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Indian-Airforce Placement-Paper :
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Indian-Airforce Whole-Testpaper placement paper
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AFCAT Air Force Common Admission Test Solved reasoning Questions for practice set
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AFCAT Air Force Common Admission Test
1. Out of the following which centre is making use of enriched Uranium?

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1. Out of the following which centre is making use of enriched Uranium?

(a) Tarapur Nuclear Energy Centre
(b) Kalpakkam Nuclear Energy Centre
(c) Narora Nuclear Energy Centre
(d) Ravat Bhata Nuclear Energy Centre
Whole-Testpaper
Ans. (a)
2. Shobha Gurtu is a
(a) Padmashree
(b) Padmavibbushan
(c) Padmabhushan
(d) Phalke Award Winner
Ans. (a)
3. Dhyan Chand was Indian Captain in Berlin World cup Hockey Test in the year
(a) 1906
(b) 1916
(c) 1964
(d) 1936
Ans. (d)
4. Where is the largest Railway platform in the world?

(a) Leningrad
(b) Liver pool
(c) Sonepur
(d) Kharagpur
Ans. (d)
5. Nunamati is famous for

(a) mines of raw iron
(b) mines of coal
(c) oil refinery
(d) mines of mica
Ans. (c)
6. Energy is measured in the same unit as-

(a) work
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(a) work
(b) power
(c) momentum
(d) force
Whole-Testpaper
Ans. (a)
7 The largest gland in human body is (a) endocrine

(b) Pancreas
(c) liver
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
8. The universal donor is

(a) O
(b) A
(c) B
(d) AB
Ans. (a)
9. The capital of of Chattisgarh is (a) Raipur

(b) Bilaspur
(c) Raichur
(d) Ranchi
Ans. (a)
10. Sphygmomanometer measures

(a) blood pressure
(b) ocean depth
(c) magnetic field
(d) electric current
Ans. (a)
11. Who among the following holds the office during the pleasure of the President of India?
(a) Judges of Supreme Court (b) Election Commissioner
(c) Governor
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Ans. (c)
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12. The author of the book Interpreter of Maladies is

(a) Jhumpa Lahiri
(b) Arundhati Roy
(c) Vikram Seth
(d) Geeta Mehta
Ans. (a)
13. Which among the following is a Morning Raga?

(a) Sohini (b) Bhairavi
(c) Kalawati
(d) Sarang
Ans. (b)
14. Guernica is a famous painting of

(a) Leonardo da Vinci
(b) Michelangelo
(c) Picasso
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
15. Last Supper is a world famous painting of

(a) Paul Gauguin
(b) Leonardo da Vinci (c) Raphael
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
16. Bhogali Bihu is a festival of
(a) Assam
(b) Orissa
(c) Gujarat
(d) Rajasthan
Ans. (a)
17. The capital of Andaman & Nicobar is

(a) Car Nicobar
(b) Port Blair (c) Katchtibu
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(b) Port Blair (c) Katchtibu

(d) None of these
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Ans. (b)
18. What does the term Dactology mean?

(a) Study of finger prints for identification
(b) Study of physically handicapped persons
(c) System of new words
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
19. Aizawl is the capital of
(a) Lakshadweep
(b) Nagaland
(c) Mizoram (d) None of these
Ans. (c)
20. The term Third World is related to

(a) Asian countries
(b) Oil producing countries
(c) Developed countries
(d) Developing countries
Ans. (d)
21. Which of the following is a bulwark of personal freedom?

(a) Mandamus
(b) Habeas Corpus
(c) QuWarranto (d) Certiorari
Ans. (b)
22. The anode in a dry cell consists of

(a) Copper
(b) Zinc
(c) Carbon
(d) Graphite
Ans. (c)
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23. In which country Greenwich is situated?

(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) Holland
(d) India
Ans. (b)
24. Which of the following types of lens is used in a camera?

(a) Convex
(b) Concave
(c) Spherical
(d) Uniform. thickness
Ans. (a)
25. Sound waves are

(a) longitudinal
(b) transverse
(c) partially longitudinal and partially transverse
(d) sometimes longitudinal sometimes transverse
Ans. (a)
26. After walking 6 km, I turned right and covered a distance of 2 km, then turned left and covered a
distance of 10 km. In the end, I was moving towards the north. From which direction did I start my
journey?
(a) North
(b) South
(c) East
(d) West
Ans. (c)
27. In a certain code language EDITION is written as IDETNOI. How will the word MEDICAL be written in
that code language?
(a) DEMILAC
(b) LACJM
(c) DIEMCAL
(d) MCADILE
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(d) MCADILE
Ans. (a)
28. Find the odd one

(a) Shelley (b) Keats
(c) Chaucer
(d) Churchill
Ans. (a)
29 In a row of boys Ganesh is 12th from the left and Rajan is 15th from the right. When they interchange
their positions Rajan becomes 20th from the right. How many boys are there in the row?
(a) 29
(b) 31
(c) 32
(d) 30
Ans. (b)
30. There are four roads. You are coming from South and want to go to the temp1e The road to your left
leads away from coffee house. The front straight road leads to the college only. In which direction is the
temple located?
() North
(b) South
(c) East
(d) West
Ans. (c)
Directions (Q. 3132): In each of the following questions a related pair of words is
given. Find the most suitable pair of related words from among the four alternatives.
31. Satellite : Planetary path

(a) Missile : Projectile Path (b) Arrow : Plunge
(c) Bullet : Pipe
(d) Elevator : Axle
Ans. (a)
32. Brittle: Break:

(a) Glass : Break
(b) Sharp : Scratch
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(b) Sharp : Scratch

(c) Tree : Wind
(d) Elastic : Bend
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Ans. (d)
33. Fill in the missing letter in the following series S,V,Y,B,?

(a) C
(b) D
(c) E
(d) C
Ans. (c)
34. Fill in the missing letter in the following series

A, Z, C, X, E?
(a) C
(b) D
(c) W
(d) V
Ans. (d)
Directions (Q. 3539): Read the following information and answer the questions.
There are six flats on a floor in two rows facing north and south allotted to six persons
P, Q, R, S, T and U. The position of their flats is as follows
(i) Qs flat faces the north and is not next to S.

(ii) S and U have occupied diagonally opposite flats.
(iii) R next to U occupied a flat facing the south and T gets a flat which faces the north.
35. Whose flat is between Q and S?
(a) P
(b) R
(c) T
(d) U
Ans. (c)
36. The flats of which pair other than of SU is diagonally opposite to each other?
(a) RT
(b) PT
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(b) PT
(c) QP
(d) TU
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Ans. (c)
37. If the flats of T and P are interchanged, whos flat will be next to that of U?
(a) S (b) R
(c) Q
(d) Q or S
Ans. (b)
38. After interchanging the flats of T and P, who stays between T and U in the same block?
(a) P
(b) Q
(c) S
(d) R
Ans. (d)
39. If the flats are not interchanged between T and P, who occupies the flat between Q and S?
(a) P
(b)T
(c) R
(d) U
Ans. (b)
40. In a map south-east has be shown as north, north-east has been shown as west and so on. In this map
what will west represent?
(a) South-west
(b) South-east
(c) South
(d) North-west
Ans. (b)
41. In an imaginary system 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, are represented by z, y, x, w, v, u, t, s, r, q

respectively. In such a system 23 *4 *5 will be written as (* indicates symbol of multiplication)
(a) xyr
(b) rvu
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(b) rvu
(c) ysr
(d) vtz
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Ans. (d)
42. Anand is related to Vinod and Cinderella. Deepa is Cinderellas mother. Also Deepa is Vinods sister
and Ela is Vinods sister. How is Ela related to Cinderella?
(a) Niece
(b) Cousin
(c) Sister
(d) Aunt
Ans. (d)
43 The letters of English alphabet are numbered from 26 to 1. The assigned numbers are used to write he
letters of the original alphabet so that 26 stands for A, 25 stands for B and so on. Using this sequence,
answer the following question. Which of the following sequence denotes a valid word?
V-O-I-D
(a) 612-1723
(b) 5111812
(c) 5121823
(d) 5121723
Ans. (c)
44. In certain code language the word NUMERICAL is written as LMUIREACN. How will the word
PUBLISHED be written in that language?
(a) DUBSILEHP
(b) DBULISEHP
(c) DUBLSEHP
(d) DBUSILEHP
Ans. (d)
45. If Dog is called Cat, Cat is called Lion, Lion is called Ox, Ox is called Cock, Cock is called Elephant,
and Elephant is called Donkey, then farmer ploughs with which animal?
(a) Dog
(b) Lion
(c) Donkey
(d) Cock
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(d) Cock
Ans. (d)
46 In a colony, each of the 20% families have two TV sets, 30% of the rest families have three TV sets.
Each of the remaining families has one TV set. Which of the following statement is true?
(A) 80% families have at least one TV set
(B) 50% families have two TV sets
(C) 56% families have one TV set
(D) 30% families have three TV sets
Ans. (C)
48 Arrange the following words according to dictionary

1. Bird
2. Bilk
3. Bill
4. Billion
5. Birth
Code:
(A) 2, 1, 3, 4, 5
(B) 2, 3, 4, 1, 5
(C) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1
(D) 3, 4, 2, 1, 5
Ans. (B)
49. If S T means 5 is the wife of T, S + T means S is the daughter of T and S T means S is the
son of T. What will M + J + K means?
(A) K is the father of M
(B) M is the grand-daughter of K
(C) J is wife of K
(D) K and M are brothers
Ans. (B)
50. S x T means S is brother of T and S + T means S is father of T, which of the following shows 0 is
the cousin of R ?
(A) R x T + O
(B) R + T x O
(C) R x O x T
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(C) R x O x T
(D) None of these
Ans. (D)
51. If P + Q means P is the husband of Q, P Q means P is the sister of Q, and P x Q means P is

son of Q, which of the following shows A is daughter of B ?
(A) A D x B
(B) D x B + C A
(C) B C x A
(D) C x B A
Ans. (A)
52. In a class of 50 students, 36 students study Mathematics and 28 study Biology. The number of
students studying both Mathematics and Biology will be
(A) 22
(B) 14
(C) 30
(D) 12
Ans. (B)
53. If a man writes QDGFHS for TIGHER, then in this way what will be write for MONKEY?
(A) XDHNMK
(B) YDJMLK
(C) XDJMNL
(D) XCHNMK
Ans. (C)
54. What is necessary for a nursing home?

(A) Nurse
(B) Ambulance
(C) Doctor
(D) Medicine
Ans. (C)
55. If 854 = 12, 467 = 38, then 683 =?

(A) 21
(B) 12
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(B) 12
(C) 18
(D) 35
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Ans. (C)
56. In a code if Se ker he = hot good tea Pek cha ker = good thunder pure Nep cha he = fresh pure tea
Then in the same code how thunder tea will be written?
(A) Pek he
(B) Cha he
(C) Pek ker
(D) Cha ker
Ans. (A)
57. A clock shows nine-half when seen in the mirror. What is the actual time?
(A) 3:30
(B) 2:30
(C) 6:10
(D) 1:30
Ans. (B)
58. A boy used in a picture Blue colour for Red, Red for Yellow, Yellow for Green and Green for Blue.
What will be the colour of leaves?
(A) Green
(B) Blue
(C) Red
(D) Yellow
Ans. (D)
59. Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following?
1. Leaves
2. Branch
3. Flower
4. Tree
5. Fruit
(A) 4, 3, 1, 2, 5
(B) 4, 2, 5, 1, 3
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(B) 4, 2, 5, 1, 3
(C) 4, 3, 2, 1, 5
(D) 4, 2, 1,3, 5
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Ans. (D)
60 If + means x, means , x means f, and means +, then what is the value of 9 + 8 8

4x9
(A) 65
(B) 39
(C) 27
(D) 11
Ans. (A)
61. If P means +, Q means , R means x and S means which of the following equation is not
correct?
(A) 1 R 5 = 16 Q 15 P 4
(B) 14 P S 10 = 7 R 2 Q 12
(C) 11 R 10 S 10 = 16 P 2 Q 7
(D) 3 Q 9 P 6 = 8 R 3 Q 24
Ans. (B)
62. In an examination if a student looses mark for the wrong answer and gets 1 mark for the correct
answer. If he got 30 marks for solving54 questions, then how many questions were correct?
(A) 30
(B) 36
(C) 40
(D) 42
Ans. (B)
63. The word formed in same sequence with the letter of the word INFOMATION is
(A) NATION (B) FORMAT
(C) RATIONAL
(D) ONION
Ans. (B)
64. Choose the correct number from the options?

015 : 00015: : 103:?
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015 : 00015: : 103:?

(A) 0103
(B) 0O103
(C) 1003
(D) 1030
Ans. (B)
65. Which one of the following will be seen same in the mirror?
(A) AUNUA
(B) OVCACV
(C) SVWVS
(D) TMAMT
Ans. (D)
66. What is the angle between the two hands of clock when it is 7 : 30?
(A) 45
(B) 35
(C) 325
(D) 30
Ans. (A)
67 Ashok starts to walk from the point P. He went 10 km towards North and 6 km toward South. After this
he went 3 km towards East. How far is he now from P?
(A) 4 km
(B) 5 km
(C) 7 km
(D) 3 km
Ans. (B)
68. Complete the following series after choosing the correct optionc b a a b a a c c a a b b a a a
cba
(A) cabc
(B) babc
(C) bacc
(D) abcb
Ans. (B)
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69. If it was Friday on 15th Aug. 2003, which day of the week will be on 15th Aug. 2005?
(A) Saturday
(B) Sunday
(C) Monday
(D) Thursday
Ans. (C)
70. In the following sequence there are how many such 6 which are preceded by 8 and followed by 3?
7863271868986186318
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Ans. (B)
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Indian Air Force Common admission Test AFCAT SET 1
Instructions for candidates
TIME ALLOTTED 2 HRS.

