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Prepared by:

A.Nagaraja Shekar,
ZPHS, Chatakonda,
Khammam Dist.

PHYSICS
MEASUREMENT OF
LENGTH
1. Smallest length that can be measured
accurately using any scale is called ____.
2. Screw gauge works on the principle of
____.
3. Screw gauge consists of ____ scale and
____ scale.
4. Pitch of the screw (P) = ____/ no. of complete rotations made(n).
5. For a screw gauge, Least Count = ____.
6. If the zeroth division of the head scale is
below the index line of Pitch scale, the
error is said to be ____.
7. For a Positive zero error the correction is
____.
8. If the zeroth division of
the head scale is above
the index line of pitch
scale, the error is said to
be ____.
9. For a negative zero error, the correction is
____.
10. Diameter of a wire or thickness of an
object using screw gauge is ____.
11. The Head of a screw gauge is divided into
50 divisions if it advances1m.m.when
screw is turned through 2 rotations then
the pitch of the screw is ____.
12. If the zeroth division of head scale coincides with the index line of pitch scale
then the screw gauge has no ____.
13. While measuring the diameter of a nail
using a screw gauge of L.C.0.01 mm,the
H.S.R.is 18 and P.S.R. is found to be 1.5
mm, then the diameter of the nail = ____.
14. The distance traveled by the tip of a screw
for one complete rotation of its head is
called the ____.
15. The distance between two adjacent
threads of a screw is ____.
ANSWERS
1)Least count; 2) Screw in a nut; 3) Pitch,
Head; 4) Distance travelled by the screw
(x); 5) Pitch of the screw(p)/No.of Head
scale divisions(n); 6) Positive Zeroerror;
7) Negative; 8) Negative Zero Error; 9)
Positive;10)PSR+(HSRL.C);11)0.5
m.m; 12) Zero Error; 13) 1.68 m.m.; 14)
Pitch of the screw; 15) Pitch of the screw;

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
1 Mark
1. What is meant by Least count of a Screw
gauge?
2. On what principle does a Screw gauge
work?
4 Marks
1. Describe a method to find the diameter of
a wire using Screw gauge?
2. What are the Positive and Negative zero
errors of a Screw gauge? How are they
determined?
5 Marks
1. Draw a neat labeled diagram of Screw
Gauge?
2. Draw the diagrams showing a) No zero

error, b) Positive zero error, c) Negative

zero error of a screw gauge?

OUR UNIVERSE
GRAVITATION
1. Geocentric theory was proposed by ____.
2. Heliocentric Theory was proposed by
____.
3. According to Heliocentric theory, the
____ is at the center of the universe.
4. According to Ptolemic theory the ____ is
at the center of the universe.
5. The moon makes one revolution about the
earth in ____.
6. The distance of the moon from the earth is
about ____.
7. Every object in the universe attracts every
other object with a force called ____.
8. The value of Universal Gravitational constant ____.
9. Gravitational constant is applicable ____.
10. The uniform acceleration produced in a
freely falling body due to gravitational
pull of the earth is known as ____.
11. Units of acceleration due to gravity, g; is
____.
12. The relation between G and g is ____.
13. Mass of the earth is ____.
14. Radius of the earth is ____.
15. Acceleration due to gravity is independent
of ____.

2 Marks
1. Mention the differences between Geocentric theory and Heliocentric theory?
2. Derive a relation between acceleration due
to gravity(g) and Universal law of
Gravitation(G)?
3. Mention the differences between 'g' &'G'?
4. Mention the differences between mass and
weight of an object?
5. What are the factors influencing 'g'

KINEMATICS
1. The value of g for a freely falling body is
____.
2. The value of 'g' for a body thrown upward
is ____.
3. The maximum height reached by a body
thrown upward h = ____.
4. The maximum height reached by a body
thrown upward is directly proportional to
the ____.
5. Time taken by a vertically projected body
to reach its maximum height is called
____.
6. Time of ascent t1=____.
7. Time taken by a freely falling body to
touch the ground is ____.
8. The sum of time of ascent and time of
descent is called ____.
9. Time of flight T=____.
10. The time of ascent is equal to the ____ in

Tips:
While answering 4 marks questions, the answer must be at least 8
points.
Differences must be written in tabular
form
Draw diagrams wherever necessary.
(Diagram will carry 1 mark)

16. At a height equal to half the radius of

earth, acceleration due to gravity
approaches ____.
17. At the center of the earth, acceleration due
to gravity is ____.
18. The value of 'g' at the poles is ____.
19. The value of 'g' at the equator is ____.
20. The instrument used to measure small
changes in the value of 'g' at a given location is called ____.
21. The quantity of matter contained in a body
is called the ____ of the body
22. The___of a body is the force with which it
is attracted by the earth towards its center.

the case of bodies moving under gravity.

11. Time of flight is directly proportional to
its ____.
12. The initial velocity of a vertically projected body ____.
13. A stone is thrown vertically upward with
an initial velocity 10m/sec. Then the maximum height reached by the body is ____.
14. A body is projected vertically upward with
a velocity 20m/sec. Then the maximum
height reached by the body is ____.
15. A stone is dropped from the top of a building is found to reach the ground in one
sec. The height of the building is ____.

ANSWERS
1) Ptolemy; 2) Copernicus; 3) Sun; 4)
Earth; 5) 27.3 days.; 6) 3.85105 k.m.; 7)
Gravitational force; 8) G=6.67x10-11 nm2
/kg2; 9) Every where in the universe .; 10)
Acceleration due to gravity; 11) m/sec2;
12)g=Gm/r2; 13)61024kg;14) 6.4106m;
15) Mass; 16) Zero; 17) Zero; 18)
Maximum; 19) Minimum; 20) Gravity
meter; 21) Mass; 22) Weight

ANSWERS
1) Positive; 2) negative; 3) h=u2/2g; 4)
Square of its initial velocity; 5) Time of
ascent; 6) u/g; 7) Time of descent; 8)
Time of flight; 9) 2u/g; 10) Time of
descent; 11) Initial velocity; 12) u=2gh;
13) 5m; 14) 20m; 15) 5m.

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
1 Mark
1. What is Helio centric theory?
2. What is meant by Acceleration due to
gravity?
3. Define the weight of an object?
4. State Hook's law?

Bit Bank

Physical Science

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
1 Mark
1. What is the time of flight?
2. Find the velocity of a freely falling body
from a height of 20m when it touches the
ground? ( g = 10m/sec2)
2 Marks
1. Derive an expression to find the maximum
height reached by a vertically projected
body?

DYNAMICS
1. Circular motion is the simplest of ____.
2. The direction of velocity of a body executing circular motion will be ____.
3. The angle described by a radius vector of
a particle on a rotating body in a given
interval of time is known as ____.
4. Angular displacement is measured in
____.
5. The angle subtended by an arc of unit
length on a circle of unit radius is defined
as a ____.
6. The rate of angular displacement is
defined as ____.
7. The units of angular velocity are ____.
8. The time taken by a body in uniform circular motion to complete one revolution is
known as its ____.
9. In a uniform circular motion, the ____ is
constant.
10. The relation between linear velocity and
angular velocity is ____.
11. The angular momentum possessed by a
particle in a circular motion is given by
____.
12. The force acting on a body in motion in a
direction normal to the motion of the particle at every point is called a ____.
13. A particle executing uniform circular
motion undergoes a continuous change in
the direction of its velocity which results
in an acceleration directed towards the
centre of the circle called ____.
14. Centripetal acceleration ____.
15. The force which continuously deflects a
particle from its straight
line path and makes it
along a circular path is
called ____.
16. ____ force acts towards
the centre of the circle.
17. Centripetal force ____.
18. An imaginary coordinate system which is
attached to a rotating or accelerated body
where Newton's laws are not valid is
called ____.
19. Newton's laws are not valid in ____.
20. An imaginary co-ordinate system which is
either at rest or in uniform and where
Newton's laws are valid is called ____.
21. Newton's laws are valid in ____.
22. The radially outward force on a body in a
uniform circular motion, observable only
in a rotating frame of reference, is called
____.
23. ____ force is known as fictious force.
24. A ____ is a machine used to separate particles of higher mass from those of lower
mass in a given mixture.
25. Banking angle ____.
ANSWERS
1) rotatory motion; 2) tangential to the
circle; 3) angular displacement; 4)
Radians; 5) Radian; 6) angular velocity;
7) radians/sec; 8) Time Period; 9) angular
velocity; 10) v=r; 11) L=mr2; 12) normal force; 13) centripetal acceleration;
14) a=v2/r; 15) centripetal force; 16)
Centripetal; 17) F = mv2/r (or) m2r; 18)
non inertial frame of reference; 19) non
inertial frame of reference; 20) an inertial
frame of reference; 21) inertial frame of
reference; 22) centrifugal force; 23) Centrifugal; 24) centrifuge; 25) Tan =v2/rg.

