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b) Mercury
c) Lead
d) Zinc
b) Hydrogen
c) Corbon Dioxide
d) Oxygen
b) Calcium bicarbonate
c) Sodium bicarbonate
d) Calcium carbonate
c) Sodium bicarbonate
d) Calcium carbonate
b) Calcium bicarbonate
b) germanium oxide
d) sodium silicate
b) Nitrous oxide
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Hydrogen
7.Bromine is a
a) black solid
b) red liquid
c) colourless gas
b) Iron
c) Diamond
d) Platinum
9.The variety of coal in which the deposit contains recognisable traces of the original plant material is
a) bitumen
b) anthracite
c) lignite
d) peat
b) fire extinguisher
c) mosquito repellent
d) petrol additive
b) Silica
c) Iron Oxide
d) Diamond
12.The inert gas which is substituted for nitrogen in the air used by deep sea divers for breathing, is
a) Argon
b) Xenon
c) Helium
d) Krypton
13.The property of a substance to absorb moisture from the air on exposure is called
a) osmosis
b) deliquescence
c) efflorescence
d) desiccation
b) 3.5%
c) 2.5%
d) 2%
c) alkali metals
d) rare metals
18.Heavy water is
a) deuterium oxide
b) PH7
c) rain water
d) tritium oxide
19.The chemical (ethyl mercaptan) added to the otherwise odourless LPG cooking gas for imparting a detectable
smell to the gas is a compound of
a) bromine
b) fluorine
c) chlorine
d) sulphur
b) carbon
c) sulphur
d) oxygen
b) PVC
c) black paint
d) polystyrene
b) isomers
c) isomorphs
d) isotopes
b) alum
c) potassium permanganate
d) lime
b) sulphuric acid
c) carbon dioxide
d) nitrous acid
b) calamine
c) calcite
d) bauxite
b) sulphur
c) common salt
d) sugar
27.Which of the following was to be discovered first in the chromospheres of the sun?
a) Krypton
b) Xenon
c) Neon
d) Helium
b) Sodium
c) Francium
d) Cerium
b) alcohol
c) water
d) kerosene
b) Iron, tin
d) Copper, Tin
a) Rutile
b) Haematite
c) Limestone
d) Pitchblende
b) Carbon monoxide
c) Sulphur dioxide
d) Hydrogen peroxide
b) nichrome
c) graphite
d) iron
b) barium
c) mercury
d) potassium
35.Marsh gas is
a) nitrogen
b) ethane
c) methane
d) hydrogen
d) methane,
37.Air is a/an
a) compound
b) element
c) electrolyte
d) mixture
38.Production of chlorofluorocarbons (CFC) gas which is proposed to be banned in India, is used in which of the
following domestic products?
a) Television
b) Refrigerator
c) Tube light
d) Cooking gas
b) helium
c) oxygen
d) argon
41.Which of the following is a non metal that remains liquid at room temperature
a) Phosphorous
b) Bromine
c) Chlorine.
d) Helium
42.The Paithan (Jayakwadi) Hydro-electric project, completed with the help of Japan, is on the river
a) Ganga
b) Cauvery
c) Narmada
d) Godavari
b) 65
c) 35
d) 25
45.The pass located at the southern end of the Nilgiri Hills in south India is called
a) the Palghat gap
46.Which of the following factors are responsible for the rapid growth of sugar production in south India as
compared to north India?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
Longer crushing p
a) I and II
b) I, II and III
c) I, III and IV
d) I, II and IV
T47.he principal copper deposits of India lie in which of the following places?
a) Hazaribag and Singbhum of Bihar
d)
b) II and III
c) I and II
d) I and III
b) Indus
c) Brahmaputra
d) Mahanadi
b) Jhelum
c) Ravi
d) Sutlej
b) Bromine
c) Chlorine.
d) Helium
02. The Paithan (Jayakwadi) Hydro-electric project, completed with the help of Japan, is on the river
a) Ganga
b) Cauvery
c) Narmada
d) Godavari
b) 65
c) 35
d) 25
05. The pass located at the southern end of the Nilgiri Hills in south India is called
a) the Palghat gap
06. Which of the following factors are responsible for the rapid growth of sugar production in south India as
compared to north India?
