MGT-4 Human Resource Management

Mr. Marc David C. Achacoso, MBA

Feb. 6, 2014
Quiz #2

I. Multiple Choice
1. Performance planning and evaluation systems seek to tie the formal performance
appraisal process to the company's
A) organizational structure.
B) stakeholders' needs.
C) goals.
D) size.
2.The process through which an organization gets information on how well an employee is
doing his or her job is called
A) performance appraisal.
B) performance management.
C) performance feedback.
D) ability analysis.
3.Which of the following is not a purpose of performance management systems?
A) Administrative
B) Developmental
C) Investigative
D) Strategic

4. Which of the following is not a recommendation for developing an effective performance

management system?
A) mirror the corporate culture and values
B) differentiate performance subjectively and effectively
C) adjust the system as required
D) communicate the total rewards system
5.______ emphasizes the need for the performance management system to guide employees
in contributing to the organization's success.
A) Specificity
B) Reliability
C) Validity
D) Strategic congruence
6. What performance management evaluation criterion is concerned with maximizing the
overlap between actual job performance and the measure of job performance?
A) Reliability
B) Acceptability
C) Specificity
D) Validity
7.A performance management system that evaluates irrelevant aspects of performance or
aspects that are not job related is
A) unreliable.
B) deficient.
C) contaminated.
D) inconsistent.

8.The consistency among the different individuals who evaluate the employee's performance
is known as
A) internal consistency reliability.
B) interrater reliability.
C) intrarater reliability.
D) test-retest reliability.
9.Which one of the following statements about acceptability is incorrect?
A) Acceptability refers to the extent to which the performance measure assesses all of
the relevantand only the relevantaspects of performance
B) Acceptability is affected by the extent to which employees believe the performance
management system is fair
C) The three categories of perceived fairness include procedural fairness, interpersonal
fairness, and outcome fairness
D) Research suggests that performance management systems that are perceived as unfair
are likely to be legally challenged, used incorrectly, and decrease employee
motivation to improve
10. The extent to which the performance measure gives guidance to employees about what is
expected of them is called
A) reliability.
B) validity.
C) specificity.
D) acceptability.
11. Which of the following is not an approach to measuring performance?
A) Comparative approach
B) Attribute approach
C) Consequential approach
D) Behavior approach
12. ______ ranking consists of a manager looking at a list of employees, deciding who is the
best employee, and crossing that person's name off the list. From the remaining names,
the manager decides who the worst employee is and crosses that name off the listand
so forth.
A) Simple
B) Alternation
C) Reverse
D) Forced
13. The technique that ranks employees into predetermined categories or groups according to
performance is called
A) forced distribution.
B) high low ranking system.
C) paired comparison.
D) strict.
14. The ______ method requires managers to compare every employee with every other
employee in the work group, giving an employee a score of 1 every time he or she is
considered the high performer.
A) partner measurement
B) mixed-standard scales
C) forced distribution

D) paired comparison
15. The approach to measure and manage performance that focuses on the extent to which
individuals possess desirable characteristics is called the
A) attribute approach.
B) leadership approach.
C) personality approach.
D) performance approach.
16. Which attribute approach to performance management is the most frequently used?
A) Behaviorally anchored rating scale
B) Mixed standard scales
C) Behavior observation scales
D) Graphic rating scales
17. If a manager considers one employee at a time and circles a number or a word to signify
the degree to which that employee demonstrates a particular trait, he or she is using a
A) critical incidents approach.
B) mixed standard scale.
C) behavior observation scale.
D) graphic rating scale.
18. In which performance technique are managers given three statements of performance per
dimension and asked to indicate whether the employee's performance is above (+), at (0),
or below (-) the statements?
A) Behaviorally anchored rating scale
B) Mixed standard scale
C) Behavior observation scale
D) Graphic rating scale
19. Which one of the following is true of the attribute approaches to performance
management?
A) They result in high strategic congruence
B) They are difficult to use
C) They are generalizable across organizations and strategies
D) They provide specific guidance and feedback to employees
20. The performance management approach that requires managers to keep a record of
specific examples of effective and ineffective performance is called
A) behaviorally anchored rating scales.
B) behavior observation scales.
C) critical incidents.
D) organizational behavior modification.
21. Which performance management technique involves the identification of a large number
of critical incidents, the classification of these incidents into performance dimensions,
and the rank ordering of these incidents into levels of performance?
A) Behaviorally anchored rating scales
B) Graphic rating scales
C) Critical incidents
D) Organizational behavior modification
22. The performance management method that requires managers to rate the frequency with
which the employee has exhibited a behavior during a rating period is the

A)
B)
C)
D)

behaviorally anchored rating scale.

behavior observation scale.
graphic rating scale.
organizational behavior modification.

