CH 9 Foundations of Group Behavior

Essentials of Organizational Behavior, 10e (Robbins/Judge)
Chapter 9 Foundations of Group Behavior

1) Which one of the following characteristics is not necessarily true about groups?
A) Group members are interdependent.
B) Groups have two or more members.
C) Groups have externally assigned goals.
D) Groups interact.
E) Members come together to achieve particular objectives.
2) What sort of groups is defined by the organization's structure?
A) informal
B) task
C) friendship
D) interest
E) formal
3) An elementary school principal and her 18 teachers form a(n) ________.
A) informal group
B) friendship group
C) command group
D) interest group
E) normative group
4) When do informal groups appear?
A) in response to the need for social contact
B) in reaction to formal groups
C) as a result of social needs
D) most frequently in bureaucracies
E) when formal groups cannot meet their goals
5) Julia, Bree and David work in different departments, but often eat lunch together. They are an
example of what type of group?
A) formal
B) informal
C) command
D) task
E) reactant
6) Which of the following statements is true?
A) All task groups are also informal groups.
B) All command groups are also task groups.
C) All task groups are also friendship groups.
D) All command groups are also informal groups.
E) All informal groups are also command groups.
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Copyright 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. Publishing as Prentice Hall
7) The group type that is determined by the organization chart is the ________ group.
A) job
B) work
C) authority
D) social
E) command
8) Which one of the following group types is organizationally determined?
A) job
B) task
C) interest
D) authority
E) social
9) A group that develops outside of work to support a local sports team is an example of what
sort of group?
A) booster
B) interest
C) friendship
D) sports
E) miscreant
10) Employees who band together to seek improved working conditions form a(n) ________
group.
A) union
B) support
C) interest
D) work
E) emancipated
11) Which of the following statements most accurately describes interest groups?
A) They are longer lasting than friendship groups.
B) They develop because individual members have one or more common characteristics.
C) They are formed to achieve some common objective with which each member is concerned.
D) They are governed by labor laws.
E) They are likely to involve great social conflict.
12) Which of the following is not one of the most common reasons people join groups?
A) security
B) status
C) equity
D) power
E) goal achievement
13) A group that is determined by the organization chart and composed of the individuals who
report directly to a given manager is known as a(n) ________.
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A) task group
B) command group
C) friendship group
D) interest group
E) informal group
14) A group that is organizationally determined, but that can cross command relationships is
known as a(n) ________.
A) task group
B) command group
C) friendship group
D) interest group
E) informal group
15) Which of the following is true?
A) All groups provide the same benefits to their members.
B) Different groups provide different benefits to their members.
C) Different groups provide the same benefits to their members.
D) Group members seldom reap any benefits from their membership.
E) all of the above
16) When group members "test the waters" to determine what behaviors are acceptable, they are
most likely in which stage of group development?
A) forming
B) storming
C) norming
D) performing
17) John's group has developed a strong sense of group identity and has assimilated a common
set of expectations defining appropriate member behavior. John's group has most likely
completed which stage of group development?
A) forming
B) storming
C) norming
D) performing
18) Which of the following is NOT one of the five stages of the group development model?
A) forming
B) storming
C) joining
D) adjourning
19) The curriculum committee members are resisting some of the newly created policies and are
in conflict over who will chair the committee. They are most likely in which stage of group
development?
A) forming
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B) storming
C) norming
D) adjourning
20) For permanent work groups, which is the last stage in the group's development?
A) forming
B) storming
C) norming
D) performing
21) Which of the following statements is true concerning the five stage group development
model?
A) Stage IV (performing) is always the most preferable.
B) Several stages can go on simultaneously.
C) Groups in Stage III will outperform those in Stage II.
D) Groups proceed clearly from one stage to the next sequentially.
22) What term is used for a set of expected behavior patterns associated with a particular position
in a social unit?
A) role
B) role perception
C) role identity
D) role expectation
E) identity
23) Our view of how we are supposed to act in a given situation is
A) role identity.
B) role ambiguity.
C) role expectation.
D) role perception.
E) role conflict.
24) When Judith became a doctor she modeled her manner on her observations of more
experienced doctors, and also on the behavior of doctors in medical dramas she had enjoyed
watching as a child on TV. What is Judith modeling her manner upon?
A) the role behaviors of doctors
B) her role perception of doctors
C) the role identity of doctors
D) her role expectation of doctors
E) the core role actions of doctors
25) Which of the following is true of role identity?
A) Role perception creates the attitudes and actual behaviors consistent with a role.
B) People have the ability to shift roles rapidly when the situation requires change.
C) There is considerable inertia in role identity after roles are changed.
D) Everyone is required to play one specific role in every situation.
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E) No two people ever agree on what constitutes a role.

