Cabigao,Vianny Colette E.

ENDO-PERIO

1. Which of the following statements best applies to diagnostic

endodontic procedures?
a) the diagnosis of pulpal disease is always obvious
b) the diagnosis of pulpal disease is generally obscure but is sometimes
obvious
c) the diagnosis of pulpal disease is always obscure
d) the diagnosis of pulpal disease is generally obvious but is sometimes
obscure
ANSWER: D) the diagnosis of pulpal disease is generally
obvious but is sometimes obscure
2. The cold-response of an inflamed pulp is:
a) pain that lasts as long as the cold is applied but is of more intense
character than on normal adjacent teeth
b) pain that is brought on by cold that continues after the cold stimulus
has been removed
c) the worsening of a toothache by the application of cold
d) all of the above are correct
ANSWER: D) all of the above are correct
3. The most common cause of endodontic treatment failure is:
a) incomplete obliteration of the root canal
b) overfilling of the root canal
c) coexistent periodontal-periapical lesion
d) occlusal interference
e) an apical cyst
ANSWER: A)incomplete obliteration of the root canal
4. The electric pulp tester can:
a) register disease of the pulp
b) be used to test teeth with full coverage
c) always elicit a satisfactory response in multirooted teeth
d) all of the above are correct
e) none of the above are correct
ANSWER: E) none of the above are correct (the electric pulp
tester is an instrument used in testing the vitality of the pulp
of tooth
5. A seven years old boy fell off his bicycle one half hour ago. He
fractured his maxillary right central incisor at the level of the gingival.

The exposed pulp is still vital. What is the treatment of choice for this
tooth?
a) pulp cab
b) pulpotomy
c) pulpectomy
d) extraction
ANSWER: B) Pulpotomy ( Because the tooth would probably
have an immature root canal with a blunderbuss apex
6. A bacterial metabolite that causes lysis of fibrin clots:
a) streptokinase
b) hyaluronidase
c) coagulase
d) deoxyribonuclease
ANSWER: A) streptokinase
7. In infected root canals the two most commonly found organisms are:
a) staphylococcus and lactobacillus
b) staphylococcus and spirochetes
c) lactobacillus and cornebacterium
d) staphylococcus and streptococcus
ANSWER: D) staphylococcus and streptococcus
8. If corticosteroids are used as a component of root canal medicaments:
a) microorganisms are destroyed
b) leukocytic infiltration results
c) antibacterial action is enhanced
d) exacerbation of infection may occur
ANSWER: D) exacerbation of infection may occur
9. The most desirable form of tissue response at the apical foramen
following root canal therapy is by:
a) cementum deposition into the apical foramen
b) formation of a connective tissue capsule over the foramen
c) proliferation of epithelium from the apical periodontal ligament
d) proliferation of the periodontal connective tissue into the apical
foramen
ANSWER: A) cementum deposition into the apical foramen
10.
A culture must be taken before irrigation:
a) since the flora of the canal will be materially reduced
b) because the flora of the canal will be increased
c) since the bacteria spread through the canal
d) because all microorganisms are destroyed

ANSWER: A) since the flora of the canal will be materially

reduced
11.
The solution most preferred for irrigation is:
a) hydrogen peroxide
b) eugenol
c) isotonic sterile saline
d) sodium hypochlorite
ANSWER: D) Sodium Hypochlorite
12.
Sodium hypochlorite is recommended for irrigation because:
a) it acts as a solvent for pulp tissue and debris
b) it mechanically flushes debris from canals and cutting surfaces of
the instruments
c) it kills bacteria
d) it bleaches teeth
e) it acts as a lubricant for instruments within canals
f) all of the above are correct
g) none of the above are correct
ANSWER: F) all of the above are correct
13.
The access preparation for a maxillary central incisors most
resembles:
a) a circle
b) an oval
c) a triangle
d) a rhomboid
e) none of the above are correct
ANSWER: C) A triangle
14.
In therapy, the rubber dam:
a) Prevents the patient from aspirating files
b) Prevents salivary contamination of the root canal system
c) Prevents irrigation solution from entering the oral cavity
d) Gives better visibility of the operating site
e) All of the above are correct
ANSWER: E) All of the above are correct
15.
Which of the following may be used to disinfect guttapercha points?
a) Boiling
b) Autoclave
c) Chemical solutions
d) Flame sterilization
e) Dry heat sterilization