1. Total No. of Questions100. Each Question is of three marks.
2. One mark will be deducted for every wrong answer.
3. Do not write or mark on the Question Paper.
4. Question Paper to be returned before leaving the Exam Hall.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
We stand poised precariously and challengingly on the razors edge of destiny. We are now at the mercy
of atom bombs and the like which would destroy us completely if we fail to
control them wisely. And wisdom in this crisis means sensitiveness to the basic values of life; it means a
vivid realization that we are literally living in one world where we must either swim together or sink
together. We cannot afford to tamper with mans single minded loyalty to peace and international
understanding. Anyone, who does it is a traitor not only to mans past and present, but also to his future,
because he is mortgaging the destiny of unborn generations.
From the tone and style of the passage it appears that the writer is(a) a prose writer with a fascination for images and metaphors.
(b) a humanist with a clear foresight.
(c) a traitor who wishes to mortgage the destiny of future generations.
(d) unaware of the global power situation.
Q1.
The best way to escape complete annihilation in an atomic war is to(a) work for international understanding and harmony.
(b) invent more powerful weapons.
(c) turn to religion.
(d) ban nuclear weapons.
Q2.
The phrase razors edge of destiny means a/an(a) enigma that cuts through the pattern of life like the edge of a razor.
(b) critical situation that foreordains the future.
(c) sharp line of division that marks the alternative courses of action in the future.
(d) destiny with sharp edges.
Q3.
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Q4.
Whole-Testpaper
According to the writer, wisdom on the razors edge of destiny means:
(a) awareness that we stand poised precariously on the razors edge of destiny.
(b) determination to ban nuclear weapons.
(c) responsibility to the unborn generations.
(d) awareness of the basic values of life.
Q5. The author is concerned about the threat of nuclear weapons because he feels that(a) a nuclear war will destroy human civilization.
(b) all countries are interlinked and one cannot escape the consequences of what
happens to another country.
(c) the world is on the brink of disaster.
(d) his country is threatened by a nuclear war.
In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentence has an error. If
there is no mistake, the answer is (d) No error.
Q6.
A person I met (a)/in the theatre (b)/was the playwright himself. (c)/No error (d).
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Q7.
They walked (a)/besides each other (b)/in silence. (c)/No error (d).No error (d).
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Q8. We returned to the guest house (a)/impressed by (b)/what we had seen. (c)/No error (d).
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Q9.
The judge was convinced (a)/that neither (b)/of the five accused was guilty. (c)/No error (d).
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Q10.
The municipality is going (a) /to built a new school (b)/near the park. (c)/ No error (d).
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Set - 1 2
Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the
sentence meaningfully complete.
Q11.
His actions had ________ pain and suffering on thousands of people.

(a) affected
(b) imposed
(c) inflicted
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(c) inflicted
(d) deplored
The Government will ______ all resources to fight poverty.
(a) collect
(b) exploit
(c) harness
(d) muster
Q12.
The children ______ crackers to celebrate the victory of their team.

(a) burst
(b) fired
(c) shot
(d) released
Q13.
I am ______ forward to our picnic scheduled in the next month.

(a) seeing
(b) looking
(c) planning
(d) thinking
Q14.
Q15.
I hope you must have _____ by now that failures are the stepping stones to success.
(a) known
(b) felt
(c) decided
(d) realized
In each of the following choose the word most similar in meaning to the word given in
capitals.
Q16. CAUSED
(a) Brought about

(b) Brought forward
(c) Brought out
(d) Brought over
Q17. PLACID
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Q17. PLACID
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(a) Plain
(b) Clear
(c) Poor
(d) Calm
Q18. AUDACIOUS
(a) Obvious
(b) Daring
(c) Ardent
(d) Affluent
Pick out the word that is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the word given in
capitals.
Q19. MONOLOGUE
(a) Prologue
(b) Epilogue
(c) Dialogue
(d) Catalogue
Q20. DELETE
(a) Imbibe
(b) Improve
(c) Insert
(d) Inspire
Q21. AMBIGUITY
(a) Certainty
(b) Clarity
(c) Rationality
(d) Laxity
Choose the correct answer.
Q22.
The First Battle of Panipat was fought between-
(a) Akbar & Hemu

(b) Babur and Ibrahim Lodhi
(c) Akbar & Rana Sanga
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(d) Ahmad Shah Abdali & Marathas
Whole-Testpaper
Q23.
Fa-hien visited India during the reign of(a) Chandra Gupta Maurya
(b) Bindusara
(c) Chandra Gupta II
(d) Bimbisara
Gandhijis first experience with Satyagraha came up in(a) Dandi
(b) Champaran
(c) Bengal
(d) Natal
Q24.
Q25.
During whose tenure as the viceroy of India were the great Martyrs Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and
Rajguru hanged?
(a) Lord Curzon
(b) Lord Irwin
(c) Lord Minto
(d) Lord Chelmford
The winner of the highest number of gold medals in an Olympic game is(a) Mark Spitz
(b) Matt Biondi
(c) Michael Phelps
(d) Jenny Thompson
Q26.
Q27.
Agha Khan Cup is associated with the game of(a) Football

(b) Hockey
(c) Badminton
(d) Cricket
Usain Bolt, the 100 meters race world record holder, is from which country?
(a) Jamaica
Q28.
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(a) Jamaica
(b) U.S.A.
(c) Canada
(d) Nigeria
Only two cricket players have taken 10 wickets in an innings. One is Anil Kumble. The other is(a) Richard Hadlee
(b) Muttiah Muralidharan
(c) Jim Laker
(d) Andy Roberts
Q29.
Borlaug Award is given every year to an Indian scientist for outstanding contribution in the field of(a) Medicine
(b) Space
(c) Applied Science
(d) Agriculture
Q30.
Q31.
The highest Indian gallantry award which could be given in peace time is(a) Ashok Chakra
(b) Param Vir Chakra
(c) Kirti Chakra
(d) Param Vishisht Seva Medal
Q32.
The most successful Satellite Launch Vehicle of Indian Space Programme to launch commercial
satellites is known as(a) SLV
(b) ASLV
(c) PSLV
(d) GSLV
Q33.
Which one of the following soils is most suitable for cotton cultivation(a) Red soil
(b) Black soil
(c) Loamy soil
(d) Laterite soil
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Laterite soil
Whole-Testpaper
Q34.
The name of indigenously built Light Combat Aircraft is(a) Tejas

(b) Chakra
c) Vajra
(d) Trishul
The boundary between China and India is known as(a) Mc Mohan Line
(b) Radcliffe Line
(c) Hindenberg Line
(d) Line of Control
Q35.
Q36.
Equinox means two days in a year when day and night are almost equal. If March 21 is an equinox
which is the next?
(a) 09 October
(b) 31 August
(c) 23 September
(d) 03 November
Q37.
UNHCR, an organisation of United Nations, was established to provide/promote(a) Primary Education

(b) Health and Culture
(c) Relief
(d) Protection to refugees
Q38.
Who authored the book Train to Pakistan?
(a) Salman Rushdie

(b) Khushwant Singh
(c) Mulk Raj Anand
(d) Vikram Seth
Vitamin necessary to prevent prolonged bleeding is(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin E
Q39.
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(b) Vitamin E
(c) Vitamin D
(d) Vitamin K
Q40. The famous classical dance form of Andhra Pradesh is(a) Kathakali
(b) Kuchipudi
(c) Mohini Attam
(d) Yakshaagna
Whole-Testpaper
Q41.
The term Carbon Credit is associated with(a) Coal reserve of a nation

(b) Reduction of Green House Gas emissions
(c) Fossil Fuel reserve
(d) Amount of CO2 an individual emits in a year
Q42.
In a 225 meter long yard 26 trees are planted at equal distance, one tree being at each end of the
yard. What is the distance between two consecutive trees?
(a) 10 meters
(b) 8 meters
(c) 12 meters
(d) 9 meters
Q43.
A bonus of Rs. 1000 is divided among three employees. Rohit gets twice the amount Sachin gets.
Sachin gets one fifth of what Gagan gets. How much amount does Gagan get?
(a) Rs. 500
(b) Rs. 625
(c) Rs. 750
(d) Rs. 120
Q44.
A boy was asked to multiply a number by 25. Instead, he multiplied the number by 52 and got the
answer 324 more than the correct answer. The number to be multiplied was(a) 12
(b) 15
(c) 25
(d) 32
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Whole-Testpaper
The average age of 35 students in a class is 16 years. Out of these students the average age of 21
students is 14 years. The average age of remaining students is(a) 15 years
(b) 17 years
(c) 20 years
(d) 19 years
Q45.
After replacing an old member by a new member, it was found that the average age of five
members of a club is the same as it was 3 years ago. What is the difference between the age of replaced
member and new member?
(a) 2 years
(b) 8 years
(c) 15 years
(d) 25 years
Q46.
Q47.
The average salary of all the workers in a workshop is Rs. 8000. The average salary of seven
technicians is Rs. 12000 and average salary of others is Rs. 6000. The total number of workers in the
workshop are(a) 20
(b) 21
(c) 22
(d) 23
Q48.
In an examination a candidate has to get 35% of total marks to pass. In one paper he gets 62 out of
150 and in the second 35 out of 150. How many marks should he get out of 200 marks in the third paper to
pass?
(a) 61
(b) 68
(c) 70
(d) 78
The salary of A & B together amounts to Rs. 2000. A spends 95% of his salary and B 85% of his
salary. If their savings are same what is the salary of A?
(a) Rs. 750
(b) Rs. 1250
Q49.
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(b) Rs. 1250

(c) Rs. 1500
(d) Rs. 1600
Whole-Testpaper
Out of the 1000 inhabitants of a town, 60% are male of whom 20% are literate. If, amongst all the
inhabitants, 25% are literate, then what percentage of the females of the town are literate?
(a) 22.5
(b) 32.5
(c) 27.5
d) 37.5
Q50.
A trader mixes 26 Kg of rice at Rs. 20 per kg with 30 Kg rice of another variety costing Rs. 36 per
Kg. If he sells the mixture at Rs. 30 per Kg his profit will be(a) -7%
(b) 5%
(c) 8%
(d) 10%
Q51.
The difference between the cost price and sale price is Rs. 240. If the profit is 20%, the selling
price is(a) Rs. 1200
(b) Rs. 1440
Q52.
(c) Rs. 1800

(d) Rs. 2440
Samant bought a microwave oven and paid 10% less than Maximum Retail Price(MRP). He sold it
with 30% profit on his purchase cost. What percentage of profit did he earn on MRP?
(a) 17%
(b) 20%
(c) 27%
(d) 32%
Q53.
Q54.
The price of a scooter and a TV are in the ratio of 7:5. If the scooter costs Rs. 8000 more than a TV
set, then the price of TV set is(a) Rs. 20000
(b) Rs. 24000
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Whole-Testpaper
(b) Rs. 24000

(c) Rs. 32000
(d) Rs. 28000
Q55.
The speed of three cars is in the ratio of 5:4:6. The ratio between the time taken by them to travel
the same distance is(a) 5:4:6
(b) 6:4:5
(c) 10:12:15
(d) 12:15:10
Q56.
The ration between two numbers is 3:4. If each number is increased by 6 the ratio becomes 4:5.
The difference between the numbers is(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 6
(d) 8
Rs. 800 becomes Rs. 956 in 3 years at a certain rate of interest. If the rate of interest is increased
by 4% what amount will Rs. 800 become in 3 years?
Q57.
(a) Rs. 1020

(b) Rs. 1052
(c) Rs. 1282
(d) Rs. 1080
How much time will it take for an amount of Rs. 450 to gain Rs. 81 as interest, if rate of interest is
4.5% p.a on simple interest?
(a) 4.5 years
(b) 3.5 years
(c) 5 years
(d) 4 years
Q58.
At what rate of annual simple interest will Rs. 10000 double in 15 years?
(a) 5.5%
(b) 8%
Q59.
27/118
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8%
(c) 6.75%
(d) 7.25%
Whole-Testpaper
The value of (?) in the equation 365.089 - ? + 89.72 = 302.35 is(a) 152.456
(b) 152.459
(c) 153.456
(d) 153.459
Q60.
A sum of Rs. 312 is divided among 60 boys and some girls in such a way that each boy gets Rs.
3.60 and each girl gets Rs.2.40. The number of girls are(a) 35
(b) 60
(c) 40
(d) 65
Q61.
This is a test of your ability to understand words. For each question four options are
given. There is only one correct answer for each question. Mark the correct answer.
Q62.
INCITE means the same as

(a) short
(b) delay
(c) place (d) provoke
Q63.
SUCCUMB means the same as
(a) aid
(b) yield
(c) check
(d) oppose
Q64.
ANOMALOUS means the same as

(a) disgraceful
(b) formless
(c) irregular
(d) threatening
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Whole-Testpaper
Q65.
FORTUITOUS means the same as

(a) accidental
(b) conclusive
(c) courageous
(d) prosperous
Q66 PERMEABLE
means the same as
(a) flexible
(b) variable
(c) soluble
(d) penetrable
Q67.
CONVOY means the same as

(a) carry
(b) flock
(c) standard
(d) escort
CITE means the same as
(a) illustrate
(b) reveal
(c) recollect
(d) quote
Q68.
VOCATION means the same as

(a) hobby
(b) occupation
(c) post
(d) designation
Q69.
Each of the following questions has an underlined/capitalized word. You are to

indicate which one of the four choices most nearly means the same as the
underlined/capitalized
word.
Q70. The benefits of the plan are likely to be transitory.
(a) significant
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(a) significant
(b) obvious
(c) temporary
(d) cumulative
Whole-Testpaper
The hikers found several crevices in the rocks.

