Obs Gynae

1.

DIAMS

Which of the following is correct for the

calculation of pearl index
No. of accidental pregnancies X
a.
1200
No. of patient observed X months of
use
b.

c.

c.

10.

No. of accidental pregnancies X 1200

No. of patient observed X 2400
No. of patient observed X months of use
No. of accidental pregnancies

No. of patient observed X 2400

No. of accidental pregnancies X 2400
All of the following are used for induction of
labour, except
PG F2 tablet
a.
PG E1 tablet
b.
PG E2 gel
c.
Misoprostol
d.
Minimum effective dose of Ethinyl estradiol in
combination oral pills is
20 gm
a.
35 gm
b.
50 gm
c.
75 gm
d.
The use of combined oral contraceptive pill is
associated with an increased incidence of
Bacterial vagionsis
a.
Chlamydial endocervicitis
b.
Vaginal warta
c.
Genital herpes
d.
A drop in fetal heart rate that typically lasta less
than 2 minutes and usually associated with
umbilical cord compression is called.
Early deceleration
a.
Late deceleration
b.
variable deceleration
c.
Prolonged Deceleration
d.
Use of Levo Norgestrel releasing, intrauterine
contraceptive device is helpful in all of the
following conditions except
Menorrhagia
a.
Dysmenorrhea
b.
Premenstrual symptoms
c.
Pelvic inflammatory disease
d.
As per vaginal examination anterior fontanelle
and supraorbital ridge is felt in the second stage
of labour. The presentation is
Brow presentation
a.
Deflexed head
b.
Flexed head
c.
Face presentation
d.
Which of the following tests is most sensitive for
the detection of iron depletion in pregnancy?
Serum iron
a.
Serum ferritin
b.
Serum transferrin
c.
Serum iron binding capacity
d.
What is menometrorrhagic
Heavy bleeding + intermenstrual
a.
bleeding

11.

d.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

Duration of menstrual cycle is increased

Polymenorrhea + metrorrhagia
Oligomenorrhea + polymenorrhia
d.
In a young female of reproductive age with
regular menstrual cycle of 28 days ovulate
occurs around 14th day of periods when is the
first polar body extended
Accompained by ovulation
a.
Before ovulation
b.
After ovulation
c.
None
d.
All of the following are contraindications to TCRE
except
Young woman
a.
Enlarged uterus, fibroid
b.
Endometrial carcinoma
c.
Premenopausal woman
d.
What is placental polyp?
Polyp formation in placenta
a.
Seen in incomplete abortion
b.
Seen in tubal abortion
c.
Benign tumor of placenta
d.
All are contraindication to radiotherapy for
cancer cervix except
Sepsis
a.
Tubo ovarian mass
b.
Hydronephrosis
c.
Genital fistulae
d.
Sex chromatin absent in
Turners syndrome
a.
Super female
b.
Klienefelters syndrome
c.
Testicular feminizations syndrome
d.
Which of the following is not a cause for 2nd
trimester abortion
Cervical incompetence
a.
Uterine anomalies
b.
Leuteal phase defects
c.
Germ plasma defects
d.
T1/2 of oxytocin is
2 minutes
a.
10 minutes
b.
3 minutes
c.
15 minutes
d.
All of the following test are done to diagnose
premature rupture of membranes except
Nitrazine test
a.
Fern test
b.
Alpha feto protein test
c.
Absent fibronective
d.
All of the following are correct statement
regarding cephalhematoma except
Develops few hours after birth
a.
Disappear in 2-3 months
b.
Crosses suture line
c.
No treatment needed
d.
Prophylactic anti D injection in nonimmunized Rh
Negative women should be given at
28 weeks, 32 weeks, within 72 hours
a.
after delivery
28 weeks, 36 weeks, within 72 hours
b.
after delivery
28 weeks, 34 weeks, within 72 hours
c.
after delivery
b.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