ANSWER: C) Chemical Solutions

16.
the technique of displacing gutta-percha cones against
the root canal walls to provide space for additional gutta-percha is
termed:
a) Sectional technique
b) Lateral condensation
c) Forceful condensation
d) Vertical condensation
e) Incremental technique
ANSWER: B) Lateral condensation
17.
The Term Tugback, when used in connection with a
master cone, is related to the:
a) Fit of the cone in the apical 2 or 3 mm
b) Consistency of the gutta percha
c) Size of the cone
d) Tensike strength of the gutta percha
e) Length of the cone
ANSWER: A) Tugback is resistance to withdrawal and comes
ideally from the apical 2 or 3 mm of the root canal
18.
the safest instrument for removing the pulp from a very
fine canal is a :
a) Barbed broach
b) Small k-type file
c) Tempered universal headstrom file
d) Smooth broach
ANSWER: B) small K-type file
19.
Common errors in access opening are:
a) Access opening too small
b) Access opening too large
c) Incomplete removal of the pulp chamber roof
d) All of the above are correct
ANSWER: D) all of the above are correct
20.
which aspect of endodontic therapy is most important?
a) The filling material used
b) The size of the file used in the canal
c) The complete debridement of the root canal system
d) The number of the rubber dam clamp used
ANSWER: C) The complete debridement of the root canal
system

21.
A root canal is ready for filling when:
a) The patient is asymptomatic
b) The canal has been accurately measured, cleansed, and shaped
c) The canal is dry
d) The culture is negative
e) All of the above are correct
ANSWER: E) All of the above are correct
22.
Endodontic cement
a) Is referred to as sealer
b) Is essentially zinc oxide eugenol
c) Fills variations not filled by gutta-percha
d) All of the above are correct
ANSWER: D) All of the above are correct
23.
Canals are not prepared to a certain size to be filled with
a given material. The size to which canals are prepared is determined
by:
a) Original size of canal
b) Curvature of the canal
c) Shape of the canal
d) All of the above are correct
ANSWER: D) All of the above are correct
24.
Instrumentation well short of the apical foramen can
result in:
a) Forcing necrotic material into the periapical region
b) Shelfing or ledging the canal
c) Traumatizing the periapical tissue
d) Grossly enlarging the apical foramen
ANSWER: B) Shelfing or ledging the canal
25.
All pulpless teeth with periapical lesions should be
treated by which of the following:
a) A rubber dam which should be inserted
b) The tooth should be left open for drainage
c) An immediate sterilization and root resection should be done
d) The case should be managed the same as in one without a
periapical lesion (nonvital)
ANSWER: D) The case should be managed the same as in one
without a periapical lesion (nonvital)
26.
When directing the xray beam from the mesial to
separate the buccal and lingual roots of an upper premolar, the buccal
root will be projected to the:

a) Buccal
b) Lingual
c) Distal
d) Mesial
e) Coronal
ANSWER: C) Distal
27.
The final access cavity form is determined by:
a) The size and shape of the pulp chamber
b) Curvature of the tooth roots
c) The location of canal orifices
d) The relationship of the length of tooth file to the cavity walls
e) All of the above are correct
ANSWER: E) All of the above are correct
28.
The most frequent cause of pulpal inflammation results
from:
a) Bacteria
b) Trauma
c) Iatrogenic Problems
d) Chemicals
e) Idiopathic disturbances
ANSWER: A) Coronal caries is the most common means of
ingress to the dental pulp for infecting bacteria and their
toxins.
29.
The greatest root canal diameter in the canine teeth
a)Mesiodistal
b) Labiolingual
c) Cervicoproximal
d) Gingivoincisal
ANSWER: B) Labiolingual
30.
Lateral Canals in anterior teeth are most commonly
found in the:
a) Apical third of the root
b) Middle third of the root
c) Cervical line
d) Cervical third of the root
ANSWER: A) Apical third of the root
31.
The anatomical form of the roots of teeth is determined
by
a) Dental lamina
b) Periodontal ligament