26) Several years ago you began a small retail store to sell computer parts. The store grew and
the business expanded to offer computer repair and custom programming. You have noticed that
people have definite expectations about what their appropriate roles within the expanding
company should be. You can help the people in the company understand their roles and the roles
of other people by explaining some common facts about roles. Which of the following is not
true?
A) Each person will be expected to play a number of diverse roles.
B) Most people have the ability to shift roles rapidly when they recognize that the situation and
its demands require major changes.
C) Role perception is how people believe others are expected to act in their given roles.
D) It may be helpful for them to view role expectations through the perspective of a
psychological contract.
E) People can be flexible in the roles that they play.
27) John is expected to help customers in the retail store as well as perform computer repair
work. He feels that every time he gets started on a repair, he is interrupted and doesn't know
whether to finish his repair or wait on the customer. John suffers from role ________.
A) conflict
B) expectations
C) perception
D) identity
E) duality
28) Most people assume that a police officer should behave in a lawful manner, and not show
any favoritism to any particular group, and do their best to uphold the law. What term is used for
this kind of belief?
A) a norm
B) a norm identity
C) a role expectation
D) a role perception
E) a norm violation
29) Zach is devout and very active in his church. He is also a very dedicated employee. His
manager offers him a promotion but the new role will require him to work Sundays. Zach would
like the promotion, but realizes that it would force him to miss some church activities. It is likely
that Zach is experiencing which of the following?
A) role conflict
B) role expectation
C) role perception
D) psychological conflict
E) cognitive reactance
30) Zimbardo's experiment at Stanford University demonstrated which of the following?
A) Individuals will often do anything as long as it's consistent with their role identity.
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B) Roles are defined by external authority figures.

C) Divergent role expectations create role conflict.
D) All groups have established norms.
E) People will conform even when they know they are wrong.
31) What term is used for acceptable standards of behavior that are shared by a group's
members?
A) norms
B) rules
C) standards
D) codes of behavior
E) explicit contracts
32) Which of the following is an example of a performance norm?
A) how hard group members should work
B) how the job should be performed
C) how much tardiness is appropriate
D) all of the above
33) Which of the following is not a finding of the Hawthorne studies?
A) A worker's behavior and sentiments are closely related.
B) Group standards are highly effective in establishing individual worker output.
C) Money was less a factor in determining worker output than were group standards, sentiments,
and security.
D) Competition between groups will maximize group output.
E) Group influences are significant in affecting individual behavior.
34) The Hawthorne researchers began by examining
A) the relation between the physical environment and productivity.
B) the role of money in determining worker output.
C) the role of group standards in determining worker output.
D) Mayo's research at Harvard.
E) the bank wiring group.
35) What is the most often cited finding of the Hawthorne studies?.
A) A group's performance is significantly affected by being observed.
B) Increases in illumination increase productivity.
C) Role identities often lead to role expectations.
D) Cohesive groups always perform at high levels.
E) Groups are gentle and subtle when enforcing their norms with their members.
36) In the follow-up portion of the Hawthorne studies with the bank wiring group, interviews
determined that the group was operating well below its capability. Members were afraid that if
they significantly increased their output,
A) the unit incentive rate would be cut.
B) the expected daily output will be increased.
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C) layoffs might occur.