I. Higher per acre field of sugarcane
II. Higher sucrose content of sugarcane
III.Lower labour cost
a) I and II
b) I, II and III
c) I, III and IV
d) I, II and IV
07. The principal copper deposits of India lie in which of the following places?
a) Hazaribag and Singbhum of Bihar
Siwaliks in Uttar Pradesh and in Karnataka
d)
08. Which of the following are true regarding Jhum cultivation in India?
I. It is largely practiced in Assam
II. It is referred to as 'slash and burn' technique
III. In it, the fertility is exhausted in a few years
a) I, II and III
b) II and III
c) I and II
d) I and III
b) Indus
c) Brahmaputra
d) Mahanadi
b) Jhelum
c) Ravi
d) Sutlej
b) Haryana
c) Madhya Pradesh
d) Assam
12. The year ____ is called a Great Divide in the demographic history of Indi
a) 1901
b) 1921
c) 1941
d) 1951
13. The only private sector refinery set up by Reliance Petroleum Lt is located at
a) Guwahati
b) Jamnagar
c) Mumbai
d) Chennai
b) Himachal Pradesh
d) Meghalaya
15. Three important rivers of the Indian subcontinent have their sources near the Mansarover Lake in the Great
Himalayas. These rivers are
a) Indus, Jhelum and Sutlej
d) Jhelum,
b) yellow soils
c) black soils
d) older alluvium
17. The most plausible explanation for the location of the Thar desert in western India is :a) the obstruction caused by the Aravalis to the rain-bearing wind that proceeds to the Ganga Valley
moisture by heat
b) the evaporation of
carried by the South-west monsoon is driven away by the dry upper air current
18. The northern boundary of the peninsular plateau of Indian runs parallel to the Ganga and the Yamuna from
Rajmahal hills to a point near
a) Allahabad
b) Delhi
c) Gwalior
d) Jaipur
19. Which of the following food grain crops occupies the largest part of the cropped area in India?
a) Barley and maize
c) Rice
d) Wheat
20. The number of major languages, recognized in the Indian Union as official language, are
a) 15
b) 22
c) 12
d) 9
d) Siwalik range,
Punjab
22. Which of the following groups of rivers originate from the Himachal mountains?
a) Beas, Ravi and Chenab
23. Which of the following groups of states has the largest deposits of iron ore?
a) Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka
Assam
24. Which of the following union territories of India has the highest density of population per sq km?
a) Pondicherry
b) Lakshadweep
c) Delhi
d) Chandigarh
b) Narora
c) Rawat Bhata
d) Tarapore
26. The south-west monsoon contributes ____ of the total rain in Indi
a) 86%
b) 50%
c) 22%
d) 100%
d)
28. Which of the following events took place in the Cenozoic era?
a) Formation of the rockies, India collides with Asia and the formation of the Himalayas and the Alps
Appalachians and central European mountains
b) Formation of the
d) Breaking up of Pangaea
29. The oldest oil field in India is the ____ field, in ____
a) Anleshwar, Gujarat
c) Nawagam, Gujarat
d) Digboi, Assam
30. Unlike other parts of the Indian Coast, fishing industry has not developed along the Saurashtra coast because
a) there are few indentions suitable for fishing
c) the sea water is relatively more saline
b) when the continental plates of India and Eurasia converged on each other
c) both (a)
c) the greater
33. Which of the following geographical features have played a great unifying role in strengthening the forces of
homogeneity of the Indian people?
I.The expanses of water surrounding the peninsula
II.The Himalayan Mountains
III.The vastne
a) I
b) II
c) I and II
34. Which of the following drainage systems fall into Bay of Bengal?
a) Ganga, Brahmaputra and Godavari
d) Both (a)
and (b)
