1. Which of the following is correct for atmosphere?

a. Its pressure and density decreases with increasing

height
b. Its pressure and density increases with increasing height
c. Its pressure decreases and its density increases with
increasing height

2. Which layer of atmosphere is the lowest one?

a. Stratosphere
b. Ionesphere
c. Troposhere

3. Which atmosphere layer does most of the conventional

flights take place in?
a. Troposhere
b. Stratosphere
c. Ionesphere

4. What is the height difference in troposhere caused by?

a. Different air contents
b. Temperature and gravity differences
c. Centrifugal force difference

5. Which of the following about atmosphere layers is correct?

a. The layer between troposphere and stratosphere is
called exosphere
b. The stratosphere is characterised by the absence of
weather and smooth flying conditions
c. The ionosphere consist of atomised hydrogen and
helium, whereas hydrogen is predominating element

6. What is the content amount of nitrogen in dry air at sea

level?
a. %78
b. 21%
c. %1

7. Which of the following is correct?

a. The higher the temperature is the more water vapour
can be retained by air
b. The lower the temperature is the more water vapour
can be retained by air
c. There is no defined relation between temperature and
water vapour

8. Which of the following describes the humidity?

a. The amount of temperature enough for raining
b. The amount of water present in the air
c. The capacity to absorb water by air

9. What is the relation between relative humidity and the air

density?
a. A high relative humidity decreases the density of
affected air
b. Relative humidity is a ratio of density of substance to
density of water
c. A high relative humidity increases the density of
affected air

10.
What defines the atmospheric pressure?
a. Density of air over a given area
b. Weight of air over a given area
c. Weight of air times altitude

11.
What is the reference for the variations in atmosphere
at different latitudes and altitudes defined by ICAO?
a. ISA
b. MSL
c. ISO

12.
Which of the following defines the relation between
atmospheric pressure and altitude?
a. Atmospheric pressure stays stable while altitude
changes
b. Atmospheric pressure increases in increasing altitude
c. Atmospheric pressure decreases in increasing altitude

13.
What is temperature value at MSL according to the
ISA?
a. 0C
b. 15C
c. 25C

14.
What is the ICAO Standard air pressure at MSL?
a. 1012.25 in hPa
b. 1013.25 in hPa
c. 1310.15 in hPa

15.
What is the ICAO Standard air density at MSL?
a. 1.249 kg/m
b. 1 kg/dm
c. 1013 g/m

16.
What is the temperature gradient from MSL up to an
altitude of approx. 11 km?
a. -6.5C per 1.000 feet
b. -2C per 1.000 meter
c. -6.5C per 1.000 meter

17.
of
a.
b.
c.

Which can be said for the temperature at an altitude

18.000 m?
More than -56.5C
Less than -56.5C
At -56.5C

18.
Which of the following can be said for temperature
change in atmosphere depending on the altitude?
a. Temperature increases by increasing altitude
b. Temperature decreases up to an altitude of 11 km and
stays stable between 11 km and 20 km and then starts
to increase
c. Temperature increases up to an altitude of 11 km and
stays stable between 11 km and 20 km and then starts
to increase again

19.
What is the approximate ratio of the air pressure at
11 km to the air pressure at MSL?
a.
b. 1/8
c. 1/20

20.
Which of the following can be said for total energy of
the air?
a. It increases with increasing kinetic energy
b. It increases with decreasing potential energy
c. It equals to the sum of kinetic energy and potential
energy

21.
If the total amount of energy stays constant, any
increase in kinetic energy will cause
a. An equal increase in potential energy
b. An equal decrease in potential energy
c. The potential energy to stay constant

22.
According to the Bernoullis principle, what happens
to the pressure and velocity of air in narrow part of Venturi
tube comparing wide part?
a. More pressure and more velocity
b. More pressure and less velocity
c. Less pressure and more velocity

