PRACTICE SET-2

Test-I: Reasoning Ability

1.

If it is possible to make a meaningful word from the

second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the
word POWERFUL, using each letter only once, then
which will be the third letter of the word? If no such word
can be formed your answer would be X, if only two
words can be formed your answer would be Y, and if
more than two words can be formed your answer would
be Z.
1) X
2) Y
3) Z
4) L
5) W
2. Mr Y started walking along a circular path (around a
circular field) in anti-clockwise direction around the field.
When he had walked x metres, he observed that he
needed to walk x metres more to reach the starting point.
Since he was reluctant to walk such a long distance
therefore he followed the shortest route and reached the
starting point by walking only 1400 metres more. How
much total distance did he travel?
1) 6600 m
2) 2900 m
3) 5800 m
4) 3600 m
5) 3800 m
Directions (Q. 3-5): Study the following information
and answer the questions following it.
There are ten rows and six columns of boys, ie each row
consists of six boys. All of them are facing towards west. L,
K, X and Z are on the immediate right of H, F, G and T
respectively. H, F, G, and T are in front of D, L, K and X
respectively. At least four persons are ahead of Z in his column.
Similarly, at least one person is behind D.
3. How many persons hold positions in Gs column ahead
of him?
1) Five
2) Six
3) Seven
4) Cant say
5) None of these
4. How many persons occupy positions left of G?
1) Two
2) Three
3) Four
4) Cant say
5) None of these
5. If only G occupies place between B and K then who
occupies place on the immediate right of B?
1) Z
2) T
3) G
4) K
5) None of these
6. How many pairs of letters are there in the word
CORPORATION which have number of letters between
them in the word two less than the number of letters
between them in English alphabet?
1) Six
2) Five
3) Four
4) Three
5) Less than three

7.

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and

so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
to that group?
1) Magenta
2) Cyan
3) Yellow
4) Red
5) White
8. A rich businessman runs a prosperous company. He is
disappointed in his two children, Violet and Hazen,
because he believes that neither of them possesses the
potential of having the ability to take control of his
company. He thinks that both of his children lack common
sense.
This belief formulates from the opinion that:
1) Violet and Hazen are ignorant to the experience of
controlling the company.
2) Even a person who is not brilliant can control a
company, if she or he has been able to obtain an
MBA.
3) In order to run a company, a person needs common
sense.
4) If Hazen showed any sign of common sense, he would
have the ability to aid Violet in controlling the
company.
5) A committee with an average of three trained
personnel could assist either Violet or Hazen in
controlling the company.
9. We are well aware that there are warning signs concerning
massive climate changes; these climate changes are
reducing plant life. Many hopeful crop growers believe
that there will not be an overall negative effect on the
plant growth population due to the fact that rainfall
should not be altered because of the climate changes.
However; for the average plant, it is because of the climate
change that agricultural technology has an overall role
in annual yield.
On which of the following assumptions are these hopeful
claims based?
1) There is no accurate way to predict a climate change.
2) If patterns of rainfall began to follow the climate
changes there would be significant damaging effects.
3) Improved yields grow highly unlikely if technology
is significantly influential in spite of climate change.
4) Rainfall patterns are not as predictable as patterns of
temperature.
5) Plant life is threatened more from cool temperatures
than warm ones.
10. My family doctor said that he would be performing a
blood test on me when I visit him today. I know I will feel
pain today.

The above argument depends on which one of these

assumptions?
1) The use of a needle causes pain in the patient.
2) The doctor will have a hard time finding the patients
vein.
3) In the past, this patient has experienced pain at the
family doctors.
4) The needle will leave a bruise.
5) The doctor will have to try different needles to perform
the test.
11. Never again will you have to pay high prices for imported
spring water. It is now bottled locally and inexpensively.
Youll never taste the difference. However, if you are
likely to be embarrassed to serve domestic spring water,
simply serve it in a leaded crystal decanter.
What is the assumption made by this ad?
1) Its not hard to tell domestic water from imported water
based on its flavour.
2) The majority of spring water is bottled at its source.
3) Restrictions on importing and customs duties may
make the price of imported water higher.
4) Spring water tastes best when its served from a
decanter
5) Some people may purchase imported spring water
instead of domestic as a status symbol.
Directions (Q. 12-16): Read the following information
and answer the questions given below it:
A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J are ten persons who travel to
office everyday by a particular train which stops at six stations
I, II, III, IV, V and VI respectively after it leaves base station.
1. D gets in with only I at the same station on which G
gets down with H. But H travels between only two
stations.
2. C gets down before G. A and E get in alone.
3. B and F get in before D.
Also, both B and F
get down at the next station after D.
4. G gets in at station I only with one person. J gets
down after one station but he gets in with three others.
5. None of them gets in at station III. Whereas none of
them gets down at station V.
12. How many persons get down at station VI?
1) Two
2) Three
3) Four
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
13. How many persons get in at base station?
1) Two
2) Three
3) Four
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
14. At which station does D get in?
1) Station I
2) Station II
3) Station IV
4) Station V
5) None of these

15. How many persons get down before station IV?

1) One
2) Four
3) Five or Six
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
16. In how many stations the number of passengers (consider
only A to J) who get in is equal to that of those who get
down at the same station?
1) One
2) Two
3) Three
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 17-21): Each of the questions below
consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II
given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided
in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read
both the statements and give answer
1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer
the question, while the data in statement II alone are
not sufficient to answer the question.
2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer
the question, while the data in statement I alone are
not sufficient to answer the question.
3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II
alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4) if the data in both statements I and II even together
are not sufficient to answer the question.
5) if the data in both statements I and II together are
necessary to answer the question.
17. In which direction was Rishu facing when he was talking
with Madhu?
I. Madhu and Rishu were facing each other while talking
and Madhus shadow was falling on her immediate
right.
II. Madhu and Rishu were facing each other while talking
and Rishus shadow was falling on his immediate left.
18. A student needs at least 95% average to receive a grade
of A in five tests having different weightage. What is the
minimum average the student must get in the last two
tests to receive a grade of A?
I. On the first three tests the student averaged 92%
II. Weightage of the last two papers is in the ratio 2 : 1.
19. A farmer distributed his land among three sons X, Y and
Z. Would all the sons have to pay equal amount for
fencing their field?
I. There fields are a circle, a rectangle, and a square
respectively.
II. The areas of the fields are equal.
20. Trevor had some markers he could turn in at the end of
the year for extra credit points he had earned during the
year. Some markers were worth one point and others
were worth two points. How many one-point markers
did he have?
I. Trevor had 60 markers.
II. He was entitled to a total of 83 extra credit points.

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21. Four holes are drilled in a straight line in a rectangular

steel plate. What is the distance in millimetres, between
the centre of hole 1 and the centre of hole 3? (It is given
that holes 1, 2, 3 and 4 are drilled from left to right.)
I. The distance between the centres of hole 3 and hole
4 is the same as the distance between the centres of
hole 2 and hole 3.
II. The distance between the centres of hole 1 and hole
4 is 35 mm and the distance between the centres of
hole 2 and hole 3 is twice the distance between the
centres of hole 1 and hole 2.
Directions (Q. 22-25): A word and number arrangement
machine when given an input line of words and numbers
rearranges them following a particular rule and generates
stepwise outputs till the arrangement is complete following
that rule. Following is an illustration of input and steps of
rearrangement till the last step:
Input:
send book 98 63 fate 13 glamour 37
Step I:
book send 98 63 fate 13 glamour 37
Step II: book fate send 98 63 13 glamour 37
Step III: book fate 98 send 63 13 glamour 37
Step IV: book fate 98 63 send 13 glamour 37
Step V: book fate 98 63 glamour send 13 37
Step VI: book fate 98 63 glamour send 37 13
And step VI is the last step of the input. As per the rules
followed in the above steps, find out the answer to each of
the questions given below.
22. Step III of an input is:
boy earn 84 toy 20 22 pour 40
Which of the following steps will be the last but one?
1) Step V
2) Step VI
3) Step VIII
4) Step VII
5) None of these
23. Step IV of an input is:
easy man 81 62 11 30 quite new
Which of the following will definitely be Step II of the
output?
1) easy man 11 62 81 30 quite new
2) easy man new 81 62 11 30 quite
3) easy man quite new 81 11 62 30
4) Can not be determined
5) None of these
24. Input: buy 46 62 abandon 12 28 amuse beware
Which of the following is the Step III of the input?
1) abandon amuse 62 46 buy 12 28 beware
2) abandon amuse 62 46 buy beware 12 28
3) abandon amuse 62 46 buy beware 28 12
4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these
25. Input: boom honest 45 75 15 good 35 toy
Which of the following steps will be the last step?
1) Step V
2) Step VI
3) Step IV
4) Step VII
5) None of these.

