Professional Documents
Culture Documents
1. The energy (E), angular momentum (L) and universal gravitational constant
(G) are chosen as fundamental quantities. The dimensions of universal
gravitational constant in the dimensional formula of Planck’s constant (h) is
m
(a) ax - ay + az (b) ax - ay
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(c) (ax – ay)/ 2 (d) (ax + ay + az)
g.
3. A body thrown vertically up to reach its maximum height in t second. The
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total time from the time of projection to reach a point at half of its maximum
height while returning (in second) is
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1
(a) 2t (b) 1 t
2
.m
3r r
(c) (d)
w
2 2
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c. its velocity makes zero angle with the horizontal at its maximum height
d. the body just before hitting the ground, the direction of velocity coincides
with the acceleration
5. A river of salty water is flowing with a velocity 2 rn/s. If the density of the
water is 1.2 g/cc, then the kinetic energy of each cubic metre f water is
7. Two particles A and B initially at rest, move towards each other, under mutual
force of attraction. At an instance when the speed of A isv and speed of B is
2v, the speed of centre of mass (CM) is
m
(c) 2.5v (d) 4v
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8. Starting from rest, the time taken by a body sliding down on a rough inclined
plane at 450 with the horizontal is, twice the time taken to travel ona smooth
g.
plane of same inclination and same distance. Then the coefficient of kinetic
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friction is
can be displaced from the mean position, so that the wire does not break when
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10. The moment of inertia of a thin circular disc about an axis passing through its
centre and perpendicular to its plane is I. Then, the moment of inertia of the
disc about an axis parallel to its diameter and touching the edge of the rim is
(a) l3 (b) 2l
3 5
(c) l (d) l
2 2
11. The orbit of geo-stationary satellite is circular, the time period of satellite
depends on
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
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12. A particle is existing simple harmonic motion with an amplitude A and time
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period T. The displacement of the particles after 2T period from its initial
position is
(a) A g.
(b) 4A
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(c) 8 A (d) zero
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13. A load of 1 kg weight is a attached to one end of a steel wire of area of cross-
section 3mm2 and young’s modulus 10 11 N/m2. The other end is suspended
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vertically from a hook on a wall, then the load is pulled horizontally and
released. When the load passes through its lowest position the fractional
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14. The surface tension of soap solution is 0.03 N/rn. The work done in blowing to
form a soap bubble of surface area 40cm (in J), is
15. Two rain drops reach the earth with different terminal velocities having ratio 9
: 4. Then the ratio of their volumes is
16. One litre of oxygen at a pressure of 1 atm and two litres of nitrogen at a
pressure of 0.5 atm, are introduced into a vessel of volume 1 L. If there is no
change in temperature, the final pressure of the mixture of gas (in atm) is
(c) 2 (d) 4
17. There is some change in length when a 33000 N tensile force is applied on a
steel rod of area of cross-section 10 The change of temperature required to
produce the same elongation, if the steel rod is heated, is (The modulus of
elasticity is 3 x 10”N/m and the coefficient of linear expansion of steel is 1.1
m
x 10 -5/0C
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(a) (i) only (b) (i) and (ii)
19. Which of the following is true in the case of an adiabatic process, where =
Cp/Cv ?
20. Two slabs A and B of equal surface area are placed one over the other such
that their surfaces are completely in contact. The thickness of slab A is twice
that of B. The coefficient of thermal conductivity of slab A is twice that of B.
The first surface of slab A is maintained at 100°C, while the second surface
of slab B is maintained at 25°C. The temperature at the contact of their
surfaces is
m
(c) (d)
2 4
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22. A car is moving with a speed of 72 km/h towards a hill. Car blows horn at a
g.
distance of 1800 m from the hill. If echo is heard after 10 s, the speed of
sound (in m/s) is
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(a) 300 (b) 320
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23. The refractive index of a material of a piano-concave lens is 5/3, the radius of
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(a)—0.45m (b)—0.6m
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(c)—0.75m (d)—1.Om.
