VAJIRAM IAS TEST SERIES

ANSWER KEYS WITH EXPLANATION FOR CSAT COMPREHENSIVE TEST-2

Q.
1

Ans.
D

Explanation
Statement 1 is misleading because the civil disobedience movement itself
was termed grammar of anarchy by Ambedkar.
Statement 2 is wrong because the intention of the people may not be to
create a nuisance, although the final outcome may be so.
Statement 1 is correct because the third sentence states that It may be
their own government but people still have the habit of opposing the
government- the use of the words but and still indicates that the practice
was acceptable earlier but is not so now.
Statement 2 is wrong because the participants lacked social discipline but
cannot be called undisciplined otherwise.
Only Statement 1 is correct- the fourth sentence states that The fossil
endocasts provide direct evidence of brain evolution, but the information
they provide is only external.
The other statements cannot be ascertained from the passage.
The first sentence of the passage mentions two sources of evidence
regarding the evolution of primates - fossil endocasts and brains of living
primates, and the subsequent sentences describe the strengths and the
limitations of each one of these sources. In other words, the passage
evaluates the two sources of evidence. Hence D.
Statement 1 is correct because the last sentence warns the scientists
against drawing wrong inferences about the evolutionary sequence merely
from a study of the brains of the living primates because such a study can
be misleading.
Statement 2 cannot be inferred.
The second and third sentences state that the endocasts are in the nature
of molds of the surface of the brain. Among the choices, such an option that
refers to a physical surface is similar to deriving information about a foot of
a person from a mold of his footprint.
BC = (65)2 (63)2 = 16
CD = (65)2 (56)2 = 33
Width of the street (BC + CD) = 16 + 33 = 49 cm

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CD = 2

2
4

4 2 2
4

3 2
4

OD = 3 = 3 2 =

=2

3
6

OD is radius
r=

3
6

24 = 3
Area of circle = r2 = x (43)2 = 48 cm2
The centre O of a circle inscribed in an equilateral triangle divides the
attitude in the ratio 2 : 1.
9

10

Mr. Sonu Kumars income is in A.P.

Where
A = 6,00,000 i.e. first years income
D = 25,000 i.e. yearly increment
Total amount he received in 10 years
10
S10 = 2 [2 6,00,000 + (10 1) 25,000
= 5 [ 12,00,000 + 2,25,000]
= 5 [ 14,25,000]
= Rs. 71,25,000
Let the deposit of Mr. Shiv Kumar is x
Amount = 3x
S.I. = A P = 3x x = 2x
R = 8%
As we know,

S.I. = 100
8
100
200
= 25 years
8

2X=
t=
11

Let the number of horses be x

Thus the number of men = x
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13

14

Number of Horses legs = 4x

Number of mens legs = 2 2

[ half of men walk while half sit on the back of horses]

4 + 2 2 = 70
4x + x = 70
5x = 70
x = 14
Let R, G and B represent the number of balls in red, green and blue boxes
respectively.
Then,
R + G + B = 108 (i)
G + R = 2B .. (ii)
B = 2R (iii)
From (ii) and (iii) we have G + R = 2 2R = 4R
Or G = 3R
Putting G = 3 R and B = 2R in (i) above, we get
R + 3R + 2R = 108
Or 6R = 108
Therefore R = 108/6 = 18
Number of balls in green box = G = 3R
= 3 x 18 = 54
Piyushs present age = 10 years
His mothers present age = (10 + 20) years
Piyushs fathers present age = 30 + 5 = 35 years
Piyushs fathers age at the time of Piyushs birth = (35 10) = 25 years
Piyushs fathers age at the time of marriage = (25 2) years
Or 23 years

As shown in figure, the river flows eastwards from A towards B, turns left
and follows a semi-circular path to reach C where it turns left and flows
eastwards towards D.
15

Let the given numbers are a, b, c and d.