Directions (Q. 26-30): In each question the statements

are followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to take the
given statements to be true and then decide which of the
conclusions logically follow from the given statements,
disregarding the commonly known facts. Given answer
1) If only conclusion I follows.
2) If only conclusion II follows.
3) If either conclusion I or II follows.
4) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
5) If both conclusions I and II follow.
26. Statements: Some apples are mangoes.
Some Mangoes are oranges.
No orange is apple
Conclusions:
I. Some mangoes that are organges are apples.
II. Some apples that are mangoes are oranges.
27. Statements: Some birds are animals.
All animals are black.
No black is a white.
Some whites are birds.
Conclusions:
I. Some birds which are black are not white.
II. All animals which are black are necessarily bird.
28. Statements: All scooters are buses.
All bikes are buses.
50% buses are trains.
Conclusions:
I. All buses are either bikes or scooters.
II. Some scooters are train is a possibility.
29. Statements: All apples which are red are tastey.
Most reds are apples.
Some balls are red.
Most apples are balls.
Conclusions:
I. Some reds are tastey.
II. Some apples are neither red nor ball.
30. Statements: All cups are plates.
Some plates are bowls.
Conclusions:
I. Some bowls if they are cups, are also plates.
II. All bowls which are not plates are also not cups.
Directions (Q. 31-35): Study the following information
carefully and answer the questions given below.
Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around
a circular table. Only E, D and G are facing outside the table,
while rest are facing the centre of the table. B is second to the
right of A, who is fifth to the right of E. C is third to the left of
D, who is sitting second to the right of B. F is second to the
left of G.
31. Who is third to the left of A?
1) H
2) E
3) F
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these

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32. Who is second to the right of H?

1) A
2) B
3) C
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
33. If H and G interchanges their positions, who will be third
to the right of D?
1) A
2) B
3) H
4) C
5) None of these
34. In which of the following combinations is the first person
sitting between the second and third persons?
1) CAG
2) AGB
3) DFE
4) EHC
5) None of these
35. Who is fourth to the right of F?
1) H
2) E
3) D
4) C
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 36-40): Study the following information
carefully and answer the questions given below.
Akhil, Bharat, Divya, Farhan, Piyush, Rupesh, Sujata,
and Tarun are eight professionals working in different
departments viz., Finance, HR, Marketing, Advertisement,
IB, IT, Operation and Research and Development but not
necessarily in same order. They live in three colonies viz.,
Vasant Kunj, Shree Kunj and Defense Colony with not more
than three of them in any one colony. Divya is either in
advertisement or in marketing. Sujata, Akhil and Rupesh are
in IT, IB and HR departments respectively. Piyush is either in
operation or finance department. Tarun is in research and
development (R&D) and R & D professional doesnt live in
Shree Kunj. Finance professional is in Defence Colony. Both
the persons of Vasant Kunj are not in IT, IB and Marketing.
Piyush is in Defence Colony and Farhan is in Shree Kunj
colony and Marketing professional is in Defence Colony.
Rupesh and Sujata are in the same colony, Divya and Tarun
are in the same colony.
36. Who is in the Operation Department?
1) Piyush
2) Tarun
3) Akhil
4) Bharat
5) Farhan
37. Who are in the Shree Kunj Colony?
1) Tarun, Piyush, Rupesh
2) Farhan, Bharat, Sujata
3) Divya, Piyush, Sujata
4) Farhan, Rupesh, Sujata
5) Divya, Rupesh, Sujata
38. In which department does Bharat works?
1) Finance
2) Advertisement
3) Marketing
4) Operation
5) R and D
39. Person who is in HR department lives in which colony?
1) Vasant kunj
2) Shree Kunj
3) Defense Colony
4) 1 or 3
5) Cant be determined
40. Which of the following combination is correct?
1) R & D Tarun Defense Colony
2) Operation Bharat Shree Kunj

3) Finance Piyush Defense Colony

4) HR Sujata Shree Kunj
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 41-42): Study the following information
to answer the given questions.
In a certain code language they have grown up is written
as sit pit dip ra, grown up people is written as pit ra tik,
they are up again is written as pit sit ja ka.
41. How is people written in that code language?
1) ra
2) tik
3) pit
4) Cant be determined
5) None of these
42. How is have written in that code language?
1) sit
2) pit
3) ra
4) dip
5) Cant be determined
43. Statement: In a bid to escape police checking, a truck
driver hit at least four vehicles, including two cars and
an autorickshaw. A few minutes before the incident, the
truck had reportedly hit a policeman also.
Which of the following statements (A), (B) and (C) is/are
a proper course(s) of action?
(A) The number of armed policemen should be increased
at the checking point.
(B) The registration number of the vehicle must be
checked and the driver should be caught.
(C) People should be told to remain in their houses at
night.
1) None
2) Only A and B 3) Only B
4) Only B and C 5) All A, B and C
44. Effect: The 40th edition of the New Delhi world Book
Fair is all set to be inaugurated on Monday, but the six
stalls reserved for Pakistani publishers might remain
empty. A contingent of at least 20 publishers from the
neighbouring country was expected in India this week,
but is yet to get a visa.
Which of the following can be a probable cause of the
above effect?
(A) Last month, India was defeated by Pakistan in the
cricket match played between the two countries.
(B) Pakistani books are charged a higher price than the
ones published in India.
(C) The relation between India and Pakistan is in troubled
waters these days.
1) Only A
2) Only A and B 3) Only B
4) Only C
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 45): Read the following information
carefully and answer the questions that follow:
45. Oil companies stocks surged on the Bombay Stock
Exchange soon after the government announced partial
decontrol of diesel prices.
Which of the following assumptions is/are implicit in the
given statement?
(A) Oil companies are looking forward to a profit after
this step.

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(B) Indian economy is in a nascent stage.

(C) Oil companies are incurring losses.
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Only C
4) All A, B and C 5) None of these
Directions (Q. 46-50): In each of these questions,
relationships between two elements is shown in the
statements. These statements are followed by two
conclusions. Read the statements and give answer
1) if only conclusion I follows.
2) if only conclusion II follows.
3) if either conclusion I or II follows.
4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
5) if both conclusions I and II follow.
46. Statements:
P = Q, M < N, P < N, J M
Conclusions: I. P > M
II. N > J
47. Statements:
C Q, L = T, D < C, L Q
Conclusions: I. Q > L
II. D > L
48. Statements:
U < V, S C, U F, F > C
Conclusions: I. V > C
II. U > S
49. Statements:
T > R, I E, T E, I = L
Conclusions: I. E = R
II. R > L
50. Statements:
L M, N > J, X M, L = N
Conclusions: I. N < M
II. N M