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24. The Young’s double slit experiment is performed with blue and with green
light of wavelengths 4360 A and 5460 A respectively. If x is the distance of
4th maximum from the central one, then
x(blue) 5460
(c) x (blue) <x (green) (d)
x green 4360
b. coloured images
c. images unaffected by variation of refractive index with wavelength
26. In Fraunhofer diffraction experiment, L is the distance between screen and the
obstacle, b. is the size of obstacle and ? is wavelength of incident light. The
general condition for the applicability of Fraunhofer diffraction is
b2 b2
(a) 1 (b) 1
l L
b2 b2
(c) 1 (d) 1
l l
27. With a standard rectangular bar magnet the time period of a vibration
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magnetometer is 4 s. The bar magnet is cut parallel to its length into four
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equal pieces. The time period of vibration magnetometer when one piece is
used (in second) (bar magnet breadth is small) is
(a)16 g.
(b) 8
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(c) 4 (d) 2
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28. The magnetised wire of moment M and length I is bent in the form of
semicircle of radius r. Then its magnetic mom is
.m
2M
(a) (b) 2M
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M
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29. A charge of 1 C is divided into two parts such that their charges are in the
ratio of 2: 3. These two charges are kept at a distance 1 m apart in vacuum.
Then, the electric force between them (iii N) is
30. Two charges +q and -q are kept apart Then at any point on the right bisector of
line joining the two charges
(c) both electric potential and electric field strength are zero
(d) both electric potential and electric field strength are non-zero
m
co
g.
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32. When a battery connected across a resistor of 16 , the voltage across the
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10 20
(a) (b)
7 7
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25 30
(c) (d)
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7 7
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1
(a) kT0 (b) kT0
2
1 2 1
(c) kT0 (d) k(T0 Tr ) 2
2 2
34. In a galvanometer 5% of the total current in the circuit passes through it. If the
resistance of the galvanometer is G, the shunt resistance S connected to the
galvanometer is
G
(a) 19G (b)
19
G
(c) 20G (d)
20
35. Two concentric coils of 10 turns each are placed in the same plane. Their radii
are 20 cm and 40 cm and carry 0.2 and 0.3 A. current respectively in opposite
directions. The magnetic induction (in T) at the centre is
m
3 5
(a) 0 (b) 0
4 4
co
7 9
(c) 0 (d) 0
4
g.4
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36. The number of turns in primary and secondary coils of a transformer is 50 and
200 respectively. If the current in the primary coil is 4 A, then the current in
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(a) 1A (b) 2A
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(c) 4A (d) 5A
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37. X-rays of wavelength 0.140 nm are scattered from a block of carbon. What
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38. An X-ray tube produces a continuous spectrum of radiation with its shortest
wavelength of 45 x 10-2 A. The maximum energy of a photon in the
radiation in eV is (h = 6.62 x 10 c = 3 x 108 m/s)
39. Fpp, Fnn and Fnp are the nuclear forces between proton-proton, neutron-neutron
and neutron-proton respectively. Then relation between them is
(a) Fpp = Fnn Fnp (b) Fpp Fnn = Fnp
(d) Electron on n-side and holes on p-side will move away from junction.
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of hydrogen in Lyman series, the energies associated with the electron in
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each of the orbits involved in the transition (in kcal moL-1) are
The mass of B is five times the mass of A. The ratio of their de-Broglie’s
wavelength is
.m
43. If the mass defect of 5 is 0.081 average binding energy (in MeV) is
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o
45. The bond length of HC1 molecule is 1.275 A and its dipole moment is 1.03
D. The ionic character of the molecule (in percent) (charge of the electron =
4.8 x 10-10 esu) is
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47. Ammonium carbamate decomposes as
co
NH2COONH4(s) 2NH3(g)+ CO2(g) For the reaction, K = 2.9 x 10-5
g.
atm3 If we start with 1 mole of the compound, the total pressure at equilibrium
would be
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(a) 0.766 atm (b) 0.0582 atm
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48. What is the temperature at which the kinetic energy of 0.3 moles of helium is e
to the kinetic energy of 0.4 moles of argon at 400 K?
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a. Both (A) and (R) are true,and CR) is the correct explanation of (A).
b. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
52. When same quantity of electricity is passed through aqueous AgNO3 and
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H2SO4 solutions connected in series, 5.04 x 10 -2 g of H is liberated. What is
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the mass of silver (in grams) deposited? (Eq. wts. of hydrogen = 1.008, silver
= 108)
(a) 54 g.