23. Managing the behavior of employees through a formal system of behavioral feedback and
reinforcement refers to
A) behaviorally anchored rating scales.
B) behavior observation scales.
C) critical incidents.
D) organizational behavior modification.
24. Which of the following is/are true regarding behavioral approaches to performance
measurement?
A) They link strategy to specific behavior needed to implement strategy
B) They provide specific guidance to employees regarding expected performance
C) They result in techniques that have a high degree of validity
D) All of the above
25. In what type of system are annual goals established and passed down through the
organization?
A) Productivity measurement and evaluation system
B) Management by objectives
C) Assessment centers
D) Organizational behavior modification
26. Which one of the following is generally not true of management by objectives?
A) Goals are established by management and employees
B) Goals are specific, difficult, and objective in nature
C) Individual goals are linked to the company's strategic goals
D) Objective managerial feedback is provided to employees throughout the rating period

27. A performance management system designed with a strong quality orientation can be
expected to do all of the following except
A) emphasize an assessment of both person and system factors in the measurement
system.
B) Emphasize that managers and employees work alone to solve performance problems.
C) Involve both internal and external customers in setting standards and measuring
performance.
D) Use multiple sources to evaluate person and system factors.
28. TQM advocates believe that most U.S. companies' performance management systems are
incompatible with the quality philosophy for a number of reasons. Which one of the
following is not among these reasons?
A) Most existing systems measure performance in terms of quantity, not quality
B) They involve both internal and external customers in setting standards and measuring
performance
C) Companies do not share financial rewards of successes with employees
D) Employees are held accountable for good or bad results to which they contribute but
do not completely control

29. Which statistical process quality control technique helps identify redundancies in jobs
that increase manufacturing or service time?

A)
B)
C)
D)

Cause and effect diagrams

Control charts
Pareto charts
Process flow analysis

30. The quality control technique that lists causes of a problem in decreasing order of
importance is a
A) cause and effect diagram.
B) control chart.
C) Pareto chart.
D) process flow analysis.
31. What quality control technique shows the relationship between two variables, events, or
different pieces of data?
A) Scattergram
B) Control chart
C) Pareto chart
D) Process flow analysis
32. Identify the evaluation approach to performance measurement that meets the following
criteria: very high strategic congruence, usually high validity, high reliability, high
acceptability, and high specificity.
A) Comparative
B) Attribute
C) Behavioral
D) Results
33. Identify the approach to performance measurement that meets the following criteria: poor
strategic congruence, modest to possibly high validity, little to modest reliability,
moderate acceptability, and very low specificity.
A) Comparative
B) Attribute
C) Behavioral
D) Results
Answer: A Page: 374 LO: 5 Difficulty: Hard
AACSB: 6
BT: Application
34. Identify the approach to performance measurement that meets the following criteria: high
strategic congruence, usually high validity, usually high reliability, moderate
acceptability, very high specificity.
A) Comparative
B) Attribute
C) Behavioral
D) Results
35. Identify the approach to performance measurement that meets the following criteria:
usually low strategic congruence, usually low attribute, usually low reliability, high
acceptability, very low specificity.
A)
B)
C)
D)

Comparative
Attribute
Behavioral
Results

36. Which one of the following is not true of managers as the source of the performance
measures?
A) Managers are the most frequently used source of performance information
B) Managers are generally motivated to make accurate ratings
C) Manager-based performance evaluations eliminate the concern of favoritism
D) Managers are viewed by employees as legitimate sources of performance information
37. Which one of the following is not true of peers as the source of the performance
measures?
A) Peers have expert knowledge of job requirements
B) Peer ratings are particularly useful for administrative and strategic decision making
C) Peer ratings are particularly useful when supervisors do not have the opportunity to
observe employees
D) Peers have been found to provide extremely valid assessments of performance in
several different settings
38. When managers are being evaluated, who are especially valuable sources of information?
A) Supervisors
B) Subordinates
C) top-level management
D) Customers
39. Subordinates, as a source of performance information, are generally most appropriate
when the performance results are to be used for
A) training purposes.
B) investigative purposes.
C) strategic purposes.
D) developmental purposes.
40. Using customer evaluations of employee performance is appropriate in all but one of the
following situations. Name the exception.
A) When the company wants an inexpensive means of evaluation
B) When an employee's job requires direct service to the customer or linking the
customer to other services within the company
C) When the company's strategic goal is to integrate market strategies with human
resource activities and policies
D) When the company is interested in gathering information to determine what products
or services the customer wants

