SHA-SHIB AEROSPACE ENGINEERING

Metallurgy- (1)
Q1.
Q2.
Q3.
Q4.
Q5.
Q6.
Q7.
Q8.
Q9.

(a)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(a)

(a)
Q10.
(a)
Q11.
(a)
Q12.
black
(a)
Q13.
(a)
Q14.
(a)

Hardness is closely related to which other property of metal:

Tackiness
(b) Brittleness (c) Ductility (d) Malleability
Property of a metal that is directly opposite to brittleness:
Density
(b) Elasticity (c) Ductility (d) Malleability
Aluminum alloys fuse at a temperature of:
2500 C
(b) 2500 F
(c) 1100 C
(d) 1100 F
For relieving internal strains in a metal procedure applied is:
Annealing
(b) (a)+Normalizing (c) (b)+ Quenching (d) (c)+ Tempering
Drawing is synonymous to:
Annealing
(b) Normalizing
(c) Quenching
(d) Tempering
Carburizing is best performed on steel containing:
0.025%
(b)0.25%
(c) 2.5%
(d) 25%
Deformation caused by a metal is known as:
Strain
(b) Stress
(c) Fatigue
(d) Creep
The law of proportionality between stress and strain is known as:
Creep Law
(b) Murphy Law
(c) Hooke Law
(d) Boyle Law
The stress at which a material exhibits a specified elongation:
Tensile Stress (b) Elastic Limit
(c) Proof-Stress
(d) Yield Strength
Modulus of Elasticity of magnesium is:
10, 00, 000 lb psi
(b) 6, 500,000 lb psi (c) 10, 000, 000 lb psi
(d) 25, 000, 000 lb psi
In Brinell hardness testing load applied for Bronze is:
3000 kg
(b) 2000kg
(c) 500kg
(d) 6600kg
(i) Scale B, Ball Penetrator (1/16), 100g Load, dial red
(ii) Scale C, Diamond Penetrator, 150g Load, dial

Only (i) is correct

(b) Only (ii) is correct
(c) (i) + (ii) correct (d) (i) + (ii) incorrect
The useful range for the C Scale is
C-0
(b) C-10
(c) C-20
(d) C-100
True Hardness of curved surface with radii (3/16) can be obtained by
Brinell Hardness
(b) Rockwell Hardness
(c) Vickers Hardness (d) Shore Scleroscope
Hardness
Q15. When drilling stainless steel, use a.
(a) drill ground to 120 , slow cutting speed.
(b)
drill ground to 90 , fast cutting speed.
(c). drill ground to 90 , slow cutting speed.
Q16. How is a material galvanised?.
(a).
Sprayed with nickel solution.(b).
Packed in a drum containing zinc dust and heated.
(c).
Dipped in a bath of molten zinc.
Q17. What temperature would steel be tempered at?.
(a).
At the annealing temperature.
(b).
Above the annealing temperature. (c).
Below the annealing
temperature.
Q18. Tempering steel gives.
(a).
greater brittleness. (b).
greater hardness.
(c).
relief of internal stress after hardening.
Q19. The addition of chromium to steel will produce.
(a).
toughness.
(b).
hardness.
(c).
ductility.
Q20. Chromium added to plain carbon steel.
(a).
increases it's resistance to corrosion.
(b).
turns it into a non-ferrous alloy
(c).
makes the metal softer.
Q21
The purpose of case hardening is to.
(a).
produce a hard case over a tough core.
(b).
reduce the carbon in the steel. (c). introduce carbon
into the steel.
Q22
At normal temperatures HC steel is harder because.
(a).
it has more austenite.
(b).
of the % of carbon in the granules. (c).
it has less austenite.
Q23
Nitriding is.
(a).
tempering.
(b).
anodising.
(c).
case hardening.
Q24
Medium carbon steels have a carbon content of.
(a).
0.3 - 0.5 %. (b).
0.5 - 0.8 %. (c).
0.8 - 1.05 %.
Q25
A ferrous metal contains.
(a).
aluminium.
(b).
iron.
(c).
magnesium.
Q26
With respect to ferrous metals which of the following is true?.
(a).
Iron is not any element of ferrous metals. (b).
Iron is a main element and most ferrous metal are
magnetic.
(c).
Iron is a main element and ferrous metals are not magnetic.

