Q1. What is meant by the term 'management by objectives'?

(a) A system of giving the authority to carry out certain jobs by those lower down the
management hierarchy.
(b) The system of management that is based on bringing together experts into a team.
(c) The setting of objectives to bring about the achievement of the corporate goals.
(d) The control of the organization by those in the 'head office'.

Q2. Workforce planning involves all of the following except

(a) examining production plans in a factory.
(b) organizing the training of staff.
(c) forecasting future personnel requirements.
(d) preparing and maintaining personnel records.

Q3. An advantage of recruitment from outside the company is

(a) that it is cheaper than internal recruitment.
(b) that it brings in new experience and skills to the firm.
(c) that there is no need to advertise the vacancy.
(d) that it avoids jealousy within the firm.

Q4. What is meant by the term functional management?

(a) A system of business organization that is based on an individual having a wide range of
skills.
(b) A type of management that is based more on personality.
(c) A system that groups together various jobs and is organized by departments, sections or
functions.

(d) A system that supports a flat form of command chain.

Q5. Most management teams use 'appraisal' but what is meant by this term?
(a) A system used to improve the performance of personnel.
(b) The main way in which an employees wages are determined.
(c) A system of reward points offered by retailers to attract customer loyalty.
(d) The evaluation of an individual employee's performance over a given period of time.

Q6. Piecework is a payment system where the worker is

(a) paid overtime for any hours worked beyond 40 per week.
(b) rewarded for good conduct.
(c) is paid a minimum of Skk 55 per hour.
(d) is paid for what he or she achieves.

Q7. Ineffective planning of workforce would be highlighted by

(a) Recruitment and selection problems.
(b) The need to outsource some of the production.
(c) A need to offer retraining to current employees.
(d) An opportunity to increase the use of mechanization.

Q8. What is meant by the term delegation?

(a) A system of management that relies on consulting employees before making decisions.

(b) The process of using goals as the best way of motivating managers to achieve corporate
targets/objectives.
(c) The giving of tasks by a manager to a subordinate.
(d) A style of management supported by Taylor.

Q9. Which of the following will influence the method of recruitment and selection used by a
company?
(a) The state of the economy.
(b) The size of the organization.
(c) The type of training programmers used by the company.
(d) The possible expansion of business abroad.

Q10. Which of the following is an accurate definition of recruitment?

(a) The process of attempting to fill gaps that exist in the skills of the current labor force.
(b) The system of following someone around and noting how they perform their duties.
(c) The process by which companies fill the need to find new employees.
(d) A statement that enshrines the fundamental objectives of the company.

Answer of Multiple Choice Questions

1-c

2-a

3-b

4-c

5-d

6-d

7-a

8-c

9-b

10-c

1.

Which best describes the function of Human Resources Planning?

a.

An integrated set of processes, programs and systems in an organization that focuses on

maximizing employee contribution in order to achieve organizational success.

b.

The process of ensuring that people required running the company are being used as

effectively as possible--especially in fulfilling developmental needs--in order to accomplish the

organization's goals.
c.

The formal process of familiarizing new employees with the organization, new job, work

units and culture values, beliefs and accepted behavior.

d.

The process of effectively and efficiently managing your assets.

2.

According to the text, labor shortages are predicted for certain sectors; which of the

following is NOT one of that will be affected?

a.

Retail

b.

Information Technology (IT)

c.

Construction

d.

Health

3.

According to the text, which percentage of Canadians holds two or more jobs?

a.

b.

c.

d.

4.

Which best defines the method of tracking the pattern of employee movement through

various jobs?
a.

Trend analysis

b.

Markov analysis

c.

Management forecasts

d.

Staffing tables

5.

Which best defines the process of locating and encouraging potential employees to

apply for jobs?

a.

Human Resource Planning

b.

Selection

c.

Recruitment

d.

Job Analysis

6.

Which best defines opinions and judgments of supervisors or managers and others that

are knowledgeable about the organizations future employment needs?

a.

Staffing table

b.

Management forecasts

c.

Skills inventory

d.

Trend analysis

7.

Which best represents the third step in the HR Planning Process:

a.

Develop an action plan

b.

Forecast the demand for labor

c.

Identify the gap between demand and supply

d.

An employee referral program

8.

Which of the following is the method that an organization goes through to communicate

job opening?
a.

Job boards

b.

Job postings and bidding

c.

Job centers

d.