57. 1) trend
2) focus
3) development
4) effort
5) nature
58. 1) alleviation
2) tackling
3) monitoring
4) reflecting
5) addressing
59. 1) oriented
2) delivered
3) hosted
4) navigated
5) launched
60. 1) ascertained
2) revealed
3) directed
4) realised
5) traced
61. 1) wipe
2) trickle
3) balance
4) raise
5) trailing
Directions (Q. 62-65): Read each sentence to find out
whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in
one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the
answer. If there is no error, the answer is 5). (Ignore the
errors of punctuation, if any.)
62. 1) For almost 80 per cent of our /2) countrymen,
agriculture is their /3) backbone, not just economically /
4) but culturally. /5) No error
63. 1) Life sentence ensures /2) endless sufferings /3)
wherein death penalty /4) puts an end to it. /5) No error
64. 1) From the point of view for inflicting /2) maximum
sufferings on a /3) convicted criminal, life sentence is /4)
more appropriate than death penalty. /5) No error
65. 1) Let us not hold up democracy /2) as an excuse for /3)
not taking appropriate measures /4) to stabilise the
population. /5) No error
Directions (Q. 66-68): In each of the following questions
four words are given, of which two words are most nearly the
same or opposite in meaning. Find the two words which are
most nearly the same or opposite in meaning and indicate
the number of the correct letter combination.
66. (A) Nascent
(B) Haggle
(C) Sodden
(D) Bargain
1) A - B
2) B - C
3) C - D
4) A - C
5) B - D
67. (A) Wizened
(B) Shrivelled
(C) Penitent
(D) Maraud
1) A - B
2) C - D
3) A - C
4) B - D
5) A - D
68. (A) Flagrant
(B) Foreordain
(C) Unsavoury
(D) Tasteful
1) A - B
2) B - C
3) C - D
4) A - C
5) B - D
Directions (Q. 69-81): Read the following passage
carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain
words are given in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
The chaos and cacophony of elections is the surest sign
of a vibrant democracy. What role do opinion and exit polls
play in this democratic process? A non-partisan debate on
this issue must underscore the qualitative difference between
opinion polls and exit polls and the differing impact each has
on the democratic process. Opinion polls are sample surveys,

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Test-II: English Language

Directions (Q. 51-61): In the following passage there

are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These
numbers are printed below the passage and against each five
words are suggested, one of which fits the blank
appropriately. Find out the appropriate words.
Since the (51) of planning in our country, continuous
(52) has been laid on (53) distribution of income as a broad
(54). As (55) of poverty was higher in the rural areas, where
majority of the population lives, it was considered (56) to
shift the (57) of poverty (58) programmes to the rural areas.
But, despite several programmes being (59) by the
government, it was (60) towards the end of Fifth Five Year
Plan that fruits of development had failed to (61) down to the
poorer sections living in the rural areas
51. 1) conception
2) emergence
3) inception
4) managing
5) arrival
52. 1) light
2) path
3) debate
4) argument
5) stress
53. 1) equitable
2) social
3) pragmatic
4) economic
5) solid
54. 1) spectrum
2) objective
3) majority
4) viewpoint
5) achievement
55. 1) nature
2) tendency
3) striking
4) incidence
5) reflection
56. 1) irksome
2) irritating
3) imperative
4) basic
5) astonishing

reporting statistical results of potential future behaviour by

voters who answer certain questions. An opinion poll is
always conducted before a voter has exercised his franchise,
usually several days or weeks before voting. It usually asks
more than one question. An exit poll is conducted upon a
voter who has already voted. It involves no questions and
seeks to report how a voter has voted.
Keeping this difference in mind, there are several reasons
for banning exit polls and an arguable, though weaker, case
for banning opinion polls. Democracy is the bedrock of our
nation and of the Constitution. A republican secular democratic
nation has been held by the apex court to be part of the basic
structure of the Constitution. Free and fair elections have
also been held judicially to be part of this basic structure.
This means free and fair polls are an unamendable, inalienable
feature of our Constitution.
In turn, free and fair elections necessitate a level playing
field where the contestants and voters are not subjected to
unfair external influences which vitiate the process of
elections. The Representation of People Act (RPA) and the
Model Code of Conduct, along with several other rules, are
all designed to ensure this essential fairness in the electoral
process.
In a multi-phased electoral contest and the exit polls
ban argument is relevant only in multi-phased polls the
exit poll results of a prior poll have a direct impact on the next
poll. For example, the present polls are scheduled for April 20,
26, May 5 and 10. An exit poll publication for April 20
suggesting heavy voting for Party A is bound to create an
overall ambience of victory in favour of that party. Such predeclaration of exit poll results often leads to a self-fulfilling
prophecy. Party A may have strong support in the April 20
polls but may normally be a miserable loser in all the next
three phases. However, an ambience in its favour qua the
April 20 polls may generate a herd instinct or bandwagon
effect amid voters to follow the likely winner of the first
phase.
This may itself not be pernicious if the April 20 exit poll
results reflected the complete reality. But exit poll results are
based on fractional samples, generalising from miniaturised
reality. Since they do not even claim to represent the whole
truth, their impact on future polls is bound to distort the
electoral process. Vitiation of democracy and violation of the
basic structure is a likely consequence.
Opinion polls are worse because they generalise not
from actual behaviour but from presumed and predicted
behaviour. The fractional size of the sample (e.g. 40,000 in an
Indian electorate of 60 crore) underlines its inherent
inadequacy. Many surveys thrive on much smaller sample
sizes! Second, the sample cant be truly representative,
especially in a humungous and heterogeneous society like
India. Third, opinion polls are conducted well before the polls
and their remoteness in time affects their predictive utility.

Several recent polls have quoted widely divergent figures

and this reflects their untenability. Nevertheless, they
inexorably influence the voter and create an uneven playing
field.
69. What does the author mean when he says that chaos
and cacophony of elections is the surest sign of a vibrant
democracy?
1) A lively and active democracy is known by its
election-generated difference of opinions and sounds,
disorder and confusion etc.
2) A vibrant democracy cannot be identified without
the mismanagement of elections.
3) A democracy is active only when it controls the chaos
and cacophony during elections.
4) In a vibrant democracy elections can in no way be
held in order and peace.
5) None of these
70. Which of the following best describes the opinion poll?
1) Opinion poll is something that shapes the direction
of the election.
2) Opinion poll is an exercise that gives the results of an
election beforehand in a real way.
3) Opinion poll is an exercise that seeks to know the
mood and choice of a voter before polls.
4) Opinion poll is something that runs parallel to the
electoral process determining the future government.
5) None of these
71. How can we have free and fair polls in our democracy?
1) by holding elections in a single phase
2) by denying tickets to criminals
3) by giving the judiciary a free hand to monitor the
process
4) by giving the voters enough options to choose from
5) None of these
72. In what condition would the talk of banning exit polls be
meaningless?
1) if opinion polls are not banned
2) if elections are held in a single phase
3) if we have to maintain freedom of speech
4) if it does not hinder the election process
5) None of these
73. Which of the following is true in the context of the
passage?
1) Opinion poll is a post-poll exercise.
2) Exit poll is a pre-poll exercise.
3) Opinion and exit polls influence the outcome of
election results.
4) Opinion polls always benefit the ruling party.
5) None of these
74. According to the author, opinion polls are more harmful
than exit polls because
1) opinion polls influence the voter directly whereas exit
polls remain silent.

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2) opinion polls are conducted on a bigger scale as

compared to exit polls.
3) opinion polls influences illiterate voters whereas exit
polls remain silent.
4) opinion polls are based on assumption whereas exit
polls are based on reality.
5) None of these
75. What is the central message behind this passage?
1) Opinion polls and exit polls are based on freedom of
speech, so, rather than banning them, they should be
monitored.
2) Opinion polls should be conducted in a free and fair
manner.
3) Opinion polls and exit polls must be banned to ensure
free and fair elections.
4) Exit polls must be banned first as opinion polls are
not that harmful for our democracy.
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 76-78): Choose the word which is the
same in meaning as the word given in bold as used in the
passage.
76. PROPHECY
1) prediction
2) proclamation 3) judgement
4) probity
5) declaration
77. PERNICIOUS
1) peculiar
2) abnormal
3) intentional
4) irritating
5) mischievous
78. INEXORABLY
1) extremely
2) inevitably
3) basically
4) positively
5) sternly
Directions (Q. 79-81): Choose the word which is the
opposite in meaning of the word given in bold as used in the
passage.
79. INALIENABLE
1) distinct
2) remote
3) indirect
4) transferable 5) subsidiary
80. VITIATE
1) embolden
2) enforce
3) balance
4) sharpen
5) validate
81. FRACTIONAL
1) bold
2) complete
3) influential
4) diverse
5) varied
Directions: (Q. 82-85): In each of the following
sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence
there are five pairs of words denoted by numbers 1), 2), 3), 4)
and 5). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the
blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make it
meaningfully complete.
82. As a ________ of medicine Ayurveda has witnessed
________ growth in the last two decades.
1) system, phenomenal
2) genre, thumping
3) branch, increasing