d) Noonmati, Assam
b) Vindhyas
c) Satpuras
d) Nilgiri hills
37. Which of the following groups of rivers have their source of origin in Tibet?
a) Brahmaputra, Ganges and Sutlej
d) Chenab,
38. Which of the following measures are effective for soil conservation in India?
I.Avoiding crop rotation
II.Afforestation
III.Encouraging the use of chemical fertilizers
IV.Limiting shifting cultivation
a) I and II
b) II and IV
c) III and IV
d) I, II and III
39. Which of the following crops needs maximum water per hectare?
a) Barley
b) Maize
c) Sugarcane
d) Wheat
c) Khasi hills
41. The originating in the Himalayan mountain complex consists of how many distinct drainage systems of the Indian
Subcontinent?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
b) 50%
c) 60%
d) 70%
43. Which of the following important rivers of India does not originate from the Western Ghats?
a) Cauvery
b) Godavari
c) Krishna
d) Mahanadi
b) Deccan plateau
d) Western ghats
45. The proportion of forest to the total national geographical area of India as envisaged by National Forest Policy is
a) 30.3%
b) 33.3%
c) 38.3%
d) 42.3%
46. Which of the following dams has generations of power more than irrigation as its main purpose?
a) Gandhi Sagar
b) Hirakud
c) Periyar
d) Tungabhadra
b) Cotton
c) Sugarcane
d) Rice
48. Which of the following countries leads in the production of aluminium and its products in the world?
a) Australia
b) France
c) India
d) USA
b) hot deset
c) monsoon
d) mediterranean
50. The most ideal region for the cultivation of cotton in India is
a) the Brahmaputra valley
51. Which of the following are true with respect to the Indian Peninsular Plateau?
I.The southern plateau block is formed mainly of granite and gneiss
II.The Deccan lava plateau is an elevated tableland consisting of horizontally arranged lav
a) I, II and III
b) I and II
d) I, III and IV
52. Which of the following types of soil are mostly confined to river basins and coastal plains of India?
a) Alluvial soils
b) Black soils
c) Laterite soils
d) Red soils
53. The two states of India, most richly endowed with iron ore, are
a) Bihar and Orissa
Bengal
d) peninsular plateau
55. Which of the following groups accounts for over 90 per cent of India's annual coal production?
a) Bihar, Orissa and West Bengal
56. The significant shifts in Indian agriculture during green revolution include :
a) non-food grains reported some spectacular progress and shift in the cropping pattern
regions productions decreased and in the northern states increased
b) 8
c) 13
d) 15
b) Kosi
c) Krishna
d) Sutlej
59. Which of the following is the most important raw material for generation of power in India?
a) Coal
b) Mineral Oil
c) Natural Gas
d) Uranium
60. When it is noon IST at Allahabad in India, the time at Greenwich, London, will be
a) midnight ,GMT
b) 1730 hours
c) 0630 hours
b) Australia
c) Canada
d) India
63. The scarcity or crop failure of which of the following can cause a serious edible oil crisis in India?
a) coconut
b) Groundnut
c) Linseed
d) Mustard
64. The pennines (Europe), Appalachians (America) and the Aravallis (India) are examples of
a) old mountains
b) young mountains
c) fold mountains
d) block mountains
65. Which of the following factors are responsible for present crisis in the jute industry in India?
I.The decline in overseas market
II.Inadequately supply of raw jute
III.Stiff competition from synthetic packing materials
Select the
a) I and II
b) I, II and III
c) I and III
d) II and III
1.Choose the most suitable alternate accordance with the correct use of tense
a) she just had her lunch
2.Choose the most suitable alternate accordance with the correct use of tense
a) since my father has joined this post,he did not take bribe.
since my father has join this post,he has not taken bribe.
c)
3.Choose the most suitable alternate accordance with the correct use of tense
a) I have received your letter this morning
morning
4.Choose the most suitable alternate accordance with the correct use of tense
a) India has won freedom in 1947
above
b) can be
c) might be
c) must warn
b) rose
c) rises
8.she ------- work hard if she wants to top the merit list
a) must have
b) must
c) must not
b) ought to have
c) should have
d) None of the
b) was to have
c) is to have
b) is used to
c) was used to
13.She --------- here last night as her friend was better then.
a) need not have stayed
b) to abuse
c) abusing
b) pusnished
c) be punished
b) are dissappointed
c) were disappointed
17.The train --------- when you reach the station as you are late.
a) left
b) leave
b) amaze
c) amazed
b) will be surprised
c) will surprise
c) don't pass
b) left
c) leaving
b) worked
c) working
b) enters
c) entering
b) had arrived
c) arrives
b) to go
c) for going
26.For modern man there are a no. of deseases ---------a) to suffer from
b) for suffering
c) to suffer
b) not stay
c) not to stay
c) to conduct
b) in informing
c) to informing
b) seeing
c) to see
b) to speak
c) not to speak
b) cleaning
c) to be cleaned
b) being
c) to have been
34.I have ever looked forward ---------- the president of rotary club.