(a) cracks
(b) minerals
(c) canals
(d) puddles
Q71.
BOOK is to CHAPTER as BUILDING is to

(a) ELEVATOR
(b) LOBBY
(c) ROOF
Q72.
(d) STOREY
Q73.
CARROT is to VEGETABLE as
(a) DOGWOOD is to OAK
(b) FOOT is to PAW
(c) PEPPER is to SPICE
(d) SHEEP is to LAMB
Q74.
CONCAVE is to CONVEX as
(a) CAVITY is to MOUND
(b) HILL is to HOLE
(c) OVAL is to OBLONG
(d) ROUND is to POINTED
Q75.
GOWN is to GARMENT as GASOLINE is to

(a) COOLANT
(b) FUEL
(c) OIL
(d) LUBRICANT
Q76.
HYPER- is to HYPO- as
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Q76.
(a) DIASTOLIC is to SYSTOLIC
(b) OVER is to UNDER
(c) SMALL is to LARGE
(d) STALE is to FRESH
Whole-Testpaper
Q77.
IMMIGRATION is to EMIGRATION as
(a) ARRIVAL is to DEPARTURE
(b) FLIGHT is to VOYAGE
(c) LEGAL is to ILLEGAL
(d) MIGRATION is to TRAVEL
Q78.
OCTAGON is to SQUARE as HEXAGON is to
(a) POLYGON
(b) PYRAMID
(c) RECTANGLE
(d) TRIANGLE
TELL is to TOLD as
(a) RIDE is to RODE
(b) SINK is to SANK
(c) WEAVE is to WOVE
(d) WEEP is to WEPT
Q79.
Q80.
SHEEP is to LAMB as HORSE is to

(a) COLT
(b) DOE
(c) FAWN
(d) MARE
Q81.
IGNORE is to OVERLOOK as
(a) AGREE is to CONSENT
(b) CLIMB is to WALK
(c) DULL is to SHARPEN
(d) LEARN is to REMEMBER
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Whole-Testpaper
FREQUENTLY is to SELDOM as
(a) ALWAYS is to NEVER
(b) EVERYBODY is to EVERYONE
(c) GENERALLY is to USUALLY
(d) OCCASIONALLY is to CONSTANTLY
This test is designed to test your ability to visualize and manipulate objects in space. In each question,
you are shown a picture of a block. To the right of the pictured block,there are five choices shown as A,
B, C, D and E. Select the choice containing a block that is just like the pictured block at the left although
turned in a different position.
Q82.
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Whole-Testpaper
The hidden figures test is designed to perceive simple figures in complex drawings. At the top of each
section are five figures lettered A, B, C, D, and E. Below these are several numbered drawings. You must
determine which lettered figure is embedded in each of the numbered drawings.
Found the similar paper in recruitment ? :

Yes
No
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Whole-Testpaper
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Indian Air Force Common admission Test AFCAT SET 1
Instructions for candidates
TIME ALLOTTED 2 HRS.
1. Total No. of Questions100. Each Question is of three marks.
2. One mark will be deducted for every wrong answer.
3. Do not write or mark on the Question Paper.
4. Question Paper to be returned before leaving the Exam Hall.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
We stand poised precariously and challengingly on the razors edge of destiny. We are now at the mercy
of atom bombs and the like which would destroy us completely if we fail to
control them wisely. And wisdom in this crisis means sensitiveness to the basic values of life; it means a
vivid realization that we are literally living in one world where we must either swim together or sink
together. We cannot afford to tamper with mans single minded loyalty to peace and international
34/118
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together. We cannot afford to tamper with mans single minded loyalty toWhole-Testpaper
peace and international
understanding. Anyone, who does it is a traitor not only to mans past and present, but also to his future,
because he is mortgaging the destiny of unborn generations.
From the tone and style of the passage it appears that the writer is(a) a prose writer with a fascination for images and metaphors.
(b) a humanist with a clear foresight.
(c) a traitor who wishes to mortgage the destiny of future generations.
(d) unaware of the global power situation.
Q1.
The best way to escape complete annihilation in an atomic war is to(a) work for international understanding and harmony.
(b) invent more powerful weapons.
(c) turn to religion.
(d) ban nuclear weapons.
Q2.
The phrase razors edge of destiny means a/an(a) enigma that cuts through the pattern of life like the edge of a razor.
(b) critical situation that foreordains the future.
(c) sharp line of division that marks the alternative courses of action in the future.
Q3.
Q4.
According to the writer, wisdom on the razors edge of destiny means:

(a) awareness that we stand poised precariously on the razors edge of destiny.
(b) determination to ban nuclear weapons.
(c) responsibility to the unborn generations.
(d) awareness of the basic values of life.
Q5. The author is concerned about the threat of nuclear weapons because he feels that(a) a nuclear war will destroy human civilization.
(b) all countries are interlinked and one cannot escape the consequences of what
happens to another country.
(c) the world is on the brink of disaster.
(d) his country is threatened by a nuclear war.
In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentence has an error. If
there is no mistake, the answer is (d) No error.
Q6. A person I met (a)/in the theatre (b)/was the playwright himself.
(c)/No error (d).
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Q6.
(a)
A person I met (a)/in the theatre (b)/was the playwright himself. (c)/No error (d).
(b)
(c)
(d)
Q7.
They walked (a)/besides each other (b)/in silence. (c)/No error (d).No error (d).
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Q8. We returned to the guest house (a)/impressed by (b)/what we had seen. (c)/No error (d).
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Q9.
The judge was convinced (a)/that neither (b)/of the five accused was guilty. (c)/No error (d).
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Q10.
The municipality is going (a) /to built a new school (b)/near the park. (c)/ No error (d).
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Set - 1 2
Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the
sentence meaningfully complete.
Q11.
His actions had ________ pain and suffering on thousands of people.

(a) affected
(b) imposed
(c) inflicted
(d) deplored
The Government will ______ all resources to fight poverty.
(a) collect
(b) exploit
(c) harness
(d) muster
Q12.
The children ______ crackers to celebrate the victory of their team.

(a) burst
(b) fired
(c) shot
(d) released
Q13.
I am ______ forward to our picnic scheduled in the next month.

(a) seeing
Q14.
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(a) seeing
(b) looking
(c) planning
(d) thinking
Whole-Testpaper
Q15.
I hope you must have _____ by now that failures are the stepping stones to success.
(a) known
(b) felt
(c) decided
(d) realized
In each of the following choose the word most similar in meaning to the word given in
capitals.
Q16. CAUSED
(a) Brought about

(b) Brought forward
(c) Brought out
(d) Brought over
Q17. PLACID
(a) Plain
(b) Clear
(c) Poor
(d) Calm
Q18. AUDACIOUS
(a) Obvious
(b) Daring
(c) Ardent
(d) Affluent
Pick out the word that is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the word given in
capitals.
Q19. MONOLOGUE
(a) Prologue
(b) Epilogue
(c) Dialogue
(d) Catalogue
37/118
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Catalogue
Whole-Testpaper
Q20. DELETE
(a) Imbibe
(b) Improve
(c) Insert
(d) Inspire
Q21. AMBIGUITY
(a) Certainty
(b) Clarity
(c) Rationality
(d) Laxity
Choose the correct answer.
The First Battle of Panipat was fought between(a) Akbar & Hemu
(b) Babur and Ibrahim Lodhi
(d) Ahmad Shah Abdali & Marathas
Q22.
Q23.
Fa-hien visited India during the reign of(a) Chandra Gupta Maurya
(b) Bindusara
(c) Chandra Gupta II
(d) Bimbisara
Gandhijis first experience with Satyagraha came up in(a) Dandi
(b) Champaran
(c) Bengal
(d) Natal
Q24.
Q25.
During whose tenure as the viceroy of India were the great Martyrs Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and
Rajguru hanged?
(a) Lord Curzon
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(a) Lord Curzon

(b) Lord Irwin
(c) Lord Minto
(d) Lord Chelmford
The winner of the highest number of gold medals in an Olympic game is(a) Mark Spitz
(b) Matt Biondi
(c) Michael Phelps
(d) Jenny Thompson
Q26.
Q27.
Agha Khan Cup is associated with the game of(a) Football

(b) Hockey
(c) Badminton
(d) Cricket
Usain Bolt, the 100 meters race world record holder, is from which country?
(a) Jamaica
(b) U.S.A.
(c) Canada
(d) Nigeria
Q28.
Only two cricket players have taken 10 wickets in an innings. One is Anil Kumble. The other is(a) Richard Hadlee
(b) Muttiah Muralidharan
(c) Jim Laker
(d) Andy Roberts
Q29.
Borlaug Award is given every year to an Indian scientist for outstanding contribution in the field of(a) Medicine
(b) Space
Q30.
(c) Applied Science

(d) Agriculture
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Q31.
The highest Indian gallantry award which could be given in peace time is(a) Ashok Chakra
(b) Param Vir Chakra
(c) Kirti Chakra
(d) Param Vishisht Seva Medal
Q32.
The most successful Satellite Launch Vehicle of Indian Space Programme to launch commercial
satellites is known as(a) SLV
(b) ASLV
(c) PSLV
(d) GSLV
Q33.
Which one of the following soils is most suitable for cotton cultivation(a) Red soil
(b) Black soil
(c) Loamy soil
(d) Laterite soil
Q34.
The name of indigenously built Light Combat Aircraft is(a) Tejas

(b) Chakra
c) Vajra
(d) Trishul
The boundary between China and India is known as(a) Mc Mohan Line
(b) Radcliffe Line
(c) Hindenberg Line
(d) Line of Control
Q35.
Q36.
Equinox means two days in a year when day and night are almost equal. If March 21 is an equinox
which is the next?
(a) 09 October
(b) 31 August
40/118
2/9/2014
(b) 31 August
(c) 23 September
(d) 03 November
Whole-Testpaper
Q37.
UNHCR, an organisation of United Nations, was established to provide/promote(a) Primary Education

(b) Health and Culture
(c) Relief
(d) Protection to refugees
Q38.
Who authored the book Train to Pakistan?

(a) Salman Rushdie
(b) Khushwant Singh
(c) Mulk Raj Anand
(d) Vikram Seth
Vitamin necessary to prevent prolonged bleeding is(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin E
(c) Vitamin D
(d) Vitamin K
Q40. The famous classical dance form of Andhra Pradesh is(a) Kathakali
(b) Kuchipudi
(c) Mohini Attam
(d) Yakshaagna
Q39.
Q41.
The term Carbon Credit is associated with(a) Coal reserve of a nation

(b) Reduction of Green House Gas emissions
(c) Fossil Fuel reserve
(d) Amount of CO2 an individual emits in a year
Q42.
In a 225 meter long yard 26 trees are planted at equal distance, one tree being at each end of the
yard. What is the distance between two consecutive trees?
(a) 10 meters
41/118
2/9/2014
(a) 10 meters
(b) 8 meters
(c) 12 meters
(d) 9 meters
Whole-Testpaper
Q43.
A bonus of Rs. 1000 is divided among three employees. Rohit gets twice the amount Sachin gets.
Sachin gets one fifth of what Gagan gets. How much amount does Gagan get?
(a) Rs. 500
(b) Rs. 625
(c) Rs. 750
(d) Rs. 120
Q44.
A boy was asked to multiply a number by 25. Instead, he multiplied the number by 52 and got the
answer 324 more than the correct answer. The number to be multiplied was(a) 12
(b) 15
(c) 25
(d) 32
The average age of 35 students in a class is 16 years. Out of these students the average age of 21
students is 14 years. The average age of remaining students is(a) 15 years
(b) 17 years
(c) 20 years
(d) 19 years
Q45.
Q46.
After replacing an old member by a new member, it was found that the average age of five
members of a club is the same as it was 3 years ago. What is the difference between the age of replaced
member and new member?
(a) 2 years
(b) 8 years
(c) 15 years
(d) 25 years
Q47.
The average salary of all the workers in a workshop is Rs. 8000. The average salary of seven
42/118
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Whole-Testpaper
workshop are(a) 20
(b) 21
(c) 22
(d) 23
Q48.
In an examination a candidate has to get 35% of total marks to pass. In one paper he gets 62 out of
150 and in the second 35 out of 150. How many marks should he get out of 200 marks in the third paper to
pass?
(a) 61
(b) 68
(c) 70
(d) 78
The salary of A & B together amounts to Rs. 2000. A spends 95% of his salary and B 85% of his
salary. If their savings are same what is the salary of A?
(a) Rs. 750
(b) Rs. 1250
(c) Rs. 1500
(d) Rs. 1600
Q49.
Out of the 1000 inhabitants of a town, 60% are male of whom 20% are literate. If, amongst all the
inhabitants, 25% are literate, then what percentage of the females of the town are literate?
(a) 22.5
Q50.
(b) 32.5
(c) 27.5
d) 37.5
A trader mixes 26 Kg of rice at Rs. 20 per kg with 30 Kg rice of another variety costing Rs. 36 per
Kg. If he sells the mixture at Rs. 30 per Kg his profit will be(a) -7%
(b) 5%
(c) 8%
(d) 10%
Q51.
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The difference between the cost price and sale price is Rs. 240. If the profit is 20%, the selling
price is(a) Rs. 1200
(b) Rs. 1440
(c) Rs. 1800
(d) Rs. 2440
Q52.
Samant bought a microwave oven and paid 10% less than Maximum Retail Price(MRP). He sold it
with 30% profit on his purchase cost. What percentage of profit did he earn on MRP?
(a) 17%
(b) 20%
(c) 27%
(d) 32%
Q53.
Q54.
The price of a scooter and a TV are in the ratio of 7:5. If the scooter costs Rs. 8000 more than a TV
set, then the price of TV set is(a) Rs. 20000
(b) Rs. 24000
(c) Rs. 32000
(d) Rs. 28000
Q55.
The speed of three cars is in the ratio of 5:4:6. The ratio between the time taken by them to travel
the same distance is(a) 5:4:6

