january 2016

DIPLOMA IN

MARKETING
PRACTICE QUESTIONS

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Marketing

Practice Questions
1. The transaction in which goods are exchanged with goods is called
A)
B)
C)
D)

Bartering
Portering
Galvanizing
Trickling

2. The main purpose of marketing is

A)
B)
C)
D)

increasing sales
customer care
customer and supplier satisfaction
creating brand

3. Consumer research deals with

A)
B)
C)
D)

personality of consumer
personality of product
personality of people
both A & B

4. A company which makes what it thinks will be bought by customers is said to have
A)
B)
C)
D)

Sales orientation
Production orientation
Purpose orientation
Consumerism

5. One of the advantages of Marketing orientation is

A)
B)
C)
D)

It is cheap
Rational consumer behaviour
Visionary focus
Caters to need of customer

6. The significant advantage a product enjoys over its rivals is termed as

A)
B)
C)
D)

USP
PUS
UPS
PPS

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Practice Questions

7. Which of the following factors is not a PEST factor

A)
B)
C)
D)

Economic influence
Social influence
Technological influence
Public influence

8. The concept of Marketing mix is also referred to as

A)
B)
C)
D)

Marketing
Marketing
Marketing
Marketing

push
dynamics
offer
cloud

9. To define a product by its basic description, such as cosmetics, is a description of

A)
B)
C)
D)

Actual product
Core product
Augmented product
Luxury product

10. Which of the following C is not included in Ohmaes strategic triangle

A)
B)
C)
D)

Company
Customer
Condition
Competition

11. Which of the following type of strategies is a result of planning

A)
B)
C)
D)

Deliberate strategies
Emergent strategies
Both A & B
None of the above

12. Which of the following factors played the most important role in changing the
traditional distinguishing patterns of marketers?
A)
B)
C)
D)

Technological advancement
Political crises
Globalization
Social stratification

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Practice Questions

13. ____________ is a statement that tells what a company is trying to achieve through its
conduct.
A)
B)
C)
D)

Vision statement
Mission statement
Status Quo
Statement of entry

14. Specific goals of the organization as a whole are termed as

A)
B)
C)
D)

Organizational objectives
Commercial objectives
Operating objectives
Corporate objectives

15. _________ is a systematic evaluation of marketing position and performance.

A)
B)
C)
D)

Marketing
Marketing
Marketing
Marketing

evaluation
appraisal
audit
feedback

16. Market intelligence is a result of _________.

A)
B)
C)
D)

Environmental scanning
Political scanning
Market scanning
Industry scanning

17. Which of the following is NOT an element of SWOT analysis?

A)
B)
C)
D)

Strength
Weakness
Opportunities
Turnover

18. To create an advantage through cutting down cost is an example of

A)
B)
C)
D)

Nicheing
Differentiation
Cost leadership
Pricing strategy

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Practice Questions

19. Which of the following forecasts is not valid one in the stages of sales forecast?
A)
B)
C)
D)

Environmental forecast
Market forecast
Industry forecast
Company forecast

20. Qualitative forecasting doesnt depend on ________ data.

A)
B)
C)
D)

historical
numerical
financial
social

21. When quality works as a philosophy supervises every organizational activity, it is a case
of
A)
B)
C)
D)

Total Quality Value (TQV)

Total Quality Management (TQM)
Total Quality Approach (TQA)
Total Quality Template (TQT)

22. __________ covers every aspects of organizations relationship with customers

A)
B)
C)
D)

Customer approach
Customer motive
Customer care
Customer preference

23. The phenomenon of sellers confusing wants and needs is known to be

A)
B)
C)
D)

Marketing
Marketing
Marketing
Marketing

hazard
comma
myopia
strangulation

24. Customer delight is simply another synonym for

A)
B)
C)
D)

Customer preference
Customer satisfaction
Customer loyalty
Customer kudos

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Practice Questions

25. A satisfied customer is not supposed to

A)
B)
C)
D)

buy again from the same supplier

switch to another supplier
buy more of same or costlier products
recommend supplier to friends

26. The process of building long term relationship with customers is known as
A)
B)
C)
D)

Relationship strategy
Relationship approach
Relationship loyalty
Relationship marketing