It is given that
a + b + c + d = 64 . (i)
also
a + 3 = b 3 = c = d/3 .. (ii)
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From equation (ii) we change all the numbers in the form of a and putting
this in equation (i) above, we get
+3
a + a + 6 + 3 + 3a + 9 = 64
5a + 15 +

+3
3

= 64

16a + 48 = 192
16a = 102 48
16a = 144
=a=9
Now putting the value of a = 9 in the above mentioned relation of a w.r.t. b,
c and d
We get b = 15; c = 4 and d = 36
largest smallest = 36 4 = 32
16

17

18

19

Statement 1 is wrong because the passage does not specify if or how such
skills led to individual self-fulfilment.
Statement 2 is correct because such skills are cited as an example of
individual powers placed in service to the community.
The egocentrics focus on self-fulfilment while the sociocentrics focus on
individual obligations to society. The author seems inclined towards the
position of the sociocentrics, since he focuses on discussing the rationale
behind individual contributions to society. Further, the last sentence states
that self-fulfilment is important, even if not equally. Hence, Option A is
correct and Option B is wrong.
Option C is proven wrong by the last sentence while Option D cannot be
ascertained.
The last sentence states that unfulfilled citizens can be virtuous but cannot
perform the duties assigned to them. Hence, Statement 1 is wrong but
Statement 2 is correct.
Statement 3 is not supported by or mentioned in the passage.
The first sentence says that some modern anthropologists hold that human
behaviour is shaped by evolution. This implies taking a position on the
foundations of human behaviour.
The passage then discusses that what these anthropologists imply by their
theory is not that evolution dictates human behaviour, but that it imposes
constraints on human behaviour through complicated emotions which have
become as natural to human beings as their appendixes.
In the last sentence, the author says that we must fully understand the
implications of the origins of these emotions to realise how badly we are
now being guided by them so that we can come out their constraints.
Thus, the primary purpose of the passage is to present a position on the
foundations of human behaviour and on what those foundations imply.
Hence A.
The passage does not say that human morphology and human behaviour
developed parallelly, even though, according to some anthropologists, they
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20

21

22

23
24

B
D

25

26

are both results of evolution. So, Option B is wrong.

The second para says that some emotions are also culture-specific in
addition to being evolutionary, but it does not specify any test to classify
behaviour patterns as either evolutionary or culture-specific. So, Option C is
wrong.
The last sentence says, we must then begin to resist the pressure (of
emotions and motives), but it does not suggest any practical method for
resisting these pressures. So, Option D is wrong.
The second paragraph states that some of these frailties are presently
maladaptive, hence Statement 1 is wrong.
It also states that We should need to comprehend thoroughly their adaptive
origins in order to understand how badly they guide us now. And we might
then begin to resist their pressure. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
The answer must relate to human morphology or physical characteristics,
and not to human emotion or behaviour. Since Option C refers to human
emotions or behaviour, it can straightaway be ruled out.
The first part of Option A relates to evolutionary physical characteristics, but
the second part in it relates to ones knowledge of the names of the different
colours, which is a culturally acquired, and not a physical, characteristic.
So, Option A is wrong.
The first part of Option B relates to an acquired, and not an evolutionary,
skill. So, Option B is wrong.
The first part of Option D mentions an evolutionary and beneficial physical
characteristic of mountain peoples, while the second part refers to an
evolutionary physical constraint of people living in the plains. Hence D.
The second paragraph uses the phrase presently maladaptive. This
implies that some of the human frailties which were adaptive and therefore
beneficial in a human environment as it existed once upon a time have now
become maladaptive in the present human environment. This means that
changes in total human environment can occur faster than the evolutionary
changes in human emotions and motives. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
Statement 1 cannot be ascertained.
21

N(p) = = 1
21
When 5 is kept at hundredth place, it comes at
= 1 9 9 = 81 places
When 5 is kept at tens place, it comes at
= 2 1 9 = 18 places
When 5 is kept at unit place, it comes at
= 2 9 1 = 18 places
required answer = 81 + 18 + 18 = 117 places.
Let r be the radius of circle and a be the side of square
By given condition
2r = 4a
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a=

r
2

Area of square = ( 2 )2 =
=

9.86 2
4

2 2
4

= 246 r2

And area of circle = r2 = 3.14r2

Hence, area of the circle is larger than that of square.
27

28

29
30

A
A

31

32

Let the number of coins 50 paise, Re.1 and Rs.2 coins are 2x, 3x and 4x
respectively
Value of 50 paise coins = x
Value of Re.1 coins = 3x
Value of Rs. 2 coins = 8x
Therefore, x + 3x + 8x = 240
12x = 240 or x = 20
Hence, total number of coins = 2x + 3x + 4x = 9x
= 9 x 20 = 180
The order of release of films are as follows:
U, Q, P, T, S, R

The number of ways 10 numbers can be put in places = 10P3.