a) to be
b) to being
c) to have been
c) to be invited
b) smoking
c) to have smoked
b) to travel by
c) travelling
38.The traders suddenly --------- the prices of crude oil last year
a) rose
b) raised
c) rise
b) raised
c) rose
b) rose
c) roused
b) roused
c) rose
b) awake
c) woke
b) bounded
c) binding
b) practised
c) practise
b) advice
c) advised
b) ground
c) grounded
b) wrang
c) wrung
b) swung
c) swing
b) fell
c) fallen
b) 1984
c) 1971
d) 1961
b) 87 characters
c) 127 characters
d) all of the
above
b) autobatch.bat
c) autoexecutive.bat
d) auto.bat
5.copy and xcopy are same in the sense of the following answer:a) Both are internal commands of DOS
group of files
d) Both a and b
6.Which command in DOS is used to clear the screen and display the operating system prompt on the first line of the
screen/display?
a) cd
b) md
c) clrsc
d) cls
b) dir,ren,sys
b) diskcopy
c) type
9.Copy the hidden system files to a disk the following command is used in DOS
a) copy
b) ren
c) sys
d) diskcopy
11.DOS command used to copy a file named ldce.doc from drive c: to drive a:
a) copy ldce.doc to a:
b) copy c:\ldce.doc a:
c) copy c: a:
d) copy ldce a: c:
b) ctrl+b
c) ctrl+c
d) ctrl+d
b) delete directory
c) delete labels
b) occupied space
c) free space
17.The deleted file in DOS can be recovered if you use the following command
a) donotdelete
b) nodelete
c) undelete
d) ondelete
18.While working with DOS, which key can be used to repeat the previous command?
a) F3
b) F1
c) F7
d) F9
d)
b) rename
b) list
c) subdir
d) subtree
26.which command in DOS is used to display the subdirectory structure and pause the screen after each screenful of
info
a) tree
b) deltree/f
c) dir | more
d) tree | more
27.Which command in DOS is used to provide access to the files in other directories
a) tree
b) path
c) dir
d) attrib
b) copy
c) ed
b) format
c) chkdsk
d) attrib
b) format
c) chkdsk
d) attrib
31.Which file in DOS contain internal commands that are loaded during the booting process
a) io.sys
b) msdos.sys
c) command.com
d) config.sys
32.Which switch along with the command dir in DOS is used to view files in all directories
a) /p
b) /w
c) /s
d) /l
33.While working with DOS, which command is used to combine files ldce1 plus ldce2 to a new file ldce3
a) copy ldce1 ldce2 to ldce3
c) copy ldce1+ldce2+ldce3
34.Which command in DOS allows you to move one file from one location to another location
a) rename
b) copy
c) move
d) cp
35.____ runs on computer hardware and serves as a platform for other software to run on
a) operating system
b) application software
c) system software
d) all
36.Each time you turn on a DOS based computer, it will check for the following files
a) command.com, io.sys
b) bas
c) com
d) txt
b) md
c) mk
d) both a and b
39.Which command in DOS displays only file and directory names without size and date info
a) dir/w
b) dir/a
c) dir/b
d) dir/s
d) chkdks.exe
b) rd
c) erase
d) md
41.Which of the following operating systems does not implement multitasking truly?
a) Windows 95
b) Windows 98
c) Windoes XP
d) MS DOS
c) to keep systems
b) software
c) data
d) none
b) software
c) program
d) none
45.Multi tasking is
a) easier to develop than single task
d)
46.The first program that runs on a computer when the computers boot up
a) system software
b) operating system
c) system operations
d) none
47.An interface in a computer that consists program counters, registers, interrupts and terminals
a) hardware
b) software
c) data
d) none
48.Swapping actually
a) works best with most computers
turn to use the memory
b) ldce?.txt
c) ldce_$.txt
d) none
b) .com
c) .sys
d) .bat
b) 1.44 GB
c) 1.40 GB
d) 1.44 MB
c) Extended
c)
c)
b) Sequentially
10.A computer program that converts the entire program into machine language is called as
a) Interpretor
b) Simulator
c) Compiler
d) Editor
11.A computer program that translates the program instructions one at a time into machine language is known as
a) Interpreter
b) CPU
c) Compiler
d) Simulator
b) Control Section
c) External Memory
d) Cache Memory
b) Binary Code
c) Binary Word
d) Parity Bit
15.The ALU of a computer normally contains a number of high speed storage elements called
a) semiconductor memory
b) registers
c) hard disks
d) magnetic disk
16.Which of the following is used only for data entry and storage and never for processing
a) mouse
b) micro computer
d) dumb terminal
b) to compare numbers
d) to do mathematical works
18.The secondary storage devices can only store data but they can not perform
a) arithmetic operations
b) logic operations
c) fetch operations
19.Which of the following memories allow simultaneous read and write operations
a) ROM
b) RAM
c) EPROM
d) None
d) RAM
b) 32 byte
c) 4 byte
d) None
22.A set of information that defines the status of resources allocated to a process is
a) Process Control
b) ALU
c) Register Unit
d) Process Description
b) Slave
c) Simulator
d) Emulator
24.The storage capacity of a disk system depends on the bits per inch of track and the tracks per inch of
a) cylinder
b) hum
c) cluster
d) surface
25.Which number system is commonly used as a shortcut notation for groups of four binary digits?