27. The potential lifetime profits from an individual customer is known as

A)
B)
C)
D)

lifetime
lifetime
lifetime
lifetime

profit system
customer value
customer gain
profit margin

28. What relationship is created with a customer when he is encouraged to communicate if

needs be?
A)
B)
C)
D)

Basic
Accountable
Reactive
Partnership

29. Customer care is aimed to close the gap between customers

A)
B)
C)
D)

Intensity and loyalty

Knowledge and reality
Demand and supply
Expectation and experience

30. Which of the following approaches is NOT an actual approach of quality control?
A)
B)
C)
D)

Cost minimization
Price segmentation
Zero reject
100% quality

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Practice Questions

31. Patterns in society that affects all the industries, not only individual firms or
households is known as
A)
B)
C)
D)

Micro environment
Macro environment
Pseudo environment
Trapezoid environment

32. All aspects of a market affecting relationship with customers and the pattern of
competition is called
A)
B)
C)
D)

Market
Market
Market
Market

strata
dominion
environment
ambience

33. The three broad based stakeholder categories include each of the following categories
EXCEPT
A)
B)
C)
D)

Executive stakeholders
Internal stakeholders
External stakeholders
Connected stakeholders

34. Bankers to an organization is an example of

A)
B)
C)
D)

Executive stakeholder
Internal stakeholder
External stakeholder
Connected stakeholder

35. The response risks likely to arise from an interest group includes all of the following
elements EXCEPT
A)
B)
C)
D)

Direct action
Publicity
Resignation
Sabotage

36. The ___________ environment is where the firm can exercise greatest control and
should possess the greatest knowledge.
A) internal

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Practice Questions
B) marketing
C) industrial
D) operational
37. The ___________ comprises those firms which use a particular competence,
technology, product or service.
A)
B)
C)
D)

industry
company
economy
state

38. Porters five competitive forces include which of the following forces
A) Threat of new entrants.
B) Threat of substitute product
C) Bargaining power of customers
D) All of the above
39. Which of the followings is NOT a barrier to entry for prospective new entrants?
A)
B)
C)
D)

Economies of Scale
Switching costs
Industry turnover
Product differentiation

40. _________ is the study of population characteristics and population trends.

A)
B)
C)
D)

Ethnography
Demography
Lexicography
Geography

41. A consumer is a person who

A) is the end user of a product
B) one of the parties in a purchase transaction
C) is a user of range of services
D) is exercising special skills in purchasing
42. A state of felt deprivation is called
A)
B)
C)
D)

Need
Want
Desire
Expectation

43. __________ can be defined as the decision processes and acts of individuals involved in
buying and using products or services.

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Practice Questions

A)
B)
C)
D)

Consumer buying behaviour

Consumer switching behaviour
Consumer credit behaviour
Consumer inducing behaviour

44. The group of brands that consumer will recognize and consider buying among the
awareness set is termed as
A)
B)
C)
D)

Unawareness set
Awareness set
Evoke set
Void set

45. Which of the followings is NOT a characteristic of culture?

A)
B)
C)
D)

Learned
Cumulative
Creative
Shared

46. The characteristic of culture that points out the fact that culture is handed down to
each new generation is
A)
B)
C)
D)

Adaptive
Cumulative
Learned
Social

47. A distinct and identifiable cultural group within the society as a whole is called
A) micro-culture
B) macro-culture
C) tertiary culture
D) ethno-culture
48. The process by which the individual internalizaes social expectation is called
A)
B)
C)
D)

Socialization
Stratification
Acculturation
Familiarity

49. Opinon leaders are people

A)
B)
C)
D)

who
who
who
who

lead the society

everyone looks for information
provide the best opinion
lead the pressure group
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Practice Questions

50. Motivation arises from _________ needs.

A)
B)
C)
D)

actual
perceived
artificial
individual

51. The concept of subdividing a market into homogeneous subgroups is termed as

A)
B)
C)
D)

Marketing mix
Market segmentation
Market division
Market economy

52. The consideration for segmentation that refers to the extent of a sub-markets size in
order to be accepted as a different segment can be termed as
A)
B)
C)
D)