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Obs Gynae

DIAMS

28 weeks, term pregnancy, within 72

hours after delivery
All of the following statement are correct about
Frommel Chairi syndrome except:
Amenorrhea
a.
Galactorrhea
b.
Obesity
c.
FSH LH
d.
All of the following can be used as postcoital
contraceptive except: Diethylstibestrol
a.
RU-486
b.
Levonorgestral
c.
Misoprostol
d.
Most common site of metastasis of
choriocarcinoma: Brain
a.
Vagina
b.
Ovary
c.
Liver
d.
All are true regarding sheehans syndrome
except: Hypotension is most common
a.
presentation
Failure to lactate
b.
Amenorrhea
c.
Hirsuitism seen
d.
Spot out wrong statement: Testicular feminization causes
a.
female pseudo hermaphroditism
In testicular feminization gonadectomy is
b.
done
21 hydroxylase deficiency is seen in
c.
congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Chromosomal pattern of testicular
d.
feminization is 46 XY
All of the following are criteria for giving
methotrexate in unruptured ectopic pregnancy
except:
HCG<10,000 Miu/mL
a.
Absent cardiac activity
b.
Size of gestational sac is not more
c.
than 4.5 cm
Actinomycin D can be used
d.
Which of the following is not absolute
contraindication of hormonal replacement
therapy: Breast cancer
a.
Endometrial cancer
b.
Liver,gall bladder disease
c.
Ischemic heart disease
d.
Nulliparous female presents with unruptured
ectopic pregnancy. Best surgical management
includes
Salpingostomy
a.
Salpingotomy
b.
Milking
c.
Resection reanastomois
d.
About tibolone all re correct except
It is estrogenic
a.
Has no androgenic side effect
b.
Main use is cadioprotection
c.
Relieve vasomotor symptoms
d.
Which of the following does not secrete HCG
d.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

Polyembryoma
Endodermal sinus tumor
Embryonal cell carcinoma
c.
Choriocarcinoma
d.
25-yrs-old presents with amenorrhea 6 weeks
pallor 3 +. Systolic BP 50 mmHg urine pregnancy
test positive specific line of management will be :
Blood transfusion
a.
Diagnosis by TVS
b.
Immediate laparotomy
c.
Diagnostic laparoscopy
d.
Spot out wrong statement about mayer
rokitansky syndrome
Karyo type is 46 XX
a.
Normal secondary sexual characters
b.
Sketetal and renal anomalies 30%
c.
Vaginoplasty should be done at the
d.
time of puberty
Which is not included in the classification of
severe endometriosis?
Ovarian endometriosis exceeding 2 cm
a.
Bowel involvement
b.
Urinary tract involvement
c.
Pouch of dougles involvement
d.
All are true regarding TB of female genital tract
except:
Fallopian tubes are involved in 90 percent
a.
Menorrhagic is the most common
b.
clinical feature
Produces frozen pelvis
c.
In a proven case of genital TB HSG is
d.
contraindicated
Which of the following is not true:
Nulliparous uterine prolapse Shirodkar
a.
sling operation
Pregnancy with prolapse:pessary
b.
treatment
Prolapsed pouch of Douglas:
c.
posterior colpoperineorrhaphy
None of the above
d.
False statement regarding femilon is:
Contains 20 ug EE + 150 ug desogestrel
a.
Lowest does OCP
b.
Has good cycle control
c.
Cannot be used as post coital pill
d.
25 yrs-old female G2P1L1A0 with 6 MA
diagnosed as secondary abdominal pregnancy an
laprotomy. Also placenta is seen attached to
vascular organ. What is the appropriate
management?
Remove fetus and placenta
a.
Remove fetus and leave placenta
b.
after clamping the cord
Remove fetus and inject methotrexate
c.
into the cord.
Remove fetus and placenta and do
d.
hysterectomy.
Which of the following is not a criteria for
diagnosis of Twin twin transfusion syndrome
Only one placenta seen on USG
a.
30% discripency in weight
b.
Twins are always of same sex
c.
Different length of umbilical cord
d.
a.