(b) 0.54
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(c) 5.4 (d) 10.8
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53. When electric current is passed through acidified water for 1930 s, 1120 mL of
H2 gas is collected (at STP) at the cathode. What is the current
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54. For a crystal, the angle of diffraction (29) is 90° and the second order line has
a d value of 2.28 A. The wavelength (in A) of X-rays used for Bragg’s
diffraction is
(a) 1.612 (b) 2.00
55. In a 500 mL flask, the degree of dissociation of PCi at equilibrium is 40% and
the initial amount is 5 moles. The value of equilibrium constant in mol L for
the decomposition of PCi is
56. For a reversible reaction A B, which one of the following statements is wrong
from the given energy profile diagram?
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a. Activation energy of forward reaction is greater than backward reaction
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b. The forward reaction is endothermic
g.
d. The energy of activation of forward reaction is equal to the sum of heat of
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reaction and the energy of activation of backward reaction
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Given that,
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1
CO(g) + O2 (g) CO 2 (g); H=-282 kJ
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1
H2(g) + O2 (g) H 2O(g); H=-242 kJ
2
g.
(a) 2KMnO4 + 3H2SO4+5H2O2 K2SO4 + 2MnSO4 +8H2O+5O2
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(b) 2K3 [Fe(CN)6]+ 2KOH + H2O2 2K4 [Fe(CN)6] + 2H2O +O2
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60. Which of the following statements correct for alkali metal compounds?
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(a) NH <PH <AsH <SbH < BiH
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(b) NH > PH > AsH > SbH BiH
66. The compound in which the number of d—p bonds are equal to those
present in ClO4
m
co
g.
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(a) (i) only (b) (ii) only
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73. The correct order of reactivity of hydrogen halides with ethyl alcohol is
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(a) HF>HC1>HBr>HI (b) HC1> HBr> HF> HI
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(c) HBr> HC1 > HI > HF (d) HI > HBr> HC1> HF
g.
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is
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following is X ?
A B
m
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g.
78. The energy released in an atomic bomb explosion is mainly due to
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(a) release of electrons
79. If M w the weight average molecular weight and M n is the number average
molecular weight of a polymer, the poiy dispersity
w
Mn Mw
(a) (b)
Mw Mn
1
(c) M w x M n (d)
M w x Mn
82. If f: R R and g : R R are defined by f (x) =|x| and g (x) = [x-3] for x
8 8
R, then g(f (x)) : x is equal to
5 5
m
(b) (-3,-2) (c)(2,3)
co
83. If f : [-6,6] R is defined by f (x) = x2-3 for x R, then
(a) f (4 2 )
g. (b) f (3 2 )
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(c) f (2 2 ) (d) f ( 2 )
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x y
b a b 1 1
a = 1000 Then, is equal to
10 10 100 x y
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n
85. For any integer n 1, the sum k (k 2)
k 1
equal to
86. 9 balls are to be placed in 9 boxes and 5 of the balls cannot fit into 3 small
boxes. The number of ways of arranging one ball in each of the boxes is
87. If n Pr = 30240 and n Cr = 252 then the ordered pair (n,r) is equal to
5 57 57 9
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89. If 2
3
.... then 2 + 4 is equal to
213 313 413
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(a) 21 (b) 23
(c) 25
g. (d) 27
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1 k n 1
90. 2 is equal to
k 1 k! n 1
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(a) e (b) e2 + e
1 1 1 1
91. ..... is equal to
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92. If + = -2 and 3 + 3 = -56, then the quadratic equation whose roots are
and is
93. The cubic equation whose roots are thrice to each of the roots of x3 + 2x2– 4x
+ 1 = 0 is
1 2 2
94. If A = and f (t) = t – 3t + 7, then
4 5
3 2
f (A) + is equal to
12 9
1 0 0 0
(a) (b)
0 1 0 0
0 1 1 1
(c) (d)
1 0 0 0
m
7 3 3
95. The inverse of the matrix 1 1 0 is
co
1 0 1
1 1 1
(a) 3 4 3 g. 1 3 1
(b) 4 3 8
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3 3 4 3 4 1
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1 1 1 1 3 3
(c) 3 3 4 (d) 1 4 3
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a bc 2a 2a
w
2c 2c ca b
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z2
97. The points in the set z C:arg (where C denotes the set of all
z 6i 2
complex numbers ) lie on the curve which is a
1 1
(a) (b)
2 2
3
(c) 1 (d)
2
99. If m1,m2,m3, and m4 respectively denote the moduli of the complex numbers
1+4i,3+i,1-i and 2-3i, then the correct one, among the following is
m
100. 3 cosec 200 – sec 20 0 is equal to
co
(a) 2 (b) 2 sin 20 0 .cosec 40 0
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) 3
.m
2
102. If tan + tan + tan =3 then which of the following is
3 3
w
equal to 1 ?
