BITSAT MOCK TEST

No. of Questions : 150

Maximum Marks : 450

Deduct 1 mark for every wrong answer
5.

Section I - Physics
1.

2.

3.

4.

The ratio of the dimension of Plancks

constant and that of the moment of inertia is
the dimension of
(a) time
(b) frequency
(c) angular momentum
(d) velocity
The water drops fall at regular intervals from a
tap 5 m above the ground. The third drop is
leaving the tap at an instant when the first drop
touches the ground. How far above the ground
is the second drop at that instant ? (Take g = 10
m/sec2)
(a) 1.25 m
(b) 2.50 m
(c) 3.75 m
(d) 5.00 m
Two boys are standing at the ends A and B of a
ground where AB = a. The boy at B starts
running in a direction perpendicular to AB with
velocity v1 . The boy at A starts running
simultaneously with velocity v and catches the
other boy in a time t, where t is
(a) a / v 2 + v12

(b) a/(v+v1)

(c) a/(vv1)

(d) a 2 / ( v 2 - v12 )

The coefficient of static friction, ms, between

block A of mass 2 kg and the table as shown in
the figure is 0.2. What would be the maximum
mass value of block B so that the two blocks do
not move? The string and the pulley are
assumed to be smooth and massless.
(g = 10 m/s2)

2 kg

A
B

(a) 0.4 kg
(c) 4.0 kg

(b) 2.0 kg
(d) 0.2 kg

A 5000 kg rocket is set for vertical firing. The

exhaust speed is 800 m/s. To give an initial
upward acceleration of 20 m/s2, the amount of
gas ejected per second to supply the needed
thrust will be (Take g = 10 m/s2)
(a) 127.5 kg/s

6.

(c) 155.5 kg/s

(d) 187.5 kg/s
Assuming the radius of the earth as R, the
change in gravitational potential energy of a
body of mass m, when it is taken from the earth's
surface to a height 3R above its surface, is
(a) 3 mg R

8.

9.

(b)

3
mg R
4

3
mg R
2
Imagine a new planet having the same density
as that of earth but it is 3 times bigger than
the earth in size. If the acceleration due to
gravity on the surface of earth is g and that
on the surface of the new planet is g, then
(a) g = g/9
(b) g = 27g
(c) g=9g
(d) g=3g
A seconds pendulum is mounted in a rocket. Its
period of oscillation decreases when the rocket
(a) comes down with uniform acceleration
(b) moves round the earth in a geostationary
orbit
(c) moves up with a uniform velocity
(d) moves up with uniform acceleration
A linear harmonic oscillator of force constant
2 106 N/m and amplitude 0.01 m has a total
mechanical energy of 160 J. Its
(a) maximum potential energy is 160 J
(b) maximum potential energy is 100 J
(c) minimum potential energy is zero
(d) minimum potential energy is 100 J

(c) 1 mg R

7.

(b) 137.5 kg/s

(d)

2
10.

If n1, n2 and n3 are the fundamental frequencies

of three segments into which a string is divided,
then the original fundamental frequency n of the
string is given by
(a) n = n1 + n2 + n3
(b)

12.

13.

14.

15.

(c)

(d)

n = n1 + n 2 + n 3

n1

n2

17.

n3

The speed of a wave in a medium is 960 m/s. If

3600 waves are passing through a point in the
medium in 1 min., then the wavelength of the
wave is
(a) 8 m
(b) 12 m
(c) 16 m
(d) 20 m
In case of a forced vibration, the resonance wave
becomes very sharp when the
(a) quality factor is small
(b) damping force is small
(c) restoring force is small
(d) applied periodic force is small
N molecules each of mass m of a gas A and 2N
molecules each of mass 2m of gas B are contained
in the same vessel which is maintained at
temperature T. The mean square velocity of
molecules of B type is v2 and the mean square
rectangular component of the velocity of A type
is denoted by w2. Then w2/v2
(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 1/3
(d) 2/3
The temperature of inversion of a thermocouple is 620C and the neutral temperature
is 300C. What is the temperature of cold junction?
(a) 320C
(b) 20C
(c) 20C
(d) 40C
The equation of state for 5 g of oxygen at a
pressure P and temperature T, when occupying
a volume V, will be
(a) PV = (5/16) RT (b) PV = (5/32) RT
(c) PV = 5 RT
(d) PV = (5/2) RT
where R is the gas constant.

If g be the ratio of specific heats of a perfect gas,

the number of degrees of freedom of a molecule
of the gas is
25
( g - 1)
2

(b)

(c)

2
g -1

(d)

(a)

3a

(b)

(a)

1
1
1
1
=
+
+
n n1 n 2 n 3

11.

16.

18.

3 g -1
2 g -1

9
( g - 1)
2
Which of the following circular rods, (given radius r and length l) each made of the same material and whose ends are maintained at the same
temperature will conduct most heat?
(a) r = r 0 ; l = l0
(b) r = 2r 0 ; l = l0
(c) r = r 0 ; l = 2l0
(d) r = 2r0; l = 2l0
In BCC (Body Centred Cubic Crystal), distance
between any two nearest atoms is

3
a
2

a
3
a
(d)
2
4
The coefficients of linear expansion of brass and
steel are a1 and a2 respectively. If we take a
brass rod of length l1 and steel rod of length l2
at 0C, the difference in their lengths

(c)

19.