23.
What is the static pressure of air caused by?
a. Moving air
b. Still air
c. Moving air subtracted from still air

24.
Which of the following is correct?
a. Any object in still air will experience an additional
pressure in all directions
b. Any object in moving air will experience an equal
pressure in all directions
c. Any object in moving air will experience an additional
pressure in the direction of motion of air

25.
What happens to the dynamic pressure of air if the
velocity is doubled?
a. Four times more than before
b. Two times more than before
c. Two times less than before

26.
Which statement is wrong for airfoil?
a. A symmetrical airfoil has the same curve on each side of
the chord line
b. Upper side is larger than the lower in symmetrical airfoil
c. Shapes of top and bottom side of an asymmetrical airfoil
are different

27.
Which comparison is correct for asymmetrical and
symmetrical airfoils?
a. When the angle of attack is increased, center of
pressure in symmetrical airfoil moves toward the
leading edge but stays at the same point in
asymmetrical airfoil
b. When the angle of attack is increased, center of
pressure in asymmetrical airfoil moves toward the
leading edge but stays at the same point in symmetrical
airfoil
c. When the angle of attack is increased center of pressure
moves toward the leading edge both in symmetrical and
asymmetrical airfoils

28.
For most airfoils the max angle of attack lies
between
a. 15 - 20
b. 10 - 15
c. 20 - 25

29.
Which is wrong for boundary layer?
a. It is important to keep it as thick as possible
b. Above max angle of attack total seperation of boundary
layer occurs
c. Randomly flowing air on the surface is called boundary
layer

30.
Which term may be used for all types of profile drag?
a. Induced drag
b. Parasite drag
c. Wave drag

31.
What defines form drag?
a. It is obtained when induced drag is subtracted from
pressure drag
b. It is the additional drag when the wing is producing lift
c. It is the sum of all aerodynamic forces

32.
Form drag can be considerably reduced by
a. Increasing lift
b. Increasing AOA
c. Streamlining

33.
Which condition is called adverse pressure gradient?
a. Thickening the boundary layer further back along the
wing
b. Decreasing of air pressure with increasing altitude
c. Decreasing of air pressure with increasing velocity in
Venturi tube

34.
What is the main reason causing boundary layer
occur?
a. Because the velocity of air on upper surface is more
than the velocity of air on lower surface
b. Because air is viscous and it tends to stick to the aircraft
skin

c. Because airfoils has a curve on upper surface and that

causes the air to turbulate

35.
When the total drag of an aircraft is calculated, total
drag is found to be greater than the sum of the drags of
indiviuals. How can this difference be explained?
a. Interference drag caused by junction areas
b. Form drag caused by sharp parts of structure
c. Induced drag increased with increasing lift

36.
Intereference drag can be reduced by
a. Polishing
b. Increasing the velocity
c. Fairing the junctions

37.
Why are wing tip vortices formed?
a. When the altitude is too high, air is turbulenced easily
due to the decreased density of air
b. Because of pressure difference between upper surface
and lower surface
c. Because of the surface roughness caused by dirt, rivet
etc.

38.
When the lift is increased
a. Pressure difference between top and bottom surfaces
decreases
b. The strength of vortex decreases
c. Induced drag increases

39.

Pressure drag is sum of..

a. Form drag and induced drag

b. Wave drag and induced drag
c. Parasite drag and wave drag

40.
Which is wrong about air movement?
a. The air just ahead of the wing has an upward
component, called upwash
b. The movement of the air just behind of the wing has an
downward component, called downwash
c. The movement of the air just ahead of the wing has an
downward component, called upwash

41.
A bunch of air circulating around itself at the wing tips
and trailing edges is called
a. Boundary layer
b. Vortex
c. Laminar air flow

42.
In which parts of airfoil is stagnation line highly
possible to be found?
a. Upper surface and lower surface
b. Root and tip of airfoil
c. Leading and trailing edges of airfoil