c) Epithelial attachment
d) Hertwigs epithelial sheath
ANSWER: D) Hertwigs epithelial sheath
32.
The location of the narrowest constriction of the
normal pulp canal is located at the:
a) Radiographic apex
b) Cementoenamel junction
c) Cementodentinal junction
d) Dentinoenamel junction
ANSWER: C) Cementodentinal junction
33.
Histologically, the dental pulp most closely resembles
what type tissue?
a) Nerve tissue
b) Vascular tissue
c) Granulation tissue
d) Loose connective tissue
ANSWER: D) Loose connective tissue
34.
Accessory canals result from:
a) Defects in cementogenesis
b) Dividing epithelial bridges
c) Breaks in Hertwigs root sheath
d) Adherent epithelial rests
ANSWER: C) Breaks in Hertwigs root sheath
35.
The presence of pulp stones on an xray inidicates the
presence of:
a) Acute pulpitis
b) Acute pulpalgia
c) Chronic periodontitis
d) None of the above are correct
ANSWER: D) None of the above are correct
36.
Pulp capping in a mature tooth may be followed by:
a) Pulpalgia
b) Internal resorption
c) Hypercalcification within the root canals
d) All of the above are correct
ANSWER: D) All of the above are correct
37.
Which structure is not found in a living pulp?
a) Collagen fibers
b) Haversian canals

c) Nonmedullated nerves
d) Reticulum
ANSWER: B) Haversian canals
38.
In pulps undergoing repair, odontoblasts may be derived
from:
a) Undifferentiated mesenchymal cells
b) Histiocytes
c) Macrophages
d) Plasma Cells
e) None of these are correct
ANSWER: A)Undifferentiated mesenchymal cells
39.
In the inflammatory process leukotaxine functions as:
a) An anti-inflammatory agent
b) A chemotactic agent
c) An inhibitor of capillary permeability
d) An inducer of fibroblastic proliferation
e) A stimulator of repair
ANSWER: B) A chemotactic agent
40.
An acute apical abscess usually is a result of:
a) A periodontal pocket
b) Occlusal interference
c) A necrotic pulp
d) An incipient acute pulpalgia
e) A moderate acute pulpalgia
ANSWER: C) A necrotic pulp
41.
When thermal stimuli are applied to teeth, which of the
following statements most accurately expresses the patient's reaction
when the threshold has been exceeded:
a) the patient can determine either stimulus accurately
b) the patient will be able to distinguish the cold but not the hot
stimulus
c) the patient will be able to distinguish the hot but not the cold
stimulus
d) patient's only reaction will be one of pain
e) none of the above are correct
ANSWER: D) the senstaion of pain is specific for the free nerve
endings and the fibers of the pulp
42.
The characteristics of pulpotomy include which of the
following?
a) degree of success is excellent
b) degree of success is good

