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Ioana S

M ultiple cho
for midd
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Content
I. Mechanical Phenomena
I. 1. Motion and rest ............................................... .... ………4
I. 2. Inertia, mass, density ........................................................ 7
I.3. Interaction - a general property of bodies .... ……………12
I.4. Types of forces - elastic force, friction,
weight ...................................... ...................... ......... ………. 13
I.5. Mechanical equilibrium of bodies .......................... …….20
I.6. Mechanical work and mechanical energy ..................... ..27
II. Thermal Phenomena
II.1.Starea heating. Thermal contact. Heat
balance ................................................ ............................. … 36
II. 2. Heat. Calorimetry ............................................ ………..40
II.3. Motor fuels and heating ............................. ……………44
II. 4. Changing the state of .............................. ……………...48
III. Electrical phenomena
III.1. Static bodies .......................................... ……………... 53
III.2. Electricity The electrical circuit. ........................ …… 57
III.3. Energy and power of simple circuit .................... ……. 70
III.4. Kirchhoff’s theorems ........................................ …… 72
IV. Magnetic phenomena
IV. 1. Types of magnets and magnetic interactions .......... 76
IV. 2. Force and electromagnetic induction ...................... 77
V. Fluid Mechanics
V.1. Types of pressure ............................................... 79
V. 2. The fundamental principle of hydrostatics ................... 83
V. 3. Pascal’s Law and Archimede’s law ................ 84
VI. Optical phenomena
VI.1. Light sources. Propagation of light ................... 87
VI.2.Reflexia and refraction of light .................................... 89
VI.3.Lentile ............................................. ..................... 92

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VI.4. Eye ................................................. ................ 94
VI.5. Ochelarii.Wolf ................................................. .. 96
Responses ................................................. ................ 100
Bibliography ................................................. .............. 103

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Ioana Stanciu

Multiple choise physics for


middle school

2010

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Cover: Ioana Stanciu
Proofreading: Ioana Stanciu
Typing: Ioana Stanciu
Translation: Ioana Stanciu

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Physics is a science with many applications, essentially.
It is a science that we understand when we play or where
we diverse practical activities.
,, Multiple choise physics for middle school’’
' is structured in six chapters: mechanics,
electricity and magnetism, fluid mechanics, thermal and
optical phenomena in the form of questions, each with
four possible response, of which only one is correct.
Learning physics by solving test is a means to educate
young people in school intelligence. The paper takes
account of differences in skills and their motivation is a
necessary complementary tool for secondary school
physics textbooks present.
This is a book well organized and methodical which can
be of real help secondary schools students and teachers.
Designed after the book check the syllabus of basic
physics concepts and develop students' thinking.

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I. Mechanical phenomena

I.1. Motion and rest

A body is at rest when, in a time body occupies the same


position on the reference body.
A body is in motion if, in a time some body positions
different from the reference body.
Furniture is a point which is the body.
The trajectory is the curve described by a moving mobile.
Duration of movement is the time in which the movement
of furniture.
Distance traveled is the length of the way through the body.
Average speed is defined the relation:

v = d/Δt

Where d is the distance traveled and ∆t time in which the


distance traveled d. The unit for speed in the SI is:

[v]SI =m/s

Uniform rectilinear motion is the movement of the mobile


moves in a straight path with constant speed.
Reciprocate the mobile movement range is moving on a
straight path with variable speed.

1. Find the correct statement:


a) a body is at rest if the body occupies the same position

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on the reference;
b) a body is at rest if the body is moving towards the
reference;
c) a body is at rest if at any time positions different from
the reference body.
d) a body is at rest if the body changes its position
towards the reference.

2. Which of the following is correct:


a) a body is in motion if the same position to the
reference body;
b) a body is in motion if the same position in a period;
c) a body is in motion if the different positions of the
reference body;
d) a body is in motion if its position does not change over
a period of time.

3. Find the correct statement:


a) trajectory is the curve described by a cell at rest;
b) trajectory is the curve described by a mobile in motion;

c) the trajectory of motion of a mobile phone is idle curve;

d) no response is correct

4. The distance traveled by a cell which departs from the


benchmark is calculated by the relationship:
a) d = x1 – x1;
b) d = x2 – x2 ;
c) d = x2 – x1 – x1;
d) d = x2 – x1.

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5.The distance traveled by a mobile approach the
benchmark is calculated by the relationship:
a) d = x1 – x2;
b) d = x2 – x2 ;
c) d = x2 – x1 – x1;
d) d = x2 – x1.

6.Relationship definition of average speed is:


a) v = Δt/d;
b) v = t2 –t1/x2 – x1;
c) v = t1/x1;
d) v = d/Δt.

7. Find the correct statement:


a) speed of movement is the relationship between the
duration of movement and body movement;
b) movement speed is a scalar;
c) movement velocity is the ratio of body movement and
during movement;
d) no response is correct.

8. The unit of speed is:


a) s2;
b) m/s2;
c) m2;
d) m/s

9. Which of the following is correct:


a) uniform rectilinear motion is the movement of the
mobile moves in a straight path with constant speed;
b) uniform rectilinear motion is the movement of the
mobile moves in a straight path with variable speed;

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c) uniform rectilinear motion is the movement of the
mobile moves in a straight path with speed becoming
less;
d) uniform rectilinear motion is the movement of the
mobile moving speed on a straight path ever higher.

10. Find the correct statement:


a) linear motion range is moving the mobile moves in a
straight path with constant speed;
b) linear motion range is moving the mobile moves in a
straight path with variable speed;
c) linear motion range is the mobile movement at rest;
d) linear motion range is moving the mobile moves in a
curvilinear trajectory with constant speed;

I.2. Inertia, mass, density

Inertia is a general property of bodies to maintain sleep


or uniform rectilinear motion in the absence of external
actions.
Mass is the physical size measuring inertia of a body.
The unit of mass in SI is kg.
Density is a physical quantity defined by the relationship
between body mass and its density.
Relationship definition of density is:

ρ = m/V

Were m is body mass and V - volume.


The equation the unit of density is:

[ρ] =kg/m3

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1. Which of the following is correct:
a) inertia is owned bodies to oppose the change state of
rectilinear and uniform motion or rest;
b) inertia is a property of bodies to make rectilinear and
uniform motion;
c) inertia is the property of bodies to be at rest;
d) inertia is owned bodies to perform varied reciprocate.

2. Find the correct statement:


a) mass of a body is a vector quantity;
b) mass of a body is a physical quantity measuring
inertia;
c) a body mass is a property;
d) a body mass is a vector quantity measuring inertia.

3. Relationship definition of density is:


a) ρ = V/m;
b) ρ = V2/m;
c) ρ = V/m2;
d) ρ = m/V;

4. Density is the ratio of:


a) body mass and its speed;
b) size and body mass;
c) body mass and its volume;
d) body mass and square of the velocity.

5. The unit of density is:


a) kg/m;
b) kg/m3;

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c) kg/m2;
d) kg/s.

6. It gives the following substances and their densities:


bronze (ρ = 8750kg/m3), glass (ρ = 2500 kg/m3), steel (ρ
= 7800kg/m3), mercury (ρ = 13550kg/m3) and petrol (ρ =
800kg/m3). Hass a lower density:
a) glass;
b) gasoline;
c) steel;
d) mercury

7. Volume of a body of aluminum (ρaluminium = 2700 kg/m3)


with a mass of 540g is:
a) 0,002m3;
b) 0,0002m3;
c) 0,02m3;
d) 0,2m3.

8. Volume of a body of bronze (ρbronze = 8750Kg/m3) with a


mass of 875kKg is: a) 1m3;
b) 0,01m3;
c) 0,1m3;
d) 2m3.

9. A body mass of iron (ρiron = 7880Kg/m3) is 788g.


What is its volume?
a) 0,001m3;
d) 0,01m3;
c) 1m3;
d) 0,0001m3.

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10. Body mass of a platinum (ρplatinum = 21,460 kg/m3) is
220kg. What is its volume:
a) 0,01m3;
b) 0,1m3;
c) 1m3;
d) 0,001m3.

11.30kg iron (ρiron=7880Kg/m3 ) will occupy a volume:


a) 0,005m3;
b) 0,0038m3;
c) 0,01m3;
d) 0,5m3.

12. In a cubical container of side 2m is gasoline. What is


the mass of gasoline (ρgasoline = 800 Kg/m3):
a) 6400kg;
b) 5400Kg;
c) 2200Kg;
d) 3000Kg.

13. 54Kg ice (ρice=917Kg/m3) will occupy a volume:


a) 0,1m3;
b) 0,01m3;
c) 0,001m3;
d) 0,0001m3.

14. In a cubical container of side 1m is ice (ρice = 917


kg/m3). What is the mass of ice in the vessel?
a) 1000kg;
b) 917Kg;
c) 880Kg;
d) 600Kg.

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15. A piece of bronze (ρbronze = 8750Kg/m3) is the volume
of 1m3. What is the mass of the piece?
a) 8750kg;
b) 8000Kg;
c) 7000Kg;
d) 6000Kg.

16. A cube with sides of 1m has 19310Kg/m 3 density.


What is the mass of the cube?
a) 20000Kg;
b) 19310Kg;
c) 2000Kg;
d) 19000Kg.

I.3. Interaction – general owner of bodies

Interaction is the mutual action of two bodies.


Phenomena arising from the interaction of bodies are
called effects.
The dynamic is changing state of motion of bodies.
The deformation is static bodies (elastic or plastic).
Plastic deformation is deformation that does not
disappear upon termination of interaction and the body
no longer returns to original shape.
Deformation is elastic deformation by which the body
returns to its original state after leaving the interaction.

1. Find the correct statement:


a) the interaction is mutual action between two bodies;

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b) interaction is a chemical phenomenon;
c) interaction is a process;
d) interaction is mutual action between two bodies.

2. The interaction is dynamic:


a) change the state of motion of bodies;
b) deformed bodies;
c) change the state of motion and deformation of bodies;
d) elastic and plastic deformation of the bodies.

3. The static interaction is to:


a) change the state of motion of bodies;
b) bodies change;
c) change the state of motion and deformation of bodies;
d) elastic and plastic deformation of the bodies.