As per the given information
India and West India both won equal number of matches while New
Zealand lost the maximum number of matches. Thereby none of the
country alone won the maximum number of matches among all the
countries.
1
1
1
Required answer = 5 = 5 = 5
2

3
5

33
34
35

A
C
D

36

37

6
120

1
20

52

th
The 39 book from right is the 12th book from the left which is History.
The last book is Psychology is P8 which is at 38th position.
The number is 8 (on dividing by 6, we get 2 as remainder). When we
square it, it comes to 82 = 64. On dividing by 6, we will get 4 as remainder.
Statement 1 is correct because the fourth sentence state that this analogy
suggests that each nation has a unitary national will.
Statement 3 is correct because the last sentence states that the
acceptance of these two specious assumptions leads to the seeming
inexplicability of reversals in diplomatic negotiations .... This implies a
failure to anticipate abrupt changes in a nations policies because of the
change of government in it.
Statement 2 cannot be ascertained.
In the second sentence, the author mentions the analogy between the
individual and the nation state. Then he quotes Woodrow Wilson (who
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39

40

41

42

believed in this analogy) to clarify/substantiate the analogy. Hence D.

Option A is wrong since there is no contradiction mentioned by Wilson.
Option B is wrong since the wants of an individual or of a nation are not
mentioned.
Option C is wrong since the popularity of classical liberalism is not
mentioned.
The passage starts by stating that A false analogy underlies the philosophy
of classical liberalisers. It then substantiates this statement in each of the
subsequent sentences. So, the main concern is the rejection of the tenets
of classical liberalism. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2 is the opposite of what the author believes in while Statement
3 is not the focus of the passage.
Statement 1 is wrong because while Wilsons thought certainly supports the
classical liberal school, this alone does not mean that he was a vocal
proponent.
Statement 2 is substantiated by the second-last sentence.
Statement 1 is wrong because the second paragraph describes in detail the
multiple functions of the hormone auxin.
Statement 2 is correct because the second paragraph states that each of
the five plant hormones has more than one effect on the growth of plantsthus, they are not very useful in artificially controlling the growth of crops.
The third and fourth paragraphs state that in animals, hypothalamic
hormones stimulate the pituitary gland to synthesize and release many
different hormones; this process causes hormones from the adrenal cortex
to be released. A similar hierarchy of hormones may exist in plants.
The pleiotropic plant hormones may activate the enzymes that, in turn,
release oligosaccharins from the cell wall. It is reasonable to infer that, in
triggering the action, the plant hormones may act in a way similar to the
hypothalamic hormones in animals. Hence C.
Option A is wrong because plant cell walls do not activate enzymes as the
hypothalamic hormones activate the pituitary gland.
Option B is wrong because while the passage does state that all cells of a
plant start out with the same complement of genes, this statement is not
part of the analogy.
Option D is wrong because while the oligosaccharins are part of the
hierarchy, but they are not equivalent to the hypothalamic hormones in
releasing other hormones.
Statement 1 describes a function performed by oligosaccharins since it
gives an example of an effect on a specific aspect of plant growth and
development.
Statement 2 is wrong because the passage does not discuss such
duplication.
Statement 3 is wrong because the oligosaccharins, as more specific
chemical messengers, have a specific effect, not multiple effects, on plant
growth.
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43

44

45

46
47
48
49

C
D
B
C

Statement 1 is wrong because the passage discusses the effects of

hormones, not their production.
Statement 2 is wrong because the differences among the five major
hormones are not discussed.
Statement 3 is correct since the second paragraph explains that each of the
five major pleiotropic hormones, including auxin, has more than one effect
on the growth and development of plants it then lists auxins multiple effects
as an example of the principle of pleiotropy in plants.
Statement 1 is wrong because the passage does not discuss the daily
functioning of a plants cells.
Statement 2 is wrong because the oligosaccharins themselves are
fragments of the cell wall and the specific chemical messengers from the
cell wall.
The second paragraph establishes that the pleiotropic hormones are not
useful in artificially controlling crop growth because of their multiple, diverse
effects. Oligosaccharins are contrasted with the hormones because they
have specific effects. Thus it is reasonable to infer that oligosaccharins
might be used to control specific aspects of crop growth. Hence C.
Option A is wrong because the passage of chemicals through cell walls is
not discussed.
Option B is wrong because the oligosaccharins are not said to alter the
cells complement of genes.
Option D is wrong because The passage does not show that
oligosaccharins alter the hormones effects.