(l 2 - l 1 ) will remain th e same at some

temperature, if

20.

(a)

a1l1 = a 2l 2

(b)

a1l 2 = a 2 l1

(c)

a12 l 2 = a 22 l 2

(d)

a1l 22 = a 2 l12

An electric dipole, consisting of two opposite

charges of 2 10 -6 C each separated by a
distance 3 cm is placed in an electric field of
2 10 5 N/C. Torque on the dipole is

(a) 12 10 -1 N - m (b) 12 10 -2 N - m
21.

(c) 12 10 -3 N - m (d) 12 10 -4 N - m
Two charges q1 and q2 are placed 30 cm apart, as
shown in the figure. A third charge q3 is moved
along the arc of a circle of radius 40 cm from C to
D. The change in the potential energy of the

3
system is 4p k , , where k is
0

3
26.

C q3
40 cm
q1
A

22.

23.

q2
30 cm

(a) 8q1
(b) 6q1
(c) 8q2
(d) 6q2
If specific resistance of a potentiometer wire is
107 Wm and current flow through it is 0.1 amp.,
cross-sectional area of wire is 106 m2 then
potential gradient will be
(a) 102 volt/m
(b) 104 volt/m
6
(d) 108 volt/m
(c) 10 volt/m
Two batteries, one of emf 18 volts and internal

27.

28.

29.

24

resistance 2W and the other of emf 12 volt

and internal resistance 1W, are connected as
shown. The voltmeter V will record a reading
of
(a) 30 volt
(b) 18 volt
(c) 15 volt
(d) 14 volt
Each corner of a cube of side l has a negative
charge, q. The electrostatic potential energy
of a charge q at the centre of the cube is
(a)

4q 2
2pe 0l

(b)

4q 2

25.

3q 2
4pe 0l
-

(c)

30.

4q 2

(d)
2 pe 0 l
3pe 0 l
When a wire of uniform crosssection a,
length l and resistance R is bent into a
complete circle, resistance between any two
of diametrically opposite points will be:
(a)

R
4

(b) 4R

(c)

R
8

(d)

R
2

31.

If a negligibly small current is passed through a

wire of length 15 m and of resistance 5W having
uniform cross-section of 6 107 m2 , then
coefficient of resistivity of material, is
(a) 1 107 W-m
(b) 2 107 W-m
7
(c) 3 10 W-m
(d) 4 107 W-m
If 25W, 220 V and 100 W, 220 V bulbs are
connected in series across a 440 V line, then
(a) Only 25W bulb will fuse
(b) Only 100W bulb will fuse
(c) Both bulbs will fuse
(d) None of these
An electric kettle has two heating coils. When
one of the coils is connected to an a.c. source,
the water in the kettle boils in 10 minutes. When
the other coil is used the water boils in 40
minutes. If both the coils are connected in
parallel, the time taken by the same quantity of
water to boil will be
(a) 15 min
(b) 8 min
(c) 4 min
(d) 25 min
A coil of one turn is made of a wire of certain
length and then from the same length a coil of
two turns is made. If the same current is passed
in both the cases, then the ratio of the magnetic
inductions at their centres will be
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 1: 4
(c) 4:1
(d) 1:2
Two magnets of magnetic moments M and 2M
are placed in a vibration magnetometer, with the
identical poles in the same direction. The time
period of vibration is T1. If the magnets are
placed with opposite poles together and vibrate
with time period T2, then
(a) T2 is infinite
(b) T2 = T1
(c) T2 > T1
(d) T2 < T1
For protecting a sensitive equipment from the
external electric arc, it should be
(a) Wrapped with insulation around it when
passing current through it
(b) Placed inside an iron can
(c) Surrounded with fine copper sheet
(d) Placed inside an aluminium can

4
32.

33.

34.

Two coils have a mutual inductance 0.005 H.

The current changes in the first coil according
to equation I=I0 sin wt, where I0 = 10A and w =
100p radian/sec. The maximum value of e.m.f. in
the second coil is
(a) 2p
(b) 5p
(c) p
(d) 4p
A capacitor of capacity C and reactance X, if
capacitance and frequency become double, then
reactance will be
(a) 4X
(b) X/2
(c) X/4
(d) 2X
An equiconvex lens is cut into two halves along
(i) XOX' and (ii) YOY' as shown in the figure. Let
f, f', f'' be the focal lengths of the complete lens,
of each half in case (i), and of each half in case
(ii), respectively.

38.

39.

In the case of a common emitter transistor

amplifier the ratio of the collector current to the
emitter current Ic /Ie is 0.96. The current gain of
the amplifier is
(a) 6
(b) 48
(c) 24
(d) 12
Of the diodes shown in the following diagrams,
which one is reverse biased ?
+10 V
R

(a)
+5 V
(b)

12 V

R
5 V

(c)

R
10 V
+5 V

X'

R
(d)

Y'
40.