4. Plastic deformation is:


a) deformation by which the body returns to its original
shape after leaving the interaction;
b) deformation which does not disappear upon
termination of interaction and the body returns to its
original form;
c) deformation which does not disappear upon
termination of interaction and the body no longer returns
to original form;
d) deformation which disappears upon termination of
interaction and body returns to its original;

5. Elastic deformation is:


a) deformation by which the body returns to its original
shape after leaving the interaction;
b) deformation which does not disappear upon

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termination of interaction;
c) deformation which does not disappear upon
termination of interaction and the body no longer returns
to original form;
d) deformation which does not disappear upon
termination of interaction and the body returns to its
original form;
I.4. Types of forces – elastic force, friction, weight

The force opposing the elastic body deformation and its


value is numerically equal to the deflection.
Relationship to calculate the elastic force is:

F = kΔl

Spring constant of spring is the ratio of the deforming


force and elongation of the spring.
The unit of k in SI is:

[k]SI = N/m

Friction occurs in the area of contact between two


bodies, opposes the motion of a body to another and is
facing the opposite direction of motion of the body.
Friction depends on the nature and degree of grinding
the surfaces of bodies in contact. Weight is a vector
physical quantity is the vertical direction, meaning toward
the center of the Earth and the point of application is
called center of gravity.
The relationship of weight calculation is:

G =mg

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Unit weight is:

[G]SI = 1N

Gravitational acceleration depends on the distance from


the center of the Earth's body. The unit is:

[g]SI = N/kg

1. Find the correct statement:


a) force opposes elastic deformation of the body and not
its numerical value is directly proportional to the
deflection;
b) elastic force is not a deformed body, does not preclude
deformation body and its numerical value is directly
proportional to the deflection;
c) elastic force is the force that occurs in a deformed
body, opposes the deformation body and its numerical
value is directly proportional to the deflection;
d) elastic force is the force that appears in a deformed
body, opposes the deformation body and its numerical
value is directly proportional to the deflection;

2. Relationship to calculate the elastic force is:


a) Fe = ma;
b) Fe = kΔl;
c) Fe = aΔl;
d) Fe = kΔe;

3. Unit elastic constant k is:


a) N/m;

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b) N/m3;
c) N/m2;
d) N/s.

4. Choose the correct version:


a) friction is the force that does not appear on the surface
of contact between two bodies, a body movement is not
opposed to each other and is oriented in the opposite
direction of motion of the body;
b) friction is the force that does not appear on the surface
of contact between two bodies, opposes the motion of a
body to another and is facing the opposite direction of
motion of the body;
c) friction is the force that appears on the surface of
contact between two bodies, opposes the motion of a
body to another and is facing the opposite direction of
motion of the body;
d) friction is the force that is not in contact between two
bodies, a body movement is not opposed to each other
and is oriented in the opposite direction of motion of the
body;

5. For bodies with masses equal:


a) Rolling friction is equal to the sliding friction;
b) Rolling friction is greater than the sliding friction;
c) Rolling friction is less than the friction slip;
d) Rolling friction is greater than or equal to the sliding
friction;

6. Friction is:
a) perpendicular to the contact surface;
b) parallel to the contact surface;

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c) oblique contact surface;
d) perpendicular to the path.

7. Choose the correct statement:


a) force of friction depends on the nature and degree of
grinding the surfaces of bodies in contact;
b) friction does not depend on the nature and degree of
grinding the surfaces of bodies in contact;
c) friction surfaces does not depend on the nature of
bodies in contact;
d) friction does not depend on the degree of polishing the
surfaces of bodies in contact;

8. Find the correct statement:


a) force of gravity is a scalar physical quantity;
b) the force of gravity is the force of attraction exerted by
Earth on a body;
c) the force of gravity is the force of attraction exerted by
Earth on a body;
d) the force of gravity is the force exerted by Earth
rejecting a body;

9. Choose the correct statement:


a) weight is a vector physical quantity, is the horizontal
direction, the way to the center of the Earth and the point
of application is called center of gravity;
b) weight is a vector physical quantity, is the vertical
direction, meaning toward the center of the Earth and the
point of application is called center of gravity;
c) weight is a scalar physical quantity, is the horizontal
direction, the way to the center of the Earth and the point
of application is called center of gravity;

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d) weight is a vector physical quantity, has an oblique
direction, the way to the center of the Earth and the point
of application is called center of gravity;

10. The relationship of weight calculation is:


a) G = ma;
b) G = m/a;
c) G = mg
d) G =m/g

11. The unit of gravitational acceleration (g) is:


a) Nkg;
b) m2/kg;
c) N/kg;
d) kg/s.

12.Unit weight is:


a) kg/m3;
b) N;
c) N/kg;
d) N/m2.

13.Mass of a body is 50Kg. What is body weight (g =


10N/kg):
a) 500N;
b) 300N;
c) 600N;
d) 1000N.

14.A spring undergoes deformation by 4cm. What is


elastic force if k = 200N/m:
a)8N;

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b)4N;
c)5N;
d)6N.

15. A spring undergoes deformation of 2cm. What is


elastic force if k = 100N/m:
a) 3N;
b) 2N;
c) 1N;
d) 4N.

16. A spring undergoes deformation of 6cm. What is


elastic force if 200N/m:
a) 12N;
b) 14N;
c) 16N;
d) 18N.

17. The weight of a body is 200N. What is body mass


knowing that g = 10N/Kg:
a) 25Kg;
b) 20Kg;
c) 35Kg;
d) 40Kg.

18. 2 bodies have difficulties m1g and G1 = G2 = m2g.


What is the average weight of bodies?
a) (m1g + m2g)/2;
b) m1g +m2g;
c) m1+m2;
d) m2 +m1.

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19. What is the force necessary to raise a mass of 6kg:
a) 600N;
b) 800N;
c) 200N;
d) 60N.

20. A body has mass 40kg. What is the weight of?


a) 400N;
b) 300N;
c) 200N;
d) 100N.

I.5.Mechanical equilibrium of bodies

A solid body is a movement of translation if the segment


joining any two points of the solid retains its direction
during the movement.
A solid is a circle if any point which describes an arc with
the center axis of rotation.
A body is in translational equilibrium if they remain at rest
or moving rectilinear and uniform.
A body is in balance if the rotation does not rotate at all
or has a uniform circle.
Moment of force is a physical quantity vector whose
module is equal to the product of the magnitude of the
force (F) and its arm (b).
The relationship definition is:

M = Fb

The unit of moment of force is:

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[M]SI = [F]SI · [b]SI =N · m

The lever is a rigid bar which can rotate around a fixed


point called the fulcrum.
The condition of equilibrium of the lever is the ratio of
forces is equal to the inverse ratio of arms:

F/R = bR/bF

I like lever is the lever to the fulcrum am between the


points of application of forces.
Lever type II is the lever to the fulcrum is at one end and
at the other end is the point of application of active force.
Type III lever is the lever to the fulcrum is at one end and
at the other end is the point of application of resistance
force.
Pulley is a simple machine consisting of: grooved wheel
on the edge, the central shaft, fixed axle fork, hook grip
and wireless inextensible.
The condition of equilibrium of a fixed pulley is the driving
force is equal to the resistance force (F = R).
The condition of equilibrium of a mobile whip is the
driving force to be two times smaller than the force
strength (F = R / 2).
Inclined plane is the plane forming an acute angle with
the horizontal plane.
Elements of an inclined plane are: length of the inclined
plane (l), the height of the inclined plane (h) and incline
angle (α).

1. Find the correct statement:

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a) a solid body has a translational motion if any segment
joining two points remain solid direction by the
movement;
b) a solid body has a translational motion if the segment
joining any two points of the solid do not retain their
direction during the movement;
c) a solid body has a translational motion if the straight
line joining any two points of the solid do not retain their
direction during the movement;
d) a solid body has a translational motion if the segment
joining any two points of the solid do not retain their
meaning in the movement;

2. Choose the correct statement:


a) a solid body has a rotating when any point does not
describe an arc with the center axis of rotation;
b) a solid body has a rotating when any point which is at
rest;
c) a solid body has a rotating when any point which
describes an arc with the center axis of rotation;
d) a solid body has a rotating when any point which does
not describe an arc;

3. A body is in translational equilibrium if:


a) resultant force acting on it is zero;
b) not remain idle;
c) does not move straight and uniform;
d) remains at rest or moving rectilinear and uniform.

4. A rotating body is in equilibrium if:


a) rotates around an axis of rotation;
b) has a rotating uniform;

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c) does not rotate at all or has a rotating uniform;
d) no answer is not correct.

5. Find the correct statement:


a) when a force is a scalar physical quantity equal to the
product of the magnitude of the force and his arm;
b) when a force is a scalar physical quantity equal to the
product of force and acceleration module;
c) when a force is a scalar physical quantity equal to the
product of force and power module;
d) when a force is a vector physical quantity equal to the
product of the magnitude of the force and his arm;

6. Relationship to calculate the moment of a force is:


a) M = Fb
b) M = Fa
c) M = Fg
d) M = F/a

7. The unit for torque is:


a) N/m2;
b) Nm;
c) NA2;
c) N/m3.

8. Find the correct statement:


a) The lever is a rigid bar which can rotate around a
fulcrum;
b) the lever is a rigid rod on which no force is not acting;
c) lever is a rigid bar that can be rotated around a fulcrum
on which no work and no force;
d) lever is a rigid bar that can be rotated around a fulcrum

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and on whose behalf the active forces and resistance.

9. The condition of equilibrium of the lever is that:


a) F/R = bR/bF;
b) FR = bR/bF;
c) F/R = bRbF;
d) F = bR/bF;

10. The condition of equilibrium of the lever is that:


a) when the active force is smaller than strong torque;
b) active torque is greater than the torque resistant;
c) active torque is equal to torque resistant;
d) no answer is correct;

11. I like lever is the lever that:


a) support is at one end and at the other end are the
points of application of force;
b) fulcrum is at one end and at the other end is the point
of application of active force;
c) support is at one end and at the other end is the point
of application of resistance force;
d) support is between the points of application of forces.

12. Lever type II is the lever that:


a) support is at one end and at the other end are the
points of application of force;
b) fulcrum is at one end and at the other end is the point
of application of active force;
c) support is at one end and at the other end is the point
of application of resistance force;
d) support is between the points of application of forces.

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13. Type III lever is the lever that:
a) support is at one end and at the other end are the
points of application of force;
b) fulcrum is at one end and at the other end is the point
of application of active force;
c) support is at one end and at the other end is the point
of application of resistance force;
d) support is between the points of application of forces.

14. Elements of pulleys are:


a) wheel, shaft, housing, hook and thread;
b) wheel axle;
c) fork, wheel, shaft;
d) wire, wheel axle.

15. The condition of equilibrium for a fixed pulley is:


a) F = R;
b) F< R;
c) F> R;
d) F ≥ R.

16. The condition of equilibrium for a mobile whip is:


a) F = R;
b) F< R;
c) F= R/2;
d) F ≥ R.

17. Find the correct statement:


a) the inclined plane is the plane forming a right angle to
the horizontal plane;
b) the inclined plane is the plane forming an angle of 120
° to the horizontal plane;

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c) inclined plane is the plane forming an acute angle with
the horizontal plane;
d) the inclined plane is the plane forming an angle of 130
° to the horizontal plane;

18. Elements of an inclined plane are:


a) length and angle plan plane;
b) length of the inclined plane;
c) the angle of incline;
d) length, height and angle of incline.