Q27
The annealing process on steel is required sometimes as it.
(a).
provides a corrosion resistant layer that prevents oxidation.
(b).
allows the material a greater
stress per unit area.
(c).
relieves internal stress suffered after engineering processes.
Q28
Cobalt steel tested on the Brinell test would have a BHN number between.
(a).
100 to 175. (b).
300 to 400. (c).
600 to 700.
Q29
If a material is found to be in the tertiary phase of creep the following procedure should be implemented:.
(a).
The component should under go dye penetrant process and condition monitored.
(b).
The crack should be stop drill, condition monitoring should be applied. (c).
The component should be
replaced immediately.
Q30
What is used for marking out steels?.
(a).
Engineers blue.
(b).
Wax crayon. (c).
Copper sulphate.
Q31
Phosphating of steels is carried out by immersing the steel in to a solution of.
(a).
phosphoric acid and metal phosphates.
(b).
nitric acid and sulphur.
(c).
metal phosphates
and sulphuric acid.
Q32
Tempering entails.
(a).
heating under the UCP and slow cooling. (b).
heating over the UCP and fast cooling.
(c).
heating over the UCP and slow cooling.
Q33
Austenitic stainless steels are.
(a).
magnetic.
(b).
non-magnetic.
(c).
hardened by heat treatment.
Q34
The formation of steel depends upon.
(a).
the formation of pearlite into austenite.
(b).
the formation of austenite into pearlite.
(c).
the presence of pearlite in the structure.
Q35
How is residual magnetism removed after an NDT examination?.
(a).
EMI. (b).
EMC. (c).
Degaussing.
Q36
The hardness of steel depends upon.
(a).
formation of pearlite into austenite. (b).
formation of cementite.
(c).the iron austenite grain
structure.
Q37
The difference between annealing and normalizing is.
(a).
both are heated above the UCT, cool slowly to anneal, cool in air to normalize.
(b).
both are heated below the UCT, cool in air to anneal, cool slowly to normalize.
(c).
both are heated above the UCT, cool in air to anneal, cool slowly to normalize.
Q38
Normalizing of steel is done to.
(a).
remove residual stress of the manufacturing process.
(b).
make steel softer. (c).
restore the
fatigue life of steel.
Q39
When normalising, the material is.
(a).
quenched immediately.
(b).
left to cool in room temperature.
(c).
cooled slowly.
Q40
Cast iron is.
(a).
very malleable.
(b).
tough.
(c).
heavy and brittle.
Q41
Case hardening can be carried out on.
(a).
titanium.
(b).
any ferrous metal.
(c).
duralumin.
Q42
Exhaust systems are usually made from stainless steel which is susceptible to.
(a).
surface corrosion.
(b).
filiform corrosion.
(c).
intergranular corrosion.
Q43
When metal is first heated slightly above its critical temperature and then cooled rapidly it is common
that metal will increase in.
(a).
brittleness.
(b).
both of the above.
(c).
hardness.
Q44
Steel is tempered.
(a).
after hardening.
(b).
before hardening.
(c).
to increase hardening.
Q45
If a steel component is operated below the fatigue limit. The fatigue life is.
(a).
finite.
(b).
infinite.
(c).
depend on its proof stress.
Q46
A low carbon steel would normally be case hardened using.
(a).
the nitriding process.
(b).
flame or induction hardening.
(c).
pack or gas carburising.
Q47
After a product has been manufactured and all heat treatment has been carried out the stress remaining
if any is termed as.
(a).
residual stress.
(b).
working stress.
(c).
applied stress.
Q48. Annealing steels.
(a).
toughens the metal. (b).
makes the metal malleable. (c).
makes the metal brittle.
Q49
Tempering of hardened steel is carried out to.
(a).
retain surface hardness, but soften the core.
(b).
retain core hardness, but soften the surface.
(c).
significantly reduce the brittleness without suffering a major drop in its strength.
Q50
High speed steel relies heavily on the following metallic element for its ability to cut other metals, even
when it is heated to a dull red colour.
(a).
Tungsten.
(b).
Nickel.
(c).
Vanadium.
Q51
When a low carbon steel bolt is stretched beyond its elastic limit without breaking, it will.