(b) 6:4:5
(c) 10:12:15
(d) 12:15:10
Q56.
The ration between two numbers is 3:4. If each number is increased by 6 the ratio becomes 4:5.
The difference between the numbers is(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 6
(d) 8
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(d) 8
Whole-Testpaper
Rs. 800 becomes Rs. 956 in 3 years at a certain rate of interest. If the rate of interest is increased
by 4% what amount will Rs. 800 become in 3 years?
(a) Rs. 1020
(b) Rs. 1052
(c) Rs. 1282
(d) Rs. 1080
Q57.
How much time will it take for an amount of Rs. 450 to gain Rs. 81 as interest, if rate of interest is
4.5% p.a on simple interest?
(a) 4.5 years
(b) 3.5 years
(c) 5 years
(d) 4 years
Q58.
At what rate of annual simple interest will Rs. 10000 double in 15 years?
(a) 5.5%
(b) 8%
(c) 6.75%
(d) 7.25%
Q59.
The value of (?) in the equation 365.089 - ? + 89.72 = 302.35 is(a) 152.456
(b) 152.459
(c) 153.456
(d) 153.459
Q60.
A sum of Rs. 312 is divided among 60 boys and some girls in such a way that each boy gets Rs.
3.60 and each girl gets Rs.2.40. The number of girls are(a) 35
(b) 60
(c) 40
(d) 65
Q61.
This is a test of your ability to understand words. For each question four options are
45/118
2/9/2014
Whole-Testpaper
This is a test of your ability to understand words. For each question
four options are
given. There is only one correct answer for each question. Mark the correct answer.
Q62.
INCITE means the same as

(a) short
(b) delay
(c) place (d) provoke
Q63.
SUCCUMB means the same as

(a) aid
(b) yield
(c) check
(d) oppose
Q64.
ANOMALOUS means the same as

(a) disgraceful
(b) formless
(c) irregular
(d) threatening
Q65.
FORTUITOUS means the same as
(a) accidental
(b) conclusive
(c) courageous
(d) prosperous
Q66 PERMEABLE
means the same as
(a) flexible
(b) variable
(c) soluble
(d) penetrable
Q67.
CONVOY means the same as

(a) carry
(b) flock
(c) standard
(d) escort
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(d) escort
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CITE means the same as

(a) illustrate
(b) reveal
(c) recollect
(d) quote
Q68.
VOCATION means the same as

(a) hobby
(b) occupation
(c) post
(d) designation
Q69.
Each of the following questions has an underlined/capitalized word. You are to

indicate which one of the four choices most nearly means the same as the
underlined/capitalized
word.
Q70. The benefits of the plan are likely to be transitory.
(a) significant
(b) obvious
(c) temporary
(d) cumulative
The hikers found several crevices in the rocks.
(a) cracks
(b) minerals
(c) canals
(d) puddles
Q71.
BOOK is to CHAPTER as BUILDING is to

(a) ELEVATOR
(b) LOBBY
(c) ROOF
(d) STOREY
Q72.
Q73.
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Q73.
(a) DOGWOOD is to OAK
(b) FOOT is to PAW
(c) PEPPER is to SPICE
(d) SHEEP is to LAMB
Q74.
CONCAVE is to CONVEX as
(a) CAVITY is to MOUND
(b) HILL is to HOLE
(c) OVAL is to OBLONG
(d) ROUND is to POINTED
Q75.
GOWN is to GARMENT as GASOLINE is to

(a) COOLANT
(b) FUEL
(c) OIL
(d) LUBRICANT
Q76.
(a) DIASTOLIC is to SYSTOLIC
(b) OVER is to UNDER
(c) SMALL is to LARGE
(d) STALE is to FRESH
Q77.
IMMIGRATION is to EMIGRATION as
(a) ARRIVAL is to DEPARTURE
(b) FLIGHT is to VOYAGE
(c) LEGAL is to ILLEGAL
(d) MIGRATION is to TRAVEL
OCTAGON is to SQUARE as HEXAGON is to
(a) POLYGON
(b) PYRAMID
(c) RECTANGLE
(d) TRIANGLE
Q78.
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TELL is to TOLD as
(a) RIDE is to RODE
(b) SINK is to SANK
(c) WEAVE is to WOVE
(d) WEEP is to WEPT
Q79.
Q80.
SHEEP is to LAMB as HORSE is to

(a) COLT
(b) DOE
(c) FAWN
(d) MARE
Q81.
IGNORE is to OVERLOOK as
(a) AGREE is to CONSENT

(b) CLIMB is to WALK
(c) DULL is to SHARPEN
(d) LEARN is to REMEMBER
FREQUENTLY is to SELDOM as
(a) ALWAYS is to NEVER
(b) EVERYBODY is to EVERYONE
(c) GENERALLY is to USUALLY
(d) OCCASIONALLY is to CONSTANTLY
This test is designed to test your ability to visualize and manipulate objects in space. In each question,
you are shown a picture of a block. To the right of the pictured block,there are five choices shown as A,
B, C, D and E. Select the choice containing a block that is just like the pictured block at the left although
turned in a different position.
Q82.
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The hidden figures test is designed to perceive simple figures in complex drawings. At the top of each
section are five figures lettered A, B, C, D, and E. Below these are several numbered drawings. You must
determine which lettered figure is embedded in each of the numbered drawings.
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CDAC Placement-Paper : 37030

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CDAC Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question
and answers
CDAC recruitment process and aptitude test
experiences
CDAC Project engineers recruitment details CDAC Test pattern, Selection procedure,
Practice model question papers
CDAC hiring Technical Officer Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (CDAC), invites applications for the post of Project Engineer
C-DAC Hyderbad Requires Project Engineer on contract basis
Eligibility: BE/B.Tech (Computer Science & Engineering (CSE), Electronics &
Communication Engineering (ECE), Electronics & Instrumentation Engineering)
ME/M.Tech Hiring process on the basis on written test and interview
Selection Process : The selection will be based on written test & interview.
Important Dates:
Last Date for Online Registration 15-01-2013 (05:00 P.M)
Last Date for Receipt of hardcopy of the Application along with Application Fee: 17-012013 (05:00 P.M).
CDAC Project engineers recruitment details General Conditions
In case of more applications, apart from above mentioned criteria screening will be done based on
relevant skill set, experience and aggregate marks secured in relevant qualifying degree.
Persons working in Government / PSUs/autonomous bodies are required to forward an online advance
copy of the application and later submit hard copy application through proper channel.
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copy of the application and later submit hard copy application through proper channel.
Short-listed candidates will be called for written test. Those who are qualified in the written test.
At the time of interview , they should bring Original Certificates of qualifications and experience and a
photocopy of the same. SC/ST/OBC/Physically Challenged Category candidates should submit
necessary certificates of the caste at the time of interview.
The selection will be based on written test & interview.
Last date for online registration 15-01-2013 (05:00 P.M)
Last date of receipt of hardcopy of the Application along with application fee: 17-01-2013 (05:00 P.M)
Thursday
Applications received late/incomplete will be summarily rejected.
If the candidate wishes to apply multiple posts he has to pay the fees equal to no. of applications. (eg. for
1 post Rs. 100/- and if he applies for 4 Posts Rs. 400/-).
Written Test / Interview will be conducted only in Hyderabad.
Written Examination is tentatively scheduled on 27-01-2013 (Sunday)Exact date,
time venue of the written test will be announced on 16-01-2013 in our website
www.cdac.in/careers or www.cdachyd.in/careers).
Admit Card for written examination available on website from 20-01-2013.

No TA /DA will be paid for appearing for the written test / interview.
C-DAC reserves the right to fill up the post or increase/decrease the number of posts or even to cancel
the whole process of recruitment without assigning any reasons thereof.
Canvassing in any form is prohibited and will result in disqualification.
Candidates are advised to keep checking the website for any information updates
For more details :http://cdachyd.in/career
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BSNL Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question
and answers
BSNL recruitment process and aptitude test
experiences
BSNL previous years solved sample placement papers,BSNL DGM,JTO Tech Assistant
questions with answers,BSNL model questions for practicce,BSNL technical assistant
question papers wit answers and detalied explnations
1. Weins bridge is used for measurement of frequency in the applied voltage waveform is measurement
of frequency in the applied voltage waveform is
(a) Sinusoidal
(Ans)
(b) Square
(c) rectangular
(d) triangular
2.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Strain gauge is
not a transducer
an active transducer
not an electronic
none
(Ans)
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(d) none
3. A high Q coil has
(a) large band width
(b) high losses
(c) low losses
(d) flat response
(Ans)
4. In the case of an instrument reading of 8.3V with a 0 to 150 voltmeter having a guaranteed accuracy of
1% full scale reading, the percentage limiting error is
(a) 1.810 %
(b) 0.181 %
(c) 12.45 %
(Ans)
(d) 0.0018%
(Explanation : Limiting error at full scale = 1/100 X 150 = 1.5 volt
the true reading may be (8.3 + 1.5) Volt the relative error = 1.5/100 X 8.3 = 12.45 % )
5.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The 'h' parameter equivalent circuit of a junction transistor is valid for

High frequency, large signal operation
High frequency, small signal operation
Low frequency, small signal operation
(Ans)
Low frequency, large signal operation
6.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
A system is casual if the output of any time depends only on

Values of input in the past and in the future
Values of input at that time and in the past
(Ans)
Values of input at that time and in the future
None
7.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
8.
(a)
From the hot metal surface electrons escape because

of change of state from metal to gas due to heat
of change of state from gas to metal
the energy greater than the work function
(Ans)
the energy is greater than Fermi level
The most common device used for detection in radio receivers is
amplifier
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(a) amplifier
(b) triode
(c) diode
(d) transistor
(Ans)
9.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
In a full wave rectifier the negative point in a circuit is

Cathode
anode
The central tap on the high voltage secondary
(Ans)
Plate
10.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Negative feedback amplifier has a signal corrupted by noise as its input

Amplify the noise as much as the signal
Reduce the noise
(Ans)
Increase the noise
Not effect the noise
PART II
11.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
It is an unidirectional device that blocks the current flow from cathode to anode
SCR
(Ans)
PCR
VCR
DCR
12. An ideal constant current source is connected in series with an ideal constant voltage source.
Considering together the combination will be a
(a) constant voltage source
(b) constant current source
(Ans)
(c) constant voltage and a constant current source or a constant power source
(d) resistance
13.
(a)
(b)
(c)
A node current in an thyristor is made up of

electrons only
electrons or holes
electrons and holes
(Ans)
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(d) holes only

14. For a pulse transformer, the material used for its core and the possible turn ratio from primary to
secondary are respectively
(a) ferrite : 20:1
(b) laminated iron : 1:1
(c) ferrite : 1:1
(Ans)
(d) powdered iron :1:1
15.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
A converter which can operate in both 3 pulse and 6 pulse modes is a

1 phase full converter
3 phase half wave converter
3 phase semi converter
(Ans)
3 phase full converter
16. A single phase CSI has capacitor C as the load. For a constant source current, the voltage across
the capacitor is
(a) square wave
(b) triangular wave
(Ans)
(c) step function
(d) pulsed wave
17. A single phase full wave midpoint thyristor convertor uses a 230/200 V transformer with centre tap on
the secondary side. The P.I.V per thyristor is
(a) 100 V
(b) 141.4V
(c) 200 V
(d) 282.8 V
(Ans)
(Explanation : For centre taped transformer in output side the PIV = 2 Vrms = 2 x 200/2 = 282.8 Volt)
18.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
In dc choppers for chopping period T, the output voltage can be controlled by FM by varying
T keeping Ton constant
(Ans)
Ton keeping T constant
Toff keeping T constant
None of the above
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19.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
An ideal power supply consist of

A Very small output resistance
Zero internal resistance
(Ans)
Very large input resistance
Very large output resistance
20.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The linearity error for a digital input is indicated by
(Ans)
21.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
In the 8421 BCD code the decimal number 125 is written as

1111101
(Ans)
0001 0010 0101
7D
None of the above
Explanation :
22. Match the given feedback circuit with its proper nomenclatures
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(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Current series feedback

Current shunt feedback
Voltage series feedback
Voltage shunt feedback
23.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Class A amplifier is used when

No phase inversion is required
Highest voltage gain is required
dc voltages are to be amplified
Minimum distortion is desired
24.
Identify the correct match for the give transistor
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Enhancement type P channel MOSFET

Depletion type N channel MOSFET
(Ans)
Enhancement type N channel MOSFET
Depletion type P channel MOSFET
(Ans)
(Ans)
25. In case a signal band limited to fermimeter is sampled at a rate less than 2 fermimeter , the
constructed signal will be
(a) Distortionless
(b) Small in amplitude
(c) Having higher frequencies suppressed
(d) Distorted
(Ans)
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(d) Distorted
(Ans)
26.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
IC which has quad 2 input AND gates

7411
7404
7400
7408
(Ans)
27.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Registers in which data is entered or taken out in serial form are referred as
left shift register
right shift register
shift registers
(Ans)
none of the above
28. The expression ABC can be simplified to

(a) A B C
(b) AB + BC + CA
(c) A B + C
(d) A + B + C
(Ans)
29.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Read the following :

Routh Herwitz's criterion is in time domain
Root locus plot is in time domain
Bode plot is in frequency domain
Nyquist criterion is in frequency domain
(Ans)
(a) 2, 3 and 4 are correct

(b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 3 and 4 are correct
(d) All four are correct
30. Register and counters are similar in the sense that they both
(a) count pulses
(b) store binary operation
(c) shift registers
(d) made from an array of flip flops and gates integrated on a single chip
(Ans)
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(d) made from an array of flip flops and gates integrated on a single chip
(Ans)
31. In D/A converter, the resolution required is 50 mv and the total maximum input is 10 V. The number of
bits required is
(a) 7
(b) 8
(Ans)
(c) 9
(d) 200
32.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
On differentiation unit impulse function results in

Unit parabolic function
Unit triplet
Unit doublet
(Ans)
Unit ramp function
33.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
------ watt of power is received from sun per m2 surface area of a geosynchronous satellite
100
500
2000
1000
(Ans)
34.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The ripple factor in an LC filter

Increase with the load current
Increases with the load resistance
Remains constant with the load current
Has the lowest value
(Ans)
35.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
In different parts of the country identical telephone numbers are distinguished by their
Language digits
Access digits
Area codes
(Ans)
Central office codes
36. Amplitude modulation is used for broadcasting because