19. What is the reactive force acting on a lever knowing


that: F = 70N, bR = 0.5m and bF = 1m:
a) 120N;
b) 130N;
c) 140N;
d) 110N.

20. What is the driving force acting on a lever knowing


that: R = 500N, bR = 20m and bF = 1m:
a) 10N;
b) 20N;
c) 120N;
b) 1000N.

21.The force required uniform climb without friction, a


body weight of G, on an inclined plane of height h and
length l is:
a) F = G/l;
b) F = Gl/h;
c) F = l/h;
d) F = Gh/l.

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I.6. The work and mechanical energy

Work is a scalar physical quantity equal to the product of


the magnitude of the force (F) and body movement
module(d).
Engine mechanical work (Lm) is equal to the product of
force and displacement engines, the same sense of
displacement.
The work resistant (LR) is equal to the product of force
and resistance movement, body movement with the
opposite.
Unit of measurement of mechanical work is SI is:

[L]SI = 1J

A joule is the work of a constant force of 1N whose


application point moves with 1m and under the direction
of force.
Mechanical power (P) is the physical size scalar equal to
the ratio of mechanical work (W) performed by a force
and time (∆t) at which mechanical work.

P = L/Δt

The unit for mechanical power in watts SI is the symbol


W.
A watt is the mechanical power of a force conducting an
engineer working for a joule in one second.

1CP = 736W

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Mechanical efficiency is the ratio of useful mechanical
work (Lu) and the work consumed (LC). Is dimensionless
and subunit.
Mechanical energy is a scalar physical quantity which
characterizes the ability of a body or system of bodies to
produce mechanical work.
Kinetic energy is the mechanical energy of a body
moving towards a chosen reference system.
Mathematical expression of kinetic energy:
EC =mv2/2
SI unit of measurement is: [EC] = 1J.
Potential energy is the mechanical energy of a physical
system whose component parts interact. Law of
conservation of mechanical energy: mechanical energy
of a physically isolated system remains constant, that is
conserved.
Law change mechanical energy: mechanical energy
variation of a bare physical system is equal to the work
done by external forces.
A body is in stable equilibrium if the small deviations from
the equilibrium position he is in the same position.
A body is unstable if small deviations from the equilibrium
position he is not alone in this position.
A body is in balance whether the small deviations from
the equilibrium position he is still in balance.

1. Find the correct statement:


a) physical work is a vector quantity equal to the product
of the force module and the module body movement;
b) physical work is a scalar quantity equal to the product
of the force module and the module body movement;

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c) physical work is a vector quantity equal to the product
of speed module and the module body movement,
d) physical work is a vector quantity equal to the product
of acceleration module and the module body movement;

2. Engine mechanical work Lm is:


a) product of force and displacement engines;
b) resistant product of force and motion;
c) product of the motive force and duration;
d) product of the motive force and resistance force.

3. Resistant mechanical work Lr is:


a) product of force and displacement engines;
b) resistant product of force and motion;
c) product of the motive force and duration;
d) product of the motive force and resistance force.

4. Unit of measurement of mechanical work is:


a) N;
b) J
c) Ns;
d) Nm2.

5. Assertion is correct:
a) a joule is the work done by a constant force of 1N
moving on 1m distance, direction and meaning of labor;
b) a joule is the work done by a constant force of 0.5N
moving on 0.5m distance, direction and meaning of labor;
c) a joule is the work done by a constant force of 0.001N
moving the 0,001m distance, direction and meaning of
labor;

31
d) a joule is the work done by a constant force of 0,005N
moving on 1m distance, direction and meaning of labor;

6. Find the correct statement:


a) mechanical power is a scalar physical quantity equal
to the ratio of force and time at which mechanical work;
b) mechanical power is a scalar physical quantity equal
to the ratio of work done by force and time at which
mechanical work;
c) mechanical power is a scalar physical quantity equal to
the ratio of speed and time at which mechanical work;
d) mechanical power is a scalar physical quantity equal
to the ratio of acceleration and time at which mechanical
work;

7. Mathematical relationship of mechanical power is:


a) P = LΔt;
b) P = L/Δt;
c) P = La;
d) P = Lg;

8. Unit of measurement of mechanical power is:


a) W;
b) Nm;
c) N;
d) m.

9. Assertion is correct:
a) one watt is the mechanical power of a force
conducting a mechanic working on for 1s 1J;
b) one watt is the mechanical power of a force
conducting a mechanical work of 0.5 J for 1s;

32
c) one watt is the mechanical power of a force conducting
a mechanical thing 1J time of 0.05 s;
d) one watt is the mechanical power of a force
conducting a mechanical work of 0.05 J for 1s;

10. How many watts is PO:


a) 750W;
b) 720W;
c) 700W;
d) 736W.

11. Which statement is correct?


a) dimensional and mechanical efficiency is greater than
one;
b)mechanical efficiency can not be expressed in
percentages;
c) mechanical efficiency is the ratio of useful mechanical
work and mechanical work consumed;
d) mechanical efficiency is dimensionally.

12. Find the correct statement:


a) mechanical energy is a scalar physical quantity that
characterizes the ability of a body or system of bodies to
produce mechanical work;
b) mechanical energy is a vector physical quantity which
characterizes the ability of a body or system of bodies to
produce mechanical work;
c) mechanical energy is a vector physical quantity;
d) mechanical energy is a vector physical quantity does
not characterize the body or system of bodies which
produce mechanical work;

33
13. Kinetic energy:
a) increases as speed decreases the body;
b) decreases as speed increases the body;
c) increases as speed increases the body;
d) no answer is correct.

14. Find the correct statement:


a) the kinetic energy of a body is proportional to the
square of the velocity of a reference system;
b) kinetic energy of a body's speed is proportional to a
reference system;
c)kinetic energy of a body's speed is inversely
proportional to a reference system;
d) kinetic energy of a body is inversely proportional to the
square of acceleration against a reference system;

15. Mathematical expression of kinetic energy:


a) Ec = mv/2;
b) Ec = mv2/2;
c) Ec = mv;
d) Ec = mv/3;

16. Unit of measurement of kinetic energy is:


a) J;
b) N;
c) m;
d) m3.

17. Find the correct statement:


a) The potential energy is independent of body position;
b) potential energy depends on body position;
c) potential energy is independent of body mass;

34
d) any statement is not correct.

18.Mathematics expression gravitational potential


energy:
a) EP = mh;
b) EP = m/h;
c) EP = mgh;
d) EP = m2h;

19. Find the correct statement:


a) the mechanical energy of a system is an amount of
state and is the product of kinetic and potential energy;
b) the mechanical energy of a system is an amount of
state and is the sum of kinetic and potential energy;
c) the mechanical energy of a system is an amount of
process and product of kinetic and potential energy;
d) mechanical energy of a system is a good size and is
completely state of kinetic and potential energy;

20. Mechanical energy expression:


a) E = EC;
b) E = Ep;
c) E = EC + EP;
d) E = LC.

21.Mechanical energy conservation law:


a) the mechanical energy of an isolated physical system
varies, that is conserved;
b) the mechanical energy of an isolated physical system
is not conserved;
c) the mechanical energy of an isolated physical system
remains cost, that is conserved;

35
d) mechanical energy of an isolated physical system
remains cost, that is not preserved;

22.Law change mechanical energy:


a) changes in mechanical energy of a bare physical
system is equal to work done by external forces;
b) changes in mechanical energy of an isolated physical
system is equal to potential energy;
c) mechanical energy change of a physically isolated
system is equal to kinetic energy;

d) changes in mechanical energy of a bare system is


equal to kinetic energy.

23. Find the correct statement:


a) a body is suspended in stable equilibrium if the point of
support under the center of gravity of the body on the
same vertical;
b) a body is suspended in stable equilibrium if the body's
center of gravity lies below the support;
c) a body is suspended in stable equilibrium if the point of
support is above the center of gravity of the body, on the
same vertical;
d) a body is suspended in stable equilibrium if the point of
support coincides with the identical of the body.

24. Which statement is correct:


a) a supported body is in stable equilibrium if carried
vertical center of gravity falls in base of support;
b) a supported body is in stable equilibrium if carried
horizontal center of gravity falls in base of support;

36
c) a body support is in stable equilibrium if carried vertical
center of gravity falls within the support base;
d) a body support is in stable equilibrium if carried
horizontal center of gravity falls within the support.

25. What is the correct statement?


a) a body is unstable if small deviations from the
equilibrium position he returns to the equilibrium position;
b) a body is unstable if small deviations from the
equilibrium position he is not alone in this position;

c) a body is unstable if small deviations from the


equilibrium position is everything in balance;
d) a body is unstable if small deviations from the
equilibrium position infancy, is not in balance.

26. What is the correct statement?


a) a body is in balance regardless of whether the small
deviations from the equilibrium position is everything in
balance;
b) a body is in balance regardless of whether the small
deviations from the equilibrium position he is not alone in
this position;
c) a body is in balance regardless of whether the small
deviations from the equilibrium position, he is not alone in
this position;
d) a body is unstable if small deviations from the
equilibrium position it is only in this position.

II. Termal phenomena

II.1.Starea heating. Thermal contact. Heat balance

37
Temperature is a physical quantity describing the thermal
state of bodies.
Thermal balance is achieved when two bodies with
different heating conditions put in contact come to the
same heating condition.
To measure temperature using thermometers.
Temperature is a physical size of the state.
The link between temperature measured in K and the
temperature measured in °C is given by:

T(K) = 273,15 + t (°C)

Diffusion is the phenomenon of penetration of molecules


of a body among the molecules of another body without
the intervention of outside forces.

1. Find the correct statement:


a) The thermal state is the state of the bodies that
produce sensations of hot and cold;
b) thermal state is a physical property that can not be a
criterion for ordering;
c) thermal state is a physical property that does not
produce sensations of hot and cold;
d) thermal state is a physical property.

2. Thermal balance is achieved when:


a) two bodies have different heating conditions;
b) two bodies with different heating conditions, thermal
contact get released after a certain time to have the
same heating condition;

38
c) two bodies with different heating conditions fail to have
the same heating condition;
d) two bodies with different heating conditions, placed in
thermal contact fail to have the same heating condition.

3. For temperature measurement is used:


a) dynamometer;
b) thermometer;
c) balance;
b) timer.

4. Find the correct statement:


a) two bodies in thermal equilibrium with a third body is in
thermal equilibrium with each other.
b) three bodies in thermal contact can not be in thermal
equilibrium;
c) two bodies in thermal equilibrium with a third body are
not in thermal equilibrium with each other;
d) three bodies in thermal equilibrium can not be in
thermal contact.