a) Binary
b) Decimal
c) Octal
d) Hexadecimal
b) Memory
c) Buffer
d) Register
b) Words
c) Information
d) File
28.A physical connection between the microprocessor memory and other parts of the microcomputer is known as
a) Path
b) Address Bus
c) Route
b) Memory
c) CPU
d) Control Unit
b) Machine Language
b) Classifying
c) Reproducing
d) Summarizing
unit
d) Storage Unit
35.Pick the one that is used for logical operations or comparisons such as less than or equal to or greater than
a) Arithmetic and Logic Unit
b) Control Unit
c) Magnetic Strength
b) Digital Computer
c) Hybrid Computer
d) Mainframe Computer
38.Which of the following are the two main components of the CPU
a) Control Unit and Registers
40.Different components on the mother board of a PC unit are linked together by sets of parallel electrical conducting
lines. What are these lines called?
a) Conducters
b) Buses
c) Connectors
d) consecutives
b) DRAM
c) ROM
42.Access time is
a) seek time + latency time
b) seek time
d) latency time
43.Seek time is
a) time to position the head over the proper track
head over proper cylinder
44.Latency Time is
a) time to spin the needed data under head
d) None
46.Machine language is
a) machine dependent
b) difficult to program
c) error prone
a) A byte
b) A Record
c) An Address
50.The basic difference between memory and storage is, While the memory is ____________ and storage is_________
a) Temporary, permanent
b) Permanent, temporary
c) Slow, fast
Digital Electronics
b) nibble
c) grouping
d) instruction
2. Which of the following is the most widely used alphanumeric code for computer
input and output?
a) Gray
b) ASCII
c) parity
d) EBCDIC
3. A binary number's value changes most drastically when the ________ is changed.
a) MSB
b) frequency
c) LSB
d) duty cycle
c) BCD has no
b) octal
c) binary
d) hexadecimal
7.An informational signal that makes use of binary digits is considered to be:
a) solid state
b) digital
c) analog
d) non-oscillating
8. The binary-coded decimal (BCD) system can be used to represent each of the 10
decimal digits as a(n):
a) 4-bit binary code
d) ASCII code
9. The American Standard Code for Information Interchange (ASCII) uses how many
individual pulses for any given character?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 7
d) 8
10. A device used to display one or more digital signals so that they can be compared to
expected timing diagrams for the signals is a:
a) DMM
b) spectrum analyzer
c) logic anlyzer
d) frequecy counter
11. Which of the following logical operations is represented by the + sign in Boolean
algebra?
a) inversion
b) AND
c) OR
d) complementation
b) 3 volt supply
c) 12 volt supply
d) 5 volt supply
d)
14. Logically, the output of a NOR gate would have the same Boolean expression as a
a) NAND gate immediately followed by an inverter
b) OR gate immediately
followed by an inverter
c) AND gate immediately followed by an inverter
gate immediately followed by an inverter
d) NOR
15. The terms "low speed" and "high speed," applied to logic circuits, refer to the
a) rise time
b) fall time
d) clock speed
16. What is the name of a digital circuit that produces several repetitive digital
waveforms?
a) an inverter
b) an OR gate
d) an AND gate
b) Multivibrator
c) Bistable
d) Astable
18. A correct output is achieved from a master-slave J-K flip-flop only if its inputs are
stable while the:
a) clock is LOW
b) slave is transferring
c) flip-flop is reset
d) clock is HIGH
b) no active S or R input
c) Only S is active
c) Interval time
d) Set up time
d)
b) toggle triggered
c) clock triggered
d) noise triggered
24.Latches constructed with NOR and NAND gates tend to remain in the latched
condition due to which configuration feature?