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(a) 4 sin .cos sin (b) 4 cos .cos . cos
2 2 2 2 2 2
(b) 4 sin .sin sin (d) 4 sin . sin . sin
2 2 2
(c) n : n Z (d) 2n : n Z
3 3
3 4
105. If sin-1 + sin-1 = , then x is equal to
x x 2
(a) 3 (b) 5
(c) 7 (d) 11
1 1 3
106. In ABC, if , then C is equal to
bc ca a bc
m
(a) 900 (b) 600
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(c) 45 0 (d) 300
g.
107. In a triangle, if r1=2r2=3r3, then
a b c
is equal to
b c a
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75 155
(a) (b)
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60 60
176 191
.m
(c) (d)
60 60
108. From the top of a hill h metres high the angles of depressions of the top and
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the bottom of a pillar are and respectively. The height (in meters) of the
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pillar is
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109. The position vectors of P and Q are respectively a and b . If R is a point on
PQ such that P R = 5 PQ, then the position vector of R is
(a) 5 b - 4 a (b) 5 b + 4 a
(c) 4 b - 5 a (d) 4 b + 5 a
110. If the points with position vectors 60 i + 3 j , 40 i -52 j are colinear, then a is
equal to
(c) 20 (d) 40
111. If the position vectors of A,B and C are respectively 2 i - j ,+ K , i - 3 j -5 K
and 3 j -4 j -4 K , then cos2 A is equal to
m
(a) 0 (b)
41
co
35
(c) (d) 1
41
g.
112. Let a be a unit vector, b = 2 i + j - K and c = i + 3 K , Then maximum
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value of ( a b c ) is
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(a) -1 (b) 10 6
.m
(c) 10 6 (d) 59
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event E)
1 2
(c) (d)
9 3
If Pk + P(Ek) for k 1.
(b) P1 < P11 < P4 < P6 (d) P36 < P11 < P6 < P4
115. For k=1,2,3 the box Bk contains k red balls and (k+1) white balls. Let
1 1 1
P(B1)= , P (B2) = and P (B3) = , A Box is selected at random and a
2 3 6
ball is drawn from it. If a red ball is drawn, then the probability that it has
come from box B2, is
35 14
(a) (b)
78 39
10 12
(c) (d)
m
13 13
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116. The distribution of a random variable X is given below
X=x -2 -1 0 1 2 3
P (X =x ) 1 / 10
g. k 1/5 2k 3/10 k
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The value of k is
117. If the sum of the distances of a point P from two perpendicular lines in a
plane is 1, then the locus of P is a
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118. The transformed equation of 3x2 + 3y2 + 2xy = 2, when the coordinate axes
are rotated through an angle of 45 0, is
(a) 20 (b) -7
(a) 1 (b) -1
(c) 2 (d) -2
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122. A Pair of perpendicular straight lines passes through the origin and also
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through the point of intersection of the curve x2+y2 = 4 with x + y = a, The
set containing the value of ‘a’ is
(a) (-2,2) g.
(b) (-3,3)
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(c) (-4,4) (d) (-5,5)
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123. In ABC the mid points of the sides AB, BC, and CA are respectively
(1,0,0), (0, m, 0) and (0,0,n). Then
.m
AB2 BC2 CA 2
is equal to
l2 m2 n2
w
w
(a) 2 (b) 4
w
(c) 8 (d) 16
3 1 3
124. The angle between the lines whose direction cosines are , , and
4 4 2
3 1 3
, , , is
4 4 2
(a) (b)
2
(c) (d)
3 4
125. If the lines 2x – 3y = 5 and 3x – 4y= 7 are two diameters of a circle of radius
7, then the equation of the circle is
(b) x2 + y2 = 49
(d) x2 + y2 – 2x + 2y -47 = 0
126. The inverse of the point (1,2) with respect to the circle x2 + y2 -4x- 6y + 9 =0
is
1
(a) 1, (b) (2,1)
m
2
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(c) (0,1) (d) (1,0)
127. If is the angle between the tangents from (-1,0) to the circle x2 + y2 – 5x +
g.