5. Temperature:
a) a vector quantity, not the state characterized by
heating a body;
b) a vector quantity that characterizes the state of heating
body;
c) not a fundamental quantity characterizing the state of
heating a body;
d) a scalar quantity, which characterizes the fundamental
condition of body heat;

39
6. The link between temperature measured in K and the
temperature measured in °C:
a) T(K) = t (°C);
b) T(K) = 300 + t (°C);
c) T(K) = 273,15 + t (°C);
d) T(K) = 273,15.

7. Unit of measurement of temperature and is:


a) °C;
b) N;
c) m;
d) K.

8. Diffusion is:
a) The phenomenon of penetration of molecules of a
body among other molecules without the intervention of
outside forces body;
b) The phenomenon of penetration of molecules of a
body among molecules with the assistance of another
body outside forces;
c) The phenomenon of penetration of molecules of a
body among other molecules inside the body with a force
action;
d) The phenomenon of penetration of molecules of a
body among other molecules inside the body with a
force;

9. By heating an aluminum strip that happens its volume?


a) expand;
b) contract;
c) expand and contract;
d) no change in volume.

40
10. In the temperature range 0°C - 4°C water volume:
a) increase;
b) decreases;
c) unchanged;
d) greatly increases.

11. By heating the air volume:


a) increase;
b) decreases;
c) unchanged;
d) decreases greatly.

12. Medical thermometer is a thermometer:


a) minimum;
b) maximum;
c) minimum and maximum;
d) that can measure temperatures above 100°C

II.2. Heat. Calorimetry

Heat is a physical size of the process. Unit of


measurement of heat and is: [Q]SI = 1J.
Calorimetric equation is:

Qced = Qabs

Specific heat is numerically equal to the physical size


needed to vary the temperature of heat a unit mass of a
body with a degree.

41
Mathematical expression of specific heat can be written
as:
c = Q/m · Δt

Its unit of measurement is:

[c]SI = J/kg · K

Heat capacity is a physical quantity numerically equal to


the heat required to change a body with a high
temperature. Its mathematical expression has the form:

C = Q/ Δt

Unit of measure:
[C]SI = J/ K

1. Insulator body is:


a) copper;
b) wood;
c) iron;d) gold.

2. What is core body heat:


a) glass;
b) ebonite;
c) wood;
d) iron.

3. Find the correct statement:


a) heat is a state of physical size and temperature of
process is a natural size;

42
b) heat is a physical size and process temperature
process is a natural size;
c) heat is a physical size of state and temperature state is
a natural size;
d) heat is a physical size and temperature process is a
physical size of state;

4. The unit for heat:


a) J;
b) N;
c) m2;
d) NJ;

5. Find the heat equation:


a) Qced = T (K) + 273,15;
b) Qced = T (°C) + 273,15;
c) Qced = Qabs;
d) Qabs = 273,15.

6. Specific heat is:


a) physical size numerically equal to the heat necessary
to vary the temperature of unit mass of a body with no
degree;
b) physical size numerically equal to the heat necessary
to vary the temperature of a body with no degree;
c) physical size numerically equal to the heat necessary
to vary the temperature of a mole of a body with no
degree;
d) physical size numerically equal to the heat required to
raise the temperature of a body.

7. Heat capacity is:

43
a) physical size numerically equal to the heat necessary
to vary the temperature of unit mass of a body with no
degree;
b) physical size numerically equal to the heat necessary
to vary the temperature of a body with no degree;
c) physical size numerically equal to the heat necessary
to vary the temperature of a mole of a body with no
degree;
d) physical size numerically equal to the heat required to
raise the temperature of a body.

8. Mathematical expression of specific heat:


a) c =Q/ΔT;
b) c= Q/m;
c) c = Q/m ΔT;
d) c =Q/T.
9. Mathematical expression of the heat capacity:
a) C =Q/m;
b) C =Q/g;
c) C = Q/ ΔT;
d) C = Q/a.

10. Metal heat transmission is by:


a) heat conduction;
b) thermal convection;
c) radiation;
d) convection and radiation.

11. Heat transmission fluid is made by:


a) heat conduction;
b) thermal convection;
c) radiation;

44
d) convection and radiation.

12. A calorie is:


a) 5,36J;
b) 3,14J;
c) 4,18J;
d) 3,25J.

13. Unit of measurement of specific heat is:


a) J/kg;
b) J/K;
c) J/KgK;
d) J/g.

14. Unit of measurement of heat capacity is:


a) J/kg;
b) J/K;
c) J/KgK;
d) J/g.

II.3. Fuels and heat engines

Are natural or synthetic fuels that emit heat by burning.


The relationship between heat by burning fuel and fuel
mass is:

Q = m ·q

Calorific value (q) is a physical quantity numerically equal


to heat by burning a unit mass of fuel. Be calculated with:

q = Q/m

45
SI unit of measurement is: [q]SI = J/kg.
Heat engine is a physical system that carries out
mechanical work forces when they get hot. Heat engine
efficiency is numerically equal physical size ratio of work
done and the heat from burning fuel.
The yield is calculated as:

η = L/Q1

1. Find the correct statement:


a) are natural or synthetic fuels that emit no heat by
burning;
b) are natural or synthetic fuels that emit heat by burning;
c) fuels are solids that do not emit heat by burning;
d) fuels are liquids which do not emit heat by burning.

2. What is the correct statement?


a) heat by burning a fuel is independent of fuel mass
burned;
b) heat by burning a fuel is not dependent on the nature
of spent fuel;
c) heat by burning a fuel depends on the mass and
nature of spent fuel;
d) no answer is correct.

3. Heat from burning a fuel is calculated with:


a) Q = mt;
b) Q = qt;
c) Q = mq;
d) Q = mΔt.

46
4. Calorific value is:
a) physical size numerically equal to heat by burning a
unit mass of fuel;
b) physical size numerically equal to the product of heat
and mass of fuel;
c) physical size numerically equal to the product of mass
and heat a fuel;
d) physical size numerically equal to the product of a fuel
temperature heat;

5. Calorific mathematical expression:


a) q = Qm;
b) q = Qt;
c) q = Q/m;
d) q = Qmt.

6. Measuring unit calorific:


a) J/Q;
b) JQ;
c) J/K;
d) J/kg.

7. Heat engine is:


a) device performing mechanical work while receiving
heat;
b) device that gives off heat when performing mechanical
work;
c) a device that receives heat and mechanical work;
d) device that gives off heat.

8. Heat engines can be:

47
a) only internal combustion;
b) the only external combustion;
c) only ignition;
d) external combustion, internal ignition.

9. Steam locomotive is:


a) internal combustion engine;
b) spark-ignition engine;
c) external combustion engine;
d) internal combustion engine and ignition.

10. Return a heat engine:


a) physical size numerically equal to the ratio of work
done and the heat released by burning fuel;
b) physical size numerically equal to the product of work
done and the heat released by burning fuel;
c) physical size numerically equal to the amount of work
done and the heat released by burning fuel;
d) is numerically equal to the physical size difference
between work done and the heat released by burning
fuel;

11. The expression efficiency of a heat engine is:


a) η = L/Q1;
b) η = L;
c) η = Q1;
d) η = Q2;

II.4. Changing the state of

Substances can be found in three states of aggregation:


solid, liquid and gas. Solids have shape and volume and

48
not flow properly. Liquids have their own volume, not its
form and flow. Gases have their own volume, not its form
and flow. Specific latent heat (λ) is equal to the ratio of
latent heat and body mass.

λ = Qlatentă/m

SI unit of measurement for λ is J/kg. Melting is a process


of transition of solid substances in liquid at a temperature
well established. Solidification is the shift of a substance
from liquid to solid temperature well established.
Vaporization is the process of transition from liquid
substance vapor.
Condensation is the process of transfer of the substance
vapor in liquid. Sublimation is the direct conversion of a
solid to gas without passing through the liquid state.
Inverse sublimation is the reverse process sublimation.
Melting, vaporization and sublimation are processes that
take place with absorption of heat. Solidification,
condensation and inverse sublimation are processes that
occur with heat transfer.

1. Find the correct statement:


a) solids have their own volume, not its form and flow;
b) solids volume not own their own form and flow;
c) solids have their volume, their own form and not
running;
d) solids have their own volume, and run their own form.

2. Liquids:
a) does not have its own volume, and not running their
own form;

49
b) its volume, its shape and not leaking;
c) have their own volume, not its shape and not leaking;
d) have their own volume, have their own form and not
running.

3. Gas:
a) Volume not own and run their own form;
b) its volume, its shape and not leaking;
c) have their own volume, not its shape and not leaking;
d) have their own volume, have their own form and not
running.

4. Intermolecular interactions in solids are:


a) large;
b) small;
c) very small;
d) zero.

5. Intermolecular interactions in liquids are:


a) large;
b) small;
c) very small;
d) zero.

6. Intermolecular interactions in gases are:


a) large;
b) small;
c) very small;
d) zero.

7. Specific latent heat is:


a) the relationship between body mass and latent heat;

50
b) the product of latent heat and body mass;
c) the amount of latent heat and body mass;
d) the difference between body mass and latent heat;

8. Mathematical expression of specific latent heat is:


a) λ = L/m;
b) λ = Lm;
c) λ = Lg;
d) λ = Qlatentă/m;

9. Unit of measurement of specific latent heat is:


a) N/kg;
b) J/N;
c) J/kg;
d) Jm.

10. Melting is:


a) the shift of the solid substance in the liquid at a
temperature well established;
b) the shift of liquid substance in a gaseous state at a
temperature well established;
c) the shift of the solid substance in a gaseous state at a
temperature well established;
d) the shift of gaseous substance in the liquid at a
temperature well established;

11. Solidification is:


a) the shift of the solid substance in the liquid at a
temperature well established;
b) the shift of the substance from solid to liquid in a well-
defined temperature;

51
c) the shift of the solid substance in a gaseous state at a
temperature well established;
d) the shift of gaseous substance in the liquid at a
temperature well established;

12. Vaporization is:


a) the shift of the solid substance in the liquid;
b) the shift of liquid substance in solid form;
c) the shift of the solid substance into vapor;
d) the shift of the substance from liquid to vapor;

13. Condensation is:


a) the shift of the substance vapor in liquid;
b) the shift of liquid substance in solid form;
c) the shift of the solid substance into vapor;
d) the shift of the substance from liquid to vapor;

14. Which of the following processes under absorption of


heat?
a) solidification;
b) condensation;
c) melting;
d) inverse sublimation.

15. Which of the following processes resulting in heat


transfer?
a) vaporization
b) condensation;
c) melting;
d) sublimation.