Bit Bank

Physical Science

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
1 Mark
1. What is the principle of launching a satellite into an orbit?
2. What is a centripetal force?
3. Define Banking angle?
2 Marks
1. Distinguish between Rotatory motion and
Circular motion?
2. What is a centrifuge? How does it work?
3. Describe the working of a laundry drier?
4. What is the necessity of Banking of roads?
5. What are the characteristics of Simple
Harmonic Motion?
6. Define Angular velocity? What are its
units?
4 Marks
1. Distinguish between Centripetal force and
Centrifugal force?
2. Derive an expression to find the Banking
angle?

ELECTRO MAGNETIC
SPECTRUM
1. ____ is a group of wave lengths or frequencies.
2. All electro magnetic radiations are ____ in
nature.
3. Velocity of light in vacuum is ____.
4. The difference in the properties of different types of electro magnetic radiations arise only from the difference in their ____.
5. ____is emitted when excited valence electrons in atom jump back to their normal
state.
6. ____ radiations are used to take photographs of objects in darkness.
7. Mapping of the radio emissions from
extra-terrestrial sources is known as ____.
8. ____ radiations are produced by the transitions of electrons in atoms.
9. The wave length range of hard X- rays is
____.
10. The wavelength range of soft X-rays is__.
11. Medical
diagnosis
using X-rays is called
____.
12. Curing of diseases
using X-rays is called
____.
13. ____ radiations emitted when an excited
nucleus comes to its ground state.
ANSWERS
1)spectrum; 2) transverse; 3) 3108m/
sec; 4) wave lengths or frequencies; 5)
visible spectrum; 6) infra red; 7) radio
astronomy.; 8) ultra violet; 9) 0.001Ao10Ao;10) 10Ao to 100 Ao.; 11) Radiography; 12) Radio theraphy.; 13) Gamma

2. Periodic vibrations of decreasing amplitude are called ____.

3. When a body executes vibrations under
the action of an external periodic force,
then the vibrations are called ____.
4. If one of the two bodies of the same natural frequency is set into vibration, the
other body also vibrates with larger amplitude under the influence of the first body.
This phenomenon is called ____.
5. Any two successive particles vibrating
with the same phase are separated by a
distance equal to ____.
6. Sets of____are formed in longitudinal
waves.
7. Sets of____are formed in transverse
waves.
8. On reflection form a rigid of fixed end, a
wave undergoes a phase change of ____.
9. In a stationary wave the points where the
particles undergo minimum displacement
are called ____.
10. In a stationary wave, the points where the
particles undergo maximum displacement
are called ____.
11. The distance between a node and its adjacent antinode is equal to ____.
12. Distance between two successive nodes or
antinodes is equal to ____.
13. A medium transmits a sound wave
through it by virtue of its ____.
14. Velocity of sound if the frequency of the

SOUND
1. Every body has its own frequency called
____.

LIGHT
1. According to corpuscular theory, various
colours of light are supposed to be due to
____.
2. According to Huygens, waves transmit in
a medium called ____.
3. According to corpuscular theory, the
velocity of sound is more in ____.
4. According to Huygens, light propagates in
the form of ____.
5. The imaginary three dimensional surface
formed by the envelope of all those particles of medium which are vibrating in the
same phase is called ____.
6. Corpuscules are____by reflecting surface.
7. Corpuscules are____by refracting surface.
8. According to Huygen's the colours of light
are due to difference in ____.
9. The reflection and refraction of water
waves can be determined with the help of
____.
10. In a ripple tank bright bands represent
____ and dark bands are due to ____.
11. The velocity of water waves depends on
the ____ of water.
12. When two or more wave motions combine
in space at a time, ____ occurs.
13. When crest falls on crest or trough falls on

Tips:

wave is and wavelength is is ____.

15. Velocity of sound in air according to resonating air columns experiment is ____.
16. If the distance between a node and its
adjacent antinode is 10 cm, then the wavelength = ____ cm
17. If the distance between two successive
nodes of a stationary wave is 12 cm, then
the wavelength is ____ cm.
ANSWERS
1) natural frequency; 2) damped vibrations; 3) forced vibrations; 4) resonance;
5) wave length (); 6) compressions and
rarefactions; 7) crests and troughs; 8)
1800; 9) nodes; 10) anti nodes; 11) /4;
12) /2; 13) elasticity and inertia.14) v=
15) v=2n (l2-l1); 16) 40; 17) 24.

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
1 Mark
1. Draw the sketch of Electro magnetic
wave?
2. What is Radiography?
3. What is Radiotherapy?
4. What are the uses of hard X - rays?
2 Marks
1. What are the common features among all
electro magnetic radiations?

2. Describe an experiment to determine the

velocity of sound in air?

While answering the question

on experiment type, don't forget to
draw the diagram & observation table

While answering 5 marks diagram,

proper depiction of parts is important.
The diagram carries 3 marks and
parts 2 marks. So try to identify at
least 4 important parts.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
1 Mark
1. What are damped vibrations?
2. Define Resonance?
3. Define Node and Antinode?
4. Draw the sketch of Stationary wave?
5. What is resonating air column?
2 Marks
1. Mention any two incidents of Resonance
phenomenon observed in your day to day
life?
4 Marks
1. Distinguish between progressive and stationary waves?

20.
21.
22.
23.
24.

25.
26.
27.
28.

trough, the interference is called ____

interference.
The phase difference when constructive
superposition obtained between two
waves is ____.
When a crest falls on a trough or vice
versa, then the super position is said to be
____ super position.
The phase difference when destructive
superposition obtained between two
waves is ____.
The bending of a wave front from the original direction of propagation when it
meets a small obstacle is called ____.
The science of measuring brightness or
relative luminous intensities of light emitted by different sources using certain standards and techniques is ____.
The amount of radiant energy flowing from a source of light per unit time is ____.
The unit of luminous flux is ____.
Unit of solid angle ____.
The total solid angle for a sphere is ____
Steredians.
Unit of luminous intensity ____.
The luminous flux emitted from a point
source of light per unit solid angle is
called ____.
The basic scientific principle behind a
laser was first put forward by ____.
LASER: ____.
Bandwidth of LASER is of the order____.
The spread of wavelengths about the

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{]l l 20 l 2014
wavelengths of maximum intensity is
called ____.
ANSWERS
1) Difference in the size of corpuscules;
2) Ether; 3) Denser Medium; 4) Waves;
5) Wave front; 6) Repelled; 7) Attracted;
8) Wavelengths; 9) Ripple Tank; 10)
Crests, Troughs; 11) Depth; 12)
Interference; 13) Constructive; 14) 2n;
15) Destructive; 16) (2n+1); 17) Diffraction; 18) Visual Photometry; 19) Luminous Intensity; 20) Erg/sec or Lumen; 21)
Steredian; 22) 4; 23) Candela; 24)
Luminous Intensity; 25) Dr.Charlesh. H.
Townes; 26) Light Amplification by
Stimulated Emission of Radiation; 27)
10Ao; 28) Band Width.

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
1 Mark
1. Expand LASER?
2. Define Diffraction?
3. What is interference?
4. Define 'Solid angle'?
2 Marks
1. What are the different theories which
explain the nature of light?
2. What are the special properties of LASER
light?
3. Mention the applications of LASER in
medicinal field?
4. Mention the applications of LASER in
industry?
5. What are the basic processes involved in
the working of a LASER?
4 Marks
1. Give a comparison between Newton's
Corpuscular theory and Huygen's wave
Theory of light?
2. Describe a ripple tank? How does it help
in understanding reflection and refraction
of light?
3. What are the applications of LASER light
in Science and Technology?