43.
What is the relation between taper ratio and stall
speed?
a. When the taper is increased, the stall characteristic
becomes adverse
b. When the taper ratio is decreased, the stall speed
decreases
c. There is no relation between taper ratio and stall speed

44.
Which statement is correct for fineness ratio?
a. The higher the speed, the greater should be the
fineness ratio
b. The lower speed, the greater should be the fineness
ratio
c. Fineness ratio should be constant for any type of airfoil
at any working speed
45.
Fineness ratio of a body
a. The ratio of wing width at the wing root to wing widht at
the wing tip
b. The ratio of wing length to the wing width
c. The ratio of length to diameter of streamlined shaped

46.
What defines mean camber line?
a. The shortest distance from leading edge to trailing edge
in asymmetrical airfoils
b. A line drawn in the middle between the upper and lower
surfaces
c. The longest height from upper surface to lower surface

47.
Which of the following is a correct statement?
a. Mean chord line is always straight just like mean camber
line
b. If the mean camber line and mean chord line are
identical, the wing is symmetrical wing
c. Mean camber line is the shortest distance from leading
edge to trailing edge in asymmetrical airfoils

48.
Which statement is incorrect for mean aerodynamic
chord?
a. A line where all aerodynamic and gravitational forces
mathematically act upon
b. It is used as reference for center of gravity calculations
c. It can not be used for aerodynamic calculations

49.
Which of the following is incorrect for center of
pressure?
a. CP is the point on chord line of an airfoil at which all of
aerodynamic forces are concentrated
b. CP of a subsonic airfoil is located at approx. 30-40% of
the mean chord line back from the trailing edge in level
flights
c. On a symmetrical airfoil CP doesnt move when the angle
of attack changes

50.
What defines the angle of attack?
a. The angle between resultant force of lift and drag
forces, and the chord line
b. The angle between chord line and the direction of air
movement
c. The angle of incidence from wing root to wing tip

51.
Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Wash in is a twist in the wing that increases its angle of
incedence near the tip
b. Wash out is a twist that decreases the angle of
incidence near the wing root
c. Swept back wings experience a wash in and an increase
of lift at their tips

52.
Which of the following statements about forces is
incorrect?
a. In flight with unchanged power settings, thrust
increases as weight decreases
b. The amount of lift required to keep the aircraft in level
flight decreases as weight decreases
c. Thrust must be always bigger than drag so that the
aircraft has a velocity

53.
Which statement for lift is not correct?
a. Pressure difference between upper and lower surfaces
causes the airfoil to be lifted
b. The airfoil is said to achieve %65 of the lift from lower
surface and %35 from upper surface
c. The sum of all lifting forces are considered to act upon
an imaginary point known as the center of pressure

54.
What happens beyond the critical angle of attack?
a. The lift coefficient and drag coeficient both starts to
increase
b. No lift can be produced any longer and the airfoil stalls
c. While the lift reaches its peak value, the drag coefficient
stays stable

55.
When the airspeed is doubled
a. The lift will increase by a factor of two
b. The drag will decrease by a factor of two
c. The lift will increase by a factor of four

56.
When the angle of attack is increased
a. The lift will decrease
b. The lift will increase
c. The lift will stay stable

57.
Clear ice usually a product of temperature inversions
at a temperature..
a. Range from 0C to -15C
b. Below -15C
c. In all icing conditions

58.

Which of the following is not correct for mixed ice?

a. The rough rime ice crystals are covered by clear ice

b. Mixed ice is a product of temperature range from 0C to
-15C
c. Mixed ice weighs more than rime ice and produces more
drag than clear ice

59.
Which of the icing factors influence the type of ice
formation?
a. Temperature and speed
b. Droplet size and temperature
c. Speed and droplet size
60.
Which of the following is correct for icing factors?
a. Ice collects more efficiently on larger airfoils
b. The higher airspeed the lesser the ice build-up
c. The larger water droplets the lesser the ice buildup