(a).
deform temporarily. (b).
become more ductile.
(c).
deform permanently.
Q52. 1% Nickel, 1% Carbon, steel is widely used for.
(a).
exhaust valves.
(b).
ball and roller bearings.
(c).
high tensile steel bolts.
Q53
Fatigue failure may be defined as.
(a).
failure caused by stress in excess of the material U.T.S.
(b).
failure due to impact.
(c).
reduction in strength due to alternating loads.
Q54
Normalising steels.
(a).
increases toughness. (b).
increases the hardness.
(c).
relieves the stresses.
Q55
Cast iron is.
(a).
tough.
(b).
heavy and brittle.
(c).
very malleable.
Q56
Austenitic steel is produced when the material is heated to.
(a).
above the Upper Critical Point.
(b).
above the Lower Critical Point.
(c).
below the Upper
Critical Point.
Q57
Steel is produced by refining pig iron where air/oxygen is blown through the molten material to remove.
(a).
carbon.
(b).
oxides.
(c).
sulphur.
Q58. During a Rockwell Hardness test, what dimension is measured?.
(a).
The diameter of the indent. (b).
The depth of the indent.
(c).
The diameter and depth of the
indent.
Q59
What does the 0 in 2024-T3 mean?.
(a).
The percentage of impurities in the alloy. (b).
The alloy has not been modified.
(c).
The alloy has
been modified.
Q60
In most aircraft hydraulic systems, two-piece tube connectors consisting of a sleeve and a nut are used
when a tubing flare is required. The use of this type of connector eliminates.
(a).
the flaring operation prior to assembly.
(b).
the possibility of reducing the flare thickness by wiping or ironing during the tightening process.
(c).
wrench damage to the tubing during the tightening process.
Q61. In the tensile strength test.
(a).
the material is pulled to limit of elasticity. (b).
the material is pulled to until it breaks.
(c).
the material is pulled until it reaches its UTS.
Q62. Impact resistance measures the.
(a).
material toughness. (b).
material hardness. (c).
material ductility.
Q63. Specified time of contact between the indentor and test piece in a vickers or brinell hardness test is.
(a).
20 seconds. (b).
10 seconds. (c).
15 seconds.
Q64. In an Izod impact test the striking energy of the striker is approximately.
(a).
150 J.
(b).
163 J.
(c).
300 J.
Q65. The Charpy test measures.
(a).
strain.
(b).
impact energy.
(c).
Young's modulus.
Q66. The 'Fatigue limit' for steel is generally in the region of, compared to the static U.T.S.
(a).
40%-60%.
(b).
60%-80%.
(c).
20%-40%.
Q67. The ability of mild steel to accept more load after the yield point is reached is due to.
(a).
necking.
(b).
strain hardening.
(c).
plasticisation.
Q68. What is a Rockwell tester used for?.
(a).
Hardness Testing.
(b).
Tensile Testing.
(c).
Fatigue Testing.
Q69. What type of test involves using a weighted pendulum to strike a material until fracture?.
(a).
Hardness Test.
(b).
Impact Resistance Test.
(c).
Fatigue Testing.
Q70
Which of the folllowing are all hardness testing machines?.
(a).
Rockwell, Brinell and Izod. (b).
Rockwell, Vickers and Izod. (c).
Rockwell, Brinell and Vickers.
Q71. The most suitable mixture for a salt bath operation is.
(a).
20% nitrate of soda and 80% sodium nitrate.
(b).
90% nitrate of soda and 10% sodium nitrate.
(c).
70% sodium chlorate and 30% sodium nitrate.
Q72. How many times can clad alloy be heat treated?.
(a).
Once only.
(b).
3 times.
(c).
as many times as required.
Q73. The symbol 'W' on a material indicates.
(a).
it is for use on aircraft mainplanes only.
(b).
it has been solution treated and will respond effectively to precipitation treatment.
(c).
it is for
workshop use only.
Q74. For a particular metal material, what conditions are best to minimise creep?.
(a).
Low stress, low temperature.
(b).
Low stress, high temperature.
(c).
High stress, low
temperature.
Q75
What is the effect of precipitation heat treatment on aluminium?.
(a).
It speeds up age hardening process.
(b).
It delays the age hardening process.
(c).
It softens the material to allow it to be worked.