MAGNETISM
1. The limit of magnetization of a substance
is called ____.
2. The poles in a magnet exists in pairs is
also called ____.
3. ____ is used to make electromagnet.
4. Ewings molecular theory failed to explain
the distinction between ____ and ____
substances.
5. The drawbacks of Ewings molecular theory are explained by ____ theory.
6. The two poles in a magnet have the ability to attract or repel another magnetic pole
called ____.
7. The poles in a magnet have ____ pole
strength.
8. An elementary bar magnet is also called a
____.
9. The S.I unit of polestrength is ____ and in
MKS system ____.
10. The ratio of magnetic force in a medium to
the magnetic force in free space is called
____.
11. When a pole repels an identical pole at 1
mts. distance with a force of ____ is called
unit pole strength.
12. Unit of 0 is ____ (S.I system)
13. The unit of magnetic flux is____.
14. The relation between units of pole
strength in M.K.S and S.I system is ____.

VS$$ l
{]l l 20 l 2014
15. 1 Wb/m2 = ____ Gauss.
16. If a north pole of strength 'm' is placed at
a point where the magnetic induction is B
the force acting on it is given by ____.
17. The relation between absolute permeability (0) and relative permeability (r) is r=
____.
18. Relation between B and H is ____.
19. If m1=1A-m, m2=m, then the pole strength
of any magnet ____.
20. The fundamental reason for magnetism
lies in ____.
21. The value of 0 =____.
22. The absolute magnetic permeability of the
medium is denoted by ____.
23. The unit pole strength is defined as that
pole which repels an identical pole at 1
metre distance with a force of ____.
24. When magnetic flux () is measured in
webers the unit of B is ____.
25. The strength of a magnetic field at a point
in C.G.S. units is defined as ____.
26. The units of H in C.G.S. system is ____.
27. The product of the pole strength and the
magnetic length of a magnet is called
____.
28. The S.I. units of magnetic moment are___.
29. The value of (B) on the axial line is ____
the value on the equatorial line for the
same distance.
30. The magnetic field induction (B) is ____
to the axis of the magnet.
ANSWERS
1) Magnetic Saturation; 2) Magnetic
Dipole; 3) Soft Iron; 4) Magnetic, Non
Magnetic; 5) Modern Electron; 6) Pole
Strength; 7) SAME; 8) Magnetic Dipole;
9) AMP-Metre, Weber; 10) Relative
Permeability; 11) 10-7N; 12) Hentry/
Metre; 13) Weber; 14) 1 Weber= 0
amp.m; 15)104; 16) F=mB; 17) r=/0;
18) B= 0 H; 19) F=K m/R2; 20)
Electricity; 21)410-7Henry/metre; 22)
; 23) 10-7N; 24) Weber/meter2 or Tesla;
25) Intensity of Magnetic Field; 26)
Gauss; 27) Magnetic Moment; 28)
Ampere-meter2; 29) twice; 30) Parallel.

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
1 Mark
1. Define Magnetic moment?
2. What are the Ferro magnetic substances?
3. Define magnetic field
induction?
2 Marks
1. State and explain Coulomb's inverse square law of magnetism?
2. Define magnetic Susceptibility and magnetic permeability?
3. Define a) Magnetic flux density b)
Magnetic field intensity?
4 Marks
1. What are the essential ideas of Ewing's
molecular theory of magnetism? What are
the reasons for its failure?
2. Compare the values of susceptibility and
permeability of Dia, Para, and Ferro magnetic substances?
3. Compare the properties of Dia, Para, and
Ferro magnetic substances?
5 Marks
1. Draw the arrangements of magnetic lines
of force when the magnetic North facing
towards Geographic North? Locate the
null points?

2. Draw the arrangement of magnetic lines

of force when the magnetic South facing
towards Geographic North? Locate the
null points?

ELECTRICITY
1. The net charge flowing through a cross
section of a conductor in unit time is
called ____.
2. Units of electric current ____.
3. Coulomb/sec = ____.
4. Current is measured in Amperes using___.
5. Units of electrical Potential ____.
6. Electric potential ____.
7. Joule/Coulomb = ____.
8. The Potential Difference of an electrical
device or energy source is called its ____.
9. Units of electro motive force(e.m.f.) ____.
10. Volt meter is always connected in ____.
11. When negative terminal of a cell is connected to the positive terminal of the next
cell, then the cells are said to be in ____.
12. When cells are connected in series more
____ will appear in the circuit.
13. Tap key is used to____and____the circuit.
14. When the cells of 1V, 1.5V, 2V are connected in series then the resultant emf is
____.
15. When three cells of 1V, 1.5V, 2V, are connected in parallel, then the resultant emf is
____.

proportional to its ____.

34. The resistance of a conductor is inversely
proportional to its ____.
35. Resistance of an ohmic conductor increases with the increase of ____.
36. The resistance of a specimen of unit length
and unit area of cross section is called___.
37. Units of conductivity are ____.
38. In ____ combination the same current
exists in all of them through a single path.
39. When resistances are connected in ____
the total voltage is divided among them.
40. When resistances are connected in series
their equivalent resistance is equal to____.
41. The equivalent resistance is more than any
individual resistances when resistances
are connected in ____.
42. In a circuit resistors connected to common
terminals are said to be connected in ____.
43. In a ____ combination same potential difference exists across all of the resistors.
44. When resistances are connected in ____
the total current is divided among all the
resistors.
45. In a parallel combination of resistances,
the reciprocal of equivalent resistance is
equal to ____.
46. The effective resistance is less than that of
individual resistances if they are in ____
combination.
47. If two resistances R1 and R2 are connected
in parallel their effective resistance is___.

Tips:
Read the question paper thoroughly for 2 or 3 times and identify
the well known questions and mark
them with pencil.
Don't use sketch pens / colours etc for
diagrams. Use only a quality pencil.
Formula of the experiment must
be in a box.

16. If 90 coulombs charge passes through the

conductor for 5 minutes, then the current
in the conductor is ____.
17. Electric potential is measured using ____.
18. The electric property of a conductor which
opposes the free flow of current is called
____.
19. Any conductor used in a circuit to provide
resistance is called ____.
20. The reciprocal of resistance is called ____.
21. Units of resistance ____.
22. Ammeter is always connected in ____ in
an electrical circuit
23. According to Ohm's law the current (i) in
a conductor is directly proportional to the
____ between its ends.
24. Volt/Amp = ____.
25. Conductors which obey ohm's law are
called ____.
26. Example of Ohmic conductors ____.
27. Conductors which do not obey ohm's law
are called ____.
28. Example of non ohmic conductors ____
and ____.
29. ____ is used to regulate the value of current in a circuit
30. Voltage of house hold supply is ____.
31. For ohmic conductors, graph between current and potential difference is ____.
32. For non ohmic conductors, the graph
between current and potential difference is
____.
33. The resistance of a conductor is directly

Bit Bank

Physical Science

48. When two resistances of 6 and 12 are

connected in series then the effective
resistance is ____.
49. When two resistances of 6 and 12 are
connected in parallel then the effective
resistance is ____.
50. Units of specific heat ____.
51. Units of electric power are ____.
52. In the formula Q = ms, S is called ____.
ANSWERS
1) Current; 2) Ampere; 3) Ampere; 4)
Ammeter; 5) Volt; 6) V= W/Q; 7) Volt; 8)
Voltage; 9) Volt; 10) Parallel; 11) Series;
12) Potential difference; 13) Break ,
close; 14) 4.5v; 15) 2v; 16) 0.3A; 17) Volt
meter; 18) Resistance; 19) Resistor; 20)
Conductance; 21) Ohm (); 22) Series;
23) Potential difference; 24) Ohm; 25)
Ohmic conductors; 26) Metals; 27) Non
ohmic conductors; 28) Electrolytes , semi
conductors; 29) Rheostat; 30) 230v; 31)
Linear; 32) Curved line; 33) Length; 34)
Area of cross section; 35) Tempara-ture;
36) Specific resistance; 37) Mho/ meter;
38) Series; 39) Series; 40) The sum of
individual resistances; 41) Series; 42)
Parallel; 43) Parallel; 44) Parallel; 45)
The sum of reciprocals of the individual
resistances; 46) Parallel;47) R1R2/R1+R2;
48) 18; 49) 4 ; 50) Cal/g oC; 51) Watt
or joule/sec; 52) Specific heat.