61.
Which force directly keeps the aircraft in the air?
a. Thrust
b. Weight
c. Lift

62.
Which of the following is correct?
a. Lift can only be produced if the aircraft is moving
forward
b. Thrust is not needed to produce the lift, it is only for
speed of aircraft
c. In steady flight the lift force equals zero

63.
For the aircraft to remain at the same altitude
a. All of main four forces must be equal to each other
b. The total forward force must be equal to the total
backward force
c. The total upward forces must be equal total to the
downward forces

64.
What causes the parasite drag?
a. All aerodynamic forces
b. All factors not producing lift
c. Adverse winds

65.
What is true for steady state flight at constant
altitude?
a. Thrust must be higher than drag to keep the aircraft at
constant speed
b. Thrust must be equal to the drag
c. The relation between thrust and drag doesnt make any
difference for steady state flight

66.
What kind of moment does the thrust acting below
the center of gravity produce?
a. A nose-up moment
b. A nose-down moment
c. A directional moment

67.
What kind of moment does the drag acting above the
center of gravity produce?
a. A nose-up moment
b. A nose-down moment
c. Frictional moment

68.
What is the task of force acting on tail plane?
a. Being an aid for lift in order to overcome gravitational
forces
b. Producing and maintaining the equilibrium of the
moments
c. It decreases the effect of drag to improve the
effectiveness of thrust

69.

What can be said for the force on tail plane?

a. Its direction can be forward and backward

b. It needs to be small only because a small one is able
produce a large moment
c. Its purpose is to prevent any force counteracting the
behaviour of the 4 main forces

70.
Which force is not available during gliding?
a. Lift
b. Drag
c. Thrust

71.
Without thrust, the resultant of lift and drag must be
equal and opposite to the weight in gliding condition. What
is the corrective action to do that?
a. Since there is no thrust there will no drag, then the
resultant force will be equal and opposite to weight
b. Increasing the angle of attack will increase lift so the
resultant force will be equal and opposite to weight
c. Nose down configuration is created in such a way that
weight will be opposite to the resultant force and
magnitudes will be the same

72.
Which mathematical expression is correct for gliding
angle?
a. D/L = tana
b. L/D = tana
c. L/D = sina

73.
What is the distance horizontally taken by an aircraft
while descending from an altitude of 1.500 feet to 1.000
feet in gliding condition if the glide ratio is 1:14?

a. 21.000 feet
b. 14.000 feet
c. 7.000 feet

74.
Glide ratio is
a. The amount of loss of altitude versus distance gained
b. The ratio of thrust to drag
c. The amount of distance gained versus the amount of
altitude gained

75.
What does the pilot need to do for level flight when
the engine has some reserve of power and throttle is
further opened?
a. Pushing the nose up slighly
b. Pushing the nose down slightly
c. Trimming the elevator downward

76.
Which of the following does not happen when the
aileron on the left wing moves down in a coordinated turn?
a. Induced drag caused by the left aileron pulls the nose to
the left
b. Left wing moves upward because the lift on left wing is
higher than the lift on right wing
c. The aircraft is rolled to the left

77.
What should be done to compensate adverse yaw and
to yaw back the nose?
a. Drag on lowered wing should be increased
b. Velocity should be increased to increase total drag

c. The pilot should trim the rudder to the opposite

direction

78.
What defines the load factor?
a. The ratio of the lift produced by wings to total weight of
aircraft
b. The ratio of total weight of aircraft to the lift produced
by wings
c. The ratio of total load to the lift produced by wings

79.
What is the load factor of an aircraft with a blank
angle of 60 ?
a. -0.5 g
b. 1.06 g
c. 2 g

80.
What is the load factor of an aircraft in level flight
condition?
a. 1 g
b. 1.6 g
c. 2 g

81.
Which statement about load factor is correct?
a. A load factor of 1 g or greater is called negative
b. Load factor is the ratio of total weight to the lift
c. During a stall the load factor may be reduced towards
zero