Relative speed = (70-50) km/hr

5
50
= (20 18) m/sec = ( 9 ) m/sec.

50

Length of Jharkhand Express train = ( 9 10) m

50

51

500
9

= 55 9 m.
A
:
B
Efficiency 2
:
1
Time
1x
:
2x
2x-1x= 40 days
So 2x = 80 days means A will take 40 days, B will take 80 days for that
work
Lets assume total work is 80 Units
As per day work = 2units/day
Bs per day work = 1 unit / day
Both 3 units per day
80
Hence 3 days
Jan + Feb = 104550
=

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Feb + Mar = 105550
Mar + Jan = 105100
2 ( Jan + feb + Mar ) = 315200
Jan + Feb + Mar = 157600
Jan = 157600-105550= 52050
52

53

54

55

L.C.M. of 14, 15, 16 and 20 is 1680

X 15 = 1680
X = 1695

56

57

Statement 1 is wrong because the second sentence states that even low
doses can have serious, not insignificant, effects.
Statement 2 is wrong because the second-last sentence states that the
most common source is lead-based paint.
Statement 1 is wrong because poor academic performance is linked to low
doses.
Statement 2 is correct because if children living in older houses are more at

(10 10 10) (1 1 1)
(10 10 10)

of the weight of original cube

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59

risk, it can be inferred that such paints were used more often in the past.
The premise is that microwave ovens are not completely safe. This is
followed by a conclusion by the consumer advocates that microwave ovens
should not be accepted as standard appliances. Since there is nothing in
the passage that provides an explicit link between the safety of microwave
ovens and their acceptability as standard appliances, the consumer
advocates conclusion is based on an assumption that an appliance should
be accepted as standard only if it is found to be completely safe. The most
effective way to strengthen such a conclusion is to show that such an
assumption is indeed true. Hence C.
Option A is wrong because the strength of the consumer advocates
argument hinges upon the link between the level of safety of microwave
ovens and the rationale for their acceptance in the home- a lack of joy in
microwave cooking is not relevant to the argument.
Option B is wrong because providing a specific example of how a person
might be injured, even seriously, by a microwave oven may provide
emotional support for the consumer advocates position, but does little to
strengthen the argument logically: the possibility of injury has already been
stipulated as a premise.
Option D is wrong because If no appliance is completely safe, then the
consumer advocates argument is absurd- no appliance is, or ever will be,
acceptable as standard in a modern kitchen. This option weakens the
conclusion.
The director has concluded that the one-time doubling of costs for the raw
material caused the steady decline, over two years, of profit margins. The
director's conclusion rests on the assumption that there is a connection
between the one-time raw material price increase and the two-year steady
decline in profit margins. Alternatively, something else could have caused
either a steady two-year decline in revenues or a steady two-year increase
in costs; if so, this event is more likely to be the cause of a steady decline in
profit margins over the same two-year period. As a result, this would
weaken the director's conclusion that finding a new source for the raw
material will improve profit margins.
Option A is correct because new competitors have caused a steady twoyear decline in revenues. This weakens the director's contention that the
one-time doubling of costs for the raw material is the cause of the steady
two-year decline in profit margins.
Option B is wrong because the fact that the region's mines are producing
less than they did before the earthquake does not indicate anything about
the cost of the raw material; it would be necessary to show that cost is not
reduced in order to weaken the director's conclusion.
Option C is wrong because the amount of raw material produced by other
regions does not indicate anything about the cost of the raw material; it
would be necessary to show that cost is not reduced in order to weaken the
director's conclusion.
Option D is wrong because the use of a different raw material does not
10
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60