4) alternative, sufficient
5) counterpart, sharp
83. In mature democracies, ________ of national importance
are ________ without a trace of politics.
1) policies, enacted
2) concern, subjected
3) issues, drawn
4) cases, looked
5) matters, debated
84. If a government loses its ________ in the legislature, it
should ________ gracefully and allow the opposition to
form a new government.
1) confidence, admit
2) majority, quit
3) grip, react
4) command, manage
5) monopoly, compromise
85. With fixed tenures, governments defeated on the
________ of the legislature would not be able to force
________ elections on the people.
1) front, biased
2) ground, indirect
3) house, unfair
4) floor, premature
5) table, undue
Directions (Q. 86-90): Rearrange the following six
sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence
to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions
given below them.
(A) No one knows their names.
(B) With irrigation systems, farmers were able to raise
more food with less labour.
(C) The first engineers lived in the Middle East,
probably around 3500 B.C.
(D) Todays city, thus, is essentially still a place where
specialists live and work.
(E) Thus, an increasing number of people were relieved
of agricultural chores and able to gather in cities to
practise specialities.
(F) However, they conceived and built the elevated
irrigation canal.
86. Which of the following will be the FOURTH sentence
after rearrangement?
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
5) E
87. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence after
rearrangement?
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
5) E
88. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence
after rearrangement?
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
5) E

K
KUNDAN

89. Which of the following will be the SIXTH (LAST)

sentence after rearrangement?
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
5) E
90. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after
rearrangement?
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
5) E

Test-III: Quantitative Aptitude

Directions (Q. 91-100): What should come in the place
of question mark (?) in the following questions?
91. 3228 + 3670 + 246 = 7132 + ?
1) 8
2) 12
3) 16
4) 24
5) 26
1
2
3
92. 3 + 4 ? = 2
7
5
5
1
1
8
1) 10
2) 7
3) 8
7
10
7
8
4) 9
5) None of these
7
93. 5287 176.22 78.584 = ?
1) 5023.196
2) 5032.196
3) 5302.196
4) 5203.196
5) None of these
94. 6000 15 225 70000 = ?
1) 20000
2) 18000
3) 16000
4) 14000
5) 15000
95. ?% of 170 = 85
1) 50
2) 60
3) 40
4) 30
5) 80
96. 0.003 ? 0.0003 = 0.00009
1) 10
2) 3
3) 0.03
4) 0.003
5) None of these
97. 5712 2876 + 8760 = ?
1) 11679
2) 11697
3) 11596
4) 12679
5) None of these

102. 0 4 18 48 120 180 294

1) 4
2) 18
3) 48
4) 120
5) 180
103. 1000 970 950 938 932 930 929
1) 929
2) 930
3) 932
4) 938
5) 970
104. 3.5 8.5 19 59.5 181 729.5 2922
1) 19
2) 59.5
3) 181
4) 729.5
5) 19
105. 2.5 6 19 77 384 2317
1) 6
2) 19
3) 77
4) 384
5) 2317
7
106. Out of a group of monkeys,
times the square root of
2
the total number are lurching on the branches of a tree.
The remaining two are moving on the ground. What
percent of the total monkeys are moving on the ground?
1) 25%
2) 50%
3) 12.5%
4) 6.25%
5) None of these
107. A small tower 15 m high casts a shadow 18 m long. At the
same time and place a long tower casts a shadow 45 m
long. Find the height of the long tower.
1) 54 m
2) 47.5 m
3) 42.5 m
4) 32.5 m
5) None of these
108. The product of Shankars age five years ago and his age
8 years later is 30, his ages at both times being given in
years. What is his present age?
1) 9 years
2) 6 years
3) 8 years
4) 10 years
5) None of these
109. A train passes two bridges of lengths 200 m and 120 m in
29 seconds and 21 seconds respectively. What is the
length of the train, if the train is running at the same
speed over both the bridges?
1) 80 m
2) 90 m
3) 100 m
4) 110 m
5) None of these
110. Find the least multiple of 23, which, when divided by 18,
21 and 24, leaves the remainders 7, 10 and 13 respectively.
1) 493
2) 997
3) 3013
4) 3035
5) None of these
111. A wire when bent in the form of a circle encloses an area
of 1386 sq cm. What will be the enclosed area when the
same wire is bent into the form of an equilateral triangle?

K
KUNDAN
1

98.

7 70 10 = (?) 3
1) 7
2) 49
3) 343
4) 2401
5) None of these
99. 20% of 750 = ?% of 160
1) 93.75
2) 75.75
3) 83.75
4) 86.75
5) None of these
100. 36 0.036 100 = ?
1) 3.6
2) 36.6
3) 29.6
4) 32.4
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 101-105): In each of the following number
series, a wrong number is given. Find out the wrong number.
101. 32 33 32 36 34 43 41
1) 33
2) 36
3) 34
4) 43
5) 41

1) 484 3 cm 2 2) 616 3 cm 2
3) 308 3 cm 2
4) 512 cm2
5) None of these
112. A person was appointed as a teacher and received a
salary of `2500 per month in his first year of teaching
with the expectation of being paid `2550 per month in
his second year, `2600 per month in the third year, and
so on. Find the total salary he expects to have received
by the end of 3 years.
1) `98100
2) `91800
3) `92800
4) `92600
5) None of these

113. What is the probability that a number selected from the

numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, ... 23, 24, 25 is a prime number, when
each of the given number is equally likely to be selected?
1)

1
5

2)

7
25

3)

11
25

9
5) None of these
25
114. A boat goes from point A to point B upstream and returns
from B to A downstream. If the round trip takes the boat
12 hours and the distance between both the point is 40
km, what is the speed of the stream if the speed of boat in
still water is 12 km/h?
1) 4 km/h
2) 6 km/h
3) 8 km/h

4)

4) 7 1 2 km/h
5) None of these
115. How much money should be invested at 5% for 3 years

119. `4500 is to be divided among A, B and C. What is the

share of B?
I. The share of C is 100% more than the combined shares
of A and B.
II. A gets `500 more than B.
120. Atul and Kundan enter into a partnership with their
capitals in the ratio 3 : 2. What was the share of Atul in a
total profit of `24000?
I. Atul invested his capital for 1 year while Kundan
invested it for 9 months.
II. Profit of Kundan was 50 per cent less than that of
Atul.
Directions (Q. 121-125): In each of these questions two
equations are given. You have to solve these equations and
give answer.
1) if x < y
2) if x > y
3) if x = y
4) if x y

K
KUNDAN
a 2

II. a b

b 2
1
a

1
b

121. I. 3x 2 13x 14

122. I. 49x 2 84x 36

123. I. 3x + 4y = 49
124. I. x

17
4

II. 25y 2 30y 9

II. 5x + 8y = 91
II. 4y 2

4 17 y

10

1996

1997

21
20

20

21

20
18

25

24

27.5
25

30

15

117. Did Rajan make a profit on his sale?

I. If he had sold 5 pens less than he presently did for
`100, his profit would have decreased by `20.
II. If he had sold 50 paise less per pen, he would have
lost `10.
118. What are two numbers?
I. The larger number is 36 more than half the difference
of the two numbers.
II. The two numbers are in the ratio 5 : 3.

1
x

II. 3y 2 11y 10 0

125. I. x 2 9x 18 0
II. 2 y 2 5y 3
Directions (Q. 126-130): Study the following graph
carefully and answer the questions given below it:
Amount of production and sales by a company
over the years (in lakh tonnes)
Production
Sales

15
14

I.