Job markets

9.

Which of the following is the area from which applicants can be recruited?

a.

Job agencies

b.

Labor markets

c.

Employment lines

d.

Labor unions

10.

Which is the process of choosing individuals who have relevant qualifications to fill

existing or projected job openings?

a.

Screening process

b.

Selection process

c.

Interview process

d.

Prescreening process

11.

Which best defines how well a test or selection procedure measures a persons

attributes?
a.

Reliability

b.

Testing

c.

Validity

d.

Organizational constraint

12.

Which best defines the degree to which interviews, tests, and other selection procedures

yield comparable data over time and alternative measures?

a.

Job sampling

b.

Reliability

c.

Validity

d.

Organizational culture

13.

Which best identifies the second step of the Recruitment Process?

a.

Gathering of job information

b.

Determining best recruitment method

c.

Identifying job openings

d.

Planning for staff needs

Answer of Multiple Choice Questions

1-b

2-b

3-c

4-b

5-c

6-b

7-c

8-b

9-b

10-b

11-c

1. The best approach to job analysis for traditional or evolving jobs is _____.
A. job requirements job analysis
B. competency based job analysis
C. team-based job analysis
D. functional job analysis

2. Which of the following is NOT shown by an ideal task statement?

A. what the employee does
B. to whom or what the employee does what he or she does
C. what is produced

12-b

13-c

D. how each behaviour is rewarded

3. Which of the following is a component of a job requirements matrix?

A. Job tenure
B. Job pay
C. Job context
D. Job appraisal

4. Sentence analysis technique is an aid to __________.

A. writing the job summary
B. describing the KSAOs
C. drafting precise task statements
D. describing the job context

5. It can be accurately said of the "task dimension" component of a job description that it
___________.
A. provides a rating of task importance
B. is a grouping of similar tasks
C. indicates appropriate KSAOs
D. indicates the nature of KSAOs

6. The job context component of a job description does not __________.

A. encompass both tasks and KSAOs
B. describe physical demands

C. describe environmental characteristics

D. address pay scales

7. The KSAO portion of a job requirements matrix may be _________.

A. converted to a job specification
B. converted to a job description
C. converted to a job evaluation
D. converted into a job pay scale

8. A body of information that can be directly applied to the performance of tasks is _______.
A. knowledge
B. skills
C. abilities
D. none of the above

9. An underlying, enduring trait of the person that is useful for performing a range of tasks is
_______.
A. knowledge
B. skills
C. abilities
D. none of the above

10. An observable competence for working with or applying information to perform a particular
task is _______.
A. knowledge

B. skills
C. abilities
D. none of the above

11. If tasks/dimensions are not weighted formally, then ________.

A. the job description has no value
B. AA non-compliance will result
C. all tasks/dimensions are assessed as equally important by default
D. pay scales cannot be developed

12. The reason for having the manager participate as a job analyst is to ______.
A. provide acceptance of job statements to guide performance on the job
B. verify statements are inclusive and accurate
C. control incumbent responses on job analysis questionnaires
D. establish pay scales

13. A limitation of observation as a means of gathering job information would be

______________.
A. access to job context
B. short job cycle
C. access to KSAOs
D. mental processes are difficult to measure

14. Which of the following is an advantage of using job task questionnaires?

A. Use with large numbers of people

B. Highly diverse job content and formats
C. Working with top management positions
D. Working with newly created jobs

15. Which of the following is not a good reason for using an outside consultant for job analysis?
A. Technical innovativeness is critical
B. Legal scrutiny of project output/processes is high
C. Knowledge of organization culture is critical
D. Data collection involves specialized statistical methods

16. Skills contained in O*Net include _____________.

A. basic skills
B. cross-functional skills
C. sensory abilities
D. all of the above

17. Unlike KSAOs, competencies usually describe characteristics ________.

A. of individuals that contribute to job performance
B. that are used for selecting individuals
C. that contribute to success across multiple jobs
D. of organizational reward systems

18. Competency modeling is useful for which of the following applications?

A. Identifying needs for replacement and succession planning

B. Internal promotion processes
C. Facilitating the HR planning process
D. All of the above

19. Competency modelling is strategically used to _________.

A. Create awareness of the need for stability in business
B. Enhance the skill level of the workforce
C. Encourage employees to focus on their own jobs as much as possible
D. None of the above

20. Which of the following is not one of the "great eight" competencies?
A. Mechanical knowledge
B. Creating
C. Organizing
D. Performing

Answer of Multiple Choice Questions

1-a

2-d

3-c

4-c

5-b

6-d

7-a

8-a

9-c

10-b

11-c

12-b

13-d

14-a

15-c

16-d

17-c

18-d

19-b

20-a

1. What is meant by the acronym VET?

(a) Vocational Expertise and Training.