c) degree of success is predictable

d) degree of success is very unpredictable
ANSWER: D) degree of success is very unpredictable
43.
Endodontic therapy is contraindicated if the involved tooth is
wholly or partially luxated because the sooner the tooth is returned to
the alveolus, the better the prognosis for retention:
a) both the statement and the reason are correct and are related
b) both the statement and the reason are correct but are not related
c) the statement is correct but the reason is incorrect
d) the statement is incorrect but the reason is correct
e) neither the statement nor the reason is correct
ANSWER: D) the statement is incorrect but the reason is
correct
44.
The first consideration in endodontic therapy is:
a) complete obliteration of the root canal
b) relief of pain
c) through biomechanical preparation
d) sterile technique
e) accurate canal length
ANSWER: B) relief of pain
45.
For antibiotic prophylaxis in endodontic procedures, which of the
following drugs are most appropriate?
a) streptomycin or amipicillin
b) terramycin or streptomycin
c) penicillin or erythromycin
ANSWER: C) penicillin or erythromycin
46.
When would you consider amputating a root of a multirooted
tooth:
a) if one root had extensive nonrestorable root caries
b) if one root had severe internal or external resorption
c) if one root had lost its alveolar bony support
d) all of the above are correct
ANSWER: D) all of the above are correct
47.
Which of the following should be given the greatest consideration
in relation to the use of intracanal anti-microbial agents?
a) the role played by drugs is purely secondary thus they should used
judiciously and in small quantities
b) the role played by the drugs is a primary one, thus they should be
used in sufficient quantity
c) drugs play a primary role in canals that cannot be enlarged to a
satisfactory size

d) drugs must be relied upon primarily when a negative culture is

impossible to obtain or when cultures are not taken
ANSWER: A) the role played by drugs is purely secondary thus
they should used judiciously and in small quantities
48.
Microorganisms will always be isolated from a periapical lesion
because organisms are always found in the pulp canal of a tooth with
such a lesion:
a) both statement and reason are correct and related
b) both statement and reason are correct but not related
c) the statement is correct but the reason is incorrect
d) the statement is not correct but the reason is an accurate statement
e) neither statement nor reason is correct
ANSWER: E) neither statement nor reason is correct
49.
The most common cause of persistent positive cultures from a
root canal is:
a) poor coronal seal
b) improper drug therapy
c) contaminated culture media
d) overinstrumentation of the root canal
ANSWER: A) poor coronal seal
50.
Which of the following methods of instrument sterilization uses
the lowest temperature?
a) autoclave
b) dry heat oven
c) ethylene oxide method
d) salt or glass bead sterilizer
ANSWER: C) ethylene oxide method
51.
The most commonly isolated strain of yeast from root canals is:
a) Candida albicans
b)Saccharomyces cerevisiae
c) Cryptococcus neoformans
d) Histoplasma capsulatum
ANSWER: A) Candida albicans (A fungal organism commonly
found in the mouth and often in pulpless teeth
52.
Which factor is not used in the diagnosis of normal gingival in a
young child?
a) Color of Nasmyths membrane
b) Contour of papillae
c) Stippling
d) Sulcular depth

e) Tight fitting gingival collar

ANSWER: A) Nasmyths membrane is on the surface of an
erupting tooth and not on the gingiva
53.
what is the most common cause of generalized acute gingival
inflammation in a preschool child?
a) Acute herpetic gingivostomatitis
b) Vitamin C deficiency
c) Acute necrotizing gingivitis
d) Vitamin B deficiency
e) Drug therapy
ANSWER: A) Acute herpetic gingivostomatitis
54.
what causes the green stains frequently seen on childrens
teeth?
a) Material alba
b) Enamel defects
c) Dentin defects
d) Chromogenic bacteria
ANSWER: D) Chromogenic bacteria
55.
What should be done for a patient with generalized
acute herpetic stomatitis?
a) Prescribe oral penicillin
b) Culture to distinguish from necrotizng ulcerative gingivitis
c) Desensitize patient with vaccines
d) Gently clean the mouth and treat any elevated temperature.
ANSWER: D) Gently clean the mouth and treat any elevated
temperature.
56.
What is the prognosis for a patient who develops
gingivitis while wearing orthodontic bands?
a) Good: this usually disappears when the bands are removed
b) Fair: the gingivitis will probably persist
c) Poor: periodontitis will probably result in the future
d) Unpredictable
ANSWER: A) Good: this usually disappears when the bands are
removed
57.
What dental condition may frequently occur in patients
at the time of puberty?
a) Periapical abscess
b) Pronounced gingivitis
c) Periodontal pockets
d) Periodontal abscess
e) None of the above are correct