5) if x

12.5
10

to earn 3 4 of the simple interest of what `2400 will yield

in 6 years at 4% p.a.?
1) `2880
2) `2160
3) `1440
4) `3260
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 116-120): Each of the questions below
consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II
given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided
in the statement are sufficient to answer the question. Read
both the statements and give answer
1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer
the question, while the data in statement II alone are
not sufficient to answer the question.
2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer
the question, while the data in statement I alone are
not sufficient to answer the question.
3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II
alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4) if the data in both statements I and II together are not
sufficient to answer the question.
5) if the data in both statements I and II together are
necessary to answer the question.
116. Is a = b?

5
0
1998
1999
2000
2001
Year
126. Total sales of 1996 and 1999 together was what per cent
of total production in these two years?
1) 75
2) 87.5
3) 77.5
4) 82.5
5) None of these

135. What is the average marks obtained by these six students

in Economics?
1) 52
2) 52.5
3) 55.5
4) 53.5
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 136-140): Study the following graph to
answer the given questions.
Per cent profit earned by two cos. over the years
Per cent profit

Percent profit

127. The percentage of sales with respect to production was

maximum in which of the following years?
1) 1997
2) 1998
3) 1999
4) 2000
5) 2001
128. What was the percentage increase in sales from 1997 to
1998?
1) 22.22
2) 27.33
3) 28
4) 28.57
5) 33.33
129. What was the average production over the years of the
company?
1) 17.5 lakh tonnes
2) 22.5 lakh tonnes
3) 20 lakh tonnes
4) 19 lakh tonnes
5) None of these
130. What was the difference between total production and
total sales of the company for all the given years? (in
lakh tonnes)
1) 11
2) 12.5
3) 11.5
4) 13
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 131-135): Study the following table to
answer these questions.
Percentage of marks obtained by six students in six
different subjects. Number given in small brackets
indicates the full marks of the subject.

Income Expenditure
100
Expenditure

Company 'x'

40
35
30
25
20
15
10
5
0

Company 'y'

K
KUNDAN

Sub
Stu

Math
(120)

Eng Hindi Eco Social Sc Com Sc

(75) (60) (75)
(150)
(50)

Pradeep

80

64

75

92

64

70

Rakhi

96

72

45

80

82

92

Rupesh

72

44

65

52

78

86

Preeti

98

76

65

64

84

80

Deepak

92

80

70

88

62

78

Rani

90

48

75

68

76

88

131. What is the average percentage of marks obtained by all

the three girls (Rakhi, Preeti and Rani) in English?
1) 63.67
2) 67.33
3) 66.66
4) 65.33
5) None of these
132. Marks obtained by all the three boys together in Hindi is
how much more than that by all the three girls together
in Hindi?
1) 9
2) 12
3) 25
4) 21
5) None of these
133. In which subject has Preeti got the least marks?
1) Computer Sc 2) Economics
3) Hindi
4) English
5) None of these
134. What is the total marks obtained by Rani in all the
subjects?
1) 378
2) 398
3) 368
4) 408
5) None of these

1996

1997

1998 1999
Year

2000

2001

136. If the income of company x in 1998 was twice the

expenditure of company y in that year, what was the
ratio of their respective incomes?
1) 5 : 6
2) 5 : 3
3) 25 : 23
4) 8 : 5
5) None of these
137. In which of the following years was the percentage
increase/decrease in per cent profit from the previous
year the minimum for company x?
1) 1997
2) 1998
3) 1999
4) 2000
5) 2001
138. In how many of the given years, the expenditure of
company y was more than that of company x?
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
5) Cant be determined
139. If the income of company y in 1997 was equal to the
expenditure of company x in that year, what was the
ratio of their respective profits?
1) 15 : 23
2) 15 : 20
3) 20 : 23
4) 15 : 29
5) None of these
140. The income of company y in 1996 was `675 lakhs. What
was its profit in that year?
1) `37.5 lakhs
2) `50 lakhs
3) `75 lakhs
4) `60 lakhs
5) None of these

Test-IV: General Awareness

(With Special Reference to Banking Industry)
141. The RBI has overhauled the priority sector lending
targets. Now banks have to lend what per cent of their
credit to small and marginal farmers (having less than
two hectares of land)?
1) 8 per cent
2) 7.5 per cent
3) 10 per cent
4) 12 per cent
5) 9 per cent
142. Which of the following countries has been ranked on
top in the 2015 World Happiness Report?
1) Canada
2) Norway
3) Denmark
4) India
5) Switzerland
143. The capital city of Armenia is
1) Yerevan
2) Zagreb
3) Tbilisi
4) Baku
5) None of these
144. 25 Apr is commemorated every year as
1) World Malaria Day
2) World AIDS Day
3) World Typhoid Day
4) World Tuberculosis Day
5) World Diarrhea Day
145. Under the revised priority sector lending targets, foreign
banks with less than 20 branches will have to start lending
________of their net credit to the priority sector by the
end of fiscal year 2020.
1) 20 per cent
2) 31 per cent
3) 40 per cent
4) 42 per cent
5) 45 per cent
146. Calbuco volcano erupted in which of the following
countries for the first time in more than 42 years in Apr
2015?
1) Australia
2) Cameroon
3) Chile
4) Argentina
5) Spain
147. The govt has raised the limit of foreign direct investment
(FDI) in the pension sector to what per cent?
1) 49 per cent
2) 51 per cent
3) 74 per cent
4) 100 per cent 5) None of these
148. Who became the 83rd US attorney general and the first
African-American woman to serve as the nations top
law enforcement official?
1) Elizabeth Edwards
2) Anita M Britton
3) Caroline Kennedy
4) Loretta Lynch
5) None of these
149. The govt has allowed retirement fund body EPFO to
invest minimum what per cent of its corpus in exchange
traded funds?
1) 2 per cent
2) 3 per cent
3) 5 per cent
4) 8 per cent
5) 10 per cent
150. Earth Day is an annual event, celebrated on
1) 12 Apr
2) 22 Apr
3) 23 Apr
4) 25 Apr
5) 26 Apr
151. Terrorist attacks in three nations on 26 Jun 2015 left
several people dead and triggered panic across
continents. These three countries were

1) France, Kuwait and Tunisia

2) Italy, Kuwait and Syria
3) France, Iran and Kenya
4) Israel, Indonesia and Tunisia
5) None of these
152. Who won the womens singles title at the 2015
Badminton Asia Championships in China?
1) Li Xuerui
2) Ratchanok Intanon
3) Zhao Yunlei
4) Wang Shixian
5) Wang Yihan
153. Who among the following won the Shamkir Chess
tournament on 26 Apr 2015?
1) Rauf Mamedov
2) Magnus Carlsen
3) Vishwanathan Anand 4) Fabiano Caruana
5) None of these
154. The Uttar Pradesh govt has renamed the Lucknow
Zoological Garden after who among the following?
1) Chandrashekhar Azad 2) Nawab Wajid Ali Shah
3) Ashfaqulla Khan
4) Ram Prasad Bismil
5) None of these
155. The Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code is related to
1) prohibition of Child Marriage
2) prohibition of Child Labour
3) homosexuality
4) dowry harassment
5) None of these
156. ________ won the womens doubles title of the 2015
Rogers Cup Masters tournament?
1) Caroline Garcia and Katarina Srebotnik
2) Bethanie Mattek-Sands and Lucie Safarova
3) Sania Mirza and Martina Hingis
4) Renata Voracova and Sania Mirza
5) None of these
157. The metro rail service commenced in which of the
following cities on 29 Jun 2015?
1) Bengaluru
2) Chennai
3) Hyderabad
4) Kochi
5) Panaji
158. What is the full form of the term QIP as used in banking/
finance?
1) Qualified Industrial Placement
2) Qualified International Placement
3) Qualified Institutional Purchase
4) Qualified Institutional Placement
5) None of these
159. Who among the following are the winners of the
womens doubles title of the 2015 Canada Open
badminton tournament?
1) Chan Kaka Tsz Ka and Yuen Sin Ying
2) Shiho Tanaka and Koharu Yonemoto
3) Eefje Muskens and Selena Piek
4) Jwala Gutta and Ashwini Ponnappa
5) None of these

K
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160. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority

(IRDA) was renamed as Insurance Regulatory and
Development Authority of India on 30 Dec in the year
1) 2011
2) 2012
3) 2013
4) 2014
5) None of these
161. As declared by the UNO in 2010, whose birthday on 15
Oct is observed as the World Students Day globally?
1) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
2) Madan Mohan Malaviya
3) APJ Abdul Kalam
4) Syama Prasad Mukherjee
5) Deendayal Upadhyaya
162. The Sangeet Natak Academy and the Padmashri awardee
Vasundhara Komkali died recently. She was an eminent
1) vocalist
2) actor
3) author
4) scientist
5) environmentalist
163. Who is the author of the book titled Sleeping on Jupiter
which is shortlisted for Man Booker Prize 2015?
1) Rahul Bhattacharya
2) Vikas Swarup
3) Anuradha Roy
4) Tahmima Anam
5) Jahnavi Barua
164. Which of the following banks announced to buy
domestic online retail broking major Sharekhan for an
undisclosed sum of money?
1) BNP Paribas 2) HDFC Bank 3) ICICI Bank
4) Federal Bank 5) Standard Chartered
165. The proposed National Investment and Infrastructure
Fund (NIIF) entity will be headquartered in
1) Mumbai
2) New Delhi
3) Bengaluru
4) Hyderabad
5) Pune
166. Kalyani group has tied up with Israels Rafael to produce
a man-portable, anti-tank missile in India. Name the
missile.
1) Javelin
2) Spike
3) Python 5
4) Sparrow
5) Matra R530
167. Who among the following has/have been recommended
for Dhyan Chand Award for 2015?
1) Romeo James 2) TPP Nair
3) SP Misra
4) All the above 5) Only 1) and 3)
168. Which firm has acquired the title sponsorship rights for
BCCIs domestic and international cricket matches at
home for 4 years?
1) Snapdeal
2) Flipkart
3) Paytm
4) Shopclues
5) Amazon
169. As per the composite announced by govt, in private
sector banking there will a sub-limit of 49 per cent on
portfolio investment within the overall foreign investment
limit of
1) 69 per cent
2) 74 per cent
3) 75 per cent
4) 76 per cent
5) 100 per cent
170. The central govt has nominated who among the following
to be director on the central board of directors of the RBI
with immediate effect?
1) UK Sinha
2) Arvind Subramanian

3) Arvind Mayaram
4) Rajiv Mehrishi
5) Ajay Tyagi
171. Which state has launched Grama Jyothi programme which
is aimed at comprehensive development of rural areas
allowing planning and execution of works by villages
themselves?
1) Andhra Pradesh
2) Telangana
3) Chhattisgarh
4) Jharkhand
5) Karnataka
172. Cricketing icon and Bharat Ratna Sachin Tendulkar has
become a Tiger Ambassador of which of the following
states?
1) Telangana
2) Chhattisgarh
3) Madhya Pradesh
4) Maharashtra
5) West Bengal
173. Bajrang Kumar, who has been chosen for the prestigious
Arjuna award this year, is a
1) shooter
2) boxer
3) weightlifter
4) wrestler
5) archer
174. Narendra Modi is the first Indian Prime Minister to visit
the United Arab Emirates (UAE) in the last ________
years in Aug 2015.
1) 21
2) 24
3) 28
4) 34
5) 42
175. Which of the following airports in India has become the
worlds first airport to operate on solar power?
1) Mangaluru International Airport
2) Cochin International Airport
3) Jaipur International Airport
4) Srinagar International Airport
5) Indira Gandhi International Airport
176. Which of the following teams lifted South Asian Football
Federation (SAFF) U-16 title on 18 Aug 2015?
1) Maldives
2) Afghanistan 3) Sri Lanka
4) India
5) Bangladesh
177. The World Photography Day is observed every year on
which of the following days?
1) 11 Aug
2) 15 Aug
3) 19 Aug
4) 17 Aug
5) 9 Aug
178. The term Deficit Financing means the Government
borrows money from the
1) IMF
2) Local bodies
3) RBI
4) Large corporates
5) Public at large
179. Which of the following is Indias new rating index
developed by the Ministry of Finance?
1) CECA
2) CRIS
3) SENSEX
4) TIEA
5) RTGS
180. Which of the following is NOT a financial institute/
agency?
1) IRDA
2) BCCI
3) FPSB
4) SEBI
5) CAG

K
KUNDAN

Test-V: Computer Knowledge

181. Which of the following is the name of the part of a
computer that one can touch and feel?
1) Programs
2) Software
3) Hardware
4) Output
5) None of these
182. Computers gather data, which means they allow users to
___ data.
1) present
2) store
3) output
4) input
5) None of these
183. CPU stands for
1) CD-run on memory
2) central processing unit
3) call powers up
4) create programs user
5) None of these
184. A disk on which you store information is
1) plate
2) data disk
3) paper disk
4) TV disk
5) None of these
185. Which of the following allows you to print?
1) ribbon
2) monitor
3) go now
4) Control-P
5) None of these
186. Which of the following means easy to use?
1) user-friendly 2) select
3) helpful
4) ever-ready
5) None of these
187. When your computer stops working suddenly, it is
referred to as a
1) crash
2) die
3) death
4) penalty
5) None of these
188. The smallest item of useful information that a computer
can handle is called
1) bite
2) byte
3) bit
4) bait
5) None of these
189. Devices that let the computer communicate with you are
called
1) input devices
2) output devices
3) type devices
4) print devices
5) None of these
190. Devices that allow you to put information into the
computer are called
1) input devices
2) output devices
3) type devices
4) print devices
5) None of these
191. Which of the following is the command used to remove
text or graphics from a document? The information is
then stored on a clipboard so that you can paste it.
1) Chop
2) Cut
3) Clip
4) Cart away
5) None of these

192. Which of the following is a command that saves what

you are working on into the hard drive, or onto a disk?
1) View
2) Hold
3) Save
4) Go
5) None of these
193. Which of the following is a command to get a file you
worked on from the memory where it was stored?
1) Close
2) Delete
3) Open
4) Get it
5) None of these
194. Which of the following is used to move down a page in
a document?
1) Jump
2) Fly
3) Wriggle
4) Scroll
5) None of these
195. The primary device that a computer uses to store
information is
1) TV
2) storehouse
3) desk
4) hard drive
5) None of these
196. Which of the following is the screen that comes when
you turn on your computer and shows all the icons?
1) Desktop
2) Face to face
3) Viewer
4) View space
5) None of these
197. Which of the following is a program that works like a
calculator for keeping track of money and making
budgets?
1) calculator
2) spreadsheet
3) budgeter
4) financier
5) None of these
198. Memory, also called random access memory, or RAM,
1) contains the electronic circuits that cause processing
to occur
2) makes the information resulting from processing
available for use
3) allows data, programs, commands, and user responses
to be entered into a computer
4) consists of electronic components that store data
5) None of these
199. Correcting errors in a program is referred to as
1) debugging
2) bugging
3) rectifying
4) modifying
5) None of these
200. An assembler is used to translate a program written in
1) a low-level language
2) machine language
3) a high-level language
4) assembly language
5) None of these

K
KUNDAN

Answers and Explanations

1. 3; Here the specified letters are: O, W, F and L.
Words formed with these letters are as follows:
1. FLOW
2. FOWL (a bird) 3. WOLF
2. 4; Here diameter = 1400 m
radius = 700m
x metre

1400 metre

And, the distance travelled by the person

= (x + 1400)m =

r 1400 m

10. 1; How is the speaker aware of the feeling of pain if

blood test is done? Obviously, 1) is the assumption.
11. 5; Choices 1, 2 and 4 can be easily ruled out. 3 may be
an assumption because this may be the reason of
price difference. But it is also possible that the cost
of bottling abroad may itself be higher. Hence go for
5. This is why the author suggests the way out of
embarrassment.
(12-16): Let us make a table as shown below and put the
information obtained from the clues 4 and 5 in the
table. It looks as follow:
Station
Base Station
I
II
III
IV
V
VI