82.
Stalls that occur with g forces on an aircraft are
called

a. Disastrous stall
b. Powered stall
c. Accelerated stall

83.
The higher load factor in constant altitude turns
caused by the centrifugal force will
a. Balance the stall speed
b. Increase the stall speed
c. Decrease the stall speed

84.
Why are high-lift devices used in combination with
airfoils?
a. To be able to reach higher altitudes
b. To support the equilibrium of moments
c. To reduce the take-off and landing speeds

85.
Which statement is not correct for flaps?
a. They increase the camber of airfoil
b. They increase the maximum lift coefficient
c. They decrease the drag while increasing lift

86.
Which type of flap slides outward and downward on
rails?
a. Fowler flap
b. Split flap
c. Plain flap

87.
What is the advantage of slotted flaps on non-slotted
flaps?
a. They allow greater deflection with smaller loss of lift
b. They also increase drag while increasing lift at the same
time
c. They increase the stall speed by increasing angle of
attack

88.
What is the advantage of slots?
a. Decreasing stall speed
b. They have a lift-increasing effect even at low angles of
attack
c. Decreasing lift with increasing drag

89.
When are the slats selected in ?
a. At low angles of attack and cruise speed
b. At high angles of attack and slower speeds, e.g.
approach
c. On take-off and landing conditions

90.
Which of the following lift-augmentation flaps is used
in modern aircraft?
a. Plain flaps
b. Split flaps
c. Fowler flaps

91.
Stability in pitch is called
a. Longitudinal stability
b. Lateral stability
c. Directional stability

92.
Stability in roll is called
a. Longitudinal stability
b. Lateral stability
c. Directional stability

93.
Stability in yaw is called
a. Longitudinal stability
b. Lateral stability
c. Directional stability

94.
After a disturbance aircraft nose yaws back into
former position. What type of stability is achieved?
a. Longitudinal stability
b. Lateral stability
c. Directional stability

95.
Which axis of an aircraft is longitudinal stability
achieved about?
a. Lateral axis
b. Vertical axis
c. Longitudinal axis

96.
Which axis of an aircraft is lateral stability achieved
about?
a. Lateral axis
b. Vertical axis
c. Longitudinal axis

97.
Which axis of an aircraft is directional stability
achieved about?
a. Lateral axis
b. Vertical axis
c. Longitudinal axis

98.
Longitudinal stability is achieved by
a. Horizontal stabiliser
b. Vertical stabiliser
c. Aileron

99.
Directional stability is achieved by
a. Horizontal stabiliser
b. Vertical stabiliser
c. Aileron
100.
Lateral control is provided by
a. Horizontal stabiliser
b. Vertical stabiliser
c. Aileron

101.
A wing and its dihedral construction provide
a. Directional stability
b. Lateral stability
c. Longitudinal stability

102.
An aircrafts propeller forces air to rotate around the
fuselage in a corkscrew-like manner. This causes the air to
strike the vertical fin and a sideways force. To prevent this
yawing force
a. Leading edge of vertical fin ofset a few degree
b. Rudder is trimmed to stabilise this force
c. Leading edge flap is used to move it directly into the
relative wind

103.
By whom is the static stability performed?
a. Pilot
b. Technician on ground
c. Construction

104.
When the aircraft is is able to recover its original
steady flight path without requiring correction, static
stability is said to be
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Neutral

105.
When the aircraft, after displacement, maintains the
displaced attitude, static stability is said to be
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Neutral

106.
Which of the following is wrong about stability?
a. Static stability is the production of a restorative force
b. Dynamic stability refers to the oscillatory behaviour
c. It is not possible to have statically stable system without
being dynamically stable

107.
Under the effect of a disturbance, an airplane
oscillates with divergent oscillations. What is the behavour
of airplane?
a. Statically and dynamically unstable
b. Statically stable and dynamically unstable
c. Statically and dynamically stable

108.
At a turn in constant altitude with a bank angle of 20
the load factor is about?
a. 0.94 g
b. 1.06 g
c. 4.05 g

109.
Which statement is correct for gliding condition?
a. The magnitude of the lift vector is equal to the wieght
vector but acts opposite to it
b. The resultant of lift and drag acts opposite to the weight
vector and the same magnitude
c. The weight vector is greater than the lift and drag
vector together. Therefore the aircraft descends.