ANSWER: B)Pronounced gingivitis

58.
It is recommended that the brushing of a preschool
childs teeth:
a) Be performed by the child himself
b) Be performed by the childs parent
c) Be performed only after all primary teeth have erupted
d) Not be done
ANSWER: B) Be performed by the childs parent
59.
To achieve a caries reduction, diet modification must be
directed toward:
a) High calcium and vitamin intake
b) Foods that will buffer the saliva
c) detergent foods
d) Reduction of carbohydrate intake
ANSWER: D) Reduction of carbohydrate intake
60.
Which of the following sugars present in the human diet
is considered the most caries promoting?
a) Sucrose
b) Fructose
c) Lactose
d) Glucose
e) Xylitol
ANSWER: A) Sucrose
61.
What factors are important in determining the
cariogenicity of a patients diet?
a) Type of carbohydrate consumed
b) Physical form of the food
c) Frequency of consumption
d) All of the above are correct
ANSWER: D) All of the above are correct
62.
What level of caries reduction is associated with optimal
fluoridation of community water supplies?
a) 15%
b) 30%
c) 55%
d) 80%
ANSWER: C) 55%
63.
Which of the following procedures is replaced by the use
of occlusal sealants?

a) Occlusal amalgam restoration

b) Topical fluoride application
c) Prophylactic odontotomy
d) All of the above are correct
ANSWER: C) Prophylactic odontotomy
64.
When a treatment plan is formulated, what should be
performed first?
a) Toothbrush instruction, initiate fluoride therapy
b) Restoration of tooth with deep carious lesion
c) Extraction of exfoliating tooth giving some discomfort to patient
d) Treatment of tooth with buccal parulis
ANSWER: A) Toothbrush instruction, initiate fluoride therapy
65.
How do hypoplastic defects of enamel appear
radiographically?
a) Radiolucent
b) Radiopaque
c) Sclerotic
d) Indistinguishable from sound enamel
e) Sometimes radiopaque and sometimes radiolucent
ANSWER: A) Radiolucent
66.
How should the interpretation of a full mouth
radiographic survey begin?
a) search for caries
b) assess the trabecular pattern of bone
c) examination of the periodontal ligament space
d) count the teeth
e) note the alveolar bone height
ANSWER: B) assess the trabecular pattern of bone
67.
What information is not routinely collected at the time of
the first examination of a nine years old?
a) Mixed dentition analysis
b) Medical history
c) Classification of occlusion
d) Family history
ANSWER: A) Mixed dentition analysis
68.
Why is the oral route recommended for premedication of
children?
a) It is easiest to administer
b) Its effect is most predictable
c) It is usually a pleasant route

d) It is the quickest way to administer drug and antagonist

ANSWER: C) It is usually a pleasant route
69.
For which systemic condition is nitrous oxide-oxygen
sedation contraindicated?
a) Sickle cell anemia
b) asthma
c) congestive heart failure three months previously
d) mental retardation
e) none of the above are correct
ANSWER: E) none of the above are correct
70.
What type of drug is used to eliminate all sensation?
a) analgesics
b) narcotic
c) sedative
d) anesthetic
e) soporific
ANSWER: D) anesthetic
71.
What does etching of intact enamel with phosphoric acid
produce?
a) an increase in surface area
b) a decrease in surface area
c) no change in surface area
d) an increase in chemical bonding capabilities
e) a decrease in chemical bonding capabilities
ANSWER: A) an increase in surface area
72.
What is the ususal cause of failure of a pulpotomy that
employs calcium hydroxide in primary molars?
a) pulp fibrosis
b) pulp calcification
c) ankylosis
d) external resorption
e) internal resorption
ANSWER: E) internal resorption
73.
Which of the following medicaments have an antibacterial effect when applied to contaminated tooth tissue as part of a
therapeutic pulp procedure?
a) calcium hydroxide
b) zinc oxide-eugenol
c) formocresol
d) all of the above are correct