35.

36.

37.

Choose the correct statement from the following

(a) f' = 2f, f'' = 2f
(b) f' = f, f'' = 2f
(c) f' = 2f, f'' = f
(d) f' = f, f'' = f
The angular resolution of a 10 cm diameter
telescope at a wavelength of 5000 is of the
order of
(a) 106 rad
(b) 102 rad
4
(c) 10 rad
(d) 106 rad
The stable nucleus that has a radius half that of
Fe56 is
(a) Li7
(b) Na21
16
(c) S
(d) Ca40
The mass number of He is 4 and that of sulphur
is 32. The radius of sulphur nucleus is larger
than that of helium by a factor of

(a)
(c)

(b)

(c) 4

(d) 2

eV
2m

2eV
m

(b)
(d)

eV
m
eV
2m

Section II - Chemistry
41.

42.
(a) 8

An electron of mass m and charge e is accelerated

from rest through a potential difference of V volt
in vacuum. Its final speed will be

The vapour pressure of two liquids P and Q

are 80 and 60 torr, respectively. The total vapour
pressure of solution obtained by mixing 3 mole
of P and 2 mole of Q would be
(a) 72 torr
(b) 140 torr
(c) 68 torr
(d) 20 torr
What is the weight of oxygen required for the
complete combustion of 2.8 kg of ethylene ?
(a) 2.8 kg
(b) 6.4 kg
(c) 9.6 kg
(d) 96 kg

5
43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

The oxide, which cannot act as a reducing agent,

is
(a) NO2
(b) SO2
(c) CO2
(d) ClO2
The energy of second Bohr orbit of the hydrogen
atom is -328 kJ mol-1; hence the energy of fourth
Bohr orbit would be:
(a) -41 kJ mol-1
(b) -82 kJ mol-1
-1
(c) -164 kJ mol
(d) -1312 kJ mol-1
The dipole moments of diatomic molecules AB
and CD are 10.41 and 10.27 D, respectively while
their bond distances are 2.82 and 2.67 ,
respectively. This indicates that
(a) bonding is 100% ionic in both the molecules
(b) AB has more ionic bond character than CD
(c) AB has lesser ionic bond character than
CD
(d) bonding is nearly covalent in both the
molecules
For the cell reaction,
Cu2+ (C1, aq) + Zn(s) = Zn2+ (C2, aq) + Cu(s) of an
electrochemical cell, the change in free energy,
DG, at a given temperature is a function of
(a) ln (C1)
(b) ln (C2/C1)
(c) ln (C2)
(d) ln (C1 + C2)
The standard e.m.f. of a galvanic cell involving
cell reaction with n = 2 is found to be 0.295 V at
25C. The equilibrium constant of the reaction
would be
(a)

2.0 1011

(b)

4.0 1012

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

(d) 1.0 1010

1.0 10 2
(Given F = 96500 C mol1; R = 8.314JK1mol1)
The equilibrium constant for the reaction A2
(c)

48.

2A at 500 K and 700 K are 1 1010 and 1

49.

105 respectively. The given reaction is

(a) exothermic
(b) slow
(c) endothermic
(d) fast
The solubility products of CuS, Ag2S and HgS
are 10 31 , 10 44 , 10 54 respectively. The
solubilities of these sulphides are in the order
(a) Ag2S > HgS > CuS
(b) Ag2S > CuS > HgS
(c) HgS > Ag2S > CuS
(d) CuS > Ag2S > HgS

Considering entropy (S) as a thermodynamic

parameter, the criterion for the spontaneity of
any process is
(a)

DSsystem + DSsurroundings > 0

(b)

DSsystem - DSsurroundings > 0

(c)

DSsystem > 0 only

(d)

DSsurroundings > 0 only

The molar heat capacity of water at constant

pressure C, is 75 JK1 mol1. When 1kJ of heat is
supplied to 100 g of water, which is free to
expand, the increase in temperature of water is
(a) 6.6 K
(b) 1.2 K
(c) 2.4 K
(d) 4.8 K
Which reaction is not feasible?
(a)

2KI + Br2 2KBr + I 2

(b)

2KBr + I 2 2KI + Br2

(c)

2KBr + Cl 2 2KCl + Br2

(d) 2H 2O + 2F2 4HF + O 2

Which of the following order is wrong?
(a) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 Acidic
(b) Li < Be < B < C First IP
(c) Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O Basic
(d) Li+ < Na+ < K+ < Cs+ Ionic radius
The first ionization potentials (eV) of Be and B
respectively are
(a) 8.29, 9.32
(b) 9.32, 9.32
(c) 8.29, 8.29
(d) 9.32, 8.29
Which one of the following statements about
the zeolites is false ?
(a) They are used as cation exchangers
(b) They have open structure which enables
them to take up small molecules
(c) Zeolites are aluminosilicates having three
dimensional network
(d) Some of the SiO 44 - units are replaced by
AlO54- and AlO96- ions in zeolites

56.

The most convenient method to protect the

bottom of ship made of iron is
(a) Coating it with red lead oxide
(b) White tin plating
(c) Connecting it with Mg block
(d) Connecting it with Pb block

6
57.