Get in

Get down

K
KUNDAN
=

22
700 1400 m
7

3600m

(3-5): The given information gives us the following two

possible cases:
Case I

T Z
G X
F K
H L
D

G,

Case II

T Z
G X
F K
H L
D

3. 1
4. 4; Either two or three
5. 2

6. 2; C O R P O R A T I O N
7. 4; Except it others are secondary colours or composite
colours.
Note that red, green and blue are the primary colours.
The colours obtained by mixing primary colours are
called secondary or composite colours. eg
(i) Red + Blue = Magenta
(ii) Blue + Green = Cyan
(iii) Red + Green = Yellow
(iv) Red + Green + Blue = White
8. 3; Only options 1) and 3) are close to the answer. Hence,
reject 2), 4) and 5). Now, reject 1) because it is a sort
of restatement. Hence, for the choice 3).
9. 2

Now from clue 1, we get that D and I get in at the

same station where G and H get down. obviously D
and I did not get in at base station or station I or III
or V. Thus, D and I must have got in either at station
II or at station IV. But it is given that H travels
between only two stations, hence we can conclude
that G and H did not get down at station IV also.
Hence, D and I get in at station II and G and H get
down at station II. Also, we get that H gets in at
station I.
Now, from clue 2, we get that C gets down before G.
This implies that C gets down at station I.
Again, from clue 3, we get that B and F get in before
D. This implies that B and F get in at base station.
Again, from clue 3, we get that B and F get down at
next station after D. This implies that, B and F did
not get down at station VI (because no person gets
down at station V). And since D gets in at station II,
this implies that B and F must have got down after
at least station III.
Thus, we can conclude that B and F get down at
station IV and D gets down at station III.
Again, from clue 2, we get that C gets down at station
I before G. This implies that C must have got in at the
base station. Also, we get that A and E must have
got in either at station IV or at station V. Hence, we
can conclude that J gets in at base station (see clue
4) and get down at station I.

Hence, by elimination, we get that A and E get down

at station VI.
But still we do not where I gets down among the
stations III, IV and VI.
Thus the whole information obtained can be
summarised as below:
Station
Base Station
I
II
III
IV
V
VI

Get in
B, C, F and J
G and H
D and I

Only A or E
Only E or A

Get down

C and J
G and H
D
B and F

A and E

12. 4
13. 3
14. 2
15. 3
16. 4
17. 4; The position of the sun is not known.
18. 4; The information regarding weightage of all the
papers is not known.
19. 5; If different shapes have the same area, their
perimeters are different. Hence, amounts of fencing
will not be equal.
20. 5; From I and II: Follow the process as given below:
Suppose number of 1-point markers be x; and the
number of 2-point markers be y.
Now, according to the question,
we get
x + y = 60
....(i)
and x + 2y = 83 .... (ii)
x = 37 and y = 23.
21. 5; From I and II:

25. 1; Input: boom honest 45 75 15 good 35 toy

Step I: boom good honest 45 75 15 35 toy
Step II: boom good 75 honest 45 15 35 toy
Step III: boom good 75 45 honest 15 35 toy
Step IV: boom good 75 45 honest toy 15 35
Step V: boom good 75 45 honest toy 35 15
26. 4
27. 1
28. 2
29. 1
30. 5
(31-35):

31. 2
(36-40):

32. 1

33. 3

34. 3

35. 4

K
KUNDAN
#1

#2

#3

#4

2x
2x
35 mm
From the diagram given above
we get 5x = 35 mm, ie x = 7 mm
Hence, the required distance = 3 7 = 21 mm.
22. 1; Step III: boy earn 84 toy 20 22 pour 40
Step IV: boy earn 84 40 toy 20 22 pour
Step V: boy earn 84 40 pour toy 20 22
Step VI: boy earn 84 40 pour toy 22 20
Since, step VI is the last step (because all elements
of step III get arranged in step VI), step V is the
required step (penultimate step or last but one.)
23. 4; Since it is a case of Arrangement, previous steps
cant be obtained with certainty.
24. 5; Input: buy 46 62 abandon 12 28 amuse beware
Step I: abandon buy 46 62 12 28 amuse beware
Step II: abandon amuse buy 46 62 12 28 beware
Step III: abandon amuse 62 buy 46 12 28 beware

Department
IB
Marketing
Advertisement
Operation
Finance
HR
IT
R&D

Akhil
Bharat
Divya
Farhan
Piyush
Rupesh
Sujata
Tarun

36. 5
(41-42):

37. 4

38. 3

Colony
Defence
Defence
Vasant Kunj
Shree Kunj
Defence
Shree Kunj
Shree Kunj
Vasant Kunj

39. 2

40. 3

they have grown up sit pit dip ra ... (i)

grown up people
pit ra tik
... (ii)
they are up again
pit sit ja ka ... (iii)
From (i), (ii) and (iii)
up
pit
... (iv)
From (i) and (ii)
grown
ra
... (v)
From (i) and (iii)
they
sit
... (vi)
From (iv), (v) and (ii)
people
tik
From (iv), (v), (vi) and (i)
have
dip
From (vi), (iv) and (iii)
are/again ja/ka
41. 2
42. 4
43. 3; A is uncalled for and C is absurd.
44. 4; Note that the problem here is denial of visa. Bad
relationship between the two countries seems to be
the cause.

45. 1; Stock prices surge on the assumption of a higher

profit.
46. 2; Statements: P = Q
... (i)
M<N
... (ii)
P<N
... (iii)
J M
... (iv)
Conclusions: I. P > M
II. N > J
Combining all the expressions
Q=P<N>M J
Check for I.
Thus, I does not follow.
Check for II.
Hence, conclusion II follows.
47. 4; Statements: C Q
... (i)
L= T
... (ii)
D< C
... (iii)
L Q
... (iv)
Conclusions: I. Q > L
II. D > L
Combining all the expressions
D< C Q L=T
Check for I.

Check for conclusion I.

Thus, I does not follow.

Check for conclusion II.

Thus, II does not hold true.

50. 4; Statements: L M
... (i)
N> J
... (ii)
X M
... (iii)
L= N
... (iv)
Conclusions: I. N < M
II. N M
Combining all the expressions
X M L= N>J
Check for I.

K
KUNDAN
Check for II.

Thus, II doesnt follow.

48. 1; Statements: U < V
... (i)
S C
... (ii)
U F
... (iii)
F>C
... (iv)
Conclusions: I. V > C
II. U > S
Combining all the expressions
V>U F>C S
Check for I.
Thus, conclusion I is true.
Check for II.

Thus, II does not follow.

49. 4; Statements: T > R
... (i)
I E
... (ii)
T E
... (iii)
I= L
... (iv)
Conclusions: I. E = R
II. R > L
Combining all the expressions,
L=I E T >R

Check for II.

Then conclusion II does not follow.

51. 3
52. 5
53. 1
54. 2
55. 4
56. 3
57. 2
58. 1
59. 5
60. 4
61. 2
62. 4; It should be but culturally too. So, add too after
culturally.
63. 3; Replace wherein with whereas.
64. 1; It should be From the point of view of. So, replace
for with of.
65. 5
66. 5; same
67. 1; same
68. 3; opposite
69. 1; In a vibrant democracy elections are not a silent
affair as it generates lot of difference of opinion,
noise, confusion etc. Such features of elections
show the certainty of a vibrant democracy.
70. 3; Opinion poll is conducted before polls in order to
look into the potential future behaviour by voters.
71. 5; By having a level playing field where the contestants
and voters are not subjected to unfair external
influences
72. 2; The exit polls ban argument is relevant only in multiphased polls where the exit poll results of a prior
poll have a direct impact on the next poll. So, if polls
are held in a single phase, banning exit polls would
be meaningless.
73. 3
74. 4; Opinion polls are worse than exit polls because they
generalise not from actual behaviour but from
presumed and predicted behaviour.

75. 3
76. 1
81. 2
86. 2
91. 2
94.
95.
96.
97.