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
1 Mark
1. What is Specific resistance?
2. State Lenz's law?
3. What is the difference between AC motor
and DC motor?
4. What is the principle of working of a
Transformer?
5. What is electrolysis?
6. What is the use of iron
core in a transformer?
7. State Ohm's law?
2 Marks
1. State the laws of Resistance?
2. State and explain Lenz's law?
3. State Faraday's laws of electrolysis?
4. Differentiate between Step up and Step
down Transformers?
5. On what factors does the speed of a motor
depend?
4 Marks
1. Derive R=R1 + R2 + ---- (or) Show that the
resultant resistance is equal to the sum of
the individual resistances when they are
connected in series?
2. Derive 1/R=1/R1+1/R2 + ---- (or) Derive
an expression to find the resultant resistance when two or more resistors are connected in parallel?
3. Derive Q = i2Rt /J
4. Describe an experiment to verify the
Ohm's law?
5. Describe an experiment to verify the
Faraday's second law of eletrolysis?
6. Explain the construction of a Transformer
with a neat labeled diagram?
5 Marks
1. Draw a neat labeled diagram of electric
motor?

MODERN PHYSICS
1. Radius of nucleus is ____.
2. Mass of electron is ____ of the mass of
particle.
3. Rutherford's gold foil experiment led to
the discovery of ____.
4. Rutherford's model failed to explain the
____ of atom.
5. Atom is electrically ____.
6. According to Bohr's model electrons
revolve in ____ orbits.
7. Bohr's quantum condition is ____.
8. In ____ orbits electrons do not radiate
energy.
9. ____ atomic model explained the spectral
lines emitted by different elements.
10. Neutron was discovered by ____.
11 Electrically neutron is ____.
12. Mass of proton is ____ times to the mass
of electron.
13. Protons and neutrons together called ____.
14. The number of protons in an atom is
defined as ____.
15. The mass of the atom is measured in units
called ____.
16. The amu is defined is ____ of the mass of
the neutral carbon atom.
17. The total number of protons and neutrons
in an atom is defined as ____.
18. Mass of proton = ____.
19. Mass of neutron = ____.
20. Velocity of light in vacuum (c) = ____.
21. Einstein's mass energy equivalence is
____.
22. The magnitude of the mass defect is a
measure of the ____ of nucleus.

8
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.

32.

33.
34.
35.

Bit Bank

Physical Science

Binding energy = ____.

1amu = ____.
1Mev = ____.
Electron volt is a unit of ____.
Radioactivity was discovered by ____.
The rays which are deflected towards negative terminal are ____.
The rays which are deflected towards positive terminal are ____.
particle is the doubly ionized ____atom.
The mass of particle is ____ times the
mass of proton and its
charge is ____ times the
charge of proton.
Particles whose ionizing power is more are
____.
particles have ____ penetrating power
when compared to and radiations.
The speed of particle is ____.
particles are the flow of ____.

ANSWERS
1) 2.410-15mts; 2) 1/1000; 3) Nucleus;
4) Stability; 5) Neutral; 6) Stationary; 7) I
=nh/2; 8) Stationary; 9) Bohr's; 10)
Chadwik (1937); 11) Neutral; 12) 1836;
13) Nucleons; 14) Atomic Number; 15)
Atomic Mass Units (amu).; 16) 1/12th;
17) Atomic Mass Number or Mass
Number (A); 18) 1.0078amu.; 19) 1.0087
amu.; 20) 3108m/sec.; 21) E=mc2; 22)
Stability; 23) Mass defect 931.5 Mev.;
24)931.5106 ev. (or) 931.5 Mev.; 25) 1.6
10-12Joules.; 26) Energy; 27) A.H. Becqueral(1896); 28) - rays.; 29) - rays.;
30) Helium; 31) 4, 2; 32) particles.; 33)
Small; 34) 107 m/sec.; 35) Electrons.

ly more than ____.

7. The gap between conduction band and
valence band is known as ____ or ____.
8. In an insulator the concentration of free
electrons is nearly equal to ____.
9. In a conductor the concentration of free
electrons is nearly equal to ____.
10. The energy gap of a conductor is ____.
11. The energy gap of pure silicon at room
temperature is ____.
12. The energy gap of pure germanium at
room temperature is ____.
13. At 0K semi conductor behaves as an ___.
14. The conductance of a semi conductor
____ with the increase in temperature.
15. The absence of an electron in the valence
band of a semi conductor is called ____.
16. A group of closely spaced energy levels is
called an ____.
17. In an intrinsic semi conductor the number
of ____ is equal to the number of ____.
18. Doped or impure semi conductors are
called ____ semi conductors.
19. The process of introducing impurities in
small quantities into a material is called
____.
20. In a p type semiconductor the majority
carriers are ____ and the minority carriers
are ____.
21. If a small quantity of acceptor impurity is
added to the pure semiconductor then
____ type semi conductor is formed.

ELECTRONICS
1. At 00K conduction band is completely
____.
2. At 00K valence band is completely ____.
3. Rubber is an ____.
4. The energy gap is highest in the case of
____.
5. When temperature of a semi conductor is
raised its energy gap ____.
6. The energy gap of an insulator is general-

ANSWERS
1) Empty; 2) Saturated; 3) Insulator; 4)
Insulator; 5) Decreases.; 6) 3ev; 7)
Energy gap , forbidden gap; 8) 107 per
c.c; 9) 1028 per c.c; 10) 1 ev; 11) 1.1 ev;
12) 0.72 ev; 13) Insulator; 14) Increases;
15) Hole; 16) Energy band; 17) Electrons,
holes; 18) Extrinsic; 19) Doping; 20)
Holes, electrons; 21) P; 22) Acceptor
impurities; 23) Donar impurities; 24) n;
25) Electrons, holes; 26) Electrons, holes;
27) Junction; 28) Depletion region; 29) Pn junction diode; 30) Potential barrier;
31) Forward bias; 32) Reverse bias; 33)
Less; 34) High; 35) Forward; 36)
Rectifier; 37) Rectifier; 38) Junction transistor; 39) Emitter, base, and collector;
40) Emitter; 41) Amplifier; 42) 300 KHz
to 30 MHz.

Tips:
Practice all bits given at the end
of each lesson.
Important formulae, constants, units,
important equations, names of scientists etc must be written at one place,
so that the practice will be easier
Follow previous papers at least for
past 5 years.

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
1 Mark
1. What is the difference between Atomic
number and Atomic mass?
2. Define mass defect?
3. What is binding energy?
4. What are the Isobars? Give examples?
5. What are Isotopes? Give examples?
6. What are Isotones? Give examples?
7. State law of radioactive disintegration?
2 Marks
1. What is the role of moderator in a Nuclear
reactor?
2. What are the uses of Radio isotopes in the
field of medicine?
3. What is artificial transmutation? Give an
example?
4 Marks
1. Compare the properties of , and radiations?
2. What is the principle of Nuclear Reactor?
How the chain reaction does controlled in
a nuclear reactor?
5 Marks
1. Draw a neat labeled diagram of Nuclear
Reactor?

36. Diode is used as ____.

37. ____ converts AC to DC.
38. A device which consist two p-n junctions
is called ____.
39. The three terminals of a transistor are
____.
40. The arrow mark in the symbol of transistor indicates ____.
41. Transistor acts as ____.
42. In radio communication the range of carrier frequency is ____.