58.

59.

Which of the following statement is not correct?

(a) La (OH)3 is less basic than Li(OH)3
(b) La is actually an element of transition series
rather lanthanides
(c) Atomic radius of Zr and Hf are same
because of lanthanide contraction
(d) In lanthanide series ionic radius of Ln +3
ions decreases
Oxidation of thiosulphate by iodine gives
(a) tetrathionate ion (b) sulphide ion
(c) sulphate ion
(d) sulphite ion
Which of the following does not have a metalcarbon bond?
(a)

60.

Al(OC 2 H 5 )3

(b)

64.

65.

CH3

66.

67.

CH3

61.

(a) 5-ethyl-6-methyloctane
(b) 4-ethyl-3-methyloctane
(c) 3-methyl-4-ethyloctane
(d) 2, 3-diethylheptane
Among the following compounds (I - III), the
ease of their reaction with electrophiles is,

OCH3

H 3C - CH 2OH + C6 H 6
CH 3 - CH = CH 2 + C6 H 6

(c)

H 2 C = CH 2 + C 6 H 6

(d)

H 3 C - CH 3 + C 6 H 6

CH 3 - CH 2 - C H - CH 3

obtained

by

CH3
H3C

(b)

(a)

C 2 H 5MgBr

(c) K[Pt (C 2 H 4 )Cl 3 ] (d) Ni(CO) 4

Name of the compound given below is

Using anhydrous AlCl3 as catalyst, which one

of the following reactions produces
ethylbenzene (PhEt)?

68.

Cl
chlorination of n-butane, will be
(a) l-form
(b) d-form
(c) Meso form
(d) Racemic mixture
Correct order of stability is :
(a) cis -2- butene > 1-butene > trans -2-butene
(b) trans-2-butene > cis-2-butene > 1-butene
(c) 1-butene > cis-2-butene > trans-2- butene
(d) cis-2-butene > trans-2-butene > 1-butene
Which of the following is incorrect?
(a) NaHSO3 is used in detection of carbonyl
compound
(b) FeCl3 is used in detection of phenolic group
(c) Tollen reagent is used in detection of
unsaturation
(d) Fehling solution is used in detection of
glucose
Consider the following transformations :
heat

CaCO 3
2
B
A
CH3COOH
C
NaOH

NO2

The molecular formula of C is

OH
|

(a)
I

62.

63.

II

III

(a) II > III > I

(b) III > II > I
(c) II > I > III
(d) I > II > III
Which one of the following orders is correct
regarding the I effect of the substituents ?
(a) NR2 <OR >F
(b) NR2 > OR >F
(c) NR2 <OR <F
(d) NR2 >OR <F
Which of the following compounds reacts slower
in electrophilic substitution?
(a) C6H5NO2
(b) C6H5OH
(c) C6H5CH3
(d) C6H5NH2

CH 3 - C - CH 3 (b) ICH2 COCH3

I

69.

(c) CHI3
In the reaction

(d) CH3I

CH 3CHO + HCN CH 3CH (OH ) CN

H.OH

CH 3 CH (OH )COOH
an asymmetric centre is generated. The acid
obtained would be
(a) 20 % D + 80 % L-isomer
(b) D-isomer
(c) L-isomer
(d) 50% D + 50% L-isomer

7
70.

Aniline when diazotized in cold and when

treated with dimethyl aniline gives a coloured
product. Its structure would be
N=N

(a) CH3NH
(b) CH3

71.

72.

N=N
N=N

(d) (CH3)2N

NH

Electrolytic reduction of nitrobenzene in weakly

acidic medium gives
(a) N-Penylhydroxylamine
(b) Nitrosobenzene
(c) Aniline
(d) p-Hydroxyaniline
Polarization of electrons in acrolein may be
written as:
d+

(a)

C H 2 = CH CH = O

(b)

C H 2 = C H CH = O

(c)

C H 2 = CH CH = O

d+

78.

d-

d-

74.

77.

d-

d+

73.

NHCH3
NH2

(c) (CH3)2N

d-

76.

d+

(d) C H 2 = C H C H = O
Which of the following is correct about Hbonding in nucleotide?
(a) A --- A and T --- T
(b) G --- T and A --- C
(c) A --- G and T --- C
(d) A --- T and G --- C
Which one of the following monomers gives the
polymer neoprene on polymerization ?
(a) CF2 = CF2
(b) CH2 = CHCl
(c) CCl2 = CCl2

79.

Cl
|

(d)
75.

CH 2 = C CH = CH 2

In DNA the complementary bases are

(a) adenine and thymine ; guanine and
cytosine
(b) uracil and adenine ; cytosine and guanine
(c) adenine and guanine; thymine and cytosine
(d) adenine and thymine ; guanine and uracil

80.