Q76
Aluminium exposed to air will.
(a).
oxidise and become weaker. (b).
oxidise and become electrically insulated. (c).
oxidise and become
stronger.
Q77. What care should you take with 2024-T3?.
(a).
Do not scratch or make nicks in it. (b). Do not bend at sharp angles. (c).
Do not remove the surface
of the sheet metal.
Q78. Composition of silver solder is.
(a).
tin and lead.
(b).
tin, lead and silver. (c).
tin, lead, silver and antimony.
Q79. If aluminium alloy is not quenched within the minimum time allowed after heat treatment is it will be.
(a).
subject to corrosion. (b).
malleable.
(c).
brittle.
Q80
Anodizing protects alloy metal from corrosion and does what else?.
(a).
Seals the surface from moisture.
(b).
Makes a good surface for paint to adhere to. (c).Makes the
surface alkaline.
Q81
If caustic soda turns a material black what is it?.
(a).
Aluminium alloy.
(b).
Alclad. (c).
Aluminium.
Q82
What chemical is used to identify aluminium alloys?.
(a).
Caustic soda. (b).
Copper sulphate.
(c).
Nitric acid.
Q83. Pure aluminium is.
(a).
highly resistant to corrosion. (b).
not resistant to corrosion.
(c).
reasonably resistant to
corrosion.
Q84
Precipitation treating makes the metal.
(a).
Precipitation treating makes the metal.
(b).
less strong and hard. (c).
harder, stronger and less
ductile.
Q85
A material has the code 2024-TH6 on it. Which part of the code indicates the percentage of the alloying
element?.
(a).
H.
(b).
20.
(c).
6.
Q86. Aluminium alloyed primarily with magnesium is numbered.
(a).
2025. (b).
5025. (c).
1025.
Q87
Heat treatment is shown on a British aluminium alloy by a.
(a).
letter and number code.
(b).
number code. (c).
letter code
Q88
Non heat treatable materials.
(a).
cannot be hardened. (b).
can be hardened by strain hardening or cold working. (c).
can be
hardened by annealing.
Q89
Which of the following metals is an aluminium silicon alloy used mainly for casting?.
(a).
Alclad.
(b).
Aldrey.
(c).
Alpax.
Q90. Aircraft skin is joggled to.
(a).
provide smooth airflow at faying surfaces. (b).
make a frame lighter but stronger.
(c).
conform to the aircraft contour.
Q91
The British system of heat treatment codes is.
(a).
a series of letters.
(b).
numbers and letters. (c).
a series of numbers.
Q92. In a sheet metal store the following is marked on a sheet of aluminium alloy: L162 (sheet 1). , On a
different sheet the following marking is found: L172 (sheet 2). The following is true:
(a).
Sheet one has a shinier surface than sheet 2.
(b).
Sheet one is more ductile than sheet 2.
(c).
Sheet two is of a thicker gauge than sheet 1.
Q93. Cold working of a material is used to reduce.
(a).
material hardness. (b).
fatigue.
(c).
wear of manufacturing tools.
Q94
Sheet metal should be stored.
(a).
above 25 degrees centigrade.
(b).
on its edge in racks to prevent scratching.
(c).
stacked flat to prevent bending of sheets.
Q95
Clad aluminium alloy (alclad) has a pure aluminium coating of.
(a).
0.002.
(b).
1% of alloy thickness.
(c).
5% of alloy thickness.
Q96. The main metal in monel is.
(a).
aluminium.
(b).
nickel. (c).
stainless steel.
Q97
A tube complying to BS T51 is.
(a).
tungum.
(b).
HTS tube.
(c).
high pressure seamless copper tube.
Q98. Why is nickel chromium used in many exhaust systems?.
(a).
Corrosion resistant and high heat conductivity.
(b).
Lightweight and flexible.
(c).
Corrosion resistant and low expansion coefficient.
Q99
Titanium alloys.
(a).
are cheap to manufacture. (b).
have a high strength to weight ratio.
(c).
are corrosion resistant but heavy.
Q100. Which part of the 2017-T36 aluminium alloy designation indicates the primary alloying agent used in its
manufacture?.

(a).

20.

(b).

2.

(c).

17.