(a) it is move noise immune than other modulation systems
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(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Whole-Testpaper
it is move noise immune than other modulation systems
compared with other systems it requires less transmitting power
its use avoids receiver complexity
(Ans)
no other modulation system can provide the necessary bandwidth for high fidelity
37. The maximum phase shift than can be provided by a lead compensator with transfer function
G0(S) = 1 + 6S
1 + 2S
o
(a) 15
(b) 45o
(c) 30o
(Ans)
o
(d) 60
(Explanation : If GC(s) = 1 +Tn s
1 + Td s
then Q = tan -1 Tn - tan-1 Td
Q = tan -1 6 - tan-1 2
So maximum phase shift will be Q= 30o )
38.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The correct sequence of steps required to improve system stability is

Insert derivative action, use negative feedback, reduce again
Reduce gain, use negative feedback, insert derivative action
Reduce gain, insert derivative action, use negative feedback
Use negative feedback, reduce gain, insert derivative action.
(Ans)
39. Identify slope change at = 10 of the magnitude v/s frequency characteristic of a unity feedback
system with the following open-loop transfer function
G (j) =
5(1+j o.w)
j (1 + j0.5) [ (1+j 0.6 /50) + ( j/50)2]
(a) -80 dB/dec to - 60 dB/dec
(Ans)
(b) 40 dB/dec to 20 dB/dec
(c) 20 dB/dec to - 40 dB/dec
(d) 40 dB/dec to - 20 dB/dec
(Explanation :
Corner
Factor
Gain and angle
frequency
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40.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
41.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
42.
1.
2.
3.
4.
frequency
-----
1
j
-----
1
1 + j0.5
1=2
1+0
(1+j 0.6 /50) + ( j/50)2
2=7.07
Whole-Testpaper
20 log5=14dB line parallel to x axis

-20dB/dec passing through =1
-20dB/dec slope originates from =2
-40 dB/dec slope originates from =7.07
1+j 0-1
3=10
+20dB/dec slope originates =10
In the feedback control system the loop transfer function is given by
G(s) H (s) =
K
2
s(s+2) (s +2s +2)
Number of asymptotes of its root loci is
1
2
3
4
(Ans)
In a closed - loop transfer function
G (s) =
2600k(s + 25)
R (s)
s4 +125s3 + 5100s2 + 65000s + 65000k
the imaginary axis intercepts of the root loci will be
+ j228
(Ans)
+j2.28
+j1.14
+j114
Considering the following statement : In a magic tee
the collinear arms are isolated from each other
one of the collinear is isolated from the E-arm
one of the collinear arm is isolated from the H-arm
E-arm and H-arm are isolated from each other. of these statements
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
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(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
1 and 2 are correct

1 and 3 are correct
1 and 4 are correct
2 and 3 are correct
43.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
In 1965 first geostationary satellite was launched called

ANIK
EARLY BIRD (Intel sat-1)
WESTAR
(Ans)
MOLNIYA
44.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
When A = 0., B = 0, C=1 then in two input logic gate we get gate
XOR gate
AND gate
NAND gate
(Ans)
NOR gate
45.
(a)
(b)
(c)
In a radio receiver the IF amplifier

is tuned above the stations incoming frequency
amplifies the output of local oscillator
is fixed tuned to one particular frequency
(Ans)
(Ans)
(d) can be tuned to various isolate frequencies

46.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
A duplexer is used to
couple two antennas to a transmitter without interference
isolate the antennas from the local oscillator
prevent interference between two antennas connected to a receiver
use an antenna for reception or transmission without interference
47.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Boolean algebra is based on

numbers
logic
(Ans)
truth
symbols
48. The amplifiers following the modulated stage in a low level

(Ans)
modulation AM system be
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48.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The amplifiers following the modulated stage in a low level modulation AM system be
linear amplifier
harmonic generators
class C power amplifiers
(Ans)
class B untuned amplifiers
49.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
In a radar system maximum unambiguous range depends on

maximum power of the transmitter
pulse repetition frequency
(Ans)
width of the transmitted pulse
sensitivity of the radar receiver
50.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
In composite video waveform the function of the serrations, is to

equalize the charge in the integrator before the start of vertical retrace.
help vertical synchronization
help horizontal synchronization
(Ans)
simplify the generation of the vertical syncpulse.
51. The frequency range 30MHz - 300 MHz is

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
medium frequency
very high frequency
super high frequency
infrared frequency
52.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which wave cannot exist inside wave guide

TE
TM
TEM
(Ans)
HE
53.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ionosphere layer of earth is situated at

upto 18kms from each
from 18 to 70 k m
70 to 500 km
(Ans)
above 500 km
(Ans)
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54.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
A two cavity klystron tube is a

velocity modulated tube
(Ans)
frequency modulated tube
Amplitude modulated tube
simple triode
55.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
As the thermal noise get doubled due to the increase in a resistance the noise power get
doubled
quadrupted
unchanged
(Ans)
halved
56.
(a)
(b)
(c)
Which one is a cross field tube

Klystron
Reflex Klystron
Magnetron
(Ans)
(d) TWT
57.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The degree of coupling depends on

Size of hole
location of holes
(Ans)
size and location of holes
not depend on size or location of hole
58.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The thermal noise depends on

direct current through device
resistive component of resistance
reactive component of impedance
load to connected
(Ans)
59. The charge on a hole is

(a) 1.6 x 10-9
(b) 1.6 x 10-19
(Ans)
(c) 1.6 x 101
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(c) 1.6 x 101

(d) 1.6 x 1020
60.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Whole-Testpaper
Intel's 8085 microprocessor chip contains

seven 8 bit registers
(Ans)
8 seven bits registers
seven 7 bit registers
eight 8 bit registers
PART -III
61.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The words 'Satyameva Jayate' have been taken from

Vedas
(Ans)
Bhagwad Gita
Mahabharata
None of these
62.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following countries was the first to develop a neutron bomb?
USA
(Ans)
USSR
China
Pakistan
63.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
'Kathakali' dance is connected with

Kerala
(Ans)
Rajasthan
Uttar Pradesh
Tamil Nadu
64.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The term "Ashes" is associated with

Hockey
Cricket
(Ans)
Soccer
None of these
65.
(a)
The Kailash Temple at Ellora is a specimen of

Gupta architecture
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(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Gupta architecture
Rashtrakutlas architecture
Chalukya architecture
Chola architecture
(Ans)
66.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
When the two Houses of Parliament differ regarding a Bill then the controversy is solved by
Joint sitting of the two Houses
President of India
Prime Minister of India
(Ans)
By a special committee for the purpose
67.
(a)
(b)
Which of the following is not the work of Kalidasa ?

Meghdoot
Raghuvansha
(c)
(d)
Sariputra Prakarma
Ritushamhara
(Ans)
68. Amir Khusro was the famous poet and aesthete of

(a) Akbar the Great
(Ans)
(b) Mahmud Ghaznvi
(c) Shah Jahan
(d) Alauddin Khilji
69.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
With the beginnings of space travel, we entered a new

Era of great history
(Ans)
List
Book
Year
70.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
An though it mourns the death of someone , need not be sad

Funny poem
Newspaper article
Orthodox talk
Elegy
(Ans)
71. If stare is glance so gulp is
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71.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
If stare is glance so gulp is

Slip
(Ans)
Tell
Salk
Admire
72.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
He hardly works means

The work is hard
He is hard
The work is easy
He work very little
(Ans)
73.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Give the opposite word for pulchritude

antipathy
unsightliness
(Ans)
inexperience
languor
74.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Nanometre is -----part of a metre

Millionth
Ten millionth
(Ans)
Billionth
Ten billionth
75.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Malaria affects
Liver
Spleen
(Ans)
Intestine
Lungs
76.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Sindhu Rakshak is a/an

Aircraft carrier
Submarine
Multiple-purpose fighter
Anti-aircraft gun
(Ans)
Whole-Testpaper
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77.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
With which subject is "Dada Saheb Phalke Award" associated ?

Best film director
Best musician
Best documentary
(Ans)
Best work relating to promotion of Indian film Industry
78. Who developed the branch of mathematics know as Calculus ?

(a) Aryabhatta
(b) Newton
(c) Einstein
(Ans)
(d) Archimedes
79.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
In which state is Kanha Park situated ?

M.P.
U.P.
(Ans)
Assam
W. Bengal
80.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which day is observed as Human Rights Day ?

24th October
(Ans)
4th July
8th August
10th December

Yes
No
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and answers
experiences
BSNLDGM model questions with answers and detailed explanations
upcoming
DGM examination, BSNL DGM solved question papers includes technical questions,general ability
questions,and basic engineering questions. Preparation of BSNL upcoming wrritten test examination
practice more model to improve your knowledge and speed,time management for exam.
BSNL DGM MODEL PAPER- PART-A,BSNL DGM model questions for practice
BSNL DGM Objective questions

1. First-level managers must possess skills, which include knowledge of and proficiency in the
methods, processes and procedures for carrying out activities.
a. Human
b. Conceptual
c. Design
d. Technical
2. Which of the following skills is important at all levels of an organization?

a. Conceptual
b. Design
c. Human
d. Technical
3. Which of the following skills indicates the ability to solve problems in ways that will benefit the
enterprise?
a. Design
b. Human
c. Conceptual
d. Technical
4. Managers possessing skill have the ability to understand and coordinate the full range of
corporate objectives and activities.
a. Design skill
b. Human skill
c. Conceptual skill
d. Technical skill
5. Which of the following approaches to management examines practical cases but is having only
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5. Which of the following approaches to management examines practical cases but is having only
limited value for developing management theory?
a. Group behavior approach
b. Systems approach
c. Operational approach
d. Empirical approach
6. Which of the following is also known as the mathematical approach?

a. Operational approach
b. Management science approach
c. Management roles approach
d. Systems approach
7. Which of the following approaches to management advocates a system ofcooperation using both
interpersonal and group behavioral aspects?
a. Sociotechnical approach
b. Contingency approach
c. Situational approach
d. Cooperative social systems approach
8. Under which system does a worker's wage increase in proportion to theoutput produced?
a. Time-and-motion study
b. Piece-rate incentive system
c. Micromotion study
d. Gantt Chart
9. Who proposed the task-and-bonus system under which workers are given a bonus if the work is
completed before the set time?
a. Frederick W. Taylor
b. Henry L. Gantt
c. Frank B. Gilbreth
d. Max Weber
10. The theorists ignored the human desire for job satisfaction.
a. Scientific management
b. Bureaucratic management
c. Administrative theory
d. Management science
11. Which type of management approach focuses only on the economic andphysical needs of
workers and ignores their social needs?
a. Scientific management
b. Bureaucratic management
c. Administrative management
d. Operations management
12.Which one of the following did not contribute to the behavioral concept ofmanagement?
a. Elton Mayo
b. Mary Parker Follet
c. Chris Argyris
d. Henry R. Towne
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d. Henry R. Towne
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13. A branch of the classical viewpoint of management, is basedon Max Weber's research in the
field of management.
a. Bureaucratic management
b. Scientific management
c. Administrative management
d. Weber management
14. which of the following is the fastest memory in the terms of accessibility?
1. Read only memory
2. Cache memory
3.Random Access memory
4. Dynamic random access Memory
15. Registers are associated with_________

1. Input
2. memory
3.control
4. output
16. _______________ is an example of sequential storage device

1.
2.
3.
4.
Magnetic Tape
floppy disk
Hard disk
CD-ROM
17.Programs and procedures in an information system are _____________

1.
2.
3.
4.
data resources
people resources
hardware and software resources
all the above
18.The information circulated in a company grapevine can be called as ____________

1. knowledge information
2. sampled information
3.informal information
4. organizational information
19.what is the term used to refer to alignment of the beginning and end of lines
1.indentation
2. justification
3. superscript
4 font
20. what is the character positioned below normal text called?

1. superscript
2. italic
3.font
4.subscript
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4.subscript
21. spread sheet is a ________________

1. superscript
2.Italic
3.font
4.subscript
22.The first Factories Act was enacted in

a),1881
b),1895
c),1897
d),1885
Answer- a), 1881

23, Who is an adult as per Factories Act, 1948 ?
a. Who has completed 18 years of age
b. who is less than 18 years
c. who is more than 14 years
d. who is more than 15 years
Answer- a). Who has completed 18 years of age

24. A person who has ultimate control over the affairs of the factory under Factories Act, 1948 is
called as _________
a. Occupier
b. Manager
c. Chairman
d. Managing Director.
Answer - a. Occupier
25, The space for every worker employed in the Factory after the commencement of Factories Act,
1948 should be ________ Cubic Meters.
a. 9.9
b. 10.2
c. 14.2
d. 13.2
Answer- c. 14.2
26,The provision for cooling water during hot weather should be made by the organization if it
employees _______ or more employees.
a. 200
b. 250
c. 300
d. 150
Answer- b. 250
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27.Who is an Adolescent as per Factories Act, 1948 ?

a. Who has completed 17 years of age
b. who is less than 18 years
c. who has completed 15 years but less than 18 years.
d. None of these
Answer- c. who has completed 15 years but less than 18 years.