16. Which relationship is valid for the same substance?

52
a) λvaporizare ≠ λcondensare;
b) λtopire ≠ λcondensare;
c) λvaporizare ≠ λcondensare;
d) λvaporizare = λcondensare;

17. Sublimation is:


a) the shift of the substance vapor in liquid;
b) the shift of liquid substance in solid form;
c) the shift of the solid substance in the gas;
d) the shift of the substance from liquid to vapor;

18. Inverse sublimation is:


a) the shift from gas to solid substance;
b) the shift of liquid substance in solid form;
c) the shift of the solid substance into vapor;
d) the shift of the substance from liquid to vapor;

III. Electrical phenomena

III.1. Static bodies

Electric charge is a measure of the status of


electrification, is denoted by the symbol q. Unit of
measurement equation is:

q =It

The unit for electric charge is called the coulomb.Static


bodies can be made by: friction, contact and influence.
To static friction bodies are loaded with loads of evidence
to the contrary. In static contact bodies are loaded with
loads of the same sign. To static body electrified by

53
influence by influence does not change the electric
charge, but the ends are loaded with loads of evidence to
the contrary. Between bodies charged with the tasks of
the same sign interactions occur through forces of
rejection. Between bodies charged with the tasks of the
same interactions occur with different signs of attraction
forces.
Coulomb's law
Interaction force between two bodies with the task q1 and
q2 is directly proportional to their tasks and inversely
proportional to the square of the distance between them.
Coulomb's law has the form:

F =k q1q2/r2

1. Find the correct statement:


a) the electric charge is a measure of the status of
electrification;
b) electrical charge can be positive;
c) electrical charge can not have negative values;
d) electrical charge is neutral.

2. Mathematical expression of electric charge is:


a) q =Im;
b) q = It;
c) q = Ig;
d) q = I/t.

3. Unit of measurement of electric charge is:


a) A;
b) J;

54
c) C;
d) N.

4. Find the correct statement:


a) the static friction bodies are loaded with loads of
evidence to the contrary;
b) the static friction bodies are loaded with tasks of the
same sign;
c) static friction is not electrically charged bodies;
d) the static friction electrified body electric charge does
not change, but the ends are loaded with loads of
evidence to the contrary.

5. Find the correct statement:


a) the static contact bodies are loaded with loads of
evidence to the contrary;
b) the static contact bodies are loaded with loads of the
same sign;
c) the contact bodies are not static electrical charges;
d) the static contact electrified body electric charge does
not change, but the ends are loaded with loads of
evidence to the contrary.

6. What is the correct statement:


a) static induction bodies loaded with loads of evidence
to the contrary;
b) static induction tasks bodies are loaded with the same
sign;
c) the bodies are not static induction electric load;
d) static induction electrified body electric charge does
not change, but the ends are loaded with loads of
evidence to the contrary.

55
7. Between electrically charged bodies with electric
charges of the same sign occurs:
a) interactions of rejection;
b) pull interactions;
c) no interaction occurs;
d) interactions of attraction and rejection.

8. Between electrically charged bodies with electric


charges of the same evidence to the contrary is evident:
a) interactions of rejection;
b) pull interactions;
c) no interaction occurs;
d) interactions of attraction and rejection.

9. Coulomb's Law:
a) the interaction force between two point masses with
q1 and q2 tasks is directly proportional to electrical
charges and inversely proportional to the square of the
distance between them;
b) interaction force between two point masses with q 1 and
q2 tasks is inversely proportional to electrical charges and
the distance between them;
c) the interaction force between two point masses with q 1
and q2 tasks is inversely proportional to electrical charges
and inversely proportional to their distance;
d) the interaction force between two point masses with q1
and q2 tasks is directly proportional to electrical charges;

10. The force of interaction does not depend on:


a) The tasks bodies;
b) distance between objects;

56
c) the environment in which the bodies;
d) mass of bodies;

III. 2. Electricity. Circuit.

Electricity is orderly movement of electrical charge


carriers. Physical size characterizing the intensity of
electricity is electricity, with the symbol I. The unit for I,
amps SI is the symbol A. A simple circuit elements are:
the power, switch and connecting wires.
Closed circuit is passed through the power circuit and the
switch is closed.
Open circuit is the circuit which is crossed by electric
current and the switch is opened. Characterizing any size
is called voltage electric generator (fear). Characterizing
any consumer sizes are: electrical output voltage and the
nominal value of electric current intensity. A consumer is
under tension if the consumer is the nominal voltage
greater than voltage electric generator. A consumer is
over-stretched consumer if rated voltage is less than
voltage electric generator. A consumer and rated voltage
generator adapted if the consumer is approximately
equal to voltage electric generator. Electrical resistance
is a physical quantity equal to the ratio between applied
voltage and electric current intensity. Relationship
definition has the form:

R =U/I

Unit of measurement of electrical resistance is the ohm,


symbol Ω. The voltage is denoted by U and is a physical

57
quantity equal to the ratio of work done to transport
electric charge Q.
Relationship definition has the form:

U =L/Q

Unit of measurement of voltage is volt, symbol V.


Ohm's Law for a portion of the circuit
If the end of a portion of the circuit applies a voltage,
electric current intensity produced by that portion of the
circuit is directly proportional to the applied voltage.
Ohm's Law is the mathematical relation:

I =U/R

Joule effect
Conductor heating due to electric current passing through
them is called the thermal effect of electric current.
Joule's law
Dissipated energy for a portion of circuit resistance R in a
time Δt is directly proportional to the square of electric
current strength, electrical resistance and time.
Mathematical expression has the form:

W = RI2Δt

Thermal power circuit portion is equal to the product of


electrical resistance and square of electric current
intensity.

P = R · I2

58
Inner tension (u) is equal to the ratio of energy supplied
by the generator circuit indoor circuit electrical charge
passing through a period of time.

u = Wint/Q

Electric voltage (E) is equal to the ratio of energy


supplied by the entire circuit and generating electric
charge passing through the circuit at that time.

E = Wgen/Q

Ohm's law for the whole circuit


Current intensity through a simple circuit is directly
proportional to fear generator of the circuit and inversely
proportional to the amount of inner resistance of the
generator and external circuit resistance.

I = E/ R +r

1. The unit for electric current intensity is:


a) m;
b) m2;
c) A;
d) N.

2. Circuit elements are:


a) The power, switch and connecting wires;
b) conducting liaison and consumer;
c) switch and the consumer;
d) generator and connecting wires.

59
3. Find the correct statement:
a) circuit closed circuit in which the consumer is no power
switch and the switch is closed;
b) closed circuit circuit in which the consumer is no power
switch and the switch is open;
c) closed circuit is the circuit which passes through
consumer power and the switch is closed;
d) closed circuit is the circuit which has consumer and
switch is not closed;

4. What is the correct statement:


a) circuit is open circuit in which the consumer and does
not pass power switch is open;
b) open circuit is the circuit which passes through
consumer power and the switch is closed;
c) circuit is open circuit the electric current passes
through the consumer and the switch is dechis;
d) circuit is open circuit the electric current passes
through the consumer;

5. A 9V battery is notation. What is the value:


a) the nominal voltage;
b) the electrical voltage;
c) electric voltage;
d) electric current intensity.

6. A flashlight bulb is 6V. What is the value?


a) the nominal voltage;
b) the electrical voltage;
c) electric voltage;
d) electric current intensity.

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7. A light bulb flashlight find pairs of values (3.5 V, 0.2 A).
What are these values:
a) the electric voltage and electric current intensity;
b) electric voltage;
c) the rated voltage and electric current intensity;
d) electric current intensity.

8. Unit of measurement of electric voltage is:


a) A;
b) N;
c) V;
d) m.

9. Unit of measurement of voltage is:


a) V;
b) N;
c) A;
d) m.

10. Find the correct statement:


a) the bulb is under tension when tension is less than its
rated voltage electric generator;
b) the bulb is under tension when tension is higher than
its rated voltage electric generator;
c) the bulb is under tension when tension is equal to its
nominal voltage electric generator;
d) if the bulb is under tension electric generator voltage is
equal to the nominal voltage of bulb.

11. Find the correct statement:


a) The bulb is tension over whether the voltage is lower
than its rated voltage electric generator;

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b) if the bulb is stretched over its rated voltage is higher
than voltage electric generator;
c) if the bulb is stretched over its rated voltage is equal to
voltage electric generator;
d) if the bulb is over tensioned electric generator voltage
is equal to the nominal voltage of bulb.

12. What is the correct statement:


a) lamp and generator are adjusted if the nominal voltage
of bulb is approximately equal to voltage electric
generator;
b) lamp and generator are adjusted if the bulb is rated
voltage greater than voltage electric generator;
c) lamp and generator are adjusted if the bulb rated
voltage lower than voltage electric generator;
d) lamp and electric generator are adjusted if the
generator voltage is higher than the rated voltage of the
bulb.

13. Voltage measurement tool is:


a) ammeters;
b) voltmeter;
c) thermometer;
d) resistor.

14. Find the correct statement:


a) the electrical resistance of a conductor is a vector
physical quantity equal to the ratio of electrical voltage
applied to the ends of a conductor of electric current
intensity as it crosses;
b) electrical resistance of a conductor is a vector physical
quantity equal to the product of electrical voltage applied

62
to the ends of a conductor of electric current intensity as
it crosses;
c) the electrical resistance of a conductor is a scalar
physical quantity equal to the ratio of the electrical
voltage applied to the ends of a conductor of electric
current intensity as it crosses;
d) electrical resistance of a conductor is a vector physical
quantity equal to the amount of electrical voltage applied
to the ends of a conductor of electric current intensity as
it crosses.

15. Mathematical expression of electrical resistance is:


a) R = UIt;
b) R = UI;
c) R =U/I;
d) R = UQ.

16. Unit of measurement of electrical resistance is:


a) A;
b) N;
c) m;
d) Ω.

17.Instrument for measuring electrical resistance is


called:
a) ammeters;
b) voltmeter;
c) ohmmeter;
d) thermometer.

18. Find the correct statement:

63
a) the electrical voltage is a physical quantity equal to the
ratio of mechanical work and a charge transport task.
b) the electrical voltage is equal to the physical size of
the work product to carry an electrical charge and the
task.
c) the electrical voltage is equal to the physical size of the
work to carry an electrical charge and the task.
d) the electrical voltage is equal to physical size
difference between the work to carry an electrical charge
and the task.

19. Ohm’s Law for a portion of the circuit is:


a) If the ends of a portion of the circuit apply a voltage,
current intensity produced by that portion of the circuit is
inversely proportional to the applied voltage.
b) If the end of a portion of the circuit applies a voltage,
current intensity produced by that portion of the circuit is
directly proportional to the applied voltage.
c) the current intensity is the sum of the applied voltage
and electrical resistance.
d) the current intensity produced by that portion of the
circuit is the difference between applied voltage and
electrical resistance.