Q.
31.
Clad aluminium alloys are used in aircraft because they.
(a).
are harder wearing than unclad aluminium alloys.
(b).
are less subject to corrosion than uncoated aluminium alloys.
(c).
are stronger than unclad aluminium alloys.
Correct Answer is. are less subject to corrosion than uncoated aluminium alloys.
Explanation. NIL.
Q.
32.
Non heat treatable aluminium alloys.
(a).
can be hardened by strain hardening.
(b).
cannot be softened.
(c).
cannot be hardened.
Correct Answer is. can be hardened by strain hardening.
Explanation. NIL.
Q.
33.
Solution treatment after manufacturers have performed it once can be carried out a
further.
(a).
1 time.
(b).
2 times.
(c).
3 times.
Correct Answer is. 2 times.
Explanation. Solution treatment to Alclad can be carried out only 3 times in total. CAIPs BL/9-1. Rivets
can be re-heat treated 3 times (so 4 times in total) BL/6-27 6.3.
Q.
(a).
(b).

34.
Following solution treatment aluminium alloy can be placed into service.
after 5 days.
straight away.

(c).
after 24 hours.
Correct Answer is. after 5 days.
Explanation. Full hardness is achieved after 4-5 days. CAIPs BL/9-1 Para 7.
Q.
35.
The time between removal from heat treatment furnace and quenching must be not more
than.
(a).
3 seconds.
(b).
10 seconds.
(c).
7 seconds.
Correct Answer is. 10 seconds.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 2-9.
Q.
36.
When buffing surface of Aluminium Alloy, what material are you removing?.
(a).
Oxide layer.
(b).
Aluminium.
(c).
Alloy.
Correct Answer is. Oxide layer.
Explanation. Polishing al.alloy, pure al. or Alclad, you would be removing the oxide layer.
Q.
37.
Why is clad alloy preferred to pure Aluminium?.
(a).
Less brittle.
(b).
More ductile.
(c).
Tougher.
Correct Answer is. Tougher.
Explanation. The important factor is that clad aluminium alloy is 90% aluminium alloy. The fact that it
is clad is irrelevant.
Q.
38.
Why are aluminium alloys used on aircraft, instead of pure aluminium?.
(a).
Stronger.
(b).
Corrosion resistant.
(c).
Lighter.
Correct Answer is. Stronger.
Explanation. NIL.
Q.
39.
The magnesium alloys used in aircraft can be recognized by.
(a).
shiny surface due to chromium plated on the surface.
(b).
yellowish surface due to protective treatment.
(c).
silver surface due to protective coating.
Correct Answer is. yellowish surface due to protective treatment.
Explanation. NIL.
Q.
40.
Age hardening of aluminium is.
(a).
never carried out.
(b).
a gradual hardening over a period of time.
(c).
not necessary.
Correct Answer is. never carried out.
Explanation. Aluminium will not age harden like aluminium alloys such as dural as there ars no alloying
elements such as copper that will come out of solution over time.
Q.
(a).
(b).

41.
Alclad is.
aluminium with duralumin cladding.
duralumin with aluminium coating.

(c).
duralumin with magnesium cladding.
Correct Answer is. duralumin with aluminium coating.
Explanation. NIL.
Q.
42.
The oxide film on the surface of aluminium is.
(a).
hard and porous.
(b).
porous.
(c).
non porous.
Correct Answer is. non porous.
Explanation. NIL.
Q.
43.
The process of forming a pure layer of aluminium over an aluminium alloy is.
(a).
metalizing.
(b).
cladding.
(c).
electroplating.
Correct Answer is. cladding.
Explanation. NIL.
Q.
44.
Titanium can be identified by placing it on a grinding wheel and looking for.
(a).
Red Sparks.
(b).
Yellow Sparks.
(c).
White Sparks.
Correct Answer is. White Sparks.
Explanation. NIL.
Q.
45.
The critical process of heat treatment is.
(a).
temperature, method of heating and cooling.
(b).
temperature and method of heating only.
(c).
method of heating only.
Correct Answer is. temperature, method of heating and cooling.
Explanation. NIL.
Q.
46.
Re-treatment of aluminium alloys can be performed by.
(a).
alocrom treatment.
(b).
brushing on phosphate treatment followed by paint.
(c).
selenious acid treatment.
Correct Answer is. alocrom treatment.
Explanation. NIL.
Q.
47.
What is generally true for titanium alloy?.
(a).
It is stronger than the aluminium.
(b).
It is stronger than the steel.
(c).
It has lower density than magnesium.
Correct Answer is. It is stronger than the aluminium.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.geocities.com/pganio/materials.html
Q.
48.
Malleable materials are.
(a).
easy to forge.
(b).
easy to cast.
(c).
highly ductile.
Correct Answer is. easy to forge.
Explanation. Malleability does not necessarily mean ductility.