28, Which one of the following is not a welfare provision under Factories Act, 1948
a.Canteen
b. Creches
c.First Aid
d.Drinking water.
Answer- d. Drinking water.
29, F irst Aid Boxes is to be provided for ______ of persons

a. 125
b. 135
c. 150
d. 160
Answer- c. 150
30,Safety Officers are to be appointed if Organisation is engaging ______ or more employees.
a. 1000
b. 2000
c. 500
d. 750
Answer- a. 1000
31 Canteen is to be provided if engaging employees more than ______ persons.
a. 250
b. 230
c. 300
d. 275
Answer- a. 250
32 Leave with wages is allowed for employees if they work for _______ days in a month.
a. 15
b. 25
c. 20
d. 28
Answer- c. 20
33. Welfare Officers are to be appointed if Organisation is engaging ______ or more employees.
a. 500
b. 250
c. 600
d. 750
Answer- a. 500
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34. The Ambulance Room is to be provided if engaging employees more than______

a. 400
b. 350
c. 500
d. 450
Answer- c. 500
35, Creche is to be provided if ______ or more lady employees are engaged.
a. 25
b. 32
c. 30
d. 40
Answer- c. 30
36. An adult worker can upto ____ hrs in a day as per factories Act, 1948
a. 8
b. 9
c. 10
d. 12
Answer-. b. 9
37, Obligations of Workers under the Factories Act 1947 was discussed in section ----a) 78
b) 101
c) 111
d) 99
Answer - Sec.111
38. The term Sabbatical is connected with
a) Paid leave for study
b) Paternity leave
c) Maternity leave
d) Quarantine leave
Answer- Paid leave for study

39. Section 49 of the Factories Act 1947 Says about
a) Welfare officer
b) Canteen
c) Rest room
d) Crche
Answer is - Welfare officer

40. Section 2 ( K )of the Factories Act 1947 says about
a) Manufacturing Process
b) Factory
c) Worker
d) None of these
Answer : Manufacturing Process

41., If the factory employs more than 1000 workers, they should appoint qualified ------------- to
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41., If the factory employs more than 1000 workers, they should appoint qualified ------------- to
carry out the prescribed duties
a) Safety Officer
b) Welfare officer
c) Security officer
d) None of these
Answer : a) Safety Officer
42. For contravention of provisions of Factories Act or Rules, the occupier shall liable for
punishment up to
a)2 years or fine up to Rs.1,00,000 or both
b) 6 months or fine upto 10, 000 or both
c) 3 three years or fine 10, 000 or both
d) None of these
Answer a)2 years or fine up to Rs.1,00,000 or both.

43. In case of fatal accident occurred inside the factory , a separate accident report shall be sent to
the District magistrate in Form No ---- within 12 hours
a) Form No:16
b) Form No:18 A
c) Form No :18 B
d) Form No:18
44., Manager of every factory should sent a annual report to the Inspectorate of factories
containing details like numbers of workers employed , leave with wages, safety officers ,ambulance
room, canteen, shelter, accidents in form no --- on or before 31 st January
a) Form No : 22
b) Form No: 21
c) Form No: 25 A
d) Form No: 25 B
Answer: a) Form No: 22
45. If any employee found violating the section 20 of Factories Act 1947 shall be fine up to
a)Rs. 10
b) Rs. 5
c) Rs. 15
d) Rs.20
Answer :b ) Rs. 5
46. Section 41- G of the Factories Act 1948 says about

a) Fencing of machineries
b) Facing of machineries
c) Work on near machinery in motion
Answer-d) Workers participation in safety management

47. Find the minimum value of the objective function where minimum z=20x+35y
1. 2100
2.1600
3.800
4.3700
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48. which of the following is not an advantage of MRP system?

1.
2.
3.
4.
Ability to price competitively

Better Customer service
longer idle time
Reduced set up and tear down costs
49. Accounting Ratios are important tools used by

(a) Managers,
(b) Researchers,
(c)Investors,
(d) All of the above
50. Net Profit Ratio Signifies:

(a) Operational Profitability,
(b) Liquidity Position,
(c) Big-term Solvency,
(d)Profit for Lenders.
51. Working Capital Turnover measures the relationship of Working Capital with:
(a)Fixed Assets,
(b)Sales,
(c)Purchases,
(d)Stock.
52.. In Ratio Analysis, the term Capital Employed refers to:

(a)Equity Share Capital,
(b)Net worth,
(c)Shareholders' Funds,
(d)None of the above.
53. Dividend Payout Ratio is:

(a)PAT Capital,
(b)DPS EPS,
(c) Pref. Dividend PAT,
(d) Pref. Dividend Equity Dividend.
54 DU PONT Analysis deals with:

(a) Analysis of Current Assets,
(b)Analysis of Profit,
(c)Capital Budgeting,
(d) Analysis of Fixed Assets
55. In Net Profit Ratio, the denominator is:

(a)Net Purchases,
(b)Net Sales,
(c) Credit Sales,
(d) Cost of goods sold.
56. Inventory Turnover measures the relationship of inventory with:
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56. Inventory Turnover measures the relationship of inventory with:

(a) Average Sales,
(b)Cost of Goods Sold,
(c)Total Purchases,
(d) Total Assets.
57.. The term 'EVA' is used for:

(a)Extra Value Analysis,
(b)Economic Value Added
,(c)Expected Value Analysis,
(d)Engineering Value Analysis.
58.. Return on Investment may be improved by:

(a)Increasing Turnover,
(b) Reducing Expenses,
(c)Increasing Capital Utilization,
(d)All of the above.
59.. In Current Ratio, Current Assets are compared with:

(a)Current Profit,
(b)Current Liabilities,
(c)Fixed Assets,
(d)Equity Share Capital.
60.. ABC Ltd. has a Current Ratio of 1.5: 1 and Net Current Assets of Rs. 5,00,000. What are the
Current Assets?
(a)Rs. 5,00,000,
(b)Rs. 10,00,000,
(c)Rs. 15,00,000,
(d) Rs. 25,00,000
61. There is deterioration in the management of working capital of XYZ Ltd. What does it refer to?
(a)That the Capital Employed has reduced,
(b)That the Profitability has gone up,
(c)That debtors collection period has increased,
(d)That Sales has decreased.
62. Which of the following does not help to increase Current Ratio?
(a)Issue of Debentures to buy Stock,
(b)Issue of Debentures to pay Creditors,
(c)Sale of Investment to pay Creditors,
(d)Avail Bank Overdraft to buy Machine.
63. Debt to Total Assets Ratio can be improved by:

(a)Borrowing More,
(b)Issue of Debentures,
(c)Issue of Equity Shares,
(d)Redemption of Debt.
64.. Ratio of Net Income to Number of Equity Shares known as:

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64.. Ratio of Net Income to Number of Equity Shares known as:
Whole-Testpaper
(a)Price Earnings Ratio,

(b) Net Profit Ratio,
(c)Earnings per Share,
(d) Dividend per Share.
65. Trend Analysis helps comparing performance of a firm

(a)With other firms,
(b)Over a period of firm,
(c)With other industries,
(d) None of the above.
66. A Current Ratio of Less than One means:

(a)Current Liabilities < Current Assets,
(b)Fixed Assets > Current Assets,
(c)Current Assets < Current Liabilities,
(d) Share Capital > Current Assets.
67. XYZ Ltd. has earned 8% Return on Total Assests of Rs. 50,00,000 and has a Net Profit Ratio of
5%. Find out the Sales of the firm.
(a) Rs. 4,00,000,
(b)Rs. 2,50,000,
(c)Rs. 80,00,000,
(d)Rs. 83,33,333.
68. Suppliers and Creditors of a firm are interested in

(a)Profitability Position,
(b)Liquidity Position,
(c)Market Share Position,
(d) Debt Position.
69. Which of the following is a measure of Debt Service capacity of a firm?

(a)Current Ratio,
(b)Acid Test Ratio,
(c) Interest Coverage Ratio,
(d) Debtors Turnover.
70. Gross Profit Ratio for a firm remains same but the Net Profit Ratio is decreasing. The reason for
such behavior could be:
(a) Increase in Costs of Goods Sold,
(b)If Increase in Expense,
(c) Increase in Dividend,
(d)Decrease in Sales.
71. Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) A Higher Receivable Turnover is not desirable,
(b) Interest Coverage Ratio depends upon Tax Rate,
(c)Increase in Net Profit Ratio means increase in Sales,
(d) Lower Debt-Equity Ratio means lower Financial Risk.
72. Debt to Total Assets of a firm is .2. The Debt to Equity boo would be:
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72. Debt to Total Assets of a firm is .2. The Debt to Equity boo would be:
(a) 0.80,
(b)0.25,
(c) 1.00,
(d)0.75
73. Which of the following helps analysing return to equity Shareholders?

(a) Return on Assets,
(b) Earnings Per Share,
(c) Net Profit Ratio,
(d)Return on Investment.
74. Return on Assets and Return on Investment Ratios belong to:

(a) Liquidity Ratios,
(b)Profitability Ratios,
(c)Solvency Ratios,
(d)Turnover.
75. XYZ Ltd. has a Debt Equity Ratio of 1.5 as compared to 1.3 Industry average. It means that the
firm has:
(a) Higher Liquidity,
(b)Higher Financial Risk,
(c)Higher Profitability,
(d)Higher Capital Employed.
-------------------------------------- END OF PART-A -----------------------------------Found the similar paper in recruitment ? :

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CSC Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question
and answers
CSC recruitment process and aptitude test
experiences
CSC Operating system-OS question for practice, CSE Off and On campus recruitment experience and
selection procedure, CSC latest written test pattern, CSC Aptitude written test model questions, CSC
Technical written test practice questions with answers, CSC previous years free solved sample
placement papers, CSC Technical hr interview procedure, CSC Group Discussion topics and
procedures
CSC Operating system
1) Round robin scheduling is essentially the preemptive version of ________.
1 FIFO
2 Shortest job first
3 Shortes remaining
4 Longest time first
Right Ans ) 1
A page fault occurs

1 when the page is not in the memory
2 when the page is in the memory
3 when the process enters the blocked state
4 when the process is in the ready state
2)
Right Ans ) 1
Which of the following will determine your choice of systems software for your computer ?
1 Is the applications software you want to use compatible with it ?
2 Is it expensive ?
3 Is it compatible with your hardware ?
4 Both 1 and 3
3)
Right Ans ) 4
Let S and Q be two semaphores initialized to 1, where P0 and P1 processes the following statements
wait(S);wait(Q); ---; signal(S);signal(Q) and wait(Q); wait(S);---;signal(Q);signal(S); respectively. The above
situation depicts a _________ .
1 Semaphore
2 Deadlock
3 Signal
4 Interrupt
4)
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4 Interrupt
Right Ans ) 2
What is a shell ?
1 It is a hardware component
2 It is a command interpreter
3 It is a part in compiler
4 It is a tool in CPU scheduling
5)
Right Ans ) 2
Routine is not loaded until it is called. All routines are kept on disk in a relocatable load format. The
main program is loaded into memory & is executed. This type of loading is called _________
1 Static loading
2 Dynamic loading
3 Dynamic linking
4 Overlays
Right Ans ) 3
6)
In the blocked state

1 the processes waiting for I/O are found
2 the process which is running is found
7)
3 the processes waiting for the processor are found

4 none of the above
Right Ans ) 1
What is the memory from 1K - 640K called ?

1 Extended Memory
2 Normal Memory
3 Low Memory
4 Conventional Memory
8)
Right Ans ) 4
Virtual memory is __________.

1 An extremely large main memory
2 An extremely large secondary memory
3 An illusion of extremely large main memory
4 A type of memory used in super computers.
9)
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Right Ans ) 3
The process related to process control, file management, device management, information about
system and communication that is requested by any higher level language can be performed by
__________.
1 Editors
2 Compilers
3 System Call
4 Caching
10)
Right Ans ) 3
If the Disk head is located initially at 32, find the number of disk moves required with FCFS if the disk
queue of I/O blocks requests are 98,37,14,124,65,67.
1 310
2 324
3 315
4 321
11)
Right Ans ) 4
Multiprogramming systems ________.

1 Are easier to develop than single programming systems
2 Execute each job faster
3 Execute more jobs in the same time
4 Are used only on large main frame computers
12)
Right Ans ) 3
Which is not the state of the process ?

1 Blocked
2 Running
3 Ready
4 Privileged
13)
Right Ans ) 4
The solution to Critical Section Problem is : Mutual Exclusion, Progress and Bounded Waiting.
1 The statement is false
2 The statement is true.
14)
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3 The statement is contradictory.
4 None of the above
Right Ans ) 2
The problem of thrashing is effected scientifically by ________.

1 Program structure
2 Program size
3 Primary storage size
4 None of the above
15)
Right Ans ) 1
The state of a process after it encounters an I/O instruction is __________.

1 Ready
2 Blocked/Waiting
3 Idle
4 Running
16)
Right Ans ) 2
The number of processes completed per unit time is known as __________.
1 Output
2 Throughput
3 Efficiency
4 Capacity
17)
Right Ans ) 2
18) _________ is the situation in which a process is waiting on another process,which is also waiting on
another process ... which is waiting on the first process. None of the processes involved in this circular
wait are making progress.
1 Deadlock
2 Starvation
3 Dormant
4 None of the above
Right Ans ) 1
19)
Which of the following file name extension suggests that the file is Backup copy of another file ?
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Which of the following file name extension suggests that the file is Backup Whole-Testpaper
copy of another file ?
1 TXT
2 COM
3 BAS
4 BAK
19)
Right Ans ) 4
Which technique was introduced because a single job could not keep both the CPU and the I/O
devices busy?
1 Time-sharing
2 SPOOLing
3 Preemptive scheduling
4 Multiprogramming
20)
Right Ans ) 4
21)
A critical region
1 is a piece of code which only one process executes at a time

2 is a region prone to deadlock
3 is a piece of code which only a finite number of processes execute
4 is found only in Windows NT operation system
Right Ans ) 1
The mechanism that bring a page into memory only when it is needed is called _____________
1 Segmentation
2 Fragmentation
3 Demand Paging
4 Page Replacement
22)
Right Ans ) 3
PCB =
1 Program Control Block
2 Process Control Block
3 Process Communication Block
4 None of the above
23)
Right Ans ) 2
24)
FIFO scheduling is ________.
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1 Preemptive Scheduling
2 Non Preemptive Scheduling
3 Deadline Scheduling
4 Fair share scheduling
2/9/2014 24)
Whole-Testpaper
Right Ans ) 2
Switching the CPU to another Process requires to save state of the old process and loading new
process state is called as __________.
1 Process Blocking
2 Context Switch
3 Time Sharing
4 None of the above
25)
Right Ans ) 2
26) Which directory implementation is used in most Operating System?