110.
When the CG approches to the CP of the aircraft
a. Static stability will be increased
b. The aircraft losts its control
c. The stability becomes neutral

111.
Rolling back of an aircraft without any effect of pilot
after a disturbance is called
a. Directional stability
b. Lateral stability
c. Longitudinal stability

112.
Which of the following wing configuration improves
the directional stability?
a. A dihedral wing
b. An anhedral wing
c. Swept back wings

113.
What is the ICAO Standard atmospheric pressure
expressed in hPa in Hg?
a. 1012.25 in hPa 28.92 in Hg
b. 1013.25 in hPa 29.92 in Hg
c. 1310.15 in hPa 2992 in Hg

114.
The partial pressure of nitrogen in dry atmosphere at
a total air pressure of 1000 hPa is ?
a. 1000 hPa
b. 210 hPa
c. 780 hPa

115.
Which parameter according to ISA is correct?
a. The absolute temperature at an altitude of 1000 ft is
about 286 K

b. The relative humidity is 100 percent at mean sea level

c. The Standard air pressure measures 2992 inches of
mercury

116.
What is the temperature at an altitude of 2 km
according to ISA?
a. 12 C
b. 2 C
c. 11 C

117.
Which statement about aerodynamic lift is correct?
a. If the airspeed increases the lift decreases
b. If the surface area of an airfoil is increased also the lift
increases
c. The lift is influenced by speed of sound

118.
Which statement about wing aspect ratio is correct?
a. The induced drag doesnt depend on the aspect ratio
b. The higher aspect ratio the less induced drag
c. The higher aspect ratio the more induced drag

119.
Which statement for ISA is correct in the range from
11 km to 20 km altitude?
a. Both temperature and pressure stay constant
b. Temparature and pressure decrease
c. Temperature stay constant while the pressure decreases

120.
What happens when the CG approches the CP of an
aircraft?
a. Static stability will be increased
b. The aircraft will be out of control immediately
c. The equilibrium acts more indifferent

121.
Ice formation on an airfoil generates?
a. A higher stall speed
b. A lower stall speed
c. Reduced drag

122.
What happens to dynamic pressure when static
pressure increases?
a. Decreases proportionally
b. Increases proportionally
c. Stays stable

123.
Which statement is true?
a. Troposhere contains 75 percent of total mass of air but
this is only 1 percent of the volume of the atmosphere
b. Height of troposhere is the same from all places of earth
c. The tropopause contains at least 50 percent of the total
mass of the atmosphere

124.
Which vector change occurs when an aircraft has a
coordinated turn?
a. The coefficient of drag decreases
b. The resultant lift of the aircraft decreases
c. The resultant weight of the aircraft increases

125.
What does lift coefficient(Cl) depend on?
a. Airfoil shape and angle of attack
b. Airspeed and air pressure
c. Surface area of the wing and density

1-A
2-C
3-A
4-B
5-B
6-A
7-A
8-B
9-A
10-B
11-A
12-C
13-B
14-B
15-A
16-C
17-C
18-B
19-A
20-C
21-B
22-C
23-B
24-C
25-A

26-B
27-B
28-A
29-A
30-B
31-A
32-C
33-A
34-B
35-A
36-C
37-B
38-C
39-A
40-C
41-B
42-C
43-A
44-A
45-C
46-B
47-B
48-C
49-B
50-B