b.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

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Obs Gynae

DIAMS

38. One dose of anti D immunoglobulin given after

delivery of Rh-positive baby born to Rh- negative
mother will be able to neutralize how much
amount of fetal blood?
20 ml of fetal blood
a.
25 ml of fetal blood
b.
50 ml of fetal blood
c.
30 ml of fetal blood
d.
39. All are true about macrosomic baby except
Weight is 4 kg on USG
a.
Abdominal circumference is more than
b.
95th percentile for that gestational age on
USG
Cause shoulder Dystocia
c.
Can be a feature of DOPE
d.
40. All of the following statements are true except
Oxytocin sensitivity is increased during
a.
delivery
Prostaglandins may be given for
b.
inducting labour III trimester
In lactating women genital stimulation
c.
enhances oxytocin
Oxytocin is used for inducing
d.
abortion in 1st trimester
41. Heterophic pregnancy is
Pregency occurring is both tubes
a.
Extrauterine and intrauteuine
b.
pregency
Ovarian and tubel pregency
c.
Cervical pregency
d.
42. Prolonged 1st stage of labour is not due to all
except
CPD
a.
weak uterine contractions
b.
rigid perineum,
c.
None
d.
43. Most common form of multiple pregnancy
monochorionic monoamniotic
a.
monochorionic diamniotic
b.
dichorionic diamniotic
c.
dichorionic monoamniotic
d.
44. The distance from the upper end of sacrum to
lower border of pubis corresponds to
obstetric conjugate
a.
diagonal conjugate
b.
true conjugate
c.
transverse conjugate
d.
45. Contraindication for applying forceps
CPD
a.
crowning of head
b.
head station +1
c.
maternal cardiac disease
d.
46. Contraindicated during labour
Oxytocin
a.
Misoprostol
b.
Mifepristone
c.
Methergin
d.
47. 18 yrs old girl presented with primary
amenorrhea, normal breast development, absent
pubic and axillary hair
testicular feminizing syndrome
a.
turner syndrome
b.
mullerian agenesis
c.
premature ovarian failure
d.

48. Not seen in anorexia nervosa

Menorrhagia
a.
weight loss
b.
Amenorrhea
c.
Hypotension
d.
49. MC ovarian tumor in younger age group
Dysgerminoma
a.
Dermoid
b.
Mucinous cystadenoma
c.
Fibroma
d.
50. Evaluation of a pt. With post menopausal
bleeding done by all except
Pap smear
a.
USG
b.
Endometrial biopsy
c.
Dilation & curettage
d.
51. Fallopian tube patency is checked by
Hystrosalpingography
a.
Laparoscopy
b.
USG
c.
CT scan
d.
52. Infertility is seen in all except
Fibroid uterus
a.
Endometriosis
b.
Adenomyosis
c.
PID
d.
53. In a patient with pelvic inflammatory disease due
to tuberculosis, all of the following statement is
true, except
Mycobacterium can be grown from
a.
menstrual blood
Associated with infertility
b.
Ectopic pregnancy is common
c.
Dysmenorrhea is a common
d.
presentation
54. Swiss cheese endometrium is seen in
Simple endometrial hyperplasia
a.
Cystic glandular hyperplasia
b.
Proliferative endometrium
c.
Endometriosis
d.
55. Bishops score include following, except
Dilatation of Cx
a.
Effacement of Cx
b.
Contractions of uterus
c.
Station of head
d.
56. Drug strictly contraindicated in lactation
Lithium
a.
Carbamazepine
b.
Penicillin
c.
Cephalosporin
d.
57. Assessment of progress of labour is best done by
Station of head
a.
Rupture of membrane
b.
Contraction of uterus
c.
Partogram
d.
58. Diabetic mother will have the following
complications in foetus except
Hydramnios
a.
Macrosomia
b.
Cardiac anomaly
c.
Dimorphic anemia
d.
59. Blood supply to uterus is from
Uterine artery
a.
Ovarian artery
b.