22. Trivalent impurities are also called ____.

23. Pentavalent impurities are called as ____.
24. If a small quantity of Donor impurity is
added to the pure semi conductor then
____ type semi conductor is formed.
25. In an n type semiconductor the majority
carriers are ____, and the minority carriers
are ____.
26. In a semiconductor the charge carriers are
____ and ____.
27. The combination of p type and n type semi
conductors results in the formation of
____.
28. The region close to p-n junction is depleted of mobile charge carriers and is called
____.
29. The p-n junction consisting of p type and
n type semiconductors provided with two
terminals is called a ____.
30. The potential deference across the junction is called ____.
31. If the p side of a diode is connected to the
positive terminal of a battery then the
diode is said to be in ____.
32. If the n side of a diode is connected to the
positive terminal of a battery then the
diode is said to be in ____.
33. A diode offers ____ resistance in forward
bias condition.
34. A diode offers ____ resistance in reverse
bias condition.
35. Under ____ bias condition a diode conducts.

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
1 Mark
1. Define Hole?
2. What is a Byte?
3. What is doping?
4. What is modulation?
5. What is a programme?
2 Marks
1. Draw the symbols of p-n-p and n-p-n transistors?
2. What are the differences between machine
language and high level language?
3. What are the hardware and software in a
computer?
4. What are the important uses of computer
in daily life?
5. Define intrinsic and extrinsic semi conductors?
4 Marks
1. Explain the formation
of p-type and n-type
semi conductors?
2. What are the properties
and uses of Junction Diode?
3. What are the properties and uses of junction transistor?
4. Explain the important steps involved in
Radio broadcasting?
5. Explain the important steps involved in
T.V. broadcasting?
6. Draw the block diagram of Computer and
explain the various components in it?

VS$$ l
{]l l 20 l 2014

CHEMISTRY
ATOMIC STRUCTURE
1. First model of atom was proposed by____.
2. Rutherford proposed the model of atom
based on his ____ experiment.
3. Rutherford's model of atom is also known
as ____.
4. According to Rutherford, atoms are ____
in shape.
5. Quantum theory of radiation is proposed
by ____.
6. According to Quantum theory electromagnetic radiation is in the form of packets
called ____.
7. Quantum principle is ____.
8. In the formulae E = h 'h' is ____.
9. Planck based on his theory explained the
radiation of ____.
10. Value of Planck's constant is ____.
11. Bohr proposed a model of atom based on
____.
12. According to Bohr's model, electrons
revolve in ____.
13. The energy of a stationary orbit which is
near to the nucleus is ____.
14. Electron jumps from ____ energy level to
____ energy level.
15. When electron jumps form higher energy
level to lower energy level the difference
in the energy levels is radiated as ____.
16. Angular momentum of electron is equal to
____.
17. In the formula mvr = nh /2 'n' is known
as ____.
18. Splitting of spectral lines in the presence
of magnetic field is known as ____.
19. Bohr's model is applicable only for the
atoms of ____.
20. Elliptical orbits are introduced by ____.
21. The angular momentum of an electron
revolving in elliptical orbit is ____.
22. Dual nature of electron was explained by
____.
23. De broglie explained ____ based on the
dual nature of electron.
24. Wave equation of electron was proposed
by ____.
25. Derivations of wave equation lead to____.
26. Stationary orbits are denoted by ____.
27. Sub stationary orbits are also known as
____.
28. The number of sub stationary orbits present in a stationary orbit depends on ____
value.
29. Number of sub stationary orbits in M orbit
are ____.
30. Principle quantum number was proposed
by ____.
31. 'n' value of N shell is ____.
32. The quantum number which gives the size
and energy of an orbit is ____.
33. No. of sub stationary orbit in a stationary
orbit is ____.
34. Azimuthal quantum number was proposed
by ____.
35. Azimuthal quantum number is also known
as ____.
36. For a given value of n, the maximum
value of l is ____.
37. Shape of sub stationary shell can be determined by using ____.
38. When l = 0, the shape of the orbit is ____.
39. Magnetic quantum number was proposed
by ____.
40. 'm' value depends on ____.

VS$$ l
{]l l 20 l 2014
ANSWERS
1) J.J. thomson; 2)-ray scattering; 3)
Planetary model or nuclear model; 4)
Spherical; 5) Max planck; 6) quanta; 7)
E=h; 8) Planck's constant; 9) Black
body; 10) 6.62510-27 erg. Sec or 6.625
10-34 joule. Sec; 11) Planck's quantum
theory; 12) Stationary orbits; 13) Less;
14) Higher, lower; 15) E2E1=h; 16)
Mvr=nh /2; 17) Principal quantumnumber; 18) Zeeman effect; 19) Single electron; 20) Sommerfeld; 21) Mvr = kh/2;
22) Louis de broglie; 23) Quantization of
angular momentum; 24) Erwin schrodinger; 25) Atomic orbitals; 26) Principle
quantum number; 27) Atomic orbitals;
28) 'n'; 29) 3; 30) Neils bohr; 31) 4; 32)
Principle quantum number; 33)n2; 34)
Sommerfeld; 35) Angular momentum
quantum number; 36) n-1; 37) l; 38)
Circular; 39) Lande; 40) '1'.

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
1 Mark
1. Write the Planck's equation?
2. What is zeeman effect?
3. What is a stationary orbit?
4. What is a nodal plane?
5. Why an electron enters into 4s but not into
3d after filling up of 3p orbital?
6. State "Aufbau" principle?
7. State "pauli's" exclusion principle?
2 Marks
1. Define Electron affinity and Ionization
energy?
2. Write the electronic configurations of Cu,
and Zn.and Mg?
3. Draw the boundary diagrams of 's' and 'p'
orbitals?
4. Write a short note on Principle quantum
number?
4 Marks
1. What are the important features of
Rutherford's planetary model? Mention its
defects?
2. State the postulates of Bohr's model of
atom? What are its defects?
3. Define ionization energy? What are the
factors influencing it?
4. State and explain "Aufbau" principle with
an example?
5. State and explain with one example the
"Hund's" rule of maximum multiplicity?
6. Explain the features of modern atomic
structure?
5 Marks
1. Draw the boundary surface diagrams of 'd'
orbitals?

CHEMICAL BONDING
1. Complete transfer of
one or more electrons
from one atom to another result in the formation of ____ bond.
2. Sharing of two electrons
between two atoms causes ____ bond.
3. The filling up of valence orbital with 8
electrons is referred to as ____.
4. The distance between two atoms after
bond formation is called as ____.
5. ____ takes place by the atoms either by
losing or sharing electrons to achieve inert
gas configuration.
6. The ____ decides the strength of the
chemical bond.

Bit Bank

Physical Science
7. The atom formed by s-s overlapping is
____.
8. The atoms formed by p-p overlapping are
____ etc.
9. The atoms formed by s-p overlapping are
____, etc.
10. The bond formed by end on overlapping is
____.
11. Strongest bond is ____ bond.
12. ____ bond can exist independently.
13. Examples for Sigma bond() are ____ etc.
14. The bond formed by side on overlap is
____.
15. Pie bond ().is present only along with a
____.
16. Example for Pie bond() is ____.etc.
17. Single bonded atom consists only ____.
18. Double bond consists one ____ bond and
one ____.
19. Example for double bonded atoms ____
etc
20. Triple bond consists one ____ bond and
two ____.
21. Example for triple bonded atoms ____etc.
22. The bond formed by contribution of electron pair is called as ____bond.
23. Example for coordinate covalent bond is
____.
24. In NH3BF3, electron donor is ____and
electron acceptor is ____.
25. All diatomic molecules are ____.
26. Shape of PCl is ____NSWERS
3

4. Explain the formation of Coordinate covalent bond?

CLASSIFICATION OF
ELEMENTS
1. The first classification of elements is
attempted by ____.
2. In a Doberiener triad, the atomic weight of
middle element is the ____ of atomic
weights of first and the third elements.
3. Example for Doberiener triad ____.
4. Mendeleef's periodic table is based on the
____.
5. Mendeleef's periodic law states that the
properties of the elements are periodic
functions of the ____.
6. Gallium was named by ____.
7. Scandium was discovered by ____.
8. Modern periodic table is based on ____.
9. In the periodic table horizontal rows are
called ____.
10. In the periodic table vertical columns are
called ____.
11. In the long form periodic table there are
____ periods and ____groups.
12. The number of elements in the first period
is ____.
13. The number of elements in the second
period is ____.
14. The number of elements in the third period is ____

Tips:

ANSWERS
1) ionic; 2) covalent; 3) octet configuration.; 4) bond length.; 5) Bond formation;
6) extent of overlap; 7) Hydrogen (H2).;
8) F2, Cl2, Br2, O2; 9) HCl, HBr, HI, H2S,;
10) Sigma bond.(); 11) Sigma (); 12)
Sigma (); 13) H2, HCl, Cl2, BF3, BeF2;
14) Pie bond ().; 15) sigma bond ().;
16) Ethylene (c2H4), CO2, O2, N2; 17)
Sigma () bond.; 18) Sigma () ,Pie bond
(); 19) O2,Co2,C2H4 etc; 20) Sigma (),
Pie bonds (); 21) C2H2, CaCl2, HcN; 22)
Coordinate covalent; 23) NH3BF3; 24)
NH3,BF3.; 25) linear.; 26) Trigonal by
pyramidal.

