddy-current damping
PMMC type instruments use which of the above?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans.
(c)
76.
In data acquisition system, analog data acquisition system is used

(a) for narrow frequency width, while digital data acquisition system is used when wide
frequency width is to be monitored
(b) for wide frequency width, while digital data acquisition system is used when narrow
frequency width is to be monitored
(c) when quantity to be monitored varies slowly, while its counterpart is preferred if the
quantity to be monitored varies very fast
(d) when quantity to be monitored is time-variant, while digital data acquisition system
is preferred when quantity is time-invariant
Ans.
(b)
77.
During the measurement of resistance by Carey Foster bridge, no error is introduced

due to
1. contact resistance
2. connecting leads
3. thermoelectric e.m.f.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans.
(d)

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32
78.
Schering bridge is a very versatile AC bridge and is used for capacitor testing in terms
of
1. capacitance value (magnitude)
2. loss angle measurement
3. simple balance detector like PMMC instrument
4. providing safety to operators by incorporating Wagner earthing device
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans.
(c)
79.
Consider the following instruments :

1. MI instrument
2. Electrostatic instrument
3. Electrodynamometer instrument
Which of the above instruments is/are free from hysteresis and eddy-current losses?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans.
(b)
80.
Dummy strain gauges are used for

(a) compensation of temperature ' changes
(b) increasing the sensitivity of bridge
(c) compensating for different expansions
(d) calibration of strain gauge
Ans.
(a)
81.
A wattmeter is measuring the power supplied to a circuit whose power factor is 0.7. The
frequency of the supply is 50 c/s. The wattmeter has a potential coil circuit of resistance
1000 . and inductance 0.5 H. The error in the meter reading is
(a) 4%
(b) 8%
(c) 12%
(d) 16%
Ans.
(d)
% Er =
Pm PT
100 = tan tan 100
PT
2fLP
= tan R 100
P
2 50 0.5
= tan(cos 1 0.7)
100 = 16%
1000
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33
82.
A moving-coil instrument gives full-scale deflection of 10 mA, when a potential difference

10 mV is applied across its terminals. To measure currents up to 100 A, the same
instrument can be used
(a) with shunt resistance of 0.0001 (b) with series resistance of 0.01
(c) with shunt resistance of 0.01
(d) with series resistance of 0.0001
Ans.
(a)
Rsh =
Rm
V /I
= m m
m 1 I
Im
10
10
100
10 10
= 0.0001
83.
A 400 V, three-phase, rated frequency balanced source is supplying power to a balanced

three-phase load carrying a line current of 5 A at an angle of 30 lagging. The readings
of the two wattmeters W1 and W2, used for measuring the power drawn by the circuit,
are respectively
(a) 2000 W and 1000 W
(b) 1500 W and 1500 W
(c) 2000 W and 1500 W
(d) 1500 W and 1000 W
Ans.
(a)
W1 =
=
W2 =
=
84.
VL I L
400
VL I L
400
cos (30 )
50 cos (30 30) = 2000 W
cos (30 + )
50 cos(30 + 30) = 1000 W
A current of 4 + 3 2 sin(t + 30) A is passed through a centre zero PMMC meter and
a moving-iron meter. The two meters will read respectively
(a) 4 A and 5 A
(b) 4 A and 5 A
(c) 4 A and 5 A
(d) 4 A and 5 A
Ans.
(c)
PMMC reads Avg. value = 4 A
MI reads RMS value =
I 02 +
1 2
I1 =
2
(4)2 +
1
(3 2 )2 = 5A
2