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Obs Gynae

DIAMS

Vaginal artery
All of the above
Best evidence of ovulation is
Secretory type of endometrium
a.
Basal body temperature
b.
Cervical mucous study
c.
Pap smear
d.
LH surge precedes ovulation is
12 hrs
a.
24 hrs
b.
36 hrs
c.
48 hrs
d.
First investigation to be done for post
menopausal bleeding
Endometrial biopsy
a.
Dilation & Curettage
b.
Fractional curettage
c.
Hysterosalpingography
d.
The common cause of hirsutism in the female is
Androblastoma
a.
Luteoma ovary
b.
Adrenal hyperplasia
c.
Stein Levanthal syndrome
d.
Post partum VVF is best repaired after
6 weeks
a.
8 weeks
b.
3 months
c.
6 months
d.
The effective sperm count normally is
20 million/ml
a.
30 million/ml
b.
40 million/ml
c.
50 million/ml
d.
Mestranol acts as a contraceptive by
Inhibiting FSH secretion
a.
Inhibiting LH secretion
b.
Inhibiting tubal motility
c.
Inhibiting nidation
d.
IUCD acts by all mechanisms except
Ovulation inhibition
a.
Chronic endometritis
b.
Uterine endometrial atrophy
c.
Tubal dysmotility
d.
In which part of Fallopian tube does ectopic
pregnancy occur most frequency
Ampulla
a.
Isthmus
b.
Fimbria
c.
Cornu
d.
The commonest cause for secondary
amenorrhoea is
Pregnancy
a.
Tuberculosis
b.
Thyrotoxicosis
c.
None of the above
d.
Total blood volume increased during pregnancys
is about
10 %
a.
20 %
b.
30 %
c.
60 %
d.
Drug of choice in HTN e- pregnancy
Hydrallazine
a.
ACE inhibitors
b.
c.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

Labetalol
agonists
Ovarian artery is a branch of
Internal iliac
a.
External iliac
b.
Abdominal aorta
c.
Uterine artery
d.
Pseudo bubo is seen in
Chancroid
a.
LGV
b.
Syphilis
c.
Donovanosis
d.
All of the following are cardinal features of
rupture tubal pregnancy, except
Menorrhagia
a.
Sudden abdominal and pelvic pain
b.
Unilateral tenderness of adnexal mass
c.
Shock
d.
Serum fetoprotein level is elevated in
Dysgerminoma
a.
Endodermal sinus tumour
b.
Immature teratoma
c.
Chorio carcinoma
d.
Drug of choice for chlamydia infection
Tetracycline
a.
Doxycycline
b.
Cephozoline
c.
Ciprofloxiacin
d.
The shape of cervical canal suggesting preterm
delivery is
T shaped
a.
Y shaped
b.
U shaped
c.
O shaped
d.
In sterilization operation (tubectomy) the site
which is commonly preffered is
Ampulla
a.
Infundibulum
b.
Isthmus
c.
Cornea
d.
Abortions due to cervical incompetence usually
occur at
A. First month
B. Third month
C. Fifth month
D. Eighth month
All are features of carcinoma of cervix except
A. Usually arises in portio vaginalis of
cervix
B. More common in multiparous,
promiscuous females
C. Associated with hypertension,
obesity and diabetes
D. Commonest histological type is
squamous cell variety
Following procedure is carried out to differentiate
between vesicovaginal and ureterovaginal fistula:
A. Intravenous pyelography
B. Micturating cystography
C. Three swab test
D. Indigo carmine test
About polycystic ovary disease, wrong statement
is:
A. Anovulation
c.

d.

d.

72.

73.

74.

75.

76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

81.

82.

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Obs Gynae

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

91.

92.