Measurability
Sustainability
Accessibility
Constructability

53. Some of the non-profit benefits of market segmentation include each of the following
benefits EXCEPT
A) Specialization
B) Competitive advantage
C) Larger turnover
D) Product assortment
54. A total market of a particular product is
A)
B)
C)
D)

likely to homogeneous
likely to heterogeneous
both A & B
none of the above

55. A particular segment of a market generally is found to have

A)
B)
C)
D)

common needs and preferences

varied needs and preferences
common needs but varied preferences
varied needs but common preferences

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Practice Questions

56. A market or segment selected for special attention by an organization is known as

A)
B)
C)
D)

Marketing mix
Homogeneous market
Selective market
Target market

57. Picking a particular market and creating a single product suitable for this segment is
known as
A)
B)
C)
D)

Target marketing
Concentrated marketing
Differentiated marketing
Unitary marketing

58. A company attempting to create varied products each for a particular segment is called
A)
B)
C)
D)

Target marketing
Concentrated marketing
Differentiated marketing
Unitary marketing

59. Which of the following types of segmentation distinguish market as - heavy user,
medium user, light user?
A) Segmentation by location
B) Segmentation by demography
C) Segmentation by benefits
D) Segmentation by product usage
60. The sum of expectations which other people have on an individual in a relationship is
termed as this individuals
A)
B)
C)
D)

Role
Class
Status
Value

61. A ___________ is something that satisfies a set of wants that customers have.
A) product
B) price

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Practice Questions
C) commodity
D) goods

62. ____________ is done mainly to increase the satisfaction of customers by bulding the
benefits the core product has.
A)
B)
C)
D)

Fermentation
Cataclysm
Augmentation
Benefit plotting

63. Which of the following products is a wrong example of consumer goods?

A)
B)
C)
D)

Shopping goods
Accessories
Speciality goods
Unsought goods

64. Unsought goods are that which customers

A)
B)
C)
D)

can hardly find in the market

do not prefer
do not know they need
sale back

65. The aspect of a product which distinguishes it from others is called

A)
B)
C)
D)

Unit Selling Proposition

Unique Selling Proposition
Unique Segment Proposition
Unit Segment Proposition

66. Which of the following functions doesnt belong to packaging?

A)
B)
C)
D)

Protection
Distribution
User convenience
Segmentation

67. Which of the following orders is the correct order of a PLC or Product Life Cycle?
A) Introduction, Growth, Maturity, Decline, Senility
B) Introduction, Maturity, Growth, Senility, Decline

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Practice Questions
C) Introduction, Senility, Maturity, Growth, Decline
D) Introduction, Maturity, Senility, Growth, Decline

68. Most products in the market are in their

A)
B)
C)
D)

Introductory stage
Senile stage
Maturity stage
Growth stage

69. Reduction in the product range is sometimes known as

A)
B)
C)
D)

Generalization
Rationalization
Augmentation
Cauterization

70. A ________________ is a section within a larger organization which is responsible for

planning, developing, producing and marketing its own products or services.
A)
B)
C)
D)

Strategic Business Unit

Segmented Business Unit
Stochastic Business Unit
Stewardship Business Unit

71. All the entities influencing the activities of an organization are regarded as its
A)
B)
C)
D)

Shareholder
Creditholder
Stakeholder
Positionholder

72. The use of existing scientific and technological knowledge to create something new is
known to be
A)
B)
C)
D)

Creation
Development
Augmentation
Application

73. The approach to ask for premium prices on the launch of new product to profit from
the lead time over competition is known as

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Practice Questions
A)
B)
C)
D)

Concept Definition
Product Championship
Skimming Strategy
Lead Time Approach

74. The ___________ rate of new product is very high.

A)
B)
C)
D)

birth
mortality
selling
demand

75. The spread of market information regarding a product is called

A)
B)
C)
D)

Dissemination
Dispersion
Diffusion
Elucidation

76. Product development is generally followed by ____________

A)
B)
C)
D)