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34
85.
A structural member is compressed to produce a strain of 5 m/m. The nickel wire strain
gauge has a gauge factor of 12.1. The pre-stress resistance of the gauge is 120 .
The change in resistance due to compressive strain will
(a) increase the resistance by 7.26 m
(b) decrease the resistance by 7.26 m
(c) increase the resistance by 49.6 m
(d) decrease the resistance by 49.6 m
Ans.
(b)
Gauge factor = Gf =
R /R
(l /l)
l
R = Gf R
l
= 12.1 120 5 106 = 7.26 m
ve indicates decrease of resistance.
86.
The values of ammeter and voltmeter resistances are 0.1 and 2000 respectively
as shown in the figure below. The percentage error in the calculated value of R =100
(voltmeter reading 200 V/ammeter reading 2 A) is nearly
A
R
RA = 0.1
A
RV = 2000
(a) 2%
(c) 2%
Ans.
(b) 5%
(d) 5%
(b)
% Er =
V
200
100 =
100 = 5%
I Rv
2 2000
87.
What is the multiplying power of a shunt of 200 resistance when used with a
galvanometer of 1000 resistance?
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 12
(d) 20
Ans.
(b)
Rm
1000
m = R + 1 = 200 + 1 = 6
sh

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35
88.
The mesh-current method

1. works with both planar and non-planar circuits
2. uses Kirchhoffs voltage law
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans.
(b)
Mesh analysis is valid only for planar networks and for its application we apply kVL.
89.
An 8-bit successive approximation A-to-D converter is driven by a 2 MHz clock. Its

conversion time is
(a) 18 s
(b) 16 s
(c) 8 s
(d) 4.5 s
Ans.
(d)
Convertion time = Clock period (No. of bits being converted)
=
1
2 106
8 = 4 ms
90.
In using instrument transformers, care should be taken not to open circuit the
(a) primary of a voltage transformer when the secondary is connected to the rated load
(b) secondary of a voltage transformer when the primary is energized with the rated
voltage
(c) primary of a current transformer when the secondary is connected to the rated load
(d) secondary of a current transformer when the primary is carrying the rated current
Ans.
(d)
91.
An inverse z-transform x(kT) of
X(z) =
1 e aT
(z 1)(z e aT )
is
(a) 1 eakT
(c) 1 eakT
Ans.
(b) 1 + eakT
(d) 1 + eakT
(*)

92.
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36
A system has a transfer function
C (s)
4
= 2
R (s)
s + 1.6s + 4
For a unit-step response and 2% tolerance band, the settling time will be
(a) 5 seconds
(b) 4 seconds
(c) 3 seconds
(d) 2 seconds
Ans.
(a)
4 2 21
4
i
The transfer function of system is 2
poles are at
s + 1.6s + 4
5
5
The 2% tolerance ban setting time is 4
4
4
=5
so 4
4
n
5
93.
Consider the following statements with reference to the response of a control system:
1. A large resonant peak corresponds to a small overshoot in transient response.
2. A large bandwidth corresponds to slow response.
3. The cut-off rate indicates the ability of the system to distinguish the signal from noise.
4. Resonant frequency is indicative of the speed of transient response.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Ans.
(d)
94.
The open-loop transfer function of a unity feedback system is

factor of 0.5, the value of the gain K must be set to
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 16
Ans.
K
. For a damping
s(s + 4)
(d)
Open loop transfer function is
k
s(s + 4)
since the = 1 and damping factor = 0.5

k
so closed loop function is 2

s + 4s + k
so
and
so
0 =
2 0.5 k = 4
k = 16
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Page
37
95. For a unity feedback control system, the forward path transfer function is given by
G(s) =
40
s(s + 2)(s2 + 2s + 30)
The steady-state error of the system for the input

(b)
(d) 30t 2
(a) 0
(c) 20t 2
Ans.
5t 2
is
2
(b)
G(s) =
40
s(s + 2)(s 2 + 2s + 30)
since type of system is 1 so steady state error for
5t 2
will be
2
96.
When gain K of the open-loop transfer function of order greater than unity is varied from
zero to infinity, the closed-loop system
(a) may become unstable
(b) stability may improve
(c) stability may not be affected
(d) will become highly stable
Ans.
(a)
When gain k of the system is varied from 0 to then the closed loop system may
became unstable, because the poles may go to the right half of s plane.
97.
The frequency of sustained oscillation for marginal stability, for a control system
G(s)H(s) =
2K
s(s + 1)(s + 5)
and operating with negative feedback, is

(b) 6 r/s
(d) 6 r/s
(a) 5 r/s
(c) 5 r/s
Ans.
(a)
G(s)H(s) =
2k
s(s + 1)(s + 5)
for marginal stability we need to find frequency of sustained oscillation.