61
62
63

D
A
A

64

65

indicate anything about the cost of that raw material; it would be necessary
to show that cost is not reduced in order to weaken the director's
conclusion.
The conclusion is that renewable sources of energy, chiefly solar and wind,
will be less risky for certain utilities than non-renewable sources, such as oil
and gas. The basis for this claim is that the renewable sources will provide
stable, low-cost supplies of energy, whereas the prices for non-renewable
sources will fluctuate according to availability. For this argument to be valid,
it must in fact be true that these renewable sources of energy will provide
stable, low-cost supplies.
Hence, Option C is correct- if weather patterns are consistent and
predictable, then with the stated premises, we can conclude that solar and
wind power will be less risky than oil and gas. If, on the other hand, weather
patterns are not consistent and predictable, then solar and wind power are
not reliable and thus will not provide "stable energy supplies at low cost."
Thus, the argument's conclusion directly depends on this assumption.
Option A is wrong because the utility companies' claim has to do with the
supply risk of the new energy sources, not with how these sources are
received by the public.
Option B is wrong because if no new supplies of traditional energy sources
are found, then it is true that perhaps these non-renewable supplies will
continue to fluctuate in price in a risky manner. However, the argument
does not depend upon any assumption about the future discovery of oil and
gas supplies.
Option D is wrong because to reach the required conclusion, it is not
necessary to assume that the conversion technology for new sources is not
more expensive than the present technology.
Out of given answer options, only 64, 80 are having 16 as H.C.F.
21 is composite number, remaining are prime numbers.
Ranbaxy : Glaxo
:
Cipla
Investment
600
:
450
:
600
Time period
6 months : 12 months : 12 months
Profit Ratio
600 6 : 450 12 : 600 12
3600
: 5400
: 7200
2
:
3
: 4
3
So share of Glaxo out of 45 Millions is 9 45= 15 millions

Due to stoppages, it covers 8 km less.

8
Time taken to cover 8 km = 48 hour
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= 6 60 minutes
= 10 minutes
66

67

68

69
70

C
D

71

72

73
74

A
C

Statement 1 is wrong because the moon does NOT show negative gravity
anomalies.
Statement 2 is correct because the passage tries to determine how, despite
many lunar impact basins, the moon does not show any negative gravity
anomalies.
The passage states that Scientists speculate that early in lunar history,
when large impactors struck the moon's surface, causing millions of cubic
kilometers of crustal debris to be ejected, denser material from the moon's
mantle rose up beneath.... This implies that the material that rose upwards,
compensated for the ejected material and therefore, created no
gravitational anomaly. Hence D.
Option A is wrong because such a deficit is expected in general but was not
witnessed in the case of the moon.
Option B is wrong because debris is not discussed in the passage.
Option C is wrong because cooling and stiffening are related to
later/present conditions, not the circumstances when the gravitational
compensation occurred.
If large impacts happened in the early stages, the impact areas would have
quickly been covered with mass ejected from the mantle. Therefore the
inference that can be made is that these ring shaped craters were formed
much later. Hence A.
If all three years in between normal years then 3 years will give 3 odd days.
30 days gives 2 odd days so total odd days 5
Then Monday + 5 odd days = Saturday
But if there is one leap year in between then 1 extra odd day due to leap
year so total 6 odd days
Then Monday + 6 odd days = Sunday, no other possibilities
11, 13 prime number their sum 11 + 13 = 24 (3rd term)
29 and 31 are the prime numbers just after 24 and 29 + 31 = 60 ( 6th term)
Next prime numbers 61 then 67 so answer is 67.
Pattern is 52 42 = 9
72 32 = 40
82 12 = 63
Similarly 102 - 22 = 96
Let 2nd number is 15 so two-third is 10 then 10 is equal to 40% of 1st
number then 1st number will be 25
Hence ratio 25 :15
5:3
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75

Ranking from left end + Ranking from Right end = Total boys + 1
9 + 15 = total boys + 1
Total boys = 23
76

77
78

D
C

79

80

Statements 1 and 3 are wrong because they are not supported or

mentioned in the passage.
Statement 2 is correct and constitutes the primary focus of the passage.
Statement 1 is wrong because the fifth sentence states that there are
attempts being made to discover the cultural norms that exist in a modern
nation state.
Statement 2 is correct because the last sentence states that it is difficult to
make a reliable comparison between the national characters of two
countries, implying that national characters are different.
Statement 1 is wrong because the very first sentence states that the
difficulty lies not in creating such models but only in including an
understanding of national character in them.
Statements 2 and 3 are supported by the second sentence.

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