1 Single level directory structure
2 Two level directory structure
3 Tree directory structure
4 Acyclic directory structure
Right Ans ) 3
27) The Bankers algorithm is used

1 to prevent deadlock in operating systems
2 to detect deadlock in operating systems
3 to rectify a deadlocked state
4 none of the above
Right Ans ) 1
A thread
1 is a lightweight process where the context switching is low
2 is a lightweight process where the context swithching is high
3 is used to speed up paging
4 none of the above
28)
Right Ans ) 1
29)
______ is a high level abstraction over Semaphore.
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1 Shared memory
2 Message passing
3 Monitor
4 Mutual exclusion
29)
Whole-Testpaper
Right Ans ) 3
A tree sturctured file directory system

1 allows easy storage and retrieval of file names
2 is a much debated unecessary feature
3 is not essential when we have millions of files
4 none of the above
30)
Right Ans ) 1
CSC-Multiple Choice Questions On Operating System Part-2
Using Priority Scheduling algorithm, find the average waiting time for the following set of processes
given with their priorities in the order: Process : Burst Time : Priority respectively . P1 : 10 : 3 , P2 : 1 : 1 ,
P3 : 2 : 4 , P4 : 1 : 5 , P5 : 5 : 2.
1 8 milliseconds
2 8.2 milliseconds
3 7.75 milliseconds
4 3 milliseconds
1)
Right Ans ) 2
2) Routine is not loaded until it is called. All routines are kept on disk in a relocatable load format. The
1 Static loading
2 Dynamic loading
3 Dynamic linking
4 Overlays
Right Ans ) 3
In the running state

1 only the process which has control of the processor is found
2 all the processes waiting for I/O to be completed are found
3 all the processes waiting for the processor are found
3)
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all the processes waiting for the processor are found

4 none of the above
Whole-Testpaper
Right Ans ) 1
4) The Purpose of Co-operating Process is __________.

1 Information Sharing
2 Convenience
3 Computation Speed-Up
4 All of the above
Right Ans ) 4
The kernel of the operating system remains in the primary memory because ________.
1 It is mostly called (used)
2 It manages all interrupt calls
3 It controls all operations in process
4 It is low level
5)
Right Ans ) 1
__________.
1 Editors
2 Compilers
3 System Call
4 Caching
6)
Right Ans ) 3
Which of the following disk scheduling techniques has a drawback of starvation ?

1 SCAN
2 SSTF
3 FCFS
4 LIFO
7)
Right Ans ) 2

8)
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Whole-Testpaper
Right Ans ) 3
Under multiprogramming, turnaround time for short jobs is usually ________ and that for long jobs is
slightly ___________.
1 Lengthened; Shortened
2 Shortened; Lengthened
9)
3 Shortened; Shortened
4 Shortened; Unchanged
Right Ans ) 2
Multiprocessing ________.
1 Make the operating system simpler
2 Allows multiple processes to run simultaneously
3 Is completely understood by all major computer vendors
4 Allows the same computer to have the multiple processors
10)
Right Ans ) 4

1 Blocked
2 Running
3 Ready
4 Privileged
11)
Right Ans ) 4
A set of resources' allocations such that the system can allocate resources to each process in some
order, and still avoid a deadlock is called ________.
1 Unsafe state
2 Safe state
3 Starvation
4 Greeedy allocation
12)
Right Ans ) 2
The principle of locality of reference justifies the use of ________.

1 Virtual Memory
2 Interrupts
13)
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2 Interrupts
3 Main memory
4 Cache memory
Whole-Testpaper
Right Ans ) 4
14)
What is the first step in performing an operating system upgrade ?
1 Partition the drive

2 Format the drive
3 Backup critical data
4 Backup old operating system
Right Ans ) 3
The technique, for sharing the time of a computer among several jobs, which switches jobs so
rapidly such that each job appears to have the computer to itself, is called ________.
1 Time Sharing
2 Time out
3 Time domain
4 Multitasking
15)
Right Ans ) 1
In a virtural memory environment

1 segmentation and page tables are stored in the cache and do not add any substantial overhead
2 slow down the computer system considerable
3 segmentation and page tables are stored in the RAM
4 none of the above
16)
Right Ans ) 3
If all page frames are initially empty, and a process is allocated 3 page frames in real memory and
references its pages in the order 1 2 3 2 4 5 2 3 2 4 1 and the page replacement is FIFO, the total number
of page faults caused by the process will be __________.
1 10
27
38
49
17)
Right Ans ) 4
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Situations where two or more processes are reading or writing some shared data and the final results
depends on the order of usage of the shared data, are called ________.
1 Race conditions
2 Critical section
18)
3 Mutual exclusion
4 Dead locks
Right Ans ) 1
When two or more processes attempt to access the same resource a _________ occurs.
1 Critical section
2 Fight
3 Communication problem
4 Race condition
19)
Right Ans ) 4
devices busy?
1 Time-sharing
2 SPOOLing
4 Multiprogramming
20)
Right Ans ) 4
_________ allocates the largest hole (free fragmant) available in the memory.
1 Best Fit
2 Worst Fit
3 First Fit
4 None of the above
21)
Right Ans ) 2
A process is starved
1 if it is permanently waiting for a resource
2 if semaphores are not used
3 if a queue is not used for scheduling
4 if demand paging is not properly implemented
22)
Right Ans ) 1
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23)
The degree of Multiprogramming is controlled by
1 CPU Scheduler
2 Context Switching
3 Long-term Scheduler
4 Medium term Scheduler
Right Ans ) 3
The time taken to bring the desired track/cylinder under the head is _________.
1 Seek time
2 Latency time
3 Transfer time
4 Read time
24)
Right Ans ) 1
Replace the page that will not be used for the longest period of time. This principle is adopted by
____________.
1 FIFO Page replacement algorithm
2 Optimal Page replacement algorithm
3 Round robin scheduling algorithm
4 SCAN scheduling algorithm
25)
Right Ans ) 3
Which of the following is a criterion to evaluate a scheduling algorithm?

1 CPU Utilization: Keep CPU utilization as high as possible.
2 Throughput: number of processes completed per unit time.
3 Waiting Time: Amount of time spent ready to run but not running.
4 All of the above
26)
Right Ans ) 4
The operating system of a computer serves as a software interface between the user and the
________.
1 Hardware
2 Peripheral
3 Memory
4 Screen
27)
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4 Screen
Whole-Testpaper
Right Ans ) 1
Super computers typically employ _______.

1 Real time Operating system
2 Multiprocessors OS
3 desktop OS
4 None of the above
28)
Right Ans ) 2
A process that is based on IPC mechanism which executes on different systems and can
communicate with other processes using message based communication, is called ________.
1 Local Procedure Call
2 Inter Process Communication
3 Remote Procedure Call
4 Remote Machine Invocation
29)
Right Ans ) 3
A process is
1 program in execution
2 a concurrent program
3 any sequential program
4 something which prevents deadlock
30)
Right Ans ) 1

Yes
No
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experiences
BSNL Technical Assistant Recruitment Procedure in shillong, BSNL Technical Assistant

Written test pattern Detailed SyllabusBHARAT SANCHAR NIGAM LTD.(A Govt. of India
Enterprise) Office of the Chief General Manager, North East - I Circle, Shillong -793
001. No. Rectt-225/TTA/Direct-Rectt/2012
Recruitment of Telecom Technical Assistant CLOSING DATE OF RECEIPT OF
APPLICATION: 31.12.2012 BSNL technical Assistant recruitment details
EXAMINATION DATE : To be announced later.
Bharat Sanchar Nigam Ltd. BSNL NE-I Circle, will fill up about 15(fifteen) vacancies for
Mizoram SSA [subject to variation depending on the availability of vacancies] of
Telecom Technical Assistant in the IDA Pay Scale of Rs.13600-25420 through an open competitive
examination likely to be held in the month of February-March 2013
Selection: C andidates
will be selected as Telecom Technical Assistant on the basis of a competitive

examination. Date and venue of the examination will be communicated to the candidates in due course
BSNL Technical Assistant Written Test Pattern
PART-I GENERAL ABILITY TEST 20
PART-II BASIC ENGINEERING 90
PART-III SPECIALIZATION 90
Note: 1. The candidate is required to obtain minimum qualifying marks in each of these parts as maybe
prescribed by the BSNL.
The examination is fully objective multiple choice pattern . There will be a written test
comprising of 3 ( three) parts consisting of Part-I (General ability test - 20 marks), Part-II (Basic
Engineering-90 marks) and Part-III (Specialization - 90 marks) of 3 hours duration. Candidates will have the
option to answer Part-II & III in Hindi or English language. Option once exercised in respect of medium of
answer shall be final and in no way will be allowed to change. Scheme and syllabus of the examination is
in Annexure-II
Examination :
SCHEME & SYLLABUS FOR TTA DIRECT RECRUIMENT EXAMINATION

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The standard of Paper in General ability test will be such as may be expected of an Engineering Diploma
holder. The standard of papers in other subjects will approximately be that of Diploma level of an Indian
Polytechnic. There shall be a single multiple choice objective types Paper of 3 hrs duration as per given
below:
Paper Marks Time
PART-II BASIC ENGINEERING 90 3hrs
Detailed syllabus
PART-I:
Detailed syllabus
PART-I: GENERAL ABILITY TEST 20 MARKS
The candidates comprehension and understanding of General English shall be tested through simple
exercise such as provision of antonyms and synonyms, fill in the blanks and multiple-choice exercise etc.
This shall also include questions on current events, general knowledge and such matters of everyday
observation and experiences as may be expected of Diploma holder.
PART-II: BASIC ENGINEERING 90 MARKS
Detailed Syllabus is as under:
1. Applied mathematics: Co-ordinate
Geometry, Vector Algebra; Matrix and Determinant; Differential

Calculus; Integral Calculus Differential equation of second order; Fourier series; Laplace Transform;
Complex Number; Partial Differentiation.
2. Applied Physics: Measurement- Units and Dimension; Waves, Acoustic, Ultrasonic; Light; Laser and
its Application, Atomic Structure and Energy Levels.
3. Basic Electricity: Electrostatics; Coulombs law, Electric field, Gausss theorem, concept of
potential difference, concept of capacitance and capacitors; Ohms law, power and energy, Kirchhoffs
voltage, current laws and their applications in simple DC circuits, Basic Magnetism;Electric Magnetism;
Electromagnetic Induction; Concept of alternating voltage & current; Cells and Batteries, Voltage and
Current Sources, The venins theorem, Nortons theorem and their applications.
4. Electronics Devices and Circuits: Classification of materials into conductor, semi conductor, insulator
etc, electrical properties, magnetic materials, various types of relays, switches and connectors.
Conventional representation of electric & electronics circuits elements. Active and passive components;
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semi conductor Physics; Semiconductor Diode; Bipolar transistor & their circuits; Transistor Biasing
stabilisation of operating point; Single stage transistor amplifier; field effect transistor, Mosfet circuits
application.
Multistage Transistor Amplifier; Transistor Audio Power Amplifier; feedback in Amplifier; Sinusoidal;
Oscillators; Tuned Voltage Amplifier; Opto Electronics Devices and their applications; Operational
Amplifier, Wave shaping and switching circuits.
Block diagram of IC. Timer (such as 555) and is working; Motivation Circuits; Time Base Circuits; Tnyristory
and UT Regulated Power Supply.
5. Digital Techniques: Applications and advantages of digital system; number system ( binary and
hexadecimal); Logic Gates; Logic Simplication; Codes and Parity; Arithmetic Circuits; Decoders, Display
Devices and Associated Circuits,Multliplexers and De- multiplexers; batches and Flip Flops; Counters;
Shift Registers; Memories A/D and D/A converters.
PART-III: SPECIALIZATION 90 MARKS
Detailed Syllabus is as under:1. Electrical:

3 phases vs single-phase supply, Star data connections, relation between phase & line voltage power
factor and their measurements; construction and principles of working of various types of electrical
measuring instruments. All types of motor and generator AC & DC transformers,starters,rectifiers,
inverters, battery charges, batteries, servo and stepper motor, contactor control circuits, switchgear,
relays, protection devices & schemes, substation, protective relaying, circuits breaker, generator
protection. Transformer protection, feeder & lightening protection feeder & bus bar protection, lightening
arrestor,earthing, voltage stabilizer & regulators, power control devices & circuits phase controlled
rectifiers,inverters,choppers dual converters cycloconverters; power electronics application in control of
drivers, refrigeration and air conditioning.
2. Communication:
Modulation and de- modulation and principles and operation of various type of AM, FM and PM
modulator/demodulator pulse modulation TDM, PAM, PPM, PWM, Multiplexing. Principle and
applications of PCM.
Introduction of basic block diagram of digital and data communication system. Coding error detection and
correction techniques; digital modulation techniques ASK, ICW, FSK,PSK; Characteristic/ working of
data transmission circuits; UART,USART;Modems ; protocols and their function; brief idea of ISDN
interfaces; local area Net work, carrier Telephony futures of carrier telephone system.
Microwave Engineering; Microwave Devices; Waves guides; microwaves component; microwave
Antennas; Microwaves communication systems- block diagram and working principle of microwave
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communication link.
3 Network, Filters and Transmission Lines:
Two port network; Attenuators; Filters; Transmission Lines and their applications characteristic impedance
of line; concept of refection and standing waves on a transmission line; Transmission line equation;
principles of impedance matching, Bandwidth consideration of a transmission line.
4. Instruments and Measurements:
Specification of instruments- accuracy, precision, sensitivity, resolution range, Errors in measurements

and loading effect; principles of voltage, current and resistance measurements; Transducers,
measurement of displacement & strain forces & torque measuring devices, pressure measuring devices
flow measuring devices, power control devices & circuits. Types of AC milli voltmeters Amplifier rectifier
and rectifier amplifier. Block diagram explanation of a basic CRO and a triggered sweep oscilloscope,
front panel controls; impedance Bridges and Q- Meters. Principles of working and specifications of logic
probes, signature analyzer and logic analyzer, signal generator, distortion factor meter, spectrum
analyzer.
5. Control System:
Basic elements of control system, open and closed loop system, concept of feedback, Block diagram of
control system, Time lag, hysteresis, linearity concepts, self regulating and non- self regulating control
systems. Transfer function of simple control components, single feedback configuration.
6. Time response of systems.
Stability Analysis Characteristics equation, Rouths table, Nyquist criterion, Relative stability, phase margin
and gain margin.
Routh Hurwitz criteria, root locus techniques, Bode plot, Power plot, Gain margin and phase margin.
7. Microprocessors:
Typical organization of a microprocessor system & functions of its various blocks; Architecture of a
Microprocessors; Memories and I/O Interfacing, Brief idea of M/C assembly languages, Machines &
Mnemonic codes; Instruction format and Addressing Mode; concept of Instruction set; programming
exercises in assembly language; concept of interrupt Data transfer
techniques- sync data transfer, interrupt driven data transfer , DMA, serial output data, serial input data.
8. Computer:
Computer and its working, types of computers, familiarisation with DOS and Windows, concept of file,
directory, folder, number system. Data representation programming - Elements of a high level
programming language, Pascal, C: Use of basic data structures; Fundamentals of computer Architecture,
processor design, Control Unit design, memory Organisation. I/O system organisation. Microprocessors Microprocessors Architecture, instruction set and simple Assembly level programming. Microprocessors
based system design; typical examples. Personal computers and their typical uses. Data communication
principles, types and working principles of modems. Network principles, OSI model, functions of data link
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layer and network layer, networking components; Communication protocol- X.25, TCP/IP.
9. Database Management System:
Basic concepts, entity relationship model, relational model, DBMS based on relational model.
Fore more details :http://www.ne1.bsnl.co.in/admin/ttarecttnov12.pdf