41. Which rater error makes it difficult to distinguish among employees rated by the same
rater and creates problems in comparing the performance of individuals rated by different
raters?
A) Contrast
B) Distributional error
C) Halo/horns
D) Similar to me
42. If a student evaluating his or her professor at the end of term rates the professor low on
all performance criteria due to dissatisfaction with the professor's grading scale, the
student has likely committed which rater error?
A) Contrast

B) Halo
C) Central tendency
D) Horns
43. Which rater error leads employees to believe that no aspects of their performance need
improvement?
A) Contrast
B) Halo
C) Horns
D) Similar to me
44. What type of training attempts to emphasize the multidimensional nature of performance
and thoroughly familiarize raters with the actual content of various performance
dimensions?
A) Performance training
B) Error reduction training
C) Multidimensional training
D) Rater accuracy training
45. To improve the performance feedback process, managers should do all but one of the
following. Name the exception.
A) Give employees feedback frequently, not just during the feedback session
B) Let employees rate their performance before the feedback session
C) Conduct the feedback session in his or her office
D) Focus on behavior or results, not on the person
46. An employee that is performing at a barely acceptable level because of lack of ability
and/or motivation to perform well, not poor work conditions, is called a
A) marginal employee.
B) deadwood employee.
C) social loafer.
D) underpar performer.
47. In what legal suit would the plaintiff allege that the performance measurement system
varies according to individuals?
A) Harassment suit
B) Reverse discrimination suit
C) Unjust dismissal suit
D) Discrimination suit
48. Which of the following is not true of high-leverage training?
A) It benchmarks the company's training programs with other companies' programs
B) It is linked to strategic business goals and objectives
C) It relies on an instructional design process
D) It uses the video-teleconferencing training techniques
49. The first step in the instructional design process is
A) creating a learning environment.
B) conducting a needs assessment.
C) selecting training methods.
D) ensuring employees' readiness for training.

50. When conducting a needs assessment, which type of analysis is generally performed
first?
A) Task analysis
B) Organizational analysis
C) Person analysis
D) High-leverage analysis
51. ______ analysis involves determining the business appropriateness of training, given the
company's business strategy.
A) Person
B) Organizational
C) Task
D) Information
52. Instructions that tell employees what, how, and when to perform are called
A) delegations.
B) consequences.
C) outputs.
D) inputs.
53. The information employees receive while they are performing is called
A) a consequence.
B) an output.
C) feedback
D) an input.
54. Which of the following is not true of task analysis?
A) Results in a description of work activities, including tasks performed and skills,
knowledge, and abilities required to successfully complete job tasks
B) Involves developing a preliminary list of tasks performed on the job by interviewing
and observing expert employees and their managers
C) Results in an assessment of employees' readiness for training
D) Involves the verification of tasks using task inventories and/or expert committees
55. A ______ is a specific position requiring the completion of specific tasks, whereas a
_____ is a statement of an employee's work activity in a specific job.
A) job; position
B) job; task
C) requirement; task
D) requirement; position
56. Self-efficacy is
A) the employee's belief that he or she can successfully learn the content of the training
program.
B) the desire of the trainee to learn the content of the training program.
C) the willingness of managers and peers to provide feedback and reinforcement.
D) a statement of an employee's work activity in a specific job.
57. Which one of the following management actions could least likely increase employees'
self-efficacy levels?
A) Letting employees know the purpose of the training programs.
B) Providing as much information as possible about the training program and its
purposes prior to the actual training

C) Showing employees the training success of their peers who are now in similar jobs
D) Using off-site rather than on-site formal training programs
58. Which one of the following statements about cognitive ability is not true?
A) Cognitive ability includes four dimensions: verbal comprehension, quantitative
ability, interpersonal relationships, and reasoning ability
B) Research shows that cognitive ability is related to successful performance in all jobs
C) The importance of cognitive ability for job success increases as the job becomes
more complex
D) Research shows that cognitive ability influences learning
59. To ensure that the work environment enhances trainees' motivation to learn, managers
need to do any of the following except
A) discourage members of work group members to involve each other.
B) speak positively about the company's training programs.
C) give employees time and opportunities to practice and apply new skills or behaviors.
D) let employees know they are doing a good job when they use training content in their
work.
60. If trainees' reading levels did not match the level needed for the training materials, which
one of the following options would be least cost-effective and practical?
A) Use instructional techniques such as video or on-the-job training, which involve
learning by watching and practicing rather than by reading
B) Redesign the job to accommodate the employees' reading levels
C) Identify employees who lack the necessary reading skills and provide them with
remedial training
D) Identify employees who lack the necessary reading skills and transfer them to other
positions more congruent with their skills levels
61. Which of the following is not a condition for learning?
A) A multitude of training content
B) Commit training content to memory
C) Feedback
D) Good program coordination and administration
62. ______ refers to on-the-job use of knowledge, skills, and behaviors learned in training.
A) Information absorption
B) Transfer of learning
C) Cognitive adoption
D) Rationalizing