Q.
49.
If a material has to undergo deep cold forming operation. The essential property would
be.
(a).
ductility.
(b).
malleability.
(c).
elasticity.
Correct Answer is. malleability.
Explanation. NIL.
Q.
50.
The metal which must not be heated in a salt bath is.
(a).
magnesium alloy.
(b).
duralumin.
(c).
rivets made of alclad.
Correct Answer is. magnesium alloy.
Explanation. NIL.
Q.
51.
The colour code on sheet metal indicates.
(a).
only the specification of the material.
(b).
the spec and gauge of the material.
(c).
that the material is from an approved source.
Correct Answer is. that the material is from an approved source. OR only the specification of the
material.
Explanation. NIL.
Q.

52.

When two or more metallic materials are fused together, the combination is known as.

(a).
a composite material.
(b).
a thermosetting compound.
(c).
an alloy.
Correct Answer is. an alloy.
Explanation. Fuse means 'to melt'.
Q.
53.
Malleable materials are normally.
(a).
also highly ductile.
(b).
easy to cast.
(c).
easily forged.
Correct Answer is. easily forged.
Explanation. NIL.
Q.
54.
The common bonding material for Tungsten Carbide is.
(a).
Invar.
(b).
Cobalt.
(c).
Silicon.
Correct Answer is. Cobalt.
Explanation. Cobalt is used to bond tungsten carbide to cutting tools.
Q.

55.

Grain size will effect the mechanical properties of metal. Which of the following is true?.

(a).
(b).
(c).

Large grain size is attributed to slow cooling rates and will give less tensile strength.
Materials with large grain size are more prone to creep.
Small grain size is normally attributed to rapid cooling rates and will give less tensile strength.

Correct Answer is. Large grain size is attributed to slow cooling rates and will give less tensile
strength.
Explanation. NIL.
Q.
56.
The cracking of structural members under repeated stress lower than the ultimate tensile
load is known as.
(a).
creep.
(b).
fatigue failure.
(c).
stress reversal.
Correct Answer is. fatigue failure.
Explanation. NIL.

Q.
57.
A piece of duralumin has been annealed and bent into shape prior to fitting to an aircraft.
Which of the following is correct? It must be.
(a).
fitted to the aircraft within 24 hours.
(b).
solution treated, precipitation treated and fitted to the aircraft within 2 hours.
(c).
solution treated prior to fitting to an aircraft.
Correct Answer is. solution treated, precipitation treated and fitted to the aircraft within 2 hours. OR
solution treated prior to fitting to an aircraft.
Explanation. NIL.
Q.
58.
A sheet of metal is designated 2024-T4. The code tells us that the material is a copper
based aluminium alloy.
(a).
annealed and Naturally aged.
(b).
solution treated and naturally aged.
(c).
solution treated and artificially aged.
Correct Answer is. solution treated and naturally aged.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.jjjtrain.com/vms/engineering_metal_stds.html
Q.
59.
A metal is coded 1285 using the IADS coding method. This means the metal is.
(a).
85% pure aluminium.
(b).
99.85% pure aluminium.
(c).
a copper based aluminium alloy i.e. duralumin.
Correct Answer is. 99.85% pure aluminium.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.jjjtrain.com/vms/engineering_metal_stds.html
Q.
60.
A material containing approximately 66% nickel and 33% copper is known as.
(a).
Nimonic.
(b).
Monel metal.
(c).
Invar
Correct Answer is. Monel metal.
Explanation. NIL.
Q.
61.
Monel metal consists of approximately.
(a).
66% Chromium and 33% Copper.
(b).
66% Copper and 33% Nickel.
(c).
66% Nickel and 33% Copper.
Correct Answer is. 66% Chromium and 33% Copper.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.lenntech.com/Monel.htm
Q.

62.