If
G (s)H (s) s(s + 1)(s + 5) + 2k = 0
s 3 + 6 s 2 + 5s + 2k = 0

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Page
38
Now from Rough Huswitz criteria

3
2k
30 2k
6
2k
so
k = 15
Now we get that
k = 15
So
6s2 + 30 = 0
oscillation =
5 rad/sec
98.
Consider the following statements :

1. Adding a zero to the G (s)H (s) tends to push root locus to the left.
2. Adding a pole to the G (s)H (s) tends to push root locus to the right.
3. Complementary root locus (CRL) refers to root loci with positive K.
4. Adding a zero to the forward path transfer function reduces the maximum overshoot
of the system.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans.
(c)
(a) adding a zero lead to decrease in the angle of asymptote so push root locus to
left
(b) adding a pole lead to increase in the angle of asymptote so push root locus to right.
(c) Complementary root locus refer to root loci with negative k.
(d) adding of pole in forward path transfer function increase maximum overshoot and
adding a zero reduces maximum overshoot.
99.
An R-C network has the transfer functions
Gc(s) =
s 2 + 10s + 24
s 2 + 10s + 16
The network could be used as

1. lead compensator
2. lag compensator
3. lag-lead compensator
Which of the above is/are, correct?
(a) 1 only
(c) 3 only
(b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans.
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Page
39
(c)
Gc(s) =
s 2 + 10s + 24
s 2 + 10s + 16
so poles are 2, 8
and zero are 4, 6
Gc(s) =
so
(s + 4)(s + 6)
(s + 4) (s + 6)
=
(s + 2)(s + 8)
(s + 8) (E55
s + 2)
E55F
F
lead
lag
so Gc(s) will work as lead lag or lag lead compensation.
100.
The partial fraction expansion of the function
F(z) =
4z 2 2 z
z 3 5z 2 + 8z 4
is
2
12
(a) z 1 +
(z 2)2
(c)
2
2
12
(b) z 1 + z 2 +
(z 2)2
1.5
12
+
z 1 (z 1)(z 2)
1.5
1.5
1
(d) z 1 + z 2 +
(z 2)2
Ans.
(b)
101.
If an energy meter makes 5 revolutions in 100 seconds, when a load of 225 W is

connected, the meter constant is
(a) 800 rev/kWh
(b) 222 rev/kWh
(c) 147 rev/kWh
(d) 13 rev/kWh
Ans.
(a)
meters constant
k=
5
No. of revolutions
=
= 800 Rev/kWhr
225
100
kW hr
1000
3600
102.
In a closed-loop control system

(a) control action is independent of output
(b) output is independent of input
(c) there is no feedback
(d) control action is dependent on output
Ans.
(d)
Since closed loop system is having a feedback so the control action depends on output.

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Page
40
103. The characteristic polynomial of a system can be defined as

(a) denominator polynomial of given transfer function
(b) numerator polynomial of given transfer function
(c) numerator polynomial of a closed-loop transfer function
(d) denominator polynomial of a closed-loop transfer function
Ans.
(d)
Since poles are most important to determine properties of a system so denominator
of closed loop system is called characteristic polynomial of a system.
104.
For
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ans.
(b)
For critically damped system the system should have poles which are purely real, equal
and negative.
105.
A second-order position control system has an open-loop transfer function
a critically damped system, the closed-loop poles are

purely imaginary
real, equal and negative
complex conjugate with negative real part
real, unequal and negative
G(s) =
57.3K
s(s + 10)
What value of K will result in a steady-state error of 1, when the input shaft rotates at
10 r.p.m.?
(a) 21.74
(b) 10.47
(c) 5.23
(d) 0.523
Ans.
(b)
G(s) =
57.3k
s(s + 10)
Input is 10 rpm and steady state error is 1 steady state error is given by slim
0
so
so
X (s)
1 + G(s )H (s)
10 60
s
lim
(57.3)k = 1
s 0
1+
s(s + 10)
k=
10 60
= 10.47
57.3