According to the adsorption theory of catalysis,

the speed of the reaction increases because(a) Adsorption lowers the activation energy
of the reaction
(b) The concentration of reactant molecules at
the active centres of the catalyst becomes
high due to strong adsorption
(c) In the process of adsorption, the activation
energy fo the molecules becomes large
(d) Adsorption produces heat which increases
the speed of the reaction
Specific volume of cylindrical virus particle is
6.02 102 cc/gm. whose radius and length 7
& 10 respectively. If NA = 6.02 1023, find
molecular weight of virus
(a) 3.08 103 kg/mol
(b) 3.08 104 kg/mol
(c) 1.54 104 kg/mol
(d) 15.4 kg/mol
When a substance A reacts with water it
produces a combustible gas B and a solution of
substance C in water. When another substance
D reacts with this solution of C, it also produces
the same gas B on warming but D can produce
gas B on reaction with dilute sulphuric acid at
room temperature. A imparts a deep golden
yellow colour to a smokeless flame of Bunsen
burner. A, B, C and D respectively are
(a) Na , H2, NaOH, Zn
(b) K, H2, KOH, Al
(c) Ca, H2, Ca(OH)2, Sn
(d) CaC2, C2H2, Ca(OH)2, Fe
H2 S gas when passed through a solution of
cations containing HCl precipitates the
cat ions of second group of qual itat ive
analysis but not those belonging to the fourth
group. It is because
(a) presence of HCl decreases the sulphide
ion concentration.
(b) solubility product of group II sulphides
is more than that of group IV sulphides.
(c) presence of HCl increases the sulphide
ion concentration.
(d) sulphides of group IV cations are
unstable in HCl.
Which one of the following forms micelles in
a queou s
sol uti on
a bove
cer ta i n
concentration?
(a) Dodecyl trimethyl ammonium chloride
(b) Glucose
(c) Urea
(d) Pyridinium chloride

8
88.

Section III - Mathematics

81.

The number of all possible selections of one or

more questions from 10 given questions, each
question having one alternative is
(a) 310
(b) 210 1
10
(c) 3 1
(d) 210

82.

The polynomial x 3m + x 3n +1 + x 3k + 2 ,

83.

exactly divisible by x 2 + x + 1 if
(a) m n, k are rational
(b) m, n, k are integers
(c) m, n, k are positive integers
(d) none of these.
If ax2 + 2bx + c = 0 and a1x2 + 2b1x + c1 = 0 have

87.

x = 2 n - p, n I
2

(d) none of these.

(b) G.P.
(d) none

(a)

(a)

(c)

p
q

q
p

91.
(b)

(d)

1
5

2 6
5

(b)

-2 6

tan 3x - tan 2 x
= 1 is
1 + tan 3x tan 2 x

ab
w

[w, w2 are complex cube roots of unity]

If n arithmetic means are inserted between 1 and
31 such that the ratio of the 1st mean and nth
mean is 3 : 29, then the value of n is
(a) 14
(b) 15
(c) 30
(d) 13
The number of dissimilar terms in the expansion
of (a + b)n is n + 1, therefore number of dissimilar
terms in the expansion of (a + b + c)12 is
(a) 13
(b) 39
(c) 78
(d) 91
a C0 + (a + b) C1 + (a + 2b) C2 + .... + (a + nb) Cn is
equal to
(a) (2a + nb) 2n
(b) (2a + nb) 2n 1
n
(c) (na + 2b) 2
(d) (na + 2b) 2n 1

6
(d) None
5
The set of values of x for which

(c)

a
b
+
b
a

The value of cos 2 cos -1 x + sin -1 x at x =

is

(wa + w2b)(w2 a + wb)

2

x = 2np, n I

(c)

If a an b be the roots of x 2 + px + q = 0
then

86.

(b)

90.

a1, b1, c1 are in

(a) A.P.
(c) H.P.

85.

89.

a b c
,
,
are in A.P., then
a 1 b1 c1

a common root and

84.

is

Which of the following is INCORRECT?

(a) If A is a skew-symmetric matrix and n is a
positive in teger, then A n is always
symmetric
(b) If A and B are two matrices such that AB =
B and BA = A, then A2 + B2 = A + B
(c) If A and B are two matrices such that AB =
O, then : |A| = 0 or |B| = 0.
(d) All three are correct
The general solution of the equation
cos x cos 6x = 1 is :
(a) x = (2n + 1) p, n I

(a)

(b)

p

4

(c)

np + : n = 1, 2, 3,......
4

(d) 2 np + 4 : n = 1,2,3.....

92.

The value of sin

(a)

x2 + 2
x 2 +1

(cot1

(cos (tan 1x)) is

(b)

(c)

93.

x2 +1
x2 + 2
1

(d)

x +2
x +2
If A = sin8 q + cos14 q, then for all values of q :
(a) A 1
(b) 0 < A 1
(c) 1< 2A 3
(d) none of these
2

9
94. Two sides of a triangle are given by the roots of
the equation x - 2 3x + 2 = 0 . The angle
2

between the sides is

p
. The perimeter of the
3

100. The equation of the ellipse whose axes are along

the coordinate axes, the length of the latus rectum
is 5 and the eccentricity is

triangle is
(a)

(b)

2 3

(c) 2 3 + 6
95. The value of

(d)

6
2( 3 + 6 )

p
2p
4p
8p
16p
32p
cos
cos
cos
cos
cos
65
65
65
65
65
65
is equal to
cos

(a)

1
64

(b)

1
65

1
(d) None
2
The equation of the straight line whose
intercepts on the axes are twice the intercepts of
the straight line 3x + 4y = 6 on the axes is
(a) 3x + 44y = 3
(b) 3x + 4y = 12
(c) 6x + 8y = 9
(d) None of these
The equation of pair of lines through origin and
perpendicular to the pair of lines

(c)

96.