20. Mathematical expression of Ohm’s law to the circuit


portion is:
a) I = UR;
b) I = UR2;
c) I = U/R;
d) I = UIt;

21. Choose the correct statement:

64
a) the effect of Joule heating conductors is due to electric
current passing through them;
b) Joule effect is to cool the conductors due to electrical
current passing through them;
c) Joule effect is a heating effect;
d) Joule effect is a magnetic effect.

22. Joule's law is:


a) the energy dissipated on a portion of the circuit is
inversely proportional to the square of the intensity of
electric current, electrical resistance and time;
b) energy dissipated by a circuit portion is directly
proportional to the square of electric current strength,
electrical resistance and time;
c) a portion of energy dissipation per circuit is inversely
proportional to the square of the intensity of electric
current directly proportional to electrical resistance and
time;
d) energy is dissipated over a portion of the circuit is
inversely proportional to the square of the intensity of
electric current, electrical resistance and directly
proportional to time;

23. Joule's law mathematical expression is:


a) W = RI/Δt;
b) W = RI;
c) W = RΔt;
d) W = RI2Δt.

24. Thermal power for a portion of the circuit is:


a) the product of electrical resistance and square of
electric current intensity;

65
b) the amount of electrical resistance and square of
electric current intensity;
c) the difference between electrical resistance and
square of electric current intensity;
d) electrical resistance is inversely proportional to the
intensity of electric current;

25. Thermal power is the mathematical expression:


a) P = RI;
b) P = Rt;
c) P = RI2;
d) P = RΔt.

26. Flashlights bulb has a rated voltage 4V and intensity


electric current is 0.4 A. Electrical power for operating the
bulb is:
a) 1W;
b) 2W;
c) 1,6W;
d) 3W.

27. A flashlight bulb is electrical power 2W. How is the


energy dissipated within 2 hours:
a) 14400J;
b) 20000J;
c) 144J;
d) 25000J.

28. Internal voltage is:


a) the ratio of energy supplied by the generator circuit
within a time frame and load passing through the circuit.

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b) the amount of energy supplied by the generator circuit
within a time frame and load passing through the circuit.
c) product of the energy provided by generator circuit
within a time frame and load passing through the circuit.
d) the product of the energy provided by generator circuit
within the time frame.

29. Inner tension has mathematical expression:


a) u = Wgen/t;
b) u = Wgen/tm;
c) u = Wint/Q;
d) u = Qt;

30. Electric voltage (t.e.m.) is:


a) the whole of the energy provided by generator circuit
in a time and electric charge passing through that circuit;
b) the amount of energy provided by generator entire
circuit in a time and electric charge passing through that
circuit;
c) the difference between energy supplied by generator
entire circuit in a time and electric charge passing
through that circuit;
d) the product of all the energy provided by generator
circuit in a time and electric charge passing through that
circuit;

31. Electric voltage is mathematical expression:


a) E = W gen/t;
b) E = W gen/I;
c) E = W gent;
d) E = W gen/Q;

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32. Stress balance for a simple circuit is:
a) E = Ub + u;
b) E = Ub – u;
c) E = Ubu;
d) E = Ub/u.

33. Ohm's law for the whole circuit is:


a) the electric current intensity is inversely proportional to
fear generator and directly proportional to the amount of
inner resistance of the generator and external circuit
resistance;
b) intensity electric current is directly proportional to fear
generator and inversely proportional to the amount of
inner resistance of the generator and external circuit
resistance;
c) intensity electric current is directly proportional to worry
generator and inversely proportional to the difference
between the generator internal resistance and external
circuit resistance;
d) intensity electric current is directly proportional to fear
generator and inversely proportional to the product of the
generator internal resistance and external circuit
resistance;

34. Ohm's law for the whole circuit is the expression


math:
a) I = E/r;
b) I = E/ R + r;
c) I = R/E;
d) I = E/R.

III.3. Energy and power of simple circuit

68
Expressions depending on circuit powers:

Pext = RE2/ (R +r)2 (outdoor power circuit)

Pint =rE2/ (R+r)2 (internal circuit


power)

Pgen =E2/R +r (whole circuit power)

Yield simple electric circuit is equal to physical size ratio


between energy consumers and energy once supplied
the entire circuit generator.

η= Wext/ Wgen

1. Mathematical expression of power external circuit is:


a) Pext = RE2/(R + r)2;
b) Pext = R/(R + r)2;
c) Pext = E2/(R + r)2;
d) Pext = RE2.

2. Mathematical expression of the power circuit inside it:


a) Pint = RE2/(R + r)2;
b) Pint = R/(R + r)2;
c) Pint = rE2/(R + r)2;
d) Pint = RE2.

3. Mathematical expression of the entire power circuit is:


a) Pgen = E2/R + r;
b) Pgen = R/(R + r)2;
c) Pgen = E2/(R + r)2;

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d) Pgen = RE2.

4. Return is simple electric circuit:


a) a physical quantity equal to the ratio of useful energy
from the circuit and the total energy of the circuit;
b) an amount equal to the natural product of useful
energy from the circuit and the total energy of the circuit;
c) an amount equal to the physical size of the useful
energy flow and the total energy of the circuit;
d) physical size than the difference between useful
energy and total energy flow of the circuit;

5. Mathematical expression yield a simple circuit is:


a) η = Wext Wgen;
b) η = Wext + Wgen;
c) η = Wext - Wgen;
d) η = Wext /Wgen;

6. Generator to an electrical circuit is E = 2V and r = R =


1Ω and 10Ω resistor. Electrical power external circuit is:
a) 0,38W;
b) 0,35W;
c) 0,33W;
d) 0,25W.

7. Generator to an electrical circuit is E = 2V and r = R =


1Ω and 10Ω resistor. Interior electrical power circuit is:
a) 0,38W;
b) 0,35W;
c) 0,33W;
d) 0,25W.

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8. Generator to an electrical circuit is E = 2V and r = R =
1Ω and 10Ω resistor. Total electric power generator
circuit is provided:
a) 0,66W;
b) 0,60W;
c) 0,50W;
d) 0,55W.

III.4. Kirchhoff's theorems

Network node is points of the circuit are at least three


interconnected circuit elements. Side is the portion of the
circuit between two nodes.
The Eye network is part of the circuit consists of a
sequence of edges forming a closed polygonal line.

Kirchhoff's theorem I
Sum current intensity leaving a node is the sum of
intensities of currents entering that node.
Kirchhoff's theorem II
Algebraic sum of voltages from a network eye equals the
algebraic sum of electric tension in that eye. Equivalent
series resistance group is the sum of resistances of each
resistor. Equivalent parallel resistance group is the sum
of resistances of each resistor inverse. Power divider has
the expression:

I1/I2 = R2/R1

Voltage divider has the expression:

U1/U2 = R1/R2

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1. Find the correct statement:
a) the network node is the point at which at least three
interconnected circuit elements;
b) network node is a point that is interconnected circuit
elements;
c) the network node is where two circuit elements are
interconnected;
d) network node is the point where at least three
interconnected circuit elements;

2. What is the correct statement:


a) side is the portion of the circuit between two nodes;
b) side is the portion of the circuit that includes at least
one node inside;
c) side portion of the circuit is not covered by the same
current;
d) side portion of the circuit is composed of two
components inside.

3. Find the correct statement:


a) the eye network is part of the circuit consists of a
sequence of edges which form a closed polygonal line;
b) the eye network is going through that portion of the
circuit does not pass through each node once;
c) the eye network is part of the circuit consists of a
sequence of edges forming a closed polygonal line;
d) the eye network is going through that portion of the
circuit to pass through each node several times;

4. Kirchhoff ’s theorem I is:

72
a) the sum of intensities of currents leaving a node is the
sum of intensities within the respective node;
b) product intensities currents leaving a node is equal to
the product intensities within the respective node;
c) difference intensities currents leaving a node is equal
to the difference intensities falling in that node;
d) product intensities currents leaving a node is equal to
the difference intensities falling in that node;

5. Theorem II of Kirchhoff ’s:


a) the product of tensions between the eye network is
equal to the product of the electric tension that eye;
b) a voltage difference eye network is equal to the
product of the electric tension that eye;
c) the algebraic sum of voltages from a network eye
equals the algebraic sum of electric tension that eye;
d) a voltage difference eye network is the sum of the
electric tension that eye;

6. Equivalent series resistance of the group is:


a) the sum of resistances of each resistor;
b) the difference in resistances of each resistor;
c) the product resistance of each resistor;
d) inversely proportional to the resistance of each
resistor.

7. The group inverse parallel equivalent resistance is:


a) the sum of resistances of each resistor;
b) the difference in resistances of each resistor;
c) the product resistance of each resistor;
d) inverse sum of resistances of each resistor.

73
8. Find correct mathematical expression for the current
divider:
a) I2/I1 = R2/R1;
b) I2I1 = R2R1;
c) I1/I2 = R2/R1;
d) I2 + I1 = R2 - R1;

9. Find correct mathematical expression for the voltage


divider:
a) U2/U1 = R2/R1;
b) U2U1 = R2R1;
c) U1/U2 = R1/R2;
d) U2 + U1 = R2 - R1;

IV. Magnetic phenomena

IV.1. Types of magnets and magnetic interactions

Magnets attract objects containing iron. Magnetic poles


repel same name and those with different names attract.
Earth's magnetic north pole is located near the
geographic South Pole and vice versa.

1. Magnets have the property to attract:


a) wood;
b) ebonite;
c) blade;
d) iron.

2. Find the correct statement:

74
a) the magnetic poles of the same name with the
magnetic poles attract and repel different names;
b) north pole (N) of the magnet is oriented towards the
geographical south pole of the earth;
c) south pole (S) of the magnet is oriented to the
geographic North Pole of the Earth;
d) magnetic poles of the same name magnetic poles
repel and attract each other with different names.

3. If you close a steel bar magnet that is:


a) electrified;
b) heat;
c) magnetized;
d) break.

4. Which is magnetized bodies:


a) plastic;
b) wood;
c) razor blades;
d) cotton.

IV.2. Force and electromagnetic induction

Elecromagnetic Strength:
- Acting on a conductor of electricity,
- Under the influence of a magnet or an electromagnet;
- Increase the current increases if the conductor
- Perpendicular to the direction of conductor, acting on
the conductor if he is not placed exactly in the direction
that would place a magnetic needle in the area;
-Acting as a thrust motors in operation.
Electromagnetic induction:

75
- Is a phenomenon that is the emergence in an electrical
circuit of fear and if a circuit is closed electric current;
- Occurs when the inductor to change their position or the
intensity of electric current induced in the inductor circuit
changes;
- Electric current induced increase if the state change is
faster inductor;
- Principle of operation of the alternator and dynamo is
based on the phenomenon of electromagnetic induction.