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41
106.
Gain margin is the factor by which the system gain can be increased to drive it to
(a) stability
(b) oscillation
(c) the verge of instability
(d) critically damped state
Ans.
(b)
Gain margin is the factor by which the gain of system should be increased to drive
it to marginally stable condition on drive it to oscillations.
107.
Nichols' chart is used to determine

(a) transient response
(c) open-loop frequency response
(b) closed-loop frequency response

(d) settling time due to step input
Ans.
(b)
108.
For a type-I system, the intersection of the initial slope of the Bode plot with 0 dB axis
gives
(a) steady-state error
(b) error constant
(c) phase margin
(d) cross-over frequency
Ans.
(b)
For type-1 system, the intersection of initial slope of bode plot with 0 dB axis give error
constant
for example
k
s(s + p)
20 log (k)
slope = 20 dB/decade
109.
The desirable features of a servomotor are

(a) low rotor inertia and low bearing friction
(b) high rotor inertia and high bearing friction
(c) low rotor inertia and high bearing friction
(d) high rotor inertia and low bearing friction
Ans.
(a)
0 dB line ()

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42
Directions:
Each of the following eleven (11) items consists of two statements, one labelled as
'Statement (I) and the other as Statement (II). Examine these two statements carefully
and select the answers to these items using the code given below :
Code :
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II) is the
correct explanation of Statement (I)
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true but Statement (II) is not
the correct explanation of Statement (I)
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true
110.
Statement (I): For type-II or higher systems, lead compensator may be used.
Statement (II): Lead compensator increases the margin of stability.
Ans.
(a)
Since lead compensation increases the margin of stability so we use higher order lead
compensation.
111.
Statement (I): Stability of a system deteriorates when integral control is incorporated

into it.
Statement (II): With integral control action, the order of a system increases and higher
the order of the system, more the system tends to become unstable.
Ans.
(a)
112.
Statement (I): Self-loops can exist in block diagram but not in signal flow graph.
Statement (II) : Both block diagrams and signal flow graphs are applicable to linear
time-invariant systems.
Ans.
(d)
Self loop can exist in signal flow graph also.
113.
Statement (I): The gauge factor of a strain gauge is the ratio of strain to per unit change
in resistance.
Statement (II): Poisson's effect is defined as producing less strain with opposite sign
on the plane perpendicular to the applied load.
Ans.
(d)
R / R
Q Gf =
l /l

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43
114.
Statement (I): Voltage is the energy per unit charge created by charge separation.
Statement (II): Power is energy per unit of time.
Ans.
(b)
As we know that
voltage is the work done per unit charge
dW
dQ
and power is the energy per unit of time
i.e.,
i.e.
dW
dt
Both are correct.
115.
Statement (I): The electrical conductivity of a solid solution alloy drops off rapidly with
increased alloy content.
Statement (II): A solid solution has a less regular structure than a pure metal.
Ans.
(a)
Alloy has less regular structure than a metal because of which conductivity of alloy
decreases with increase in alloy content and resistivity of alloy increases in comparison
to metal.
116.
Statement (I): In type-0 and type-l systems, stable operation is possible if gain is
suitably reduced.
Statement (II): Any one of the compensators lag, lead, lag-lead may be used to improve
the performance.
Ans.
(a)
117.
Statement (I): Open-loop system is inaccurate and unreliable due to internal disturbances
and lack of adequate calibration.
Statement (II): Closed-loop system is inaccurate as it cannot account environmental or
parametric changes and may become unstable.
Ans.
(c)
Closed loop system has feedback to account environment changes and became stable.

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44
118.
Statement (I): A constant temperature type hot-wire anemometer is suitable for turbulent
flow measurements.
Statement (II): When the resistance of the hot wire is kept constant by incorporating
current feedback, the bandwidth is increased.
Ans.
(a)
119.
Statement (I): Optical pyrometers are used as transducers for the measurement of flame
temperature in a boiler.
Statement (II): Non-invasive methods are suitable for flame temperature measurement
in a boiler.
Ans.
(a)
120.
Statement (I): The null voltage of an LVDT cannot be reduced to an insignificant value.
Statement (II): Hall effect transducers are primarily used to measure flux density.
Ans.
(b)

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