97.

ax 2 + 2hxy + by 2 = 0 is

(a)

ax 2 - 2hxy + by 2 = 0

(b)

bx 2 + 2hxy - ay 2 = 0

(c)

bx 2 - 2hxy - ay 2 = 0

(d) bx 2 - 2hxy + ay 2 = 0
98. The four points of intersection of the lines
(2x - y + 1) (x - 2 y + 3) = 0 with the axes lie on
a circle whose centre is the point
3 5
,
4 4
(c) (2, 3)

7 5
- ,
4 4
(d) None of these

(a)

(b)

99. If the line y = mx + a 2 m 2 - b 2 touches the

hyperbola
j=

x2
a2

-1

(a)

sin (m)

(c)

b
sin -1

am

y2
b2

= 1 at the point j . Then

2
is
3

(a)

x 2 y2
+
=4
81 45

(b)

x 2 y2 1
+
=
81 45 4

(c)

x2 y2
+
=3
81 45

(d)

x 2 y2 3
+
=
81 45 2

101. The line joining (5, 0) to ( (10 cos q, 10 sin q) is

divided internally in the ratio 2 : 3 at P. If q
varies, then the locus of P is
(a) a pair of straight lines
(b) a circle
(c) a straight line
(d) None of these
102. If the lines a 1x + b1y + c1 = 0
and
a 2 x + b 2 y + c 2= 0 cut the co-ordinate axes in
concylic points, then
a 1 b1
=
a 2 b2

(a)

a1b1 = a 2 b 2

(c)

a 1 + a 2 = b1 + b 2 (d) a1a 2 = b1b 2

(b)

6.5 x for x 0
103. The function f ( x ) =
2a + x for x > 0
will be continuous at x = 0 if a =
(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) 0
104. The number of points at which the function f (x)
=|x 0.5| + | x 1| + tan x does not have a
derivative the interval (0, 2) is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
2x

-1
, then dy at x = 0 is :
105. If y = tan
2 x +1
dx
1+ 2

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) log 2
(d) None
106. The abscissa of the point on the curve ay2 = x3,
the normal at which cuts off equal intercepts
from the coordinate axes is

(b)

a
sin -1

bm

(a)

2a
9

(d)

bm
sin -1

(c)

4a
9

(b)

4a
9

(d)

2a
9

10
107. If A > 0, B > 0 and A + B = p/3, then the maximum
value of tan A tan B is
1
1
(a)
(b)
3
3
(c) 3

(d)

-1
108. The derivative of tan

sin1x is :
(a) 1

3
1- x
with respect to
1+ x

(b)

1
2

1
(c)
(d) None
2
109. Let f(x) = x |x|. The set of points where f(x) is
twice differentiable is
(a) R
(b) R {0}
(c) R {1}
(d) none of these.
1/ m
= x + 1 + x 2 ,
110. If y

then (1 + x ) y 2 + xy1 is equal to

(a) m2y
(b) my2
(c) m2y2
(d) None
2

1
111. If I = 2 p

p -1
dp = f ( p ) + c, then f(p) is
p +1

1
4
3
113. If f ( x ) = cot xdx + cot x - cot x
3

p p
then f ( x ) is
f =
2 2
(b) x - p
(a) p - x
(c) p / 2 - x
(d) None

114. If f (x) =
(a)
(b)

1 / x cos t dt (x > 0), then

2

3 cos x + 2 cos( x -2 )
2x x
x x cos x + 2 cos( x -2 )
2x 2
1

(d) none of the above

(an -1) / n

115. The value of

1n

x
a-x + x

(a) a/2
(c)

(b)

na - 2
2n

116. The function f (q) =

d
dq

1
p + p 2 - 1 - sec -1 p
2
(d) none of the above.

(b)

df
- 2f ( q) cot q = 0
dq

(c)

df
+ 2f (q) = 0
dq

112. If

dx

1 - 9x 2

+ B (cos13x)3 + c,

= A 1 - 9x
where c is integration constant, then the values
of A and B are :
1
1
(a) A = - , B = 9
9
1
1
(b) A = - , B =
9
9
1
1
(c) A = , B = 9
9
(d) none of the above.
2

dx

satisfies the differential equation ;

df
+ 2f (q) cot q = 0
dq

1
( na + 2)
2n

0 1 - cos q cos x

(a)

x + cos -1 3x

dx is

(d) none of these.