e) none of the above are correct

ANSWER: D) all of the above are correct
74.
What is the most frequent cause of failure in cases of
replantation?
a) pulp infection
b) pulp necrosis
c) external resorption
d) internal resorption
e) ankylosis
ANSWER: C) external resorption
75.
Which of the following areas of root fracture is least
conductive to a favourable prognosis?
a) apical third
b) middle third
c) cervical third
d) prognosis is equal in all cases provided the tooth remains vital
ANSWER: C) cervical third
76.
Prophylactic antibiotic coverage, prior to oral surgery,
for a child with a history of rheumatic fever is a precaution against:
a) Anaphylactic reactions
b) Bacterial endocarditis
c) Moniliasis
d) Glomerular nephritis
ANSWER: B) Bacterial endocarditis
77.
What is a suitable alternative antibiotic when a child is
sensitive to penicillin?
a) Tetracyclime
b) Erythromycin
c) Sulphanilamide
d) Ampicillin
ANSWER: B) Erythromycin
78.
What unfavourable oral sequel is associated with
prolonged use of antibiotics in children?
a) Aphthous ulcers
b) Acute necrotizing gingivitis
c) Noma
d) Moniliasis
ANSWER: D) Moniliasis

79.
The usual reason for failures in maintaining adequate
plaque removal is inadequate patient:
a) Education
b) Skill and dexterity
c)Training
d) Recalls
e) Motivation
ANSWER: E) Motivation
80.
Which of the listed surgical procedures should be
performed first in sequencing treatment of periodontal disease?
a) Mucogingival surgery
b) Gingivoplasty
c) Infrabony pocket therapy
d) Apically repositioned flap
e) Gingivectomy
ANSWER: C) Infrabony pocket therapy
81.
Which of the following osseous procedure is least likely
to be successful in resolving a periodontally related osseous defect?
a) Osseous coagulum graft
b) Osseous resection
c) Bone swedging
d) Reattachment procedure
e) Iliac crest marrow graft
ANSWER: D) Reattachment procedure
82.
Indicate whether following statement are true or false.
Trauma from occlusion usually causes apical proliferation of the
epithelial
attachment. This is predisposing to bone loss of the
horizontal type.
ANSWER: BOTH STATEMENT ARE FALSE
83.
The significance of a restoration with an interproximal
overhang as an etiological agent in periodontal disease has to do
mainly with its role as a:
a) plaque retaining area
b) nondeflecting tooth surface
c) mechanical irregularity
d) tooth surface that is overcontoured
e) means of encroachment on the interproximal gingival fibers
ANSWER: A) plaque retaining area

84.
The primary objective of a free graft or pedicle graft
when recession has produced 5mm or more of exposed root on the
labial surface of a mandibular incisor is to:
a) improve esthetic by restoring the gingiva in the esxposed area
b) deepen the vestibule to enhance toothbrushing
c) create an adequate band of attached gingival
d) correct undesired frenum pull
e) all of the above are correct
ANSWER: C) create an adequate band of attached gingival
85.
Gingivectomy is usually the indicated procedure if
surgery is to be used to re-establish proper contours when which of the
following are present?
1.infrabony pockets
2.dilantin hyperplasia
3.clefts involving alveolar mucosa
4.pseudopocket
5.suprabony pocket
a) 2 and 5
b) 1,2,and 3
c) 3,4 and 5
d) 2,4,and 5
e) 2,3,and 4
ANSWER: D) 2,4, and 5
86.
Healing of periodontal lesions may be retarded by which
of the following?
a) protein deficiency
b) vitamin C deficieny
c) vitamin A deficiency
d) administration of steroids
e) all of the above are correct
ANSWER: E) all of the above are correct
87.