51-A
52-C
53-B
54-B
55-C
56-B
57-A
58-B
59-B
60-B
61-C
62-A
63-C
64-B
65-B
66-A
67-A
68-B
69-B
70-C
71-C
72-A
73-C
74-A
75-B

76-C
77-A
78-A
79-C
80-A
81-C
82-C
83-B
84-C
85-C
86-A
87-A
88-A
89-A
90-C
91-A
92-B
93-C
94-C
95-A
96-C
97-B
98-A
99-B
100-C

101-B
102-A
103-C
104-A
105-C
106-C
107-B
108-B
109-B
110-C
111-B
112-C
113-B
114-C
115-A
116-B
117-B
118-B
119-C
120-C
121-A
122-A
123-A
124-C
125-A

TEST 1
1. What is the partial pressure of oxygen at an altitude with an atmospheric
pressure of 500 hPa?
a. 390 hPa

b. 210 hPa
c. 105 hPa

2. What does 100% relative humidity mean?

a. It indicates that the air is perfectly dry
b. It means that the air has absorbed all water it is able to do
c. It shows the air contains no water at all and it is relatively denser

3. The air temperature at an altitude of 30.000 feet is

a. -45C
b. -56.5C
c. +93K

4. Which of the followings is not correct for atmospheric pressure?

a. As we go higher, air pressure becomes less
b. Atmospheric pressure varies also with temperature, density and
humidity
c. Atmospheric pressure is the volume of air over a given area

5. When the relative humidity increases, the density of affected air mass
a. Decreases
b. Increases
c. Stays stable

6. An increase in the velocity of air will cause the potential energy of the air
to be
a. Constant
b. Increases
c. Decreased

7. What can be said for total pressure of a gas when the velocity of the gas is
doubled?
a. It is doubled
b. It is four times more than before
c. It stays stable

8. Which of the following causes skin friction drag?

a. The airflow passing over the aircraft and tends to stick to the skin
b. The air flowing over one portion of the airframe interfering with the
smooth flow of air over another portion
c. Pressure differences between upper and lower surfaces

9. Wave drag is the drag caused by

a. Wing tip vortices
b. Vibrations generated by engine
c. Generation of shock waves

10.What is the relation between lift coefficient and angle of attack?

a. As the angle of attack increases, lift coefficient increases proportionally
b. As the angle of attack increases, lift coefficient increases up to a point
and then starts to decrease dramatically
c. As the angle of attack increases, firstly it decreases and then it start to
increase continously

11.Which condition should be provided to keep an aircraft at a constant

velocity?
a. Lift must equal to weight
b. Engine should have some reserve of power enough to accelerate the
aircraft
c. Horizontally backward forces must equal horizontally forward forces

12.An aircraft with a lide ration of 1:20 descends from 2.000 feet to 1.700
feet. What is the horizontal distance taken?
a. 150 feet
b. 6.000 feet
c. 34.000 feet

13.What is the load factor on an aircraft during a level flight?

a. 1 g
b. 0 g
c. -1 g

14.What is the effect of a higher load factor at constant altitude in comparison

with level flight?
a. Increases stall speed
b. Decreases stall speed
c. No effect on stall speed

15.Which of the following about lift augmentation devices is correct?

a. Camber of the wing surface may only be increased by deflecting the
trailing edge
b. Slats allow a higher AOA before stall

c. A wing may have either a slot or flap

16.Which surface can be used to change the position of an aircraft around

vertical axis?
a. Rudder
b. Horizontal stabiliser
c. Elevator

17.In relation to which axis is an aircrafts longitudinal stability expressed?

a. Vertical axis
b. Lateral axis
c. Longitudinal axis

18.Which other name can be given to the stability in roll?

a. Longitudinal stability
b. Directional stability
c. Lateral stability

19.Which type of wing may assist an aircraft to yaw back to the former
position after a disturbance?
a. Sweepback wing
b. Dihedral wing
c. Sawtooth wing