(b) Vocational Experience and Training.
(c) Voluntary Education and Training.
(d) Vocational Education and Training.

2. What percentage of employers in England have skills-shortage vacancies?

(a) 0.7%.
(b) 7%.
(c) 17%.
(d) 77%.

3. Which of the following statements is false?

There are well-established and proven links between training, organizational productivity, and
profit.
(a) Training is normally a key aspect of high commitment management strategies.
(b) Training allows organizations to adapt to changes in the business environment.
(c) Training and development is a key element of human resource management.
(d) Training and development serves an important symbolic function.

4. Which of the following statements refer to a 'voluntarist' approach to training and

development? Select all that apply.
(a) A belief that left to themselves organizations will only invest in short-term, low-level
training.
(b) A belief that organizations operate more effectively when unfettered by regulation.
(c) Vocational education and training should be supported by the state, e.g. through state
levies and apprenticeships.
(d) Market pressures ensure that firms invest in training.

5. Which of the following statements refer to a 'regulated' approach to training and

development? Select all that apply.

(a) Market pressures ensure that firms invest in training.

(b) Vocational education and training is supported by the state, e.g. through state levies and
apprenticeships.
(c) A belief that left to them, organizations will only invest in short-term, low-level training.
(d) A belief that organizations operate more effectively when unfettered by regulation.

6. Which of the following countries are best described as adopting a broadly voluntarist stance
to training and development? Select all that apply.
(a) France.
(b) USA.
(c) UK.
(d) Germany.

7. Which of the following statements about the apprenticeship system is incorrect?

(a) Technical training is supplemented with knowledge of work control and design.
(b) Apprentices are required to continue to participate in further education for the duration
of their vocational studies.
(c) Full apprenticeships last two years.
(d) The system is one of the best routes to achieving vocational qualifications.
(e) Apprenticeships combine classroom teaching and on-the-job experience.

8. What is meant by the acronym NVQ?

(a) New Vocational Quota.
(b) National Vocational Quota.
(c) National Vocational Qualification.
(d) New Vocational Qualification.

9. What kind of work best illustrates Pye's concept of 'workmanship of risk'?

Academics.
(a) Fast food worker.

(b) Doctor.
(c) Call centre worker.

10. What is meant by an SME?

(a) Small Manufacturing Employer.
(b) Small Medium Enterprise.
(c) Small Manufacturing Enterprise.
(d) Small Medium Employer.

Answer of Multiple Choice Questions

1-d

2-b

3-a

4-d

5-c

6-c

7-c

8-c

9-a

10-b

1. Which of the following is not one of the main reasons for major changes in performance
appraisal in recent years?
(a) Team working initiatives.
(b) Changes in payment systems.
(c) Total quality management.
(d) Government legislation.

2. Which of the following statement are correct? Select all that apply.
(a) Performance appraisal is diminishing in importance.
(b) Performance appraisal now includes previously untouched organisations and
occupational groups.
(c) Performance appraisal has become more widespread.
(d) Performance appraisal is not used in the public sector.

3. Which of the following is not a type of performance appraisal?

(a) Customer appraisals.

(b) Appraisal of managers.
(c) 45 degree appraisal.
(d) Team based appraisal.

4. Why might an organisation use multiple systems of appraisal? Select all that apply.
(a) Different systems for different part of the organisation.
(b) To provide employees with a choice of methods.
(c) Different systems for different organisational groups.
(d) To separate reward and non-reward aspects of appraisal.

5. Which of the following is not a reason why performance appraisal is used by organisations?
(a) To determine promotion.
(b) To improve team, individual, and corporate performance.
(c) Because it is a legal requirement.
(d) To allocate financial rewards.

6. Performance management is believed to have originated from which country?

(a) Denmark.
(b) Japan.
(c) France.
(d) USA.

7. Which of the following statements about performance management systems is not true?
(a) Recommendations are prescriptive and suggest one best way.
(b) They improve organisational performance in the long-term.
(c) They encourage a short-term view among managers.
(d) Commitment from line managers is questionable.