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
1 Mark
1. Write the names of two atoms having
pyramidal shape?
2. Draw the shape of Ammonia (NH3)?
3. Draw the shape of Water molecule (H2O)?
2 Marks
1. Mention the differences between and
bonds?
2. What is the shape of PCl5 ? Draw it?
3. Draw the shape of PCl3 molecule?
4 Marks
1. Discuss the types of overlaps that are possible with s and p orbitals?
2. Explain the formation of double bond?
3. Explain the formation of Triple bond?

Practice bits in groups in the

form of quiz etc.

Matching is very important. For this,

Light, Modern Physics, Electronics,
Atomic structure, Chemistry of carbon
compounds, etc are very important
chapters.

15. The number of elements in the fourth and

fifth periods are ____,____.
16. The number of elements in the sixth period is ____.
17. ____ period is incomplete.
18. Elements from atomic number 57 to 70 are
known as ____.
19. Elements form atomic number 89 to 102 is
known as ____.
20. Valence electronic configuration of inert
gas is ____.
21. Every period in the periodic table ends
with ____.
22. The elements with electronic configuration ns1 and ns2 are known as ____elements.
23. The valence electronic configuration of pblock elements is from ____.
24. The distance between the centre of the
nucleous and the outer most orbital is
defined as ____.
25. The minimum energy required to remove
an electron from the outer most orbital of
an atom in the gaseous state is defined as
____.
26. The tendency of bonded atom to attract the
electron is defined as ____.
27. Electro negativity is measured in
____scale.
28. The ability to lose electron and become
positively charged ions is defined as ____.
29. Addition oxygen or removal of hydrogen
from a compound is defined as ____.

9
ANSWERS
1) Doberiener; 2) mean; 3) Li, Na, K; 4)
atomic weight; 5) atomic weights; 6) De
Boisbaudran; 7) Nilson; 8) Atomic number; 9) Periods; 10) Groups; 11) 7, 16; 12)
2; 13) 8; 14) 8; 15) 18 , 18; 16) 32; 17)
7th; 18) lanthanoides; 19) Actinoides; 20)
ns2np6; 21) Inert gas; 22) s block; 23)
ns2np1 to ns2np5; 24) Atomic radius; 25)
Ionization Energy; 26) Electro negativity;
27) Linus Pauling Electro negativity; 28)
Electro positivity; 29) Oxidation.

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
1 Mark
1. State Mendeleef's periodic law?
2. Define Oxidation?
3. State modern periodic law?
4 Marks
1. How does the following properties vary in
a period and a group?
a) Atomic radius b) Oxidation c)
Reduction d) Electro negativity e) Electro
positivity and f) Ionization energy?
2. What is Modern periodic law? Explain its
main features?

ALKALINE EARTH METALS

1. Alkaline earth Metals belongs to
____Group
2. Beryl [Be3 Al2 (Sio3)6] is the ore of ____.
3. No.of water molecules in Epsum salt are
____.
4. Chemical formulae for Epsum salt is ___.
5. Barite (BaSo4) is the ore of ____.
6. The metals present in Dolomite
(MgCo3CaCo3) are ____.
7. Atomic size from Be to Ra ____.
8. From Be to Ra the Ionization Energy
____.
9. From Be to Ra the
Electro
Negativity
____.
10. Alkaline Earth metals
react with water and
gives ____.
11. Beryllium doesn't react with ____.
12. Alkaline Earth metals react with oxygen
and gives ____.
13. Beryllium doesn't react with oxygen
below ____ temperature.
14. The Alkaline earth metal which gives peroxides in addition to oxide when burnt in
excess of air is ____.
15. The oxides of alkaline earth metals are
____in nature.
16. All alkaline earth metals except Be, react
with H2 to form ____.
17. The reagent used to prepare BeH2 from
BeCl2 is ____.
18. All alkaline earth metals react with chlorine to form ____.
19. All alkaline earth halides are ____ except
Be.
20. BeCl2 is ____.
21. The alkaline earth chloride which absorbs
moisture and fumes in air is ____.
22. Alkaline earth metals are extracted by
____.
23. While extracting Mg from MgCl2 ____are
added.
24. Addition of KCl and NaCl during electrolytic extraction of Mg will lower the
____ and increases the ____.
25. The cathode in the electrolyses of MgCl2
is ____.

10

ANSWERS
1) IIA; 2) Beryllium; 3) 7; 4)
MgSo47H2o; 5) Barium; 6) Magnesium
and calcium; 7) Increases; 8) Decreases;
9) Decreases; 10) H2 gas; 11) Water; 12)
Oxides; 13) 6000C; 14) Barium; 15) Basic; 16) Hydrides; 17) LiAlH4; 18) Chlorides; 19) Ionic; 20) Covalent; 21) Becl2;
22) Electrolysis; 23) KCl and NaCl; 24)
Melting point , conductivity; 25) Iron pot.

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
1 Mark
1. Why do we add KCl
and NaCl to MgCl2 during Mg extraction?
4 Marks
1. Write the reactions of
alkaline earth metals with a) oxygen b)
Hydrogen c) water and d) chlorine ?
2. Describe a method of extraction of Mg
from its ore?
5 Mark
1. Draw a neat diagram showing the extraction of Magnesium from its ore?

SOLUTIONS
1. In a solution the component which is taken
in relatively less quantity is called ____.
2. In a solution, the component which is
taken in relatively large quantity is called
____.
3. Solute+ solvent = ____.
4. If the solvent used is water, the resultant
solution is called ____solution.
5. The maximum amount of solute by weight
in grams dissolved in 100 g of solvent at
constant temperature is defined as ____.
6. Solubility depends on ____.
7. Common name of sodium thiosulphate is
____.
8. Chemical name of Hypo is ____
9. ____solution is unstable.
10. Naphthalene is soluble in ____.
11. Polar solutes dissolve in ____solutions.
12. On increasing the temperature, the solubility of Nacl remains ____.
13. The solution of Co2 in water is called
____.
14. The amount of solute present in a solution
is known as ____.
15. The weight of solute present in 100g of
solution is called ____
16. W% = ____.
17. The volume of solute present in 100 ml of
solution is called ____.
18. The no. of moles of a solute present in one
litre of solution is defined as ____
19. Molarity (M) = ____.
20. Molarity of a solution depends on ____.
21. The sum of the mole fractions of all constituents present in the solution is equal to
____.
22. Gram molecular weight of Na2Co3 is
____.
23. Gram molecular weight of NaoH is ____.
24. The process of a molecule giving rise to
ions is called ____.
25. Solutions which ionize completely
(100%) are known as ____.
26. Solutions which ionize incompletely
(<100%) are known as ____.
27. Solutions which do not ionize are known
as ____.
28. For weak electrolytes ____increases the
extent of ionization.