20.Which can be said for the stabilities of an aircraft that has an undamped
oscillation behaviour?
a. Statically stable and dynamically unstable
b. Statically stable and dynamically neutral
c. Statically unstable and dynamically stable

1.c 2.b 3.a 4.c 5.a 6.c 7.c 8.a 9.c 10.b 11.c 12.b 13.a 14.a
15.b 16.a 17.b 18.c 19.a 20.b
Test 2
1. Which is not correct for standard atmospheric temperature?
a. It remains constant at -56.5 from MSL to an altitude of 20 km
b. Air temperature at MSL is +15C
c. Air temperature at an altitude of 2.000 feet is 11C

2. Which type of drag can not be classified as profile drag?

a. Interference drag
b. Form drag
c. Induced drag

3. The line where the airflow seperates so that some of it can pass over the
top and rest along the mottom of wing is called
a. Chord line
b. Stagnatin line
c. Mean camber line

4. For a rectangular wing, wing span is 8 times longer than the length of
chord. What is the value of wing aspect ratio?
a. 1/8
b. 8
c.

5. What is the name of line on a wing where all aerodynamic and

gravitational forces are located?
a. Mean camber line
b. Stagnation line
c. Mean aerodynamic chord

6. Which of the following can be a correct definition of the term wash out?
a. Wash out is a twist that decreases the angle of incidence near the wing
root
b. Wash out is a twist that decreases the angle of incidence near the wing
tip
c. Wash out is a twist that increases the angle of incidence near the wing
tip

7. Which of the following can make a change in drag coefficient?

a. Changing the power settings
b. Flying at an altitude relatively denser
c. Extending the leading edge flaps

8. Which parameter is not common in lift and drag equations?

a. Velocity
b. Surface area
c. Coefficient

9. How can a best glide angle be found for an aircraft?

a. By use of a tangent from the zero point in polar diagram
b. By finding the angle at which highest lift coefficient is obtained
c. By finding the angle at which lowest drag coefficient is obtained

10.How does the airspeed influence icing on planes?

a. The higher air speed the higher ice build up
b. The higher air speed the less ice build up
c. No effect since it doesnt make any change in temperature

11.Which of the icing factors doesnt influence the type of ice formation?
a. Temperature
b. Droplet size
c. Airfoil size

12.Which one is incorrect for drag?

a. Parasite drag increases as the airspeed increases
b. Induced drag increases as the airspeed increases
c. The total drag is least where induced and parasite drags are equal

13.What is the value of gliding angle if D/L equals 1 during gliding?

a. 15
b. 30
c. 45

14.Which of the following structures is an aid to minimize adverse yaw?

a. Slots

b. Flaps
c. Frise ailerons

15.Which of the following is not correct for load factor?

a. Load factor can not be less than 1 g
b. When the lift is smaller than weight that creates a negative load factor
c. During a stall a load factor can be reduced towards zero

16.Around which axis is directional stability achieved?

a. Longitudinal axis
b. Vertical axis
c. Lateral axis

17.Which wing design is used to prevent spanwise flow and seperations on an

airflow in highly sweepback wings?
a. Leading edge flaps
b. Sawtooth leading edge
c. Slats

18.Which is wrong about stability?

a. An aircraft will dynamically be stable if it returns to ots original steady
flight attitude
b. An aircraft will statically be stable if it returns to the state of static
equilibrium
c. Dynamic stability is an essential prerequisite for static stability

19.When the CG move away from CP

a. Dynamic stability will be increased
b. It will be statically stable
c. Equilibrium will be more different

20.Which option creates a nose down moment?

a. Thrust is just below the CG
b. Drag is above the CG
c. CGs position ahead of the center of lift
1.a - 2.c - 3.b - 4.a - 5.c - 6.b - 7.c - 8.c - 9.a - 10.b - 11.c - 12.b - 13.c - 14.c - 15.a
- 16.b - 17.b - 18.c - 19.c - 20.c