1.Find the correct statement:


a) the electromagnetic force is not perpendicular to the
conductor;
b) electromagnetic force decreases if the current intensity
increases inducer;
c) the electromagnetic force acting on the conductor if he
is not placed exactly in the direction that would place a
magnetic needle in the area;
d) the electromagnetic force has no role in the operation
of traction motors.

2. What is the correct statement:


a) is an electromagnetic induction phenomenon is the
emergence in an electrical circuit of fear;
b) electromagnetic induction does not occur when the
inductor induced change their stance;
c) electromagnetic induction does not occur when the
flow of electric current intensity inducing change;
d) any statement is not correct.

3. The electrical circuit in which current is induced is


called:

76
a) the independent circuit;
b) induced flow;
c) oscillating circuit;
d) AC circuit.

4. Determining production electromagnetic magnet flux is


called:
a) industrial;
b) independent
c) induction;
d) any statement is not correct.

V. Fluid Mechanics

V.1. Types of pressure

Pressure is a scalar physical quantity equal to the ratio of


normal and uniform force exerted per unit area.
Mathematical expression is:

p =F/S

Pressure measuring unit is N/m2 or Pa (Pascal).1Pa


pressure is a force of 1 N acting normal and evenly
distributed on a surface area of 1m2. Hydrostatic
pressure is the pressure due to the weight of a liquid. The
pressure at depth h in a fluid can be calculated using the
relationship:

77
p =ρgh

Atmospheric pressure is the pressure due to air cargo.


Normal atmospheric pressure value:

p0 = 101 325Pa = 1 atm = 105N/m2

Devices used to measure atmospheric pressure are


called barometers.

1. Find the correct statement:


a) pressure is a scalar physical quantity equal to the ratio
between force and surface
b) pressure is a physical vector quantity equal to the
product of force and surface
c) pressure is a physical vector quantity equal to the
amount of force and surface
d) pressure is a physical vector quantity equal to the
difference between force and surface

2. Mathematical expression of pressure is:


a) p = FS;
b) p = SF;
c) p = F/S;
d) p = aS.

3. Pressure measuring unit is:


a) N/m;
b) N/m3;
c) N;
d) N/m2.

78
4. 1Pa are:
a) the pressure of a 1N force acting normally and
uniformly distributed on a surface area of 1m2;
b) a pressure of 0,001 N force acting normally and
uniformly distributed on a surface area of 0.011 m2;
c) the pressure exerted by a force of 0.5 N acting normal
and evenly distributed on a surface area of 0.25 m2;
d) the pressure exerted by a force of 0.55 N acting
normal and evenly distributed on a surface area of 0.35
m2 ;

5. Pressure due to the weight of a liquid is called:


a) atmospheric pressure;
b) hydrostatic pressure;
c) normal atmospheric pressure;
d) surface normal.

6. Hydrostatic pressure is mathematical expression:


a) p = gh;
b) p = Gih;
c) p = ρgh;
d) p = hI.

7. Weight due to air pressure is called:


a) atmospheric pressure;
b) hydrostatic pressure;
c) normal atmospheric pressure;
d) surface normal.

8. Normal atmospheric pressure value is:


a) 103Pa;

79
b) 105Pa;
c) 10Pa;
d) 1Pa.

9.Dispozitivele used to measure atmospheric pressure


are called:
a) thermometers;
b) ammeters;
c) voltmeters;
d) barometers.

10. Hydrostatic pressure is:


a) inversely proportional to depth;
b) inversely proportional to the density of the liquid;
c) inversely proportional to the acceleration due to
gravity;
d) proportional to depth.

11. What is the real relationship:


a) p =1/h;
b) p ≥ 1/h;
c) p < h
d) p ≈ h.

V.2. The fundamental principle of hydrostatics

Pressure difference of two points in a liquid in equilibrium


is directly proportional to the difference in level between
the two points. Mathematical expression is of the form:

Δp = ρgΔh

80
1. Find the correct statement:
a) the pressure difference of two points in a liquid in
equilibrium is directly proportional to the difference of
level which is two points;
b) pressure difference of two points in a liquid in
equilibrium is inversely proportional to the difference of
level which is two points;
c) pressure difference of two points in a liquid in
equilibrium is directly proportional to the difference of
level which is two points;
d) the amount of pressure from two points of a liquid in
equilibrium is inversely proportional to the difference of
level which is two points;
2. Mathematical expression is the fundamental principle
of hydrostatics:
a) Δh = ρh;
b) Δh = ρgΔh;
c) Δh = ρΔh;
d) Δp = ρgΔh.

V.3. Pascal's Law and Archimedes law

Pascal's Law
Pressure variation produced in a forward point of a liquid
full at all points of that liquid. Buoyancy Force Resultant
pressure forces exerted by the fluid balance on a body
immersed in fluid that is called Archimedes force.
Archimedes' law
On a body immersed in a fluid force is exerted vertically
oriented bottom-up, which way the fluid displaced is
equal to the weight.

81
If ρf > ρc immersed weight is less than the Archimedes
force, the body floats to the surface of the liquid.
If ρf <ρc immersed weight is greater than the Archimedes
force, the body down on the bottom.
If ρf = ρc submerged weight is equal to the Archimedes
force, the body floating in liquid.

1. Pascal's law is:


a) the pressure variation produced in a point in a liquid
full at all points that transmit liquid;
b) pressure variation equals the variation of liquid
density;
c) pressure variation is greater than the weight of liquid;
d)change in pressure equals the gravitational
acceleration.
2. Archimedes force is:
a) the resultant pressure forces exerted by fluid on a
body immersed in it;
b) the force that appears to throw vertically from the
bottom up on a body;
c) air friction;
d) the elastic force exerted on a body.

3. Find the correct statement:


a) buoyancy Force is a force horizontally-oriented
bottom-up mode which is not equal to the weight of fluid
displaced;
b) buoyancy force is a force vertically oriented top-down
manner which is not equal to the weight of fluid
displaced;
c) buoyancy force is a force vertically oriented inverted
whose module is equal to the weight of displaced fluid,

82
d) buoyancy force is a horizontal force;

4. Body floating on the surface if:


a) immersed weight is greater than Archimedes force;
b) buoyancy force is equal to the immersed weight;
c) submerged weight is equal to the Archimedes force;
d) immersed weight is less than Archimedes force;

5. The body floats to the surface if it satisfies the


condition:
a) ρf > ρc;
b) ρf < ρc;
c) ρf = ρc;
d) ρf ≤ ρc;

6. The body lies on the bottom if:


a) immersed weight is greater than Archimedes force;
b) Buoyancy force is equal to the immersed weight;
c) submerged weight is equal to the Archimedes force;
d) immersed weight is less than Archimedes force;

7. The body lies on the bottom if it satisfies the condition:


a) ρf > ρc;
b) ρf < ρc;
c) ρf = ρc;
d) ρf ≤ ρc;

8. Body floating in the liquid if:


a) immersed weight is greater than Archimedes force;
b) buoyancy force is equal to the immersed weight;
c) submerged weight is equal to the Archimedes force;
d) immersed weight is less than Archimedes force;

83
9. Body floating in the liquid if it satisfies the condition:
a) ρf > ρc;
b) ρf < ρc;
c) ρf = ρc;
d) ρf ≤ ρc;

10. Archimedes force is:


a) physical size scalar;
b) physical size vector;
c) fundamental physical size;
d) a physical phenomenon.

VI. Optical phenomena

VI.1. Light sources. Propagation of light

Light sources are receiving corps and scatter light.


Transparent bodies are bodies which allow passage of
light through them and clear observation of objects in
their rear. Opaque bodies are bodies that do not allow
passage of light through them. Translucent bodies are
bodies which allow passage of light through them but do
not allow clear observation of objects.
Sun eclipses occur when the Moon is between Sun and
Earth.
Moon eclipses occur when Earth is between Sun and
Moon.

84
1. Light sources are:
a) bodies which receive light from a light source;
b) bodies which do not allow passage of light through
them;
c) opaque bodies;
d) receiving corps and scatter light.

2. Transparent bodies are:


a) bodies which allow passage of light through them and
observe objects behind them;
b) bodies which do not allow passage of light through
them;
c) bodies which allow passage of light through them but
do not allow clear observation of objects;
d) buildings which do not allow passage of light and allow
clear observation of objects.

3. Opaque bodies are:


a) bodies which allow passage of light through them and
observe objects behind them;
b) bodies which do not allow passage of light through
them;
c) bodies which allow passage of light through them but
do not allow clear observation of objects;
d) bodies do not allow clear observation of objects.

4. Translucent bodies are:


a) bodies which allow passage of light through them and
observe objects behind them;
b) bodies which do not allow passage of light through
them;

85
c) bodies which allow passage of light through them but
do not allow clear observation of objects;
d) buildings which do not allow passage of light.

5. Sun eclipse occurs when:


a) the Moon is between Sun and Earth;
b) the Sun is between the Moon and Earth;
c) The Earth is between the Moon and the Sun.
d) the Earth is between Sun and Moon.

6. Lunar eclipse occurs when:


a) the Moon is between Sun and Earth;
b) the Sun is between the Moon and Earth;
c) the Moon is between Earth and Sun.
d) the Earth is between Sun and Moon.
VI.2. Reflection and refraction of light

Change in the direction of propagation of light in contact


with the surface of separation between two different
environments is called reflection.
Corresponding rays of two beams are called incident ray
and reflected ray.
Laws of reflection:
1. Incident ray, surface normal and reflected ray are
coplanar.
2. Angle of incidence and reflection angle are the same
way. Changing the direction of propagation of light
passing through a boundary between two different
transparent media is called refraction.
Laws of refraction:
1. Incident ray, refracted ray is normal and in the same
plane.

86
2. Angle of refraction and angle of incidence have the
same degree.
Refractive index (n) the environment is the ratio of light
speed in vacuum and the speed of light in that
environment.

1. Light reflection is a phenomenon:


a) mechanical;
b) heat;
c) optical;
d) Electrical.

2. Light reflection occurs when:


a) The incident ray, normal range are not reflected in the
same plane;
b) incidence angle is different from the angle of reflection;
c) angle of incidence equals the angle of refraction;
d) incidence angle of reflection equals the angle.

3. First law of reflection:


a) The incident ray, normal, reflected beam are coplanar;
b) incidence angle is different from the angle of reflection;
c) angle of incidence equals angle of refraction;
b) angle of incidence equals angle of reflection.

4. The second law of reflection:


a) The incident ray, normal range are not reflected in the
same plane;
b) angle of incidence equals the angle of reflection;
c) angle of incidence equals the angle of refraction,
d) angle of incidence equals angle of reflection.