Product identification
Concept definition
Concept build-up
Product construction

77. New baby syndrome is just another name for ___________.

A) Product championship
B) Skimming strategy
C) Concept definition
D) Product development
78. Different market segments will require products of
A)
B)
C)
D)

different price and quality

similar price and quality
different price and similar quality
similar price and different quality

79. Early adopters and innovators are thought to operate as

A) opinion leaders
B) social leaders
C) market leaders

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Practice Questions
D) segmentation leaders

80. New products should only be considered worth going for if there is evidence of
A) Adequate demand
B) Compatibility with existing marketing ability
C) Compatibility with existing production ability
D) All of the above
81. In marketing the process of getting products to customers is called
A)
B)
C)
D)

Segmentation
Distribution
Diffusion
Channeling

82. The five rights of distribution do not include which of the following rights?
A)
B)
C)
D)

Right
Right
Right
Right

people
place
price
quantity

83. _________ earn a commission on whatever sales they make on behalf of producer.
A)
B)
C)
D)

Distributors
Agents
Brokers
Franchises

84. The intermediaries who stock a range of products from competing manufacturers to sell
on to other organizations are called
A)
B)
C)
D)

retailers
agents
wholesalers
dealers

85. When a product goes straight from producers to consumers, the distribution is called
A)
B)
C)
D)

Direct distribution
Field distribution
Primary distribution
Force distribution

86. Which of the following product characteristics has an effect on design of the channel of
distribution?

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Practice Questions

A)
B)
C)
D)

Durability
Quality
Cheap price
Demand

87. Which of the following factors is not favouring the intermediaries in distribution?
A)
B)
C)
D)

Insufficient resources to finance a large sales force

Potential buyers spread over large areas
Supplier having insufficient marketing skills
The need for an expert sales force to demonstrate product

88. The desire to maintain a relationship is termed as

A)
B)
C)
D)

Trust
Friendship
Commitment
Faith

89. Which of the following options is NOT an example of Direct Selling?

A) Mail order
B) Door-to-door selling
C) Franchise
D) Computer-shopping
90. An ______________ is any firm which buys from one post of the chain and sells to
another in the process of product channeling.
A)
B)
C)
D)

Distributor
Intermediary
Amazon
Producer

91. ________ is the measure of the value transacted by the buyer for the value he receives
from the seller.
A)
B)
C)
D)

Fringe benefit
Value added service
Price
Index

92. The study that involves the calculation of costs of products (or services) is known as

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Practice Questions

A)
B)
C)
D)

Actuaries
Cost Accounting
Manegerial Accounting
Actual accounting

93. A product cost is applied to a

A)
B)
C)
D)

finished product
work-in-progress
JIT
Supply chain

94. Which of the following costs is an example of direct cost

A)
B)
C)
D)

cost of materials
wages
insurance
cost of cleaning materials

95. Which of the following costs is NOT an example of variable cost

A) Sales commission
B) Material costs
C) Building rent
D) Phone call charges
96. ________________ costs are often said to be avoidable costs.
A)
B)
C)
D)

Impressionable costs
Marketable costs
Reasonable costs
Controllable costs

97. Which of the following key constructs is NOT considered while setting price?
A)
B)
C)
D)

The prices charged by competitors

Cost of production
Cost of new entry barrier
Value of offerings to customers

98. ___________ is a principle of how an organization operates, how it does something

consistently in a certain way as laid down by the management.

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Practice Questions

A)
B)
C)
D)

Policy
Decorum
Methodology
Procedure

99. __________ is the way by which organizations meet their objectives by using resources
in particular ways.
A)
B)
C)
D)

100.
A)
B)
C)
D)

Marketing
Strategy
Procedure
Policy

Price leaders are _____________ market leaders.

always
can be
in most cases
never

101.
is

The technique to scrutinize the inter-relationship between costs, volume and profit

A)
B)
C)
D)
102.

Jarque-Berra analysis
Break-even analysis
Box-cox analysis
Akaike analysis
Which of the followings is correct formula of Break-even point?