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CSC Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question
and answers
CSC recruitment process and aptitude test
experiences
CSC Operating system-OS question for practice, CSE Off and On campus recruitment experience and
selection procedure, CSC latest written test pattern, CSC Aptitude written test model questions, CSC
Technical written test practice questions with answers, CSC previous years free solved sample
placement papers, CSC Technical hr interview procedure, CSC Group Discussion topics and
procedures
CSC Operating system
1) Round robin scheduling is essentially the preemptive version of ________.
1 FIFO
2 Shortest job first
3 Shortes remaining
4 Longest time first
Right Ans ) 1
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A page fault occurs

1 when the page is not in the memory
2 when the page is in the memory
3 when the process enters the blocked state
4 when the process is in the ready state
2)
Right Ans ) 1
Which of the following will determine your choice of systems software for your computer ?
1 Is the applications software you want to use compatible with it ?
2 Is it expensive ?
3 Is it compatible with your hardware ?
4 Both 1 and 3
3)
Right Ans ) 4
Let S and Q be two semaphores initialized to 1, where P0 and P1 processes the following statements
wait(S);wait(Q); ---; signal(S);signal(Q) and wait(Q); wait(S);---;signal(Q);signal(S); respectively. The above
situation depicts a _________ .
1 Semaphore
2 Deadlock
3 Signal
4 Interrupt
4)
Right Ans ) 2
What is a shell ?
1 It is a hardware component
2 It is a command interpreter
3 It is a part in compiler
4 It is a tool in CPU scheduling
5)
Right Ans ) 2
Routine is not loaded until it is called. All routines are kept on disk in a relocatable load format. The
1 Static loading
2 Dynamic loading
3 Dynamic linking
6)
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4 Overlays
Right Ans ) 3
In the blocked state
1 the processes waiting for I/O are found
2 the process which is running is found
3 the processes waiting for the processor are found
4 none of the above
7)
Right Ans ) 1
What is the memory from 1K - 640K called ?

1 Extended Memory
2 Normal Memory
3 Low Memory
4 Conventional Memory
8)
Right Ans ) 4
Virtual memory is __________.

1 An extremely large main memory
2 An extremely large secondary memory
3 An illusion of extremely large main memory
9)
Right Ans ) 3
__________.
1 Editors
2 Compilers
3 System Call
4 Caching
10)
Right Ans ) 3
If the Disk head is located initially at 32, find the number of disk moves required with FCFS if the disk
queue of I/O blocks requests are 98,37,14,124,65,67.
1 310
11)
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2 324
3 315
4 321
Right Ans ) 4

12)
Right Ans ) 3

1 Blocked
2 Running
3 Ready
4 Privileged
13)
Right Ans ) 4
14)
The solution to Critical Section Problem is : Mutual Exclusion, Progress and Bounded Waiting.
1 The statement is false

3 The statement is contradictory.
4 None of the above
Right Ans ) 2
The problem of thrashing is effected scientifically by ________.

1 Program structure
2 Program size
3 Primary storage size
4 None of the above
15)
Right Ans ) 1
The state of a process after it encounters an I/O instruction is __________.

1 Ready
2 Blocked/Waiting
16)
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2 Blocked/Waiting
3 Idle
4 Running
Right Ans ) 2
Whole-Testpaper
The number of processes completed per unit time is known as __________.

1 Output
2 Throughput
3 Efficiency
4 Capacity
17)
Right Ans ) 2
18) _________ is the situation in which a process is waiting on another process,which is also waiting on
another process ... which is waiting on the first process. None of the processes involved in this circular
wait are making progress.
1 Deadlock
2 Starvation
3 Dormant
4 None of the above
Right Ans ) 1
Which of the following file name extension suggests that the file is Backup copy of another file ?
1 TXT
2 COM
3 BAS
4 BAK
19)
Right Ans ) 4
devices busy?
1 Time-sharing
2 SPOOLing
4 Multiprogramming
20)
Right Ans ) 4
21)
A critical region
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A critical region
1 is a piece of code which only one process executes at a time
2 is a region prone to deadlock
3 is a piece of code which only a finite number of processes execute
4 is found only in Windows NT operation system
21)
Whole-Testpaper
Right Ans ) 1
The mechanism that bring a page into memory only when it is needed is called _____________
1 Segmentation
2 Fragmentation
3 Demand Paging
4 Page Replacement
22)
Right Ans ) 3
PCB =
1 Program Control Block
2 Process Control Block
23)
3 Process Communication Block

4 None of the above
Right Ans ) 2

1 Preemptive Scheduling
2 Non Preemptive Scheduling
3 Deadline Scheduling
4 Fair share scheduling
24)
Right Ans ) 2
Switching the CPU to another Process requires to save state of the old process and loading new
process state is called as __________.
1 Process Blocking
2 Context Switch
3 Time Sharing
4 None of the above
25)
Right Ans ) 2

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1 Single level directory structure
2 Two level directory structure
3 Tree directory structure
4 Acyclic directory structure
Whole-Testpaper
Right Ans ) 3
27) The Bankers algorithm is used

1 to prevent deadlock in operating systems
2 to detect deadlock in operating systems
3 to rectify a deadlocked state
4 none of the above
Right Ans ) 1
28)
A thread
1 is a lightweight process where the context switching is low

2 is a lightweight process where the context swithching is high
3 is used to speed up paging
4 none of the above
Right Ans ) 1

1 Shared memory
2 Message passing
3 Monitor
4 Mutual exclusion
29)
Right Ans ) 3
A tree sturctured file directory system

1 allows easy storage and retrieval of file names
2 is a much debated unecessary feature
3 is not essential when we have millions of files
4 none of the above
30)
Right Ans ) 1
CSC-Multiple Choice Questions On Operating System Part-2

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Using Priority Scheduling algorithm, find the average waiting time for the following set of processes
given with their priorities in the order: Process : Burst Time : Priority respectively . P1 : 10 : 3 , P2 : 1 : 1 ,
P3 : 2 : 4 , P4 : 1 : 5 , P5 : 5 : 2.
1 8 milliseconds
2 8.2 milliseconds
3 7.75 milliseconds
4 3 milliseconds
1)
Right Ans ) 2
2) Routine is not loaded until it is called. All routines are kept on disk in a relocatable load format. The
1 Static loading
2 Dynamic loading
3 Dynamic linking
4 Overlays
Right Ans ) 3
In the running state

1 only the process which has control of the processor is found
2 all the processes waiting for I/O to be completed are found
3 all the processes waiting for the processor are found
4 none of the above
3)
Right Ans ) 1
4) The Purpose of Co-operating Process is __________.

1 Information Sharing
2 Convenience
3 Computation Speed-Up
4 All of the above
Right Ans ) 4
The kernel of the operating system remains in the primary memory because ________.
1 It is mostly called (used)
2 It manages all interrupt calls
3 It controls all operations in process
4 It is low level
5)
Right Ans ) 1
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Right Ans ) 1
__________.
1 Editors
2 Compilers
3 System Call
4 Caching
6)
Right Ans ) 3
Which of the following disk scheduling techniques has a drawback of starvation ?

1 SCAN
2 SSTF
3 FCFS
4 LIFO
7)
Right Ans ) 2

8)
Right Ans ) 3
Under multiprogramming, turnaround time for short jobs is usually ________ and that for long jobs is
slightly ___________.
1 Lengthened; Shortened
2 Shortened; Lengthened
3 Shortened; Shortened
4 Shortened; Unchanged
9)
Right Ans ) 2
Multiprocessing ________.
1 Make the operating system simpler
2 Allows multiple processes to run simultaneously
10)
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4 Allows the same computer to have the multiple processors
Right Ans ) 4

1 Blocked
2 Running
3 Ready
4 Privileged
11)
Right Ans ) 4
A set of resources' allocations such that the system can allocate resources to each process in some
order, and still avoid a deadlock is called ________.
1 Unsafe state
2 Safe state
3 Starvation
4 Greeedy allocation
12)
Right Ans ) 2
The principle of locality of reference justifies the use of ________.

1 Virtual Memory
2 Interrupts
3 Main memory
4 Cache memory
13)
Right Ans ) 4
What is the first step in performing an operating system upgrade ?

1 Partition the drive
2 Format the drive
3 Backup critical data
4 Backup old operating system
14)
Right Ans ) 3
The technique, for sharing the time of a computer among several jobs, which switches jobs so
rapidly such that each job appears to have the computer to itself, is called ________.
1 Time Sharing
2 Time out
15)
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2 Time out
3 Time domain
4 Multitasking
Right Ans ) 1
In a virtural memory environment

1 segmentation and page tables are stored in the cache and do not add any substantial overhead
16)
2 slow down the computer system considerable

3 segmentation and page tables are stored in the RAM
4 none of the above
Right Ans ) 3
If all page frames are initially empty, and a process is allocated 3 page frames in real memory and
references its pages in the order 1 2 3 2 4 5 2 3 2 4 1 and the page replacement is FIFO, the total number
of page faults caused by the process will be __________.
1 10
27
38
49
17)
Right Ans ) 4
Situations where two or more processes are reading or writing some shared data and the final results
depends on the order of usage of the shared data, are called ________.
1 Race conditions
2 Critical section
3 Mutual exclusion
4 Dead locks
18)
Right Ans ) 1
When two or more processes attempt to access the same resource a _________ occurs.
1 Critical section
2 Fight
3 Communication problem
4 Race condition
19)
Right Ans ) 4
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devices busy?
1 Time-sharing
2 SPOOLing
20)
4 Multiprogramming
Right Ans ) 4
_________ allocates the largest hole (free fragmant) available in the memory.
1 Best Fit
2 Worst Fit
3 First Fit
4 None of the above
21)
Right Ans ) 2
A process is starved
1 if it is permanently waiting for a resource
2 if semaphores are not used
3 if a queue is not used for scheduling
4 if demand paging is not properly implemented
22)
Right Ans ) 1
The degree of Multiprogramming is controlled by

1 CPU Scheduler
2 Context Switching
3 Long-term Scheduler
4 Medium term Scheduler
23)
Right Ans ) 3
The time taken to bring the desired track/cylinder under the head is _________.
1 Seek time
2 Latency time
3 Transfer time
4 Read time
24)
Right Ans ) 1
110/118
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Replace the page that will not be used for the longest period of time. This principle is adopted by
____________.
1 FIFO Page replacement algorithm
25)
2 Optimal Page replacement algorithm

3 Round robin scheduling algorithm
4 SCAN scheduling algorithm
Right Ans ) 3
Which of the following is a criterion to evaluate a scheduling algorithm?

1 CPU Utilization: Keep CPU utilization as high as possible.
2 Throughput: number of processes completed per unit time.
3 Waiting Time: Amount of time spent ready to run but not running.
4 All of the above
26)
Right Ans ) 4
The operating system of a computer serves as a software interface between the user and the
________.
1 Hardware
2 Peripheral
3 Memory
4 Screen
27)
Right Ans ) 1
Super computers typically employ _______.

1 Real time Operating system
2 Multiprocessors OS
3 desktop OS
4 None of the above
28)
Right Ans ) 2
A process that is based on IPC mechanism which executes on different systems and can
communicate with other processes using message based communication, is called ________.
1 Local Procedure Call
2 Inter Process Communication
3 Remote Procedure Call
29)
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Right Ans ) 3
A process is
1 program in execution
2 a concurrent program
3 any sequential program
4 something which prevents deadlock
30)
Right Ans ) 1

Yes
No
Previous Papers
CSC/selection-procedure-29823...
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CSC Placement-Paper-Whole-Testpaper-3696...
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Views : 2858
Rating :
Posted By : Saiji


and answers
experiences
BSNL Technical Assistant Recruitment Procedure in shillong, BSNL Technical Assistant

Written test pattern Detailed SyllabusBHARAT SANCHAR NIGAM LTD.(A Govt. of India
Enterprise) Office of the Chief General Manager, North East - I Circle, Shillong -793
001. No. Rectt-225/TTA/Direct-Rectt/2012
Recruitment of Telecom Technical Assistant CLOSING DATE OF RECEIPT OF
APPLICATION: 31