77. 5
78. 2
79. 4
80. 5
82. 1
83. 5
84. 2
85. 4
87. 5
88. 1
89. 4
90. 3
92. 1
93. 2
6000 225
70000 = 90000 70000 = 20000
1; ? =
15
85 100
1; ? =
= 50
170
0.00009
5; ? = 0.003 0.0003 = 100
3

98. 3;

1
(?) 3

From ABC, tan =

In DEF, tan =
or,

15
18

H
45

H
45

45 15
37.5 m
18
108. 5; Correct answer is 7 years.

H=

109. 2; Speed of the train =

= 7 7 =7

? = (7)3 = 343
20 750
= 93.75
160
100. 4; ? =36 3.6 = 32.41
101. 5; The series is 12 , 1, 2 2 , 2, 32 , 3 ... and so
on.
Therefore, 41 should be replaced by 40.

15
18

(200 120) m
(29 21) sec

10 m / sec

In the first case,

Distance = Speed Time = 10 29 = 290 m.
length of the train = 290 - 200 = 90 m.
110. 3; LCM of 18, 21, 24 = 504
Since 18 - 7 = 21 - 10 = 24 - 13 = 11
The required number should be (504x - 11) where x is
any positive integer. We have to find the minimum
value of x such that (504x - 11) is divisible by 23.
From the given choices, (3) satisfies the condition.

K
KUNDAN

99. 1; ? =

102. 4; The series is 13 12 , 23 2 2 , 33 32 , 4 3 4 2 , ...

and so on.
Therefore, 120 should be replaced by 100.
103. 1; The series is (62 6), (52 5), (42 4), ... and so
on. So, 929 should be replaced by 930.
104. 3; The series is 2 + 1.5, 2 + 2, 3 + 2.5, 3 + 3, 4 + 3.5,
4 + 4 ... and so on. Here, 181 should be replaced by
181.5.
105. 4; The series is 2 + 1, 3 + 1, 4 + 1, ... and so on. Here,
384 should be replaced by 386.
106. 3; Let the total no. of monkeys = x2
7
2
x2 2
From the question, x
2
2x 2 7x 4 0
(x - 4) (2x +1) = 0
x=4
Hence, total no. = 42 = 16
reqd percentage =
107. 5;

15 m

45 m

44 44

484 3 sq cm

112. 2; `91800
113. 4; S = {1, 2, 3, ... 24, 25}
Event E = {2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23}
P(E) =

or,

H
C

3
4

n ( E)
n (S)

9
25

114. 3; Let the speed of the stream be x km/h.

From the question,
40
40
12
12 x 12 x

B 18 m

2
100 12.5%
16

111. 1; Area of circle

r 2 1386
r = 21 cm.
Length of the wire = Circumference of circle
44
21 132 cm
=
7
perimeter of the triangle = 132 cm
132
44 cm
and each side of the triangle =
3
So, reqd enclosed area

960
144 x 2

or, 144 x 2
2

Value of will be the same for both the figures

(since time and place are the same).

12

80

x
64
x = 8 km/hr

115. 1;

3
4

of SI =

3 2400 6 4
= `432
4
100

432 100
= `2880
5 3
116. 2; From I, we cant answer. As the statement is true for
a = 0, b = 4 (and also true for a = b).

reqd sum =

From II, a b
b a
ab

a b

a b
a2

1
a

b2

1
b

or, (y + 2) (3y + 5) = 0
5
y = -2 or
3
Hence, x y
122. 2; I. 49x 2 84x 36

or, 49x 42x 42x 36

or, (7x - 6) (7x - 6) = 0
2

4ab
2ab 4ab

121. 5; I. 3x 2 13x 14 0
or, (3x + 7) (x + 2) = 0
7
x = -2 or
3
II. 3y 2 11y 10 0

x=

6
7

K
KUNDAN
2

a b
0
a=b
117. 1; From statement I: When he sells 5 pens less his
profit decreases. It clearly means that he made profit
when he sold all the pens.
From statement II: When he reduces the selling
price he loses `10. At the original selling price he
might have got profit or loss or neither profit nor
loss. We cant conclude.
x y
36 x
x + y = 72
2
From II, x : y = 5 : 3
from I & II both, x = 45, y = 27
119. 5; Using both the statements,
Let the share of B = x
and share of A = x + 500

118. 5; From I,

200
4x 1000
100
In the question, the sum of their shares is given
(`4500).
Therefore, now we can find out the share of B =
`500.
120. 3; From I, Ratio of their profits
= (3 12) : (2 9) = 2 : 1

share of C = 2x 500

2
= `16000
3
From II, let the profit of Atul = x

share of Atul = 24000

profit of Kundan = 50% of x =

x
2

x
= `24000
2
x = `16000
Hence, either statement is sufficient.
Since, x

II. 25y 2 30y 9

or, 5y 3 2

3
5
Hence x > y
123. 3; Here, x = y = 7
1 17
124. 2; I. x
x
4
1
x = 4 or
4

y=

1
4

II. 4y 2 17 y 4 0

or, 4 y 2 16y y 4 0
or, (y + 4) (4y + 1) = 0
1
y = -4 or
4
Hence x > y.
125. 4; I. x 2 9x 18 0
or, (x - 6) (x - 3) = 0
x = 6 or 3

II. 2y 2 5y 3 0
or, (y 3) (2y + 1) = 0
1
y=
or 3
2
Hence, x y .
126. 2; Total sales in 1996 and 1999
= 10 + 25 = 35 lakh tonnes
Total production in 1996 and 1999
= 12.5 + 27.5 = 40 lakh tonnes
35
100 87.5%
Reqd percentage =
40

127. 5; Percentage of sales to production:

1996
80

1997
93.33

1998
90

128. 4; Per cent increase in sales =

1999
90.9

2000
87.5

18 14
100
14

2001
95.24

28.57%

129. 3; Average production

12.5 15 20 27.5 24 21
=
6
120
20 lakh tonnes
=
6
130. 5; Reqd difference = (12.5 - 10) + (15 - 14) + (20 - 18) +
(27.5 - 25) + (24 - 21) + (21 - 20) = 12 lakh tonnes
131. 4; Average percentage of marks (of girls)
72 76 48
65.33
=
3
132. 5; Marks obtained by the boys (in Hindi)
= (75% of 60) + (65% of 60) + (70% of 60)
= 45 + 39 + 42 = 126
Marks obtained by the girls
= (65% of 60) + (75% of 60) + (45% of 60)
= 27 + 39 + 45 = 111
Reqd difference = 126 - 111 = 15
133. 3; In Hindi, she has got only 39 marks.
134. 2; Total marks gained by Rani
= (90% of 120) + (48% of 75) + (75% of 60) + (68% of
75) + (76% of 150) + (88% of 50)
= 108 + 36 + 45 + 51 + 114 + 44 = 398
135. 3; Average marks in Economics

136. 2; Let the expenditure of Co. x in 1998 = 100

income of x = 125
125
And exp. of co. y =
2
125 120
75
Income of co. y =
2
100
Hence, reqd ratio =

125
75

5:3

137. 5; 2001
138. 5; Actual expenditure cant be found only from the
given graph. Hence, we cant compare the
expenditure of the two cos.
139. 1; 15 : 23
140. 3; Let the expenditure of the company in 1996 = 100
Income = 112.5 and profit = 12.5

K
KUNDAN
=
=

92 80 52 64 88 68
% of 75
6

444
75 55.5
6 100

So, reqd profit =

141. 1
146. 3
151. 1
156. 2
161. 3
166. 2
171. 2
176. 5
181. 3
186. 1
191. 2
196. 1

142. 5
147. 1
152. 2
157. 2
162. 1
167. 4
172. 4
177. 3
182. 4
187. 1
192. 3
197. 2

12.5
675 = `75 lakhs
112.5
143. 1
144. 1
145. 3
148. 4
149. 3
150. 2
153. 2
154. 2
155. 3
158. 4
159. 4
160. 4
163. 3
164. 1
165. 1
168. 3
169. 2
170. 5
173. 4
174. 4
175. 2
178. 3
179. 2
180. 2
183. 2
184. 2
185. 4
188. 3
189. 2
190. 1
193. 3
194. 4
195. 4
198. 4
199. 1
200. 4

K
KUNDAN