1
1
-1
-1
(b) cos p + sec p
2
2

(c) ln

df ( x )
is
dx

(c) 2 x cos x - x cos x

equal to :

2
(a) ln p - p - 1
2

and

df
- 2 f (q ) = 0
dq
117. The solution to the differential equation

(d)

( x + 1)

(a)

dy
- y = e 3x (x + 1) 2 is
dx

y = ( x + 1)e 3x + c

(b) 3y = ( x + 1) + e 3x + c
(c)

3y
= e3x + c
x +1

(d)

ye -3x = 3 ( x + 1) + c

11
118. A vector of magnitude 3, bisecting the angle
a = 2i + j - k

122. Let d1 , d2 , be the intercepts of the sphere

and

x 2 + y 2 + z 2 - 5x - 13y - 14 = 0 on x-axis and

b = i - 2j + k and making an obtuse angle with

y-axis, then
(a) d1 = 9, d2 = 13
(b) d1 = 5, d2 = 13
(c) d1 = 9, d2 = 15
(d) none of these.
123. A speaks the truth in 70 percent cases and B in
80 percent. The probability that they will
contradict eact. other when describing a single
event is
(a) 0.36
(b) 0.38
(c) 0.4
(d) 0.42

between the vectors

b is

(a)

(c)

3i - j

(b)

6
3(i + 3j - 2k )
14

(d)

i + 3j - 2k
14
3i - j
10

124. The two vectors ( x 2 - 1)i + ( x + 2)j + x 2 k and

119. Let a , b and c be three non-coplanar

vectors, and let p , q and r be the vectors
defined by the relations p =

q =

ca
[a b c]

and r =

bc
[a b c]

2i - xj + 3k are orthogonal

(a) for no real value of x

(b) for x = 1

,
(c) for x =

ab
[a b c]

Then the

1
2

(d) for x =

1
and x = 1
2

value of the expression

( a + b ) . p + ( b + c ). q + ( c + a ) . r is
equal to
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
120. Consider the parallelopiped with side
a = 3i + 2j + k , b = i + j + 2k and c = i + 3j + 3k

then the angle between a and the plane

containing the face determined by b and c is
(a)

sin -1

1
3

(b)

cos -1

9
14

-1 2
-1 9
d) sin
(c) sin
3
14
121. The projection of a line PQ, where P is
(0, 1, 3) and Q is (4, 5, 6) on a line whose
direction ratios are 1, 2, 3 is

(a)
(c)

12
14
25
14

(b)

9
14

(d) None

125. Let

u , v and w

be vectors such that

u + v + w = 0 . If
| u |= 3, | v |= 4 and | w |= 5 , then
u . v + v . w + w . u is

(a) 47
(c) 0

(b) 25
(d) 25

Section IV - English Proficiency &

Logical Reasoning

English Proficiency
126. Choose the correct synonym for the given
word.
FOIBLE
(a) separate
(b) minor fault
(c) indignity
(d) illusion
127. Choose the correct antonym for the given
word.
LIVID
(a) undiscoloured (b) senseless
(c) larger
(d) outrageous

12
128. Directions: Choose the option which contains
a pair of words related to each other in the
same way as the pair given in capital letters.
DILATE : CONTRACT
(a) hock : pawn
(b) wax : wane
(c) contaminate : spread
(d) intrude : disturb
129. Directions: In each of these questions, each
sentence has four underlined words or phrases
marked A, B, C and D.
Choose the word or
phrase that must be changed for the sentence
to be correct.
He suggested us that we should try to improve
A
B
our condition by beginning to work hard.
C

No error
D

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
130. Directions: Arrange the sentences, A, B, C and
D to form a logical sequence between sentences
1 and 6.
1. I was awakened in the night by a noise in
the house.
P : I quickly put on my dressing gown and
crept downstairs.
Q : In the living room I discovered two burglars
breaking into my desk.
R : As I switched on the light I saw that it was
2 oclock.
S : They were both tall, dark men.
6. As soon as they saw me standing there,
they rushed to the window and jumped out.
(a) PQRS
(b) PQSR
(c) PSRQ
(d) RPQS
131. Directions : In each of the following quesitons,
a sentence has been given in Active (or Passive)
Voice. Out of the four alternative suggested
select the one which best expresses the same
sentence in Passive (or Active) voice.
The clown was being laughed at by them.
(a) They were laughing at the clown.
(b) They were laughing on the clown.
(c) They laughed at the down.
(d) The clown was laughed at by them.

132. Directions : The question has four items. Select

the item that does not bolong to the group.
(a) anarchy
(b) chaos
(c) pandemonium (d) shield
133. Directions : In the following question, a part of
the sentence is italicised. Below are given
alternatives to the italicised part which may
improve the sentence. Choose the correct
alternative
Newton wanted to know why did the apple fall
to the ground.
(a) Know that why did the apple fall
(b) Know why the apple fell
(c) know that why the apple fell
(d) No improvement
134. Directions: In the following question, you are
given oneblank. The question is followed by
four choices, only one of which fits the blank
appropriately. That correct choice is your
answer.
The man who is ...... hesitating which of the two
things he will do first, will do neither.
(a) persistently
(b) constantly
(c) insistently
(d) consistently
135. Directions: In the following question, you are
given oneblank. The question is followed by
four choices, only one of which fits the blank
appropriately. That correct choice is your
answer.
The pilot had been warned about the storm
before he....
(a) took up
(b) took away
(c) took off
(d) took over
136. Directions: : In the question below are given
two sentences numbered I and II. In these
sentences, two homonyms are given in italics
type, which may be either mis-spelt or
inappropriate in the context of the sentences.
Read both the sentences carefully and decide
on their correctness on the basis of the italicised
words.
I. He drank a draut of wine.
II. Crops failed due to drout.
(a) if only sentence I is correct;
(b) if only sentence II is correct;
(c) if both the sentences I and II are correct;
(d) if I as well as II are incorrect, but both could
be made correct by interchanging the
italicised words;
(e) if either I nor II is correct and the sentence
could not be made correct by interchanging
the italicised words.