ANSWERS
1) Solute; 2) Solvent; 3) Solution; 4)
Aqueous; 5) Solubility; 6) The nature of
solute and solvent, and Temperature; 7)
Hypo; 8) Sodium thiosulphate (Na2S2o3);
9) Super saturated; 10) Kerosene; 11)
Polar; 12) Same; 13) Soda; 14)
Concentration; 15) Weight percentage;
16) Weight of solute / weight of solution100; 17) Volume percentage; 18)
Molarity(m); 19) Number of moles of
solute (n) /volume of solution in
litres(v).; 20) Temperature; 21) One; 22)
106; 23) 40; 24) Ionization; 25) Strong
electrolytes; 26) Weak electyrolytes; 27)
Non-electrolytes; 28) Dilution.

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
1 Mark
1. Define Solubility?
2. Define Concentration?
3. Define molarity?
2 Marks
1. 2 Moles of Sodium carbonate is dissolved
in 3 moles of water. Calculate the mole
fractions of water and Sodium carbonate?
2. 20 ml of Alcohol is dissolved in 160 ml of
water. What is the volume percentage of
the solution?
3. Calcualte the amount of oxalic acid present in 500ml of 0.2M solution?

10.
11.
12.
13.

14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.

28.
29.
30.

the substances which produce ____- ions

in aqueous solution.
Arrhenius theory is applicable only for the
substances which are soluble in ____ only.
At 250C, the concentration of H+ ions is
____ to the concentration of OH- ions.
The ionization of water is ____ dependent.
The product of concentrations of H+ ions
and OH- ions in one mole of water is
defined as the ____.
Ionic product of water Kw = ____
At 250C, Kw = ____.
The term pH is introduced by ____.
The negative logarithm of H+ ion concentration is defined as the ____.
pH = ____
If pH < 7, then the solution is ____.
If pH > 7, then the solution is ____.
If pH = 7, then the solution is ____.
The concentration of H+ ions in a solution
whose pH = 8 is ____.
Example for strong acid is ____.
Example for weak acid is ____.
Example for strong base is ____.
Example for weak base is ____.
The heat liberated when one mole of acid
reacts with one mole of base is defined as
the ____.
The heat evolved when a strong acid
reacts with a strong base is equal to ____.
NaOH + HCl NaCl + H2O + ____.
The body fluid whose pH > 7 is ____.

Tips:

4. 15ml of Hexane is mixed with 45ml of

Heptane. Calculate the volume
percentage of this solution?
4 Marks
1. Define Molarity? 2.12 gms of Na2Co3 is
present in 250 ml of its aqueous solution.
Calculate the molarity of the solution?
(Molecular weight of Na2Co3 is 106)
2. How do you prepare 0.1M standard
Na2Co3 solution?

ACIDS BASES AND SALTS

1. Acids are formed when ____oxides are
dissolved in water,.
2. When metallic oxides
are dissolved in water,
____are formed.
3. Blue litmus changes
into red colour in the
presence of ____.
4. Colour of Methyl Orange indicator in
acidic medium is ____.
5. Acids react with bases to form ____.
6. Red litmus changes into blue colour in the
presence of ____.
7. Colour of methyl orange indicator in
Basic medium is ____.
8. According to Arrhenius theory, acids are
the substances which produce ____ ions in
aqueous solution.
9. According to Arrhenius theory, bases are

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{]l l 20 l 2014

Bit Bank

Physical Science

Short and very short answer

type questions must be very brief.
Draw diagrams wherever necessary.
Long answer type questions must be
written point wise
Highlight the key words in the
answer with highlighter or pencil.

ANSWERS
1) non metallic; 2) Bases; 3) Acid; 4)
Red; 5) Salt and water; 6) Base; 7)
Yellow; 8) H+; 9) OH-; 10) Water; 11)
Equal; 12) Temperature; 13) Ionic
Product of water; 14) [H+][OH-]; 15)
1.010-14 mol.ion2/lit2; 16) Sorensen; 17)
pH; 18) -log [H+]; 19) Acid; 20) Base; 21)
Neutral;22)10-8; 23) Hcl; 24) CH3COOH;
25) NaOH; 26) NH4OH; 27) Heat of
Neutralization; 28) 13.7 Kcal/mole; 29)
13.7 K. cal/mole; 30) blood.

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
1 Mark
1. Define pH?
2. What is the ionic product of water? What
is its value at 250C?
3. Define heat of neutralization?
4. Calculate the pH of 0.001M Hcl?
4 Marks
1. State Arrehenius theory of Acids and
Bases? What are its limitations?
2. Define Strong acid, Strong base, Weak
acid, and weak base and give examples?

CHEMISTRY OF CARBON
COMPOUNDS
1. Percentage of carbon in the earth crust is
____.
2. The occurrence of same element in two or

3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.

20.

21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.

more different forms is known as ____.

The density of Diamond is ____.
The refractive index of diamond is ____.
____is used as glass cutter.
The C-C bond length in diamond is ____
The C-C bond angle in diamond is ____/.
The allotropy of carbon used as lubricant
is ____.
The density of graphite is ____.
Graphite contains carbon atoms in ____
rings.
In graphite the C-C bond length is ____.
In graphite the C-C bond angle is ____.
Two successive graphite layers are separated by ____.
C60 contains ____ pentagonal rings and
____ hexagonal rings of carbon.
C60 is a ____ like structure.
Co2 dissolves in water
and gives ____.
____ is used as fire
extinguisher.
Solid carbon dioxide is called ____.
The phenomenon in which atoms of same
element join together to form long chains
is known as ____.
Compounds having same molecular formula but different structures are called
____ and the phenomenon is called as
____.
The oldest coal is called ____.
The compounds containing exclusively
carbon and hydrogen are known as ____.
Example of aromatic hydrocarbon is ____.
Saturated hydrocarbons are also known as
____.
General formula of alkanes is ____.
If one hydrogen is removed from alkane it
is called ____ group.
Alkanes undergo ____ reactions.
Formula for chloroform is ____.
L.P.G consists of ____.
The unsaturated hydrocarbons having at
least one C = C are known as ____.
The general formula of alkenes is ____.
Alkenes are also known as ____.
Alkenes undergo ____ reactions.

ANSWERS
1) 0.3%; 2) allotropy; 3) 3.51 gm/cc; 4)
2.41; 5) Diamond; 6) 1.54 A0; 7) 1090 28/;
8) Graphite; 9) 2.25 gm/cc; 10) hexagonal; 11)1.42A0; 12) 1200; 13) 3.35 A0; 14)
12 , 20; 15) football; 16) Carbonic acid;
17) Carbon dioxide; 18) dry ice; 19)
Catenation; 20) isomers, isomerism; 21)
anthracite; 22) hydrocarbons; 23) Benzene; 24) paraffins; 25) CnH2n+2; 26) alkyl;
27) substitution; 28) CHCl3; 29) Butane
(C4H10); 30) Alkenes; 31) CnH2n; 32)
olefins; 33) addition.

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
1 Mark
1. What is Allotropy?
2. Define catenation?
3. What is polymerization?
4. What is isomerism?
5. What are the uses of Acetylene?
2 Marks
1. Draw the structure of Benzene?
2. Write the substitution reactions of
Alkanes?
3. Differentiate between Alkanes and
Alkenes?
4. Mention the uses of CO2 ?

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{]l l 20 l 2014
4 Marks
1. Compare the structures of diamond and
graphite?

CARBOHYDRATES AND
PROTEINS
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15
16.
17.
18.
19.

20.

21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.

29.
30.
31.

32.

Sweetest sugar is ____.

Example for polysaccerides is ____.
Polyhydroxy aldehydes are ____.
Poly hydroxyl ketones are ____.
Number of carbon atoms in Hectose are
____.
In Tollen's test, Glucose reduces ____.
Defacation is addition of ____.
Acidity in the sugar cane juice is removed
by adding ____.
The sugar content of molasses is ____.
The main by-product in sugar industry is
____.
The chief use of ethyl alcohol is as ____.
____ is added to get absolute alcohol from
rectified spirit.
Consumption of denatured spirit causes
____.
Calorific value of Glucose is ____.
The dirty grey precipitate formed during
the preparation of Tollen's reagent is ____.
The spent cane is called ____.
____ are used to separate the crystals of
sugar and liquid juices.
____ is the micro organism used for fermentation of molasses.
Sucrose is broken down
into ____during fermentation.
Sucrose is broken down
into Glucose and fructose during fermentation by the enzyme ____.
____ enzyme breaks Glucose.
The products obtained from glucose during fermentation are ____.
____ is the by-product of alcohol industry.
____ are building blocks of Proteins.
Number of essential amino acids are ____.
Polymeric compounds of amino acids are
____.
CO-NH bond is called ____.
____. is the process of breaking down of
large molecules into small molecules by
the action of enzymes.
96% alcohol is commercially called ____.
____ is added to denatured spirit.
The precipitates formed by defecation,
carbonation, and sulphitation is called
____.
The result of Tollen's test is ____.