A) Variable Costs/ Price Fixed Costs

B) Price/ Variable Costs Fixed Costs
C) Price / Fixed Costs Variable Costs
D) Fixed Costs / Price Variable Costs

103.
A)
B)
C)
D)

Sales value minus variable costs of sales yields

Contribution
Appreciation
Break-even
Catenation

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Practice Questions

104. ___________ can be regarded as the phenomenon of decrease of average cost as

output increases.
A)
B)
C)
D)

105.
A)
B)
C)
D)

106.
A)
B)
C)
D)

Economies of
Economies of
Economies of
Economies of

Scope
Scale
Output
Sales

The statement that most fixed costs are step costs is

true
false
partially correct
unobservable

Full cost plus pricing is a ___________ approach of costing.

traditional
modern
innovative
obsolete

107. Which of the following measures is a measure of the responsiveness of demand to

changes in price?
A)
B)
C)
D)

108.
A)
B)
C)
D)

109.
A)
B)
C)
D)

Price elasticity of demand

Demand elasticity of price
Price elasticity of turnover
None of the above

In which situation average pricing strategy is the way to go?

Products offered by competitors are similar
The company wants to be an aggressor in the market
Market is volatile.
Both A & B is true

Which of the following discount schemes extends over a period?

Quantity discounts
Cash discounts
Cumulative quantity discounts
Sales price

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Practice Questions

110. When a company wants to earn high profits at the expense of its customers, the
pricing is called
A)
B)
C)
D)

111.
A)
B)
C)
D)

112.
A)
B)
C)
D)

predatory pricing
aggressive pricing
feline pricing
unethical pricing

When a customer ask for the brand by name the resultant effect is said to be
pull effect
push effect
side effect
dope effect

Getting the companys goods into the distribution network is called

pull effect
push effect
side effect
dope effect

113. SOST, a technique of integrated marketing planning, includes all of the following
factors EXCEPT
A)
B)
C)
D)

114.
A)
B)
C)
D)

115.

Situation
Objectives
Strategy
Technicality

The correct hierarchy of the AIDA model is

Awareness > Desire > Interest > Action
Action > Awareness > Desire > Interest
Awareness > Interest > Desire > Action
Awareness > Action > Desire > Interest

The effective promotion tool to cover the stage desire in the AIDA model will be

A) Advertising
B) Public Relations
C) Sales promotion

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Practice Questions
D) Personal selling

116.
A)
B)
C)
D)

117.
A)
B)
C)
D)

118.
A)
B)
C)
D)

Which one of the followings is the largest media in UK?

Press
Television
Cinema
Outdoor

Which of following factors is not an advantage for cinema in terms of promotion?

High attention span
Production expense
Regional flexibility
High impact

Which of the followings is not an actual type of advertising?

Informative advertising
Persuasive advertising
Creative advertising
Reminding advertising

119. Conferring with another with the view to compromising or agreeing on some issue is
called
A)
B)
C)
D)

Conference
Consultation
Discussion
Negotiation

120. __________ is the presentation of products and associated persuasive

communication to potential clients, employed by the supplying organization.
A)
B)
C)
D)

121.

Personal Selling
Practical Demonstration
Aggressive Marketing
Window Marketing

Which of the following roles is NOT one for a sales representative?

A) Deliverer

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Practice Questions
B) Technician
C) Missionary
D) Producer

122. Which of the following activities of a sales representative is regarded the art of
selling?
A)
B)
C)
D)

Communicating
Prospecting
Selling
Servicing

123. Which of the following is a category of benefits derived by a customer from a given
product?
A)
B)
C)
D)

Standard benefits
Company benefits
Differential benefits
All of the above

124. Which of the following benefits relate to the offer of a supplier compared to what
his competitors are offering?
A)
B)
C)
D)

125.
A)
B)
C)
D)

126.
A)
B)
C)
D)

127.

Standard benefits
Company benefits
Differential benefits
All of the above

Direct marketing involves which of the following distribution intermediaries

Distributors
Retailers
Wholesalers
None of the above

Direct marketing is also referred to as

Direct
Direct
Direct
Direct

response marketing
channeling
output base
contribution method

____________ are goods which are bought relatively frequently at a low cost.

A) Fast Track Consumer Goods

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Practice Questions
B) Fast Moving Consumer Goods
C) Fast Distributing Consumer Goods
D) Fast Consumer Goods

128.
A)
B)
C)
D)

129.
A)
B)
C)
D)

130.
A)
B)
C)
D)

131.
A)
B)
C)
D)

Bread is an example of what class of consumer goods

Shopping goods
Speciality goods
Convenience goods
Unsought goods

Formerly known as industrial goods market, it is now regarded as

Business to Customer
Supplier to producer
Business to Business
Direct Marketing

Manufacturing falls under the domain of which industry?