13
137. Directions: The following question has an
idiomatic expression followed by four options.
Choose the one closest to its meaning.
To wrangle over an asss shadow
(a) To act in a foolish way
(b) To do something funny
(c) To quarrel lover trifles
(d) To quarrel over the possession of an ass
Directions for the Q. 138 to 140: Read the following
passage carefully and answer the questions given
below the passage. Certain words/phrases in the
passage are given in bold to locate them while
answering some of the questions :
A man may usually be known by the books he reads as
well as by the company he keeps; for there is a
companionship of books as well as of men and one
should always live in the best company, whether it be
of books or of men. A good book may be among the
best of friends. It is the same today that it always was
and it will never change. It is the most patient and
cheerful of companions. It does not turn its back upon
us in times of adversity or distress. It always receives
us with the same kindness; amusing and interesting
us in youth, comforting and consoling us in age.
138. A man may usually be known by the books he
reads because
(a) books provide him a lot of knowledge
(b) the books he reads affect his thinking and
character
(c) his selection of books generally reveals his
temperament and character
(d) his reading habit shows that he is a scholar
139. Which of the following statement is not true ?
(a) good books as well as good men always
provide the finest company.
(b) we have sometimes to be patient with a
book as it may bore us
(c) a good book serves as a permanent friend.
(d) a good book never betrays us
140. The statement A good book may be among the
best friend in the middle of the passage, means
that,
(a) a good book can be included among the
best friends of mankind.
(b) our best friends read the same good books
(c) there can bot be a better friend than a good
book
(d) books may be good friend, but not better
than good man.

Logical Reasoning
141. In the following question there is some relationship between the two terms to the left of : : and
the same relationship obtains between the two
terms to its right. In this quesion the fourth term
is missing. This term is one of the alternative
among the four terms given below. Find out this
term.
LXNU : NYPV : : QTBR : ?
(a) SDSU
(b) RSUD
(c) RUSD
(d) SUDS
142. Which one is different from the rest three?
(a) 5428
(b) 34-17
(c) 42-21
(d) 22-11
143. Which one of the number is wrong in the series
?
0, 1, 3, 6, 10, 15, 21, 28, 37, 45
(a) 0
(b) 10
(c) 45
(d) 37
Directions : In this question a passage is given and
an inference is also given which can be drawn from
the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine
the inference in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.
In the overall economy of India, agriculture is the largest sector of economic activity. It plays a crucial role
in the countrys economic development by providing
food to its people and raw materials to industry. It
accounts for the largest share to the national income.
The share of the various agricultural commodities,
animal busbandry and ancillary activities has been
more than 40 percent since independence. During the
decade of the fifties, it actually contributed about half
of the national output.
Inference : Agriculture is the only source of national
income in India.
Mark answer.
144. (a) if the inference is definitely true, i.e. it
properly follows from the statement of
facts given.
(b) if the inference is probably true though
not definitely true in the light of the facts
given.
(c) if the data are inadequate, i.e. from the
facts given you cannot say whether the
inference is likely to be true or false.
(d) if the inference is probably false though
not definitely false in the light of the
facts given.
(e) if the inference is definitely false, i.e. it
cannot possibly be drawn from the facts
given or it contradicts the given facts.

14
145. In the following question, a set of figures carrying certain characters, is given. Assuming that
the characters in each set follow a similar pattern, find the missing character.
11

17 12

25 34 19
19 28 11
(a) 9
(b) 13
(c) 15
(d) 16
146. Complet the following figure with correct option.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

149. In the following question, select the answer figure that will fit in the blank space in the question
figure, maintaining the pattern in the proper sequence.

147. In the following quesiton, find out which of the

alternatives will exactly make up the key figure

(b)

(c)

(d)

(b)

(c)

(d)

150. The following question contains four rows of

figures, as four alternatives . Each row contains
three different designs. You have to study carefully each row and judge which series of figures
follows the stated rule exactly.
Rule : Any figure can be traced by a single unbroken line without retracing.

(X)

(a)

(a)

148. This question contains a set of three figures X,

Y and Z showing a sequence of folding of a
piece of paper. Fig. (Z) shows the manner in which
the folded paper has been cut. These three figures are followed by four answer figures from
which you have to choose a figure which would
most closely resemble the unfolded form of fig.
(Z).

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

15

Useful Books