a) cross coupling
operation
b) gate impedance
d) asynchronous
c) flip-flop is reset
d)
26. Pulse stretching, time-delay, and pulse generation are all easily accomplished with
which type of multivibrator circuit?
a) astable
b) mono stable
c) multistable
d) bistable
c) no input signal
28. A crystal demonstrates the ________ effect when a mechanical force across the
crystal causes a small voltage to be generated.
a) photoelectric
b) co-pitts
c) piezoelectric
d) flywheel
c) The
31. A monostable 555 timer has the following number of stable states:
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
32. What is a shift register that will accept a parallel input, or a bidirectional serial load
and internal shift features, called?
a) tristate
b) endaround
c) universal
d) conversion
c)
b) 12
c) 6
d) 2
35. Stepper motors have become popular in digital automation systems because
a) of their low cost
c) they can
36. A sequence of equally spaced timing pulses may be easily generated by which type of
counter circuit?
a) ring shift
b) clock
c) johnson
d) binary
37. How many clock pulses will be required to completely load serially a 5-bit shift
register?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
38. How is a strobe signal used when serially loading a shift register?
c) to
39. What is the difference between a ring shift counter and a Johnson shift counter?
a) there is no difference
The Johnson is faster
b) A ring is faster
d)
c) a
d) all of the
43. Which type of device may be used to interface a parallel data format with external
equipment's serial format?
a) key matrix
b) UART
c) memory chip
b) to provide an
45. Another way to connect devices to a shared data bus is to use a ________.
a) circulating gate
b) transceiver
c) bidirectional encoder
d) strobed latch
b) universal
c) parallel
d) serial
47. How much storage capacity does each stage in a shift register represent?
a) one bit
b) two bits
c) nibble
d) byte
48. When two counters are cascaded, the overall MOD number is equal to the
________ of their individual MOD numbers.
a) product
b) sum
c) log
d) reciprocal
b) full-modulus counter
c) decade counter
d) divide-by-10
50. How many different states does a 3-bit asynchronous counter have?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16
2. A network that provides a constant bandwidth for the complete duration of a message transfer is a:
a) circuit switched network
d) None
3. A router:
a) determines on which outgoing link a packet is to be forwarded.
forwards a packet to all outgoing links
c)
d) forwards a packet to all outgoing links, except the link upon which the packet
originated.
d) None
b) by means of wires.
frequency.
6.A telephone customarily includes a 4-wire to 2-wire hybrid. The purpose of a hybrid is:
a) to combine the signals associated with the microphone and speaker.
line.
d) None
7.Which of the following definitions correctly describes the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)?
a) DHCP enables a NIC to determine the IP address for a given MAC address.
addresses are assigned centrally by a server to each host
address
b) determine the
d) determine
9.Which data communication method is used to transmit the data over a serial communication link?
a) simplex
b) half duplex
c) full duplex
10. What is the minimum number of wires needed to send data over a serial communication link layer?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 6