ANSWERS
1) Fructose; 2) Starch and cellulose; 3)
Aldoses; 4) Ketoses; 5) 6; 6) Ag+ ion as
Ag metal; 7) Ca(OH)2; 8) Ca(OH)2; 9)
50%; 10) molasses; 11) solvent; 12) CaO;
13) blindness; 14) 3.81 K.Cal/gm or 686
K.Cal/mole; 15) AgOH; 16) Bagasse; 17)
Centrifuge machines; 18) Yeast; 19) Glucose and Fructose; 20) Invertase; 21) Zymase; 22) Ethyl Alcohol & Co2; 23) Co2;
24) Amino acids; 25) 9; 26) proteins; 27)
Peptide bond; 28) Fermentation; 29) rectified spirit; 30)Pyridine; 31) press mud;
32) Silver mirror on the walls of test tube.

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
1 Mark
1. Define calorific value?

What is defecation/
What is Sulphitation?
What is rectified spirit?
What is bagasse? How is it useful?
Give the classification of carbohydrates
based on hydrolysis?
2 Marks
1. Explain the formation of peptide bond?
2. What are the functions of proteins?
4 Marks
1. How is Tollen's reagent prepared? How is
glucose tested with it?
2. How is Benedict's reagent prepared? How
is glucose tested with it?
3. Explain the various steps involved in manufacturing of sugar from sugar cane?
4. How is alcohol manufactured industrially?
5 Marks
1. Draw the diagram showing the parts of
sugar industry?
2. Draw a chart showing alcohol manufacture?

ANSWERS
1) Tri ethanol ammonium; 2) stearic acid;
3) oleic acid; 4) Ni; 5) C17H33COONa; 6)
Zinc oxide; 7) Glycerol; 8) 3,4,5,tri
bromo salicylanilide; 9)C17H35COOH;
10)Glycerol and fatty acids; 11)
Hydrogenation; 12) hydrogenation of
oils; 13) Glycerol; 14) soap; 15) melting
points; 16) Na3Po4; 17) they react with
hard water but do not form precipitate;
18) 30% of; 19) solid; 20) Vanaspati
(Dalda); 21) C11H23COOH; 22) detergents.

2.
3.
4.
5.
6.

OILS AND FATS

1. The cation of soap useful for dry cleaning
is ____.
2. Shaving soap contains excess of ____.
3. The fatty acid obtained from cotton oil is
____.
4. The catalyst used in the hydrogenation of
oils is ____.

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
1 Mark
1. What is the hydrogenation of oils?
2. What is the use of hydrogenation of oils?
3. What is saponification?
4. What is a soap?
2 Marks
1. What are the industrial uses of oils?
4 Marks
1. How do you test the quality of soap?
2. How is soap industrially manufactured?

CHEMISTRY AND
INDUSTRY
1. The raw materials required for cement
manufacture are ____.
2. The temperature required in the manufac-

Tips:
First attempt all 14 questions as
per choice i.e. 2 marks questions-5,
one mark questions -4, four marks
questions - 4, and one diagram (5
marks).
If time permits then answer additional questions.
Try to avoid spelling mistakes.

5. The chemical formula of soap is ____.

6. The catalyst used in soap manufacturing is
____.
7. Transparent soap contains ____.
8. Deodorant soap contains ____.
9. The formula of stearic acid is ____.
10. Oils are triestors of ____.
11. ____ improves preservation, taste and
odour of many oils.
12. Hydrolysis of oils and
fats in the presence of a
base is called ____.
13. The by product in the
preparation of soap is
____.
14. Sodium salt of ABS or FAS + builders =
____.
15. Saturated fatty acids have high ____.
16. ____.removes the Ca2+ ions present in
hard water.
17. Detergents are useful even in hard water
because ____.
18. All soaps contain ____ water.
19. Fat exists in ____ state at room temperature.
20. ____ is a fat obtained by the catalytic
hydrogenation of vegetable oil.
21. The chemical formula of lauric acid is
____.
22. Chemically ____are sodium salts of alkyl
benzene sulphonates of fatty alcohol sulphates.

11

Bit Bank

Physical Science

3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.

ture of cement is ____.

____is added to powdered clinker cement.
Glass may be considered as ____.
The composition of cement is ____.
By chemical composition, glass is a mixture of ____.
Raw materials used for glass manufacture
are ____.
The mixture of raw materials in the glass
manufacture is called ____.
Broken glass pieces are called ____.
Cullet helps in ____ of raw materials.
Heat required for glass manufacturing is
____.
The mixture of impurities floating on the
liquid glass is called ____.
Slow cooling of glass is called ____.
Glass blowing is possible with ____glass.
Optical instruments are made with ____.
The raw materials required for manufacture of ceramics are ____.
Simple pottery (Terra-cota) articles are
____.
Earthen ware is ____ pottery.
The polymeric organic substance is commonly known as ____.
____ derived from amino acids are examples of condensation polymers.
____ is the main constituent in natural
fibers.
Example of fibers from melt spinning is
____,____.
Cold creams are ____of oil and water.

24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.

31.
32.
33.
34.
35.

Chemical composition of talc is ____.

First synthetic dye was prepared by ____.
The ____ impart colour to the dye.
The function of oxochrome is ____.
Examples of chromophore ____.
Examples of oxochrome: ____.
A substance used in prevention, diagnosis,
treatment or cure of a disease is called
____.
Examples of Harmones : ____.
Drugs given to the patient in ore or other
modified form are ____.
Petrol is a mixture of ____.
Chemicals obtained from petrol are ____.
Example of mixed fertilizer ____.

ANSWERS
1) Lime stone, Clay; 2) 17000C to
19000C; 3) Gypsum; 4) frozen liquid or
super cooled liquid; 5) calcium silicates,
calcium aluminates; 6) Sodium silicates
(Na2Sio3), Calcium silicate (CaSio3) and
Sand (4Sio2); 7) Soda ash (Na2Co3),
Limestone (CaCo3), and Sand (4Sio2); 8)
Batch; 9) cullet; 10) lowering of melting
point; 11) 10000C; 12) glass gall; 13)
Annealing; 14) Pyrex or Borosilicate; 15)
quartz glass; 16) clay, felspar, and sand;
17) porous; 18) glazed; 19) resins; 20)
Poly peptides; 21) Cellulose; 22) Nylon,
Dacron; 23) emulsions; 24) Magnesium
silicate; 25) William Henry Perkin.; 26)
chromophor; 27) intensifies the colour of
the dye and attaches the colour to the dye;
28) -NO2,-NO,-N=N-,C=O,C=S; 29) OH,-COOH, -SO3H2- NH2, NHR, NR2;
30) drug; 31) Insulin, cortisone; 32)
Pharmaceuticals; 33) Hydrocarbons; 34)
Petrochemicals; 35) Nitrophosk.

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
1 Mark
1. What is the use of adding cullet to the raw
materials of glass?
2. What are primary nutrients?
3. What is the use of
Micronutrients?
4. What is annealing?
5. What is cracking?
2 Marks
1. Draw the structures of paracetamol and
aspirin?
2. What are the characteristics of a good
quality of face powder?
3. Write a short note on earthenware?
4. Define a) Plastic b) Adhesive
4 Marks
1. What is a drug? What are the qualities of
an ideal drug?
2. What is a drug? How are they classified as
per therapeutic action?
3. Describe the manufacturing of cement?
5 Marks
1. Draw a neat diagram of fractionation of
petroleum and label its parts?
2. Sketch the cement manufacture plant?

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