Primary industry
Secondary industry
Tertiary industry
All of the above

Consortiums are mostly __________ partnerships.

short term
permanent
immediate
economic

132. A _____________ organisation is one whose attainment of its primary goal is not
assessed by economic measures.
A)
B)
C)
D)

133.

Direct marketing organisations

Not for profit organisations
Social marketing organisations
None of the above

Which of the following factors does a reseller need to consider beside costs?

A) Anticipated resell price

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B) Appeal of the product
C) Reputation of the selling company
D) All of the above

134.
A)
B)
C)
D)

135.
A)
B)
C)
D)

136.
A)
B)
C)
D)

Which of the following services is NOT an after-sales service?

JIT delivery
Quotations
Maintenance
Guarantees

Intangibility refers to the feature of a service which is

absence of physicality
varieties
perishability
quality

Transfer of property is ________ in service

not possible
a must
obvious
not necessary

137. ___________ is the totality of features and characteristics of that service which
bears on its ability to meet customer needs.
A)
B)
C)
D)

138.
A)
B)
C)
D)

139.

Service
Service
Service
Service

Quality
Features
Appraisal
Accounting

Which of the following components is NOT a component of service quality?

Technical Quality
Functional Quality
Additional Quality
Image

Quality can only be defined by __________.

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Practice Questions
A)
B)
C)
D)

140.
A)
B)
C)
D)

Suppliers
Customers
Market
Producers

Services cant be _________ .

stored
used
bought
created

141. _______________ refers to the marketing occurring between two or more countries
pertaining to both goods and services.
A)
B)
C)
D)

142.
A)
B)
C)
D)

Cross-Countries Marketing (CCM)

International Marketing (IM)
Global Marketing (GM)
Holistic Marketing (HM)

Companies enter in international marketing for which of the following reasons

National necessity
Growth
Economies of Scale
All of the above

143. The three major criteria determining entrance in international market includes
each of the following EXCEPT
A)
B)
C)
D)

Market attractiveness
Technical know-how
Competitive advantage
Risk

144. _______________ is domestic country orientation in which IM is secondary to home

marketing.
A)
B)
C)
D)

Ethnic Conflict
Patriotism
Ethnocentrism
Myopic concentration

Page 24 of 26

Marketing

Practice Questions

145.
A)
B)
C)
D)

________ is a synthesis of both ethnocentrism and polycentrism.

Geocentrism
Combocentrism
Equacentrism
Duocentrism

Answers
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29

A
C
D
B
D
A
D
C
B
C
A
A
B
D
C
A
D
C
B
A
B
C
C
B
B
D
B
C
D

41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50
51
52
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
60
61
62
63
64
65
66
67
68
69

A
A
A
C
C
D
A
A
B
B
B
B
C
B
A
D
B
C
D
A
A
C
B
C
B
D
A
C
B

81
82
83
84
85
86
87
88
89
90
91
92
93
94
95
96
97
98
99
100
101
102
103
104
105
106
107
108
109

Page 25 of 26

B
A
B
C
A
A
D
C
C
B
C
B
A
A
C
D
C
A
B
B
B
D
A
B
A
A
A
A
C

121
122
123
124
125
126
127
128
129
130
131
132
133
134
135
136
137
138
139
140
141
142
143
144
145

D
C
D
D
D
A
B
C
C
B
B
B
D
B
A
A
A
C
B
A
B
D
B
C
A

Marketing

Practice Questions
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40

B
B
C
A
D
C
A
A
D
C
B

70
71
72
73
74
75
76
77
78
79
80

A
C
B
C
B
C
B
A
A
A
D

110
111
112
113
114
115
116
117
118
119
120

Page 26 of 26

A
A
B
D
C
C
A
B
C
D
A