11. Which of the following types of channels moves data relatively slowly?
a) wide band channel
d) broadband channle
d) dialed service
13. A communications device that combines transmissions from several I/O devices into one line is a
a) concentrator
b) modifier
c) full-duplex line
d) multiplexer
b) modulator
c) demodulator
d) terminal
15. Which of the following communications lines is best suited to interactive processing applications?
a) narrow band channel
b) simplex lines
d) all of the
above
b) 10 bytes
c) 20 bytes
d) 32bytes
b) IP
c) UDP
b) 64 bit
c) 128 it
d) 256 bit
c) Protocol defines
c) Network layer
d) Transport layer
c) it speeds up the
b) 16 bit
c) 32 bit
d) 64bit
c) Class of IP use in
b) to separate LANs
b) Layer 3
c) Layer 4
d) Layer 7
d) Source or Destination
address
b) Transport layer
c) Network layer
d) Datalink layer
b) IP
c) UDP
b) Network,Transport,Session,Presentation
d) Physical,Datalink,Network,Transport
b) Class B
c) Class C
d) Class D
b) Network address
c) Broadcast address
b) 48 bits
c) 32 bits
d) 16 bits
b) 5 layers
c) 6 layers
d) 7 layers
36. Which of the following layer of OSI model also called end-to -end layer?
a) Presentation layer
b) Network layer
c) Session layer
d) Transport layer
c) Easier Backups
b) Linux
c) Routers
d) Firewalls
c)
b) 32-bits
c) 48-bits
d) 64-bits
b) Firewalls
c) Gateways
d) Modems
d) to test
a printer quality
c) application layer
d) physical layer
b) Multiport Switch
c) Multiport Bridge
d) Miultiport NIC
45. The meanig of Straight-through Cable isa) Four painrs connect to the same pin on each end
Four wire pairs not twisted with each other
c)
b) 64 bytes
c) 30 bytes
d) 60 bytes
b) 8
c) 16
d) 32
b) DNS
c) Telnet
d) All of above
b) TCP
c) UDP
d) B&C
d)
d)
b) Worst case
c) Average case
d) Null case
d) When item is the last element in the array or is not there at all
c) Sometimes more complicated and some other times simpler than that of worst case
d) None or above
b) O(log n)
c) O(n2)
d) O(n log n)
b) O(log n)
c) O(n2)
d) O(n log n)
b) O(log n)
c) O(n2)
d) O(n log n)
b) O(log n)
c) O(n2)
d) O(n log n)
12. The indirect change of the values of a variable in one module by another module is called
a) internal change
b) inter-module change
c) side effect
d) side-module update
13. Which of the following data structure is not linear data structure?
a) Arrays
b) Linked lists
c) Both above
d) None of above
b) Graphs
c) Arrays
d) None of above
b) Merging
c) Inserting
d) Traversal
16. Finding the location of the element with a given value is:
a) Traversal
b) Search
c) Sort
b) for the size of the structure and the data in the structure are constantly
b) for the size of the structure and the data in the structure are constantly
19. Each array declaration need not give, implicitly or explicitly, the information about
a) the name of array
20. The elements of an array are stored successively in memory cells because
a) by this way computer can keep track only the address of the first element and the addresses of other
of computer memory does not allow arrays to store other than serially
c) both of above
b) the architecture
d) none of above
b) foundation address
c) first address
d) base address
b) linked lists
c) both of above
d) none of above
23. Which of the following is not the required condition for binary search algorithm?
a) The list must be sorted
b) there should be the direct access to the middle element in any sublist
c) There must be
d) none of above
b) requirement of sorted array is expensive when a lot of insertion and deletions are needed
b) matrix arrays
c) both of above
d) None of above
27. Which of the following data structure can't store the non-homogeneous data elements?
a) Arrays
b) Records
c) Pointers
d) None
28. Which of the following data structure store the homogeneous data elements?
a) Arrays
b) Records
c) Pointers
d) None
29. Each data item in a record may be a group item composed of sub-items; those items which are indecomposable
are called
a) Elementary items
b) atoms
c) scalars
d) all of above
d) pointer array
31. When new data are to be inserted into a data structure, but there is no available space; this situation is usually called
a) underflow
b) overflow
c) housefull
d) saturated
b) overflow
c) housefull
d) saturated
d) None of above
b) LIFO list
c) Piles
d) Push-down lists
b) lists
c) stacks
d) all of above
36. A data structure where elements can be added or removed at either end but not in the middle
a) Linked lists
b) Stacks
c) Queues
d) Deque
37. When inorder traversing a tree resulted E A C K F H D B G; the preorder traversal would return
a) FAEKCDBHG
b) FAEKCDHGB
c) EAFKHDCBG
d) FEAKDCHBG
38. Which data structure allows deleting data elements from front and inserting at rear?
a) Stacks
b) Queues
c) Deques
39. Identify the data structure which allows deletions at both ends of the list but insertion at only one end.
a) Input-restricted deque
b) Output-restricted deque
c) Priority queues
d) None of above
b) Lists
c) Stacks
d) None of above
b) Lists
c) Queues
d) all of above
42. To represent hierarchical relationship between elements, which data structure is suitable?
a) Deque
b) Priority
c) Tree
d) all of above
43. A binary tree whose every node has either zero or two children is called
a) Complete binary tree
d) None of above
b) Insertinon sort
c) Quick sort
d) all of above
b) Recursion
c) Polish notation
d) Traversal alogorithm
46. In a binary tree, certain null entries are replaced by special pointers which point to nodes higher in the tree for efficiency. These
special pointers are called
a) Leaf
b) branch
c) path
d) thread
47. The in order traversal of tree will yield a sorted listing of elements of tree in
a) Binary trees
c) Heaps
d) None of above
b) free tree
c) a tree
d) all of above
both b and c
b) complete
c) finite
d) strongly connected
d)