D) slower workers will be reprimanded.
E) all of the above
37) What term is used for the process by which an individual's desire for acceptance by the group
and the pressure by the group on individual members to match its standards results in a change in
individual attitudes and behaviors?
A) conformity
B) coercion
C) commitment
D) convergence
E) confluence
38) The important groups to which people belong or hope to belong are known as
A) conformist groups.
B) status groups.
C) reference groups.
D) command groups.
E) nonconformist groups.
40) The major contribution of the Asch study was to demonstrate the impact of ________.
A) group norms pressing us toward conformity
B) how seating arrangements create conformity
C) convergence
D) status
E) cognitive dissonance
42) What term is used for antisocial actions by organizational members who voluntarily violate
significant norms and that result in negative consequences for the organization, its members, or
both?
A) ethical dilemmas
B) deviant workplace behavior
C) abnormal behavior
D) discommitment behavior
E) reactive affirmation behavior
44) Sally works as a salesperson in a department store. Whenever a customer asks for an item
that is in stock but not on display, she usually tells them that the product is out of stock. "It's a
pain going into the stock-room to find an item," says Sally "Nobody in my department ever tells
a customer the truth about what is in stock." This example illustrates which of the following facts
about deviant workplace behavior?
A) Deviant workplace behavior will arise when tasks that an employee is supposed to perform
are unpleasant or difficult.
B) Most workers do not consider lying to a customer be deviant workplace behavior.
C) Workers will lie to customers as long as the customers do not complain about it.
D) Deviant workplace behavior flourishes where it's supported by group norms.
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E) Groups will come to their own conclusions about what is and isn't appropriate.
45) Which of the following is NOT considered a deviant workplace behavior?
A) leaving early
B) lying about hours worked
C) gossiping and spreading rumors
D) blaming coworkers
E) helping a co-worker complete a project
46) A recent study suggested that individuals working in a group were more likely to lie, cheat,
and steal than those working alone. This may be due to the fact that
A) it's easier to steal in numbers.
B) groups provide a shield of anonymity.
C) conformity is not critical with deviant behaviors.
D) it's easier to rationalize deviant behavior than appropriate work behaviors in groups.
47) What term is used for the socially defined position or rank given to groups or group members
by others?
A) regency
B) authority
C) status
D) command
E) magnus
48) Which of the following people are likely to have low status in a group?
A) people who can allocate resources
B) a group's formal leader
C) people whose contributions are critical to the group's success
D) people who have little control over the group's outcomes
E) the outstanding performers
49) People who control the outcomes of a group through their power tend to be perceived as
________.
A) high conformists
B) deviants
C) high status
D) low status
E) highly anonymous
50) Which of the following statements about status is not true?
A) Status is an important motivator.
B) Possession of personal characteristics that are positively valued by the group will give a
member higher status.
C) Low-status members are given more freedom to deviate from norms than are other members.
D) High-status members are better able to resist conformity pressures than lower status members.
E) Conformity is affected by status.
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51) Low-status people ________.

A) speak out more often
B) criticize more often
C) are not likely to be fully utilized
D) interrupt others more
E) state more commands
52) High-status people tend to ________.
A) be more assertive
B) assist more
C) be more reflective
D) have superior insight
E) be well liked
54) If your group is engaged in problem solving, which of the following is likely to be the most
effective group size?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
E) 7
55) What term is used for the tendency for individuals to spend less effort when working
collectively than when working individually?
A) groupthink
B) the rule of diminishing returns
C) social loafing
D) groupshift
E) clustering
56) Which of the following is an effective means of countering social loafing?
A) Increase the rewards the group is given if it succeeds.
B) Increase the amount by which the group's progress is monitored.
C) Provide means by which individual efforts can be identified.
D) Increase the size of the group.
E) Increase the group's workload.
57) Joe is restructuring departments and is creating teams to increase the effectiveness of his
departments. Joe remembers that he has learned in an OB course that ________.
A) small groups are good for developing ideas
B) large groups are better at taking action
C) social loafing is the tendency for individuals to expend less effort when working collectively
D) team spirit always spurs individual effort and enhances the group's overall productivity
E) groups composed of all men or all women are the most effective groups, in general
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60) Social loafing may be attributed to ________.