4y -2 = 0, then is equal to
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7 7
(a) 2 tan-1 (b) tan-1
4 4
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7 7
(c) 2 cot-1 (d) cot-1
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4 4
(a) 2 (b) -2
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(c) 3 (d) -3
129. For an ellipse with eccentricity ½ the centre is at the origin. If one directrix is
x=4 then the equation of the ellipse is
(a) 4 (b) 6
(b) 8 (d) 10
131. The radius of the circle with the polar equation r2-8r( 3 cos + sin ) + 15
= 0 is
(a) 8 (b) 7
(c) 6 (d) 5
(1 e x ) sin x
132. lim is equal to
x 0 x2 x3
(a) -1 (b) 0
(c) 1 (d) 2
133. If f: RR is defined by f (x) = [x-3] + |x-4| for x R, then lim f (x) is
m
x 3
equal to
co
(a) -2 (b)-1
(c) 0
g.
(d) 1
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134. If f: R R is defined by
cos 3x cos x
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, for x 0
f (x) = x2
,for x 0
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(a) -2 (b)-4
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(c) -6 (d) -8
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x f (2) 2f(x)
lim
x 2 x 2
is equal to
(a) -2 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) 3
dy
136. If x a cos log tan and y = a sin , then is equal to
2 dx
(a) cot (b) tan
d2 y dy 2
137. If y = sin (log, x ), then x is equal to
dx 2 dx
(c) y2 (d) -y
m
139. If m and M respectively denote the minimum and maximum of f (x)= (x-1)2
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+ 3 for x [-3,1], then the ordered pair (m, M ) is equal to
(a) (-3,19)
g.
(b) (3,19)
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(c) (-19,3) (d) (-19,-3)
5 8
(a) (b)
2 5
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2 5
(c) (d)
5 8
w
w
x 1 sin x
141. If e dx = f (x) + constant then f (x) is equal to
1 cos x
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x x
(a) ex cot + c (b) e-x cot + c
2 2
x x
(c) -ex cot + c (d) -e-x cot + c
2 2
n
142. If ln = x .ecx dx for n 1, then c.ln + n. ln-1 is equal to
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d)
/2
145. sin|x| dx is equal to
/2
m
(a) 0 (b) 1
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(c) 2 (d)
146. The area (in sq unit) of the region bounded by the curves 2x = y2-1 and x = 0
is g.
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(a) 1/3 (b) 2/3
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(c) 1 (d) 2
dy xy y
is
dx xy x
w
w
cy
(a) x + y- log (b) x + y= log (cxy)
x
w
cx cx
(c) x - y- log (d) y – x = log
y y
dy x 2y 1
is
dx 2x 4y
m
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g.
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.m
w
w
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Answers
PHYSICS
11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (c)
16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (a)
21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (c) 25. (c)
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26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (b) 30. (b)
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31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (b)
CHEMISTRY
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41. (b) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (d) 45. (d)
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46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (c) 49. (c) 50. (c)
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51. (a) 52. (c) 53. (c) 54. (a) 55. (b)
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56. (c) 57. (a) 58. (c) 59. (d) 60. (b)
61. (c) 62. (d) 63. (a) 64. (b) 65. (b)
66. (b) 67. (a) 68. (a) 69. (d) 70. (d)
71. (a) 72. (d) 73. (d) 74. (d) 75. (b)
76. (c) 77. (c) 78. (c) 79. (b) 80. (a)
MATHEMATICS
81. (d) 82. (c) 83. (a) 84. (c) 85. (c)
86. (c) 87. (b) 88. (c) 89. (b) 90. (d)
91. (b) 92. (d) 93. (d) 94. (b) 95. (d)
96. (d) 97. (a) 98. (a) 99. (c) 100. (a)
101. (b) 102. (b) 103. (b) 104. (b) 105. (b)
106. (b) 107. (d) 108. (a) 109. (a) 110. (a)
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111. (c) 112. (d) 113. (b) 114. (a) 115. (b)
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116. (a) 117. (a) 118. (b) 119. (b) 120. (b)
121. (c) 122. (a) 123. (c) 124. (c) 125. (c)
136. (b) 137. (d) 138. (d) 139. (b) 140. (b)
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141. (c) 142. (a) 143. (d) 144. (d) 145. (c)
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146. (b) 147. (d) 148. (a) 149. (b) 150. (b)
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