DIAMS

B. Estrogen
C. LH
D. Testosterone
A female patient getting treatment for secondary
infertility develops amenorrhea, severe
abdominal pain & slight bleeding pervaginally. It
indicates
A. H. mole
B. Ectopic pregnancy
C. Normal pregnancy
D. Fibroid 3
The commonest cause of failed forceps is:
A. Undiagmised cervix
B. Undiagnosed hydrocephalus
C. Undiagnosed occipitoposterior
position
D. Brow presentation
Primary amenorrhoea can result from all except:
A. Mullerian dysgenesis
B. Wolffian dysgenesis
C. Ovarian dysgenesis
D. Imperforate hymen
E. Turner's syndrome
Oxytocin causes
A. ed Intestinal peristalsis
B. Uterine relaxation
C. Milk ejection
D. Ted Urine excretion
All are true regarding Rh incompatibility except:
A. Mother is Rh negative
B. Baby is Rh positive
C. Occurs commonly in primis
D. ABO incompatibility is protective
Ovulation occurs:
A. 14 days after menstruation
B. 14 days before menstruation
C. 7 days after menses
D. None of the above
All of the following pelvic structures support the
vagina, EXCEPT
Perineal body
a.
pelvic diaphragm
b.
Levator ani muscle
c.
Infudibulopelvic ligament
d.
All of the following are the indications for
myomectomy in a case of fibroid uterus, except
Associated infertility
a.
Recurrent pregnancy loss
b.
Pressure symptoms
c.
red degeneration
d.
Conservative management is contraindicated in
a case of Placenta previa under the following
situations, except
Evidence of fetal distress
a.
fetal malformations
b.
Mother in a hemodynamically unstable
c.
condition
women in labour
d.
Basanti devi 45 yrs old women present with hot
flush after stopping of menstruation. Hot flush
can be relived by administration of following
agents
Ehinyl estradiol
a.

Testesterone
Fluoxymesteron
Danazol
d.
93. A case of carcinoma cervix is found in altered
sensorium and is having hiccups. likely cause is
Septicemia
a.
Uremia
b.
raised ICT
c.
None of the above
d.
94. All are absolute contraindication of Cut except
Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding
a.
Nulliparum
b.
Heart disease
c.
Diabetes mellitus
d.
95. Composition of MALA D includes
30g EE + 1mg desogestrel
a.
30g EE + 0.3mg d norgestrel
b.
30g EE + 1mg d- norgestrel
c.
20g EE + 1.5mg d- norgestrel
d.
96. All are seen in postmaturity except
Meonium aspiration syndrome
a.
Fetal brady cardia
b.
Oligohydramnios
c.
Golden yellow liquor
d.
97. Which of the following is not included in high risk
factors for choriocarcinomas poor prognosis:
Duration of disease less than 6
a.
months
BHCG>40,000MIU/MI
b.
Brain, Liver metastasis
c.
Following full term pregnancy
d.
98. Which is false statement regarding ovarian factor
infertility?
Most treatable form of infertility
a.
TVS is non-invasive investigation for
b.
ovulation
Secretory pattern of endomentrium is
c.
confirmatory for ovulation
All are true
d.
99. About Polymenorrhea which of the following
statement is wrong
OCPs for 3 cycle help
a.
PID is important cause
b.
Proliferative phase is shortened
c.
D & C is curative
d.
100.
Normal value for fetal ponderal index
8.325 + 2.5
a.
9.32 + 1.5
b.
7.325 + 1.5
c.
8.325 + 1.5
d.
101.
Kalka a 48 yrs old lady underwent
hysterectomy. On the seventh day, she
developed fever, burning microriton and urinary
dribbling. She can also pass urine voluntarily. The
diagnosis is
Uretero vaginal fistula
a.
Vesico vaginal fistula
b.
Urge incontinence
c.
Stress incontinence
d.
102.
which of the following antihypertensive
drugs is contraindicated in pregnancy
Labetalol
a.
Hydralazine
b.
b.
c.

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Obs Gynae

DIAMS

Nifedipine
ACE inhibitors
103.
Twin pregnancy shows an increase in the
following complications except
Pre eclampsia
a.
Post partum hemorrhage
b.
Antepartum hemorrhage
c.
Maternal valvular heart disease
d.
104.
Which is the typical clinical feature of
vaginmal discharge due to bacterial vagionosis
Frothy yellowish disc arge
a.
Sweet fruity odour when mixed with 10 %
b.
KOH
Intense pruritis
c.
Fishy odour when mixed with 10 %
d.
KOH
105.
Complications of episiotomy can be of
the following except
Vulval hematoma
a.
Complete perineal tear
b.
Recto vaginal fistula
c.
Vesico vaginal fistula
d.
c.

d.

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