A) the rise of Internet usage
B) the fact that efficiency declines when individuals think that their contributions cannot be
measured.
C) synergy
D) the more members, the greater the total productivity
E) accountability is obvious
61) All of the following are ways to prevent social loafing EXCEPT
A) Set group goals so the group has a common purpose to strive toward.
B) Increase intergroup competition.
C) Engage in peer evaluation to evaluate each member's contribution to the group.
D) Ensure the group results cannot be attributed to any single person.
62) What term is used for the degree to which group members are attracted to one another and
are motivated to stay in the group?
A) cohesiveness
B) integration
C) sociability
D) reliability
E) interdependence
63) The relationship of cohesiveness and productivity depends on which norms established by
the group?
A) status-related
B) decision-making
C) performance-related
D) conformity-related
E) cohesiveness
64) Which of the following is not likely to increase group cohesiveness?
A) increasing the group size
B) members spending a lot of time together
C) competition with other groups is increased
D) the group is physically isolated
E) providing group rewards
65) What will happen if group cohesiveness is high and performance norms are low?
A) Internal conflict will be high.
B) Internal conflict will be low.
C) Productivity will be high.
D) Productivity will be low.
E) It will have little effect on internal conflict or productivity.
66) Group decisions are generally preferable to individual decisions when which of the following
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is sought.
A) acceptance of the solution
B) speed
C) efficiency
D) clear responsibility
E) a conjunctive solution
67) Which is not a weakness of group decision making?
A) It is time consuming.
B) There is less originality.
C) It suffers from ambiguous responsibility.
D) It can be dominated by one or a few members.
E) It's not clear who is accountable for bad decisions.
68) Individual decisions are generally preferable to group decisions when which of the following
is sought?
A) speed
B) creativity
C) acceptance
D) quality
E) broad unanimity
69) Your organization is considering the use of team decision making. You have read the
literature on decision making and are trying to inform your manager about the advantages and
disadvantages of group decision making. You should expect to find that ________.
A) group decision making will be faster
B) group discussions will be shared equally
C) there will be increased acceptance of the decision with group decision-making
D) group decision making will be very costly
E) groups will find reaching a decision to require less effort than individuals
disadvantages of group decision making. You should expect a weakness of group decision
making to be ________.
A) less complete knowledge
B) more time will be used to make the decision
C) employees will be less accepting of the group decision
D) the decision will probably be a lower-quality decision
E) decreased risky shift
71) What is generally the result of groupthink?
A) higher-quality decisions
B) more risky decisions
C) less critical analysis
D) unpopular decisions
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E) social reification
72) Which of the following is a phenomenon in which group pressures for conformity deter the
group from critically appraising unusual, minority, or unpopular views?
A) group conformity
B) groupshift
C) groupthink
D) compromise
E) risk transfer
73) Groups tend to be more effective than individuals if
A) creativity is important.
B) speed is important.
C) acceptance is not needed.
D) efficiency is critical.
E) all of the above
disadvantages of group decision making. You have observed that the group tends to come to
consensus very quickly and you know that the group is very cohesive. You conclude that they
may be suffering from ________.
A) inefficiency syndrome
B) groupshift
C) disintegrating norms
D) groupthink
E) risky shift
75) Which of the following is NOT a symptom of groupthink?
A) Group members rationalize any resistance to the assumptions they have made.
B) Members apply direct pressures on those who express doubts about the group's shared views.
C) Members who have doubts keep silent about misgivings.
D) There is a shift toward risky decisions.
E) There appears to be an illusion of unanimity.
77) Which of the following can minimize groupthink?
A) Significantly increase the size of the group to more than ten.
B) Managers/leaders should seek input from all group members.
C) Managers/leaders should openly express their own opinion.
D) Avoid appointing anyone to offer divergent perspectives.
E) Develop a group mission statement.
78) What result does groupshift generally have on the decisions a group makes?
A) They are made by groups rather than individuals.
B) They are generally riskier.
C) They are made more quickly.
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D) They are less effective.

E) They are objectively incorrect.
79) Which of the following is not an explanation for the phenomenon of groupshift?
A) Discussion creates familiarization among members.
B) Most developed nations value risk.
C) The group leader usually gets the credit or blame for the group action.
D) The group diffuses responsibility.
E) People willing to take risks are admired.
80) Which of the following is likely to generate the most pressure for members to conform to
opinions?
A) face-to-face interacting groups
B) brainstorming
C) Delphi technique
D) nominal group technique
E) electronic meeting
81) What is brainstorming?
A) a technique used to build group cohesiveness
B) a technique that tends to restrict independent thinking
C) a process for generating ideas that withholds criticism
D) a process used mainly when group members cannot agree on a solution
E) the most effective means of generating answers
82) Which of the following techniques most restricts discussion or interpersonal communication
during the decision-making process?
A) groupthink
B) nominal group
C) brainstorm
D) electronic meeting
E) formal process
83) What sort of group should you avoid if you want to minimize interpersonal conflict?
A) interacting
B) brainstorming
C) nominal
D) electronic
E) social
85) In the early stages of a group, diversity
A) leads to increased group conflict.
B) improves group morale.
C) increases group members' satisfaction with their groups.
D) creates more cohesiveness
E) occurs only when there is homogenous group membership.
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86) Groups may be classified as either formal or informal.