63. Action plans are developed to facilitate

A) instructional design.
B) program presentation.
C) transfer of learning.
D) training program evaluation.
64. What is the process of enhancing company performance by designing and using tools,
systems, and cultures to improve creation, sharing, and use of knowledge?
A) Business management
B) Business analysis
C) Performance analysis
D) Knowledge management

65. Presentation training techniques are most effective for

A) developing specific skills or dealing with interpersonal issues on the job.
B) teaching new facts or alternative problem-solving solutions.
C) continuously attempting to learn new things to apply for quality improvements.
D) sharing ideas and experiences and getting to know one's strengths and weaknesses.
66. What involves classroom instructions that are provided online through live broadcasts?
A) Blogging
B) Podcasting
C) Internet broadcasting
D) Webcasting
67. Which of the following a major disadvantage of distance learning?
A) The level of self-discipline required by participants
B) The potential lack of interaction between the trainer and the audience
C) The high cost of equipment
D) The lack of face-to-face interaction
68. Which of the following is not an advantage to the use of audiovisual in training?
A) The trainer has the flexibility to customize the session
B) Trainees get consistent instructions
C) Trainees can be exposed to equipment, problems, and events that cannot be easily
demonstrated
D) Trainees are provided with consistent instruction
69. Hands-on training techniques are most effective for
A)
B)
C)
D)

developing specific skills or dealing with interpersonal issues on the job.

teaching new facts or alternative problem-solving solutions.
continuously attempting to learn new things to apply for quality improvements.
sharing ideas and experiences and getting to know one's strengths and weaknesses.

70. What refers to new or inexperienced employees learning through observing peers or
managers performing the job and trying to imitate their behaviors?
A) Behavioral training
B) Performance training
C) Observation training
D) On-the-job training
71. From a company perspective, which one of the following is not true of self-directed
learning?
A) Requires fewer trainers
B) Provides consistent training content that captures the knowledge of experts
C) Decreases development costs and time
D) Makes multi-site training more realistic
72. A work-study training method that uses both on-the-job training and classroom training is
called
A) apprenticeship.
B) simulation.
C) virtual reality training.
D) case study learning.
73. Which one of the following is not true of simulations as a training technique?

A) Simulations need to have identical elements to those found in the work environment
B) Simulations are used to teach production and process skills as well as management
and interpersonal skills
C) Simulations allow trainees to see the impact of their decisions in an artificial, riskfree environment
D) Simulations are inexpensive to develop and maintain due to virtual reality
technologies.
74. Which of the following are components found in a typical behavior modeling session?
A) Presentation of the key behaviors, videotape of a model, practice opportunities, and a
planning session
B) Videotape of a model, planning session, one-on-one coaching, and practice
opportunities
C) Presentation of key behaviors, videotape of a model, participation in a case study
group, and planning session
D) Lecture, videotape of a model, on-the-job coaching, and practice opportunities
75. Behavior modeling training is best for improving
A) technical skills.
B) interpersonal skills.
C) conceptual skills.
D) all of the above.
76. Which of the following is a disadvantage of interactive video training?
A) Training is not individualized
B) Development and equipment costs are relatively high
C) Employees do not receive immediate feedback about their performance
D) Training is not convenient for both employees and employers
77. Which one of the following is not characteristic of e-learning?
A) It involves the use of web-based training, distance-learning, and virtual classrooms
B) It enhances learning as learners are more engaged through the use of video, graphics,
sound, and text
C) It increases training time due to its remote nature and lack of trainer interaction
D) It focuses on learning solutions that go beyond traditional training
78. ______ refers to the ability of trainees to actively learn through self-pacing, exercises,
exploring links to other material, and conversations with other trainees and experts.
A) E-learning
B) Repurposing
C) Blended learning
D) Learner control
79. Adventure learning appears to be best suited for
A) developing skills related to group effectiveness.
B) developing specific on-the-job production skills.
C) teaching new facts or alternative problem-solving solutions.
D) continuously attempting to learn new things to apply for quality improvement.
80. What method of team training shows a team how to share information and decisions to
maximize team performance?
A) Six sigma training
B) Cross-training
C) Coordination training