Which of the following contribute to calculus formation?

1.effectiveness and efficiency of oral hygiene
2.the nature of the diet
3.masticatory habits
4.the oral flora
5. quantity and quality of saliva
6. position and shape of teeth
a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b) 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

c) 3, 4, 5, 6
d) 1, 3, 5, 6
e) all of the above are correct
ANSWER: E) all of the above are correct
88.
Gutta-percha has an advantage over silver cones as a
filling, material in that it is more:
a) radiopaque
b) easily standardized in size
c) capable of filling narrow canals
d) plastic, and thus requires no cement
e) compatible with dowel post preparations
ANSWER: E) compatible with dowel post preparations
89.

A typical surgical flap for endodontics:

a) should not extend for more than half of a tooth on either side
b) should be of the split flap variety
c) should elevate the mucoperiosteum as one tissue
d) would best be made with an electrosurg unit
e) should be replaced with uninterrupted sutures
ANSWER: C) should elevate the mucoperiosteum as one
tissue

90.
In order to achieve a proper root canal preparation, one
should:
a) maintain the natural apical constriction
b) flare the body of the canal to exceed the taper of the gutta-percha
cone
c) allow for adequate access and widening of the orifice to allow the
spreader to reach the apical third of the canal
d) all of the above are correct
ANSWER: D) all of the above are correct
91.
which one of the following is not a requirement of an
ideal root canal filing material:
a) It should be easily introduced into a root canal
b) it should seal the canal laterally as well as apically
c) it should be bacteriostatic
d) it should be inexpensive
e) it should be able to be removed easily
ANSWER: D) it should be inexpensive
92.
EDTA, which is the active ingredient in RC prep, has as
its principal action the:
a) decalcification of dentin

b) dissolution of necrotic debris

c) lubrication of the canal during instrumentation
d) all of the above are correct
ANSWER: A) decalcification of dentin
93.
During the maturation phase of incisional wound
healing:
a) fibroblasts and epithelial cells are mobilized
b) collagen, mucopolysaccharides, and glycoproteins are synthesized
c) tensile strength increases
d) none of the above are correct
ANSWER: C) tensile strength increases
94.
In the healing of incisional wounds, the wound edges are
held together during the initial phase by:
a) collagen
b) mucopolysaccharides
c) fibrin and epithelial cells
d) all of the above are correct
ANSWER: C) fibrin and epithelial cells
95.
if the mesiobuccal root of a maxillary molar has an
extreme distal curvature, the principle of directional filling dictates that
most of the filling be:
a) on the mesial root surface
b) on the distal root surface
c) distributed equally on all surfaces
d) on the buccal and lingual root surfaces only
ANSWER: A) on the mesial root surface
96.
Of the following, the agent that is responsible for
transmitting an impulse through a nerve when it is stimulated is:
a) acetylocholine
b) bradykinin
c) cholinesterase
d) 5-hydroxytryptamine
ANSWER: A) acetylocholine
97.
Which one of the following characteristics most
accurately describes the function of plasma cells?
a) phagocytic
b) motile
c) reproductive
d) antibody-producing
ANSWER: D) antibody-producing

98.
Which of the following maybe considered pulpal irritants
when applied to freshly cut dentin?
a) alcohol
b) phenol
c) silver nitrate
d) drying cavity prep with air
e) all of the above are correct
ANSWER: E) all of the above are correct
99.
Endodontic cement
a) Is referred to as sealer
b) Is essentially zinc oxide eugenol
c) Fills variations not filled by gutta-percha
d) All of the above are correct
ANSWER: D) All of the above are correct
100. The characteristics of pulpotomy include which of the following?
a) degree of success is excellent
b) degree of success is good
c) degree of success is predictable
d) degree of success is very unpredictable
ANSWER: D) degree of success is very unpredictable