Answer: TRUE
87) A group must have at least two members and one or more objectives.
Answer: TRUE
88) Members in a group are interdependent.
Answer: TRUE
89) The tasks in groups within an organization must be directed toward organizational goals.
Answer: FALSE
90) Command and task groups are dictated by the formal organization whereas interest and
friendship groups are not.
Answer: TRUE
91) All task groups are also command groups.
Answer: FALSE
92) A command group is composed of the individuals who report directly to a given manager.
Answer: TRUE
93) Whereas command groups are determined by the organization chart, task, and interests;
friendship groups instead develop because of the necessity to satisfy one's work needs.
Answer: FALSE
94) There is no single reason why individuals join groups.
Answer: TRUE
95) Different groups provide different benefits to their members.
Answer: TRUE
96) The forming stage of group development is one of intragroup conflict.
Answer: FALSE
97) When group members are "testing the waters" to determine what behaviors are acceptable,
they are most likely in the forming stage of group development.
Answer: TRUE
98) When the group prepares for its disbandment, it is in the adjourning stage.
Answer: TRUE
99) For permanent work groups, performing is the last stage in the group's development.
Answer: TRUE
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100) Work groups have a structure that shapes the behavior of members and makes it possible to
explain and predict a large portion of individual behavior within the group as well as the
performance of the group itself.
Answer: TRUE
101) People generally cannot shift roles quickly.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 115
Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness
102) Our perceptions of roles are generally formed early in our lives and remain stable.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 115
103) We all are usually required to play one role and our behavior stabilizes with that role.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 115
104) One's view of how one is supposed to act in a given situation is a role perception.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 115
105) When an individual is confronted by divergent role expectations, the result is role
divergence.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 115
106) Norms tell members what they ought and ought not to do under certain circumstances.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 116
107) Only some groups have established norms.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 116
108) The Hawthorne studies provide strong evidence for the power of norms over group
members.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 116
109) One conclusion of the Hawthorne studies was that worker output was highly effective in
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establishing group standards.

Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 116-117
110) If group acceptance were not important to you, the need to conform to the group's norms
would decrease.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 117
AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills
111) Conformity is the degree to which members are attracted to each other and are motivated to
stay in the group.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 117
112) "Don't be a chiseler" is one example of norms the group established in the Hawthorne
studies.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 117
113) Evidence indicates that Asch's findings about group conformity are culture bound.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 117-118
AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding
114) Deviant workplace behavior covers a wide range of antisocial actions by organizational
members that intentionally violate established norms.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 118
115) Individuals working in a group are less likely to lie, cheat, and steal as a result of peer
pressure.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 119
116) A good looking person may have higher status in a group if good looks are positively valued
by the group.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 120
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117) High-status members of groups are given less freedom to deviate from norms than other
group members.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 120
118) Social loafing is the tendency for individuals to expend less energy when working
individually than when working collectively.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 121
119) If the goal is problem solving, smaller groups are more effective than larger ones.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 121
120) Ringelmann's research found that groups can generate more output than the sum of the
individuals.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 121
121) Social loafing may be caused by the concentration of responsibility.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 121
122) As group performance increases with group size, the addition of new members to the group
has positive returns on productivity.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 121
123) Physically isolating a group will make it more cohesive.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 122
AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills
124) Giving rewards to individuals in a group will generally increase cohesiveness.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 122
17
125) Groups generally generate more complete information.

Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 122
Topic: Group Decision Making
126) Group decisions are more likely to be accepted than individual decisions.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 123
127) Individual decisions are more time consuming than group decisions.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 123
128) If a low-to-medium ability person dominates the group, the group's overall effectiveness
will suffer.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 123
129) Individual decisions tend to be more creative than group decisions.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 123
130) If you become so enamored with seeking concurrence in your group that it overrides the
critical appraisal of alternative courses of action, you may be experiencing groupthink.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 123
AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills
131) Groupthink improves group performance.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 123
132) The Challenger space shuttle disaster was an example of groupshift.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 124
133) To minimize groupthink, managers should consider appointing a member to play the role of
devil's advocate.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 124
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134) Groupshift can cause groups to make more risky decisions.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 125
135) Brainstorming is meant to overcome pressures for conformity.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 125
136) "Production blocking" impedes the sharing of ideas and can lead to groupshift.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 125
137) Brainstorming generates ideas in an extremely efficient manner.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 125
138) Research has shown that brainstorming groups consistently outperform nominal groups.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 126
Topic: Global Implications
139) Social loafing appears to have a Western bias; it is consistent with individualistic cultures
and is not consistent with collectivist societies.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 126
140) The importance of status is consistent from culture to culture.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 126
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CH 9 Foundations of Group Behavior

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CH 9 Foundations of Group Behavior

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Essentials of Organizational Behavior, 10e (Robbins/Judge)

Chapter 9 Foundations of Group Behavior

E) No two people ever agree on what constitutes a role.

B) Roles are defined by external authority figures.

C) layoffs might occur.

51) Low-status people ________.

60) Social loafing may be attributed to ________.

D) They are less effective.

86) Groups may be classified as either formal or informal.

establishing group standards.

AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills

125) Groups generally generate more complete information.

Topic: Group Decision Making

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