D) Team leader training

81. Giving teams or work groups an actual problem, having them work on solving it and
commit to an action plan, and holding them accountable for carrying out the plan
describes
A) adventure learning.
B) self-directed learning.
C) action learning.
D) team training.
82. ______ training provides employees with measurement and statistical tools to help
reduce defects and to cut costs.
A) Six sigma
B) Seven sigma
C) Team quality
D) Variance training
83. Training evaluation that measures the acquisition of knowledge is called
A) cognitive outcomes.
B) results outcomes.
C) content outcomes.
D) affective outcomes.
84. Training evaluation that measures what trainees thought of the training content and
instructors is called
A) cognitive outcomes.
B) results outcomes.
C) content outcomes.
D) affective outcomes.
Answer: D Page: 310 LO: 8 Difficulty: Easy
AACSB: 6
BT: Knowledge
85. Training evaluation that uses observation, work-samples, and ratings to measure
behaviors is called
A) skill-based outcomes.
B) results outcomes.
C) affective outcomes.
D) cognitive outcomes.
86. Transfer of training is best assessed by which types of training evaluation?
A)
B)
C)
D)

Affective and content outcomes

Cognitive and behavior outcomes
Results and learning outcomes
Skill-based and results outcomes

87. Being unable to rule out the effects of business conditions or other factors as explanations
for change is a disadvantage of the
A) pretest/posttest evaluation design.
B) time series evaluation design.
C) pretest/posttest comparison group evaluation design.
D) pretest only with comparison group evaluation design.
88. An appropriate design to be used when trainees can be expected to have similar levels of

skills or knowledge prior to training is

A) pretest/posttest evaluation design.
B) time series evaluation design.
C) pretest/posttest comparison group evaluation design.
D) posttest only evaluation design.
89. When training outcome measures are collected at periodic intervals before and after
training, which one of the following evaluation designs is being used?
A)
B)
C)
D)

Pretest/posttest evaluation design

Time series evaluation design
Pretest/posttest comparison group evaluation design
Pretest only with comparison group evaluation design

90. Which of the following is not a factor to be considered in choosing an evaluation design?
A) Experience level of the trainer
B) Size of the training program
C) Purpose of training
D) Implications if a training program doesn't work
91. What type of evaluation design is necessary if a manager wants to compare the effect of
two training programs?
A) Pretest/posttest evaluation design
B) Time series evaluation design
C) Pretest/posttest comparison group evaluation design
D) Pretest only with comparison group evaluation design
92. ______ is the process of determining the economic benefits of a training program using
accounting methods.
A) Income training analysis
B) Asset-liability analysis
C) Profitability analysis
D) Cost-benefit analysis
93. An individual that works in a country other than his or her country of origin is called a(n)
A) non-patriate.
B) repatriate.
C) expatriate.
D) inpatriate.
94. Which one of the following is not true of cross-culture preparation?
A) Most U.S. companies send employees overseas without any preparation
B) Research suggests that the comfort of an expatriate's spouse and family is the most
important determinant of whether the employee will complete the assignment
C) Virtual expatriate positions have increased the number of employees willing to accept
foreign assignments
D) Foreign assignments involve three phasespredeparture, on-site, and repatriation
and training is necessary in all three phases
95. Which of the following steps on cross-cultural preparation does employees need and
receive language training and an orientation to the new countrys culture and customs?
A) On-site phase
B) Predeparture phase
C) Postdearture phase
D) Repatriation phase

96. ______ programs focus on changing the organizational policies and individual behaviors
that inhibit employees' personal growth and productivity.
A) Cultural immersion
B) Change
C) Attitude awareness
D) Behavior-based
97. Sending employees directly into communities where they have to interact with persons
from different cultures, races, and nationalities is called
A) attitude shifting.
B) cultural awareness.
C) cultural immersion.
D) cultural dispersion.
98. Through ______, expectations about the company, job, working conditions, and
interpersonal relationships are developed through interactions with representatives of the
company.
A) orientation socialization
B) anticipatory socialization
C) settling in
D) encounter socialization
99. In which phase of the socialization process do employees begin to feel comfortable with
their job demands?
A) Settling-in phase
B) Encounter phase
C) Anticipatory phase
D) Evaluation phase
100. Shock is likely to occur at which stage within the socialization process?
A) Anticipatory socialization phase
B) Encounter phase
C) Settling in phase
D) Probationary phase