87
5. Refraction of light is a phenomenon:
a) mechanical;
b) heat;
c) optical;
d) Electrical.

6. First law of refraction:


a) The incident ray, normal range is reflected in the same
plane;
b) incidence angle is different angle of reflection;
c) angle of incidence equals the angle of refraction;
d) angle of incidence equals angle of reflection.

7. The second law of refraction:


a) The incident ray, normal range are not reflected in the
same plane;
b) angle of incidence equals the angle of reflection;
c) incidence angle is equal to the angle of refraction;
d) angle of incidence equals angle of reflection.

8. Absolute refractive index is:


a) the speed of light in vacuum and the speed of light in
that environment;
b) the amount of light speed in vacuum and the speed of
light in that environment;
c) the product of the speed of light in vacuum and the
speed of light in that environment;
d) The difference between the speed of light in vacuum
and the speed of light in that environment;

VI.3. Lenses

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Lens is a transparent and homogeneous medium,
bounded by two surfaces, of which at least one is flat.
Lenses can be: convergent and divergent. Converging
lenses are thicker lenses in the middle and thinner ends.
Diverging lenses are thinner lenses in the middle and
thicker at the ends. Lens formula:

1/p’ =1/f + 1/p

Real image is formed at the intersection and refracted


rays can be projected on a screen.
Virtual image is formed at the intersection of extensions
and refracted rays can be projected on a screen.

1. Converging lenses are:


a) the thick lenses in the middle and thin at the ends;
b) thin lens in the middle and thin at the ends;
c) thick lenses in the middle and thick at the ends;
d) no answer is correct.

2. Diverging lenses are:


a) the lens thicker in the middle and thinner at the ends;
b) thin lens in the middle and thick at the ends;
c) thin lens in the middle and thin at the ends;
d) thick lenses in the middle and thick at the ends.

3.Image a bright object with a converging lens located at


a distance greater than twice the focal length is:
a) real, inverted and enlarged;
b) real and equal right object;
c) real and inverted reduced;
d) real and just increased.

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4.Image a bright object with a converging lens located at
a distance equal to twice the focal length is:
a) real, inverted and equal subject;
b) real, inverted and larger than the subject;
c) real and inverted reduced;
d) real, inverted and upright.

5.Image a bright object with a converging lens located


between the center and twice the focal length is:
a) real and inverted reduced;
b) real, inverted and enlarged;
c) real and inverted equal;
d) real and equal right.

6. Lens formula is the expression:


a) 1/p’ =1/f +1/p;
b) 1/p =1/f +p’;
c) p = 1/f +1/p’;
d) p = 1/f.

7. Real image of an object:


a) is formed at the intersection of light rays and can be
caught on a screen;
b) is formed at the intersection of light rays and can not
be caught on a screen;
c) extensions are formed at the intersection of light rays
and can be caught on a screen;
d) the extensions are formed at the intersection of light
rays and can be caught on a screen;

8. Virtual image of an object:

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a) is formed on the intersection of light rays and can be
caught on a screen;
b) formed at intersection of light rays and can not be
caught on a screen;
c) extensions are formed at the intersection of light rays
and can be caught on a screen;
d) the extensions are formed at the intersection of light
rays and can be caught on a screen;

VI.4. Eye

A normal eye distinguishes the details of objects at a


distance of about 25cm. This is the optimal distance
vision. Nearest point of the eye, a reachable object be
clearly seen, with maximum accommodation is called
proximum point. For a normal eye proximum point is 10-
15cm girls eye. Point farthest from the eye, in which an
object is seen clearly, without accommodation, is called
punctum remotum. To the normal eye is infinitely
remotum punctum.
Myopia is a defect where the image is formed in the
retina and can be corrected with lenses apart.
Hyperopia is a defect where the image is formed behind
the retina and can be corrected with converging lenses.
Sightedness is a defect that occurs in the elderly.
Daltonism is the inability to color distinction.

1. For a normal eye sight distance is optimal:


a) 50cm ;
b) 12cm ;
c) 10cm ;
d) 25cm.

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2. Nearest point of the eye to an object can be clearly
seen is called :
a) remotun punctum;
b) remotum punctum;
c) the optimal distance vision,
d) punctm proximum.

3. Eye farthest point at which an object can be clearly


seen is called :
a) remotun punctum;
b) remotum punctum;
c) the optimal distance vision;
d) punctm proximum.
4. Myopia is a faulty view. Image is formed:
a) in the retina,
b) after the retina;
c) behind the retina;
d) retina.

5. Hyperopia is a faulty view. Image is formed:


a) in the retina;
b) before the retina;
c) behind the retina;
d) retina.

6. Inability to distinguish colors is called :


a) myopia;
b) daltonism;
c) hyperopia;
d) long sight.

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VI.4. Glasses. Magnifier

Correct myopia and hyperopia with diverging lenses and


lens converging sightedness. Each lens has a specific
focal length, denoted f.
Inverse focal length is called convergence and is denoted
by C.
Convergence of negative diverging lens and a
converging lens is positive.
A convergence lens expressed in diopters.
A diopter is a converging lens with focal length of 1m.
Wolf is an optical instrument consisting of one or more
converging lens with focal length for observing very small
objects small.

1. Myopia is corrected with lenses:


a) convergent;
b) divergent,
c) convergent and divergent,
d) not be corrected with lenses.

2. Hyperopia is corrected with lenses:


a) convergent;
b) divergent,
c) convergent and divergent,
d) not be corrected with lenses.

3. Sightedness corrected with lenses:


a) convergent;
b) divergent,
c) convergent and divergent,
d) not be corrected with lenses.

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4. Daltonism correct lens:
a) convergent;
b) divergent,
c) convergent and divergent,
d) not be corrected with lenses.

5. Convergence is a divergent lens:


a) positive;
b) negative;
c) nil;
d) positive and negative.

6. Convergence is a converging lens:


a) positive;
b) negative;
c) nil;
d) positive and negative.

7. Find the correct statement:


a) a converging lens focal length is equal;
b) the convergence of a lens is equal to twice the focal
length;
c) convergence of a lens focal length is equal to the
inverse;
d) a converging lens focal length is the square.

8. What does the notation - 5 diopters:


a) the focal distance;
d) twice the focal length;
c) convergence;
d) divergence.

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9. A pair of lenses is notation - 2dioptrii. These lenses are
glasses of:
a) hyperopia;
b) farsighted;
c) color-blind;
d) myopic.

10.O pair of lenses is the notation + 2dioptrii. These


lenses are glasses of:
a) hyperopia;
b) farsighted;
c) color-blind;
d) myopic.

11. Mathematical expression of a convergence lens is:


a) f;
b) f2;
c) 1/f;
d) f-2.

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Answers
I. Mechanical PhenomenaI.
I.1. Motion and rest: 1a, 2c, 3b, 4d, 5a, 6d, 7c, 8d, 9a,
10b.
I.2. Inertia, mass, density: 1a, 2b, 3d, 4c, 5b, 6b, 7b, 8c,
9d, 10a, 11b, 12a, 13c, 14b, 15a, 16b.
I.3. Interaction - a general property of bodies: 1a, 2a, 3d,
4c,5a.
I.4. Types of forces - elastic force, friction, weight: 1c, 2b,
3a, 4c, 5c, 6b, 7a, 8b, 9b, 10c, 11c, 12b, 13a, 14a, 15b,
16a, 17b, 18a, 19d, 20a.
I.5.Balance mechanical bodies: 1a, 2c, 3d, 4c, 5d, 6a, 7b,
8d, 9a, 10c, 11d, 12b, 13c, 14a, 15a, 16c, 17c, 18d, 19c,
20d, 21d.
]I.6. Mechanical work and mechanical energy: 1b, 2a, 3b,
4b, 5a, 6b, 7b, 8a, 9a, 10d, 11c, 12a, 13c, 14a, 15b, 16a,
17b, 18c, 19b, 20c, 21c, 22a, 23c, 24a, 25b, 26a.
II.Fenomene Heat

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II.1. Heating condition. Thermal contact. Heat balance:
1a, 2b, 3b, 4a, 5d, 6c, 7d, 8a, 9a 10b, 11a, 12b.
II.2. Heat. Calorimetry: 1b, 2d, 3d, 4a, 5c, 6a, 7b, 8c, 9c,
10a, 11b, 12c, 13c, 14b.
II.3.Fuels and heat engines: 1b, 2c, 3c, 4a, 5c, 6d, 7a,
8d, 9c, 10a, 11a.
II.4. Changing the state of: 1c, 2b, 3a, 4a, 5b, 6d, 7a, 8d,
9c, 10a, 11b, 12d, 13a, 14c, 15b, 16d, 17c, 18a.
III. Electrical phenomena
III.1. Static bodies: 1a, 2b, 3c, 4a, 5b, 6d, 7a, 8b, 9a, 10d.
III.2. Electricity. Circuit: 1c, 2a, 3c, 4a, 5c, 6a, and 7c, 8c,
9a, 10b, 11a, 12a, 13b, 14c, 15c, 16d, 17c, 18a, 19b,
20c, 21a, 22b, 23d, 24a , 25c, 26c, 27a, 28a, 29c, 30a,
31d, 32A, 33b, 34b.
III.3. Energy and power circuit simple: 1a, 2c, 3a, 4a, 5d,
6c, 7c, 8a.
III.4. Kirchhoff’s theorems: 1d, 2a, 3c, 4a, 5c, 6a, 7d, 8c,
9c.
IV. Magnetic phenomena
IV.1. Types of magnets and magnetic interactions: 1d,
2d, 3c, 4c.

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IV.2. Force and electromagnetic induction: 1c, 2a, 3b, 4c.
V. Fluid Mechanics
V.1. Types of pressures: 1a, 2c, 3d, 4a, 5b, 6c, 7a, 8b,
9d, 10d, 11d.
V.2. The fundamental principle of hydrostatics: 1a, 2d.
V.3. Pascal’s Law and the Law of Archimedes: 1a, 2a,
3c, 4d, 5a, 6a, 7b, 8c, 9c, 10b.
VI. Optical phenomena
VI.1.Surse light. Propagation of light: 1d, 2a, 3b, 4c, 5a,
6d.
VI.2.Reflexia and refraction of light: 1c, 2d, 3a, 4b, 5c, 6a,
7c, 8a. <br>VI.3.Lentile: 1a, 2b, 3c, 4a, 5b, 6a, 7a, 8c.
VI.4. Eye: 1d, 2d, 3b, 4a, 5c, 6b.
VI.5. Glasses. Wolf: 1b, 2a, 3a, 4d, 5b, 6a, 7c, 8c, 9d,
10a, 11c.

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