Silver solder is composed of the materials.

(a).
Copper, Tin and Silver.
(b).
Zinc, Lead and Silver.
(c).
Copper, Zinc and Silver.
Correct Answer is. Copper, Zinc and Silver.
Explanation. NIL. http://ajh-knives.com/soldering.html
Q.
63.
The ease with which a material can be forged, rolled and extruded without fracture is an
indication of a material's.
(a).
malleability.
(b).
ductility.
(c).
brittleness.
Correct Answer is. malleability.
Explanation. NIL.
Q.
64.
What is fatigue?.
(a).
Cyclic stressing of a part.
(b).
Failure of a component due to corrosion.
(c).
Constant stressing of a part.
Correct Answer is. Cyclic stressing of a part.
Explanation. NIL.
Q.
65.
Why is stop drilling carried out at the end of a crack?.
(a).
To change the direction of the crack.
(b).
To stop the crack from propagating.
(c).
To increase the stress concentration at the crack end.
Correct Answer is. To stop the crack from propagating.
Explanation. NIL.
Q.
66.
Annealing of aluminium.
(a).
increases the tensile strength.
(b).
makes the material brittle.
(c).
removes stresses caused by forming.
Correct Answer is. removes stresses caused by forming.
Explanation. NIL.
02b. Aircraft Materials - Non-Ferrous.
Q.
1.
In the Brinell hardness test, you would measure the indentation's.
(a).
depth.
(b).
area.
(c).
diameter.
Correct Answer is. diameter.
Explanation. In a Brinell hardness test, the diameter of the indent is used to indicate the hardness.
Q.
2.
The impact testing technique is used on a material to test for.
(a).
hardness.
(b).
toughness.
(c).
shear strain.
Correct Answer is. toughness.
Explanation. The impact test machine measures resistance to impact (i.e. toughness). BL/10-3.
Q.

3.

An S-N curve is useful in the design evaluation process for testing.

(a).
fatigue life.
(b).
shear force.
(c).
tension.
Correct Answer is. fatigue life.
Explanation. An SN curve is to evaluate a material for fatigue. S=stress level N=number cycles to
failure.
Q.
4.
What is a fusible material?.
(a).
The ability of two dissimilar metals to melt together.
(b).
The ability of a metal to melt.
(c).
The ability of a metal to be welded.
Correct Answer is. The ability of a metal to melt.
Explanation. Fuse' simply means to melt.
Q.
5.
Brittleness is.
(a).
the property to resist wear.
(b).
the property to not deform before cracking.
(c).
the property to resist deformation.
Correct Answer is. the property to not deform before cracking.
Explanation. NIL.
Q.
6.
The proof stress of a material is the stress at which.
(a).
the material yields.
(b).
small amount of permanent set takes place.
(c).
necking of the material begins.
Correct Answer is. small amount of permanent set takes place.
Explanation. NIL.
Q.
7.
Young's Modulus is a measure of.
(a).
strain.
(b).
stress.
(c).
stiffness.
Correct Answer is. stiffness.
Explanation. NIL.
Q.
8.
Hooke's law states that, within the elastic region, elastic strain is.
(a).
indirectly proportional to stress.
(b).
directly proportional to stress.
(c).
directly opposite to stress.
Correct Answer is. directly proportional to stress.
Explanation. NIL.
Q.
9.
The S.I. unit for strain is.
(a).
Nmm.
(b).
P.S.I.
(c).
no units.
Correct Answer is. no units.
Explanation. NIL.
Q.
(a).

10.
The value of stress for a given material can be derived by.
Cross sectional area / Load.

(b).
Load * Cross sectional area.
(c).
Load / Cross sectional area.
Correct Answer is. Load / Cross sectional area.
Explanation. NIL.
Q.
11.
A material's yield strength is the ability to.
(a).
withstand a crushing force.
(b).
resist side loads.
(c).
resist deformation.
Correct Answer is. resist deformation.
Explanation. NIL.
Q.
12.
What type of a test involves stretching material until it breaks?.
(a).
Fatigue Testing.
(b).
Hardness Testing.
(c).
Tensile Testing.
Correct Answer is. Tensile Testing.
Explanation. NIL. http://www-materials.eng.cam.ac.uk/mpsite/properties/non-IE/strength.html