8. Which of the following statements about performance appraisal is not true?

(a) Performance appraisal reduces managerial control.
(b) Performance appraisal has become a tool to motivate and control workers.
(c) Companies use appraisal to encourage employee loyalty and commitment.
(d) Employees may be appraised on both objective and subjective measures.

9. What is the meaning of upward appraisal?

(a) Employees rate the performance of their peers.
(b) Line managers rate the performance of employees.
(c) Senior managers rate the performance of line managers.
(d) Employees rate the performance of their manager.

10. What is meant by 360 degree appraisal?

(a) A system where every employee rates another employee chosen at random.
(b) A system where the line manager rates subordinates simultaneously.
(c) A system where a senior manager rates all line managers simultaneously.
(d) A system where feedback is obtained from peers subordinates and supervisors.

Answer of Multiple Choice Questions

1-d

2-c

3-c

4-c

5-c

6-d

7-b

8-a

9-d

10-d

1. Positions held by an individual throughout his work life are normally referred to as
(a) job
(b) task
(c) career
(d) none of the above

2. Which of the following perspectives looks at the career of an individual from the future
positions he is likely to hold?
(a) subjective perspective
(b) objective perspective
(c) neutral perspective
(d) none of the above

3. The systematic and deliberate advancement made by an individual in his career in the entire
work life is known as
(a) career path
(b) career goals
(c) career guidance
(d) career anchoring

4. The factors that influence the selection of individuals career choices are usually referred to as
(a) career anchoring
(b) career path
(c) career goals
(d) mentoring

5. Which of the following is used as a self-assessment technique by the employees?

(a) The strength and weakness balance sheet
(b) The likes and dislikes survey
(c) The type focus assessment
(d) All of the above

6. The career development programme which enables the employees to gain multi-skills and
diverse experience before being considered for any promotion in the future is called

(a) Dual-skills path

(b) conventional career path
(c) lateral career path
(d) network career path

7. A process in which the manager, supervisors or an external expert acts as the advisor,
philosopher and guide is called
(a) career anchoring
(b) career development
(c) mentoring
(d) none of the above

8. A series of processes aimed at assisting the employees make informed career decisions is
known as
(a) career guidance
(b) career anchoring
(c) mentoring
(d) career goals

Answer of Multiple Choice Questions

1-c

2-a

3-a

4-a

5-d

6-d

7-c

8-a

1. Which of the following kinds of unemployment is associated with economic fluctuations?

A. structural unemployment
B. cyclical unemployment
C. natural unemployment
D. frictional unemployment

2. Which types of unemployment are included in the natural rate of unemployment?

A. structural and cyclical unemployment
B. frictional and structural unemployment
C. frictional and cyclical unemployment
D. frictional, structural and cyclical unemployment

3. Which type of unemployment measures only those who are temporarily unemployed?
A. frictional unemployment
B. structural unemployment
C. cyclical unemployment
D. natural unemployment
4. Most economists agree that the best measure of long run changes in living standards is
changes in
A. per-capita gross domestic product.
B. the natural rate of unemployment.
C. the inflation rate.
D. the GDP deflator.

5. Which of these policy objectives is concerned with the countrys external balance?
A. limiting the size of business cycle fluctuations
B. maintaining low and stable inflation
C. maintaining a balance of payments equilibrium
D. limiting cyclical unemployment

6. Capital controls are defined as

A. legal restrictions on the ability of a nations citizens to hold and exchange assets
denominated in foreign currencies.
B. legal restrictions on the type and timing of private investment expenditures in the
economy.
C. a halt in trading activity in a stock exchange when the market index falls sufficiently.
D. tax allowances that offer incentives for preferred kinds of investment spending, like the
purchase of a home.

7. Natural Gross Domestic Product

A. is another term for nominal gross domestic product.
B. is nominal gross domestic product adjusted for inflation.
C. occurs at the intersection of the IS and LM schedules.
D. is the level of real GDP that lies on a nations long-run growth path.

8. Capital mobility is a measure of

A. the amount of trading activity that occurs during a given day in a financial market.
B. the number of times a typical unit of money changes hands in a single year.
C. volatility in the exchange rate.
D. the ease with which financial resources can flow across borders.

Answer of Multiple Choice Questions

1-b

2-b

3-a

4-a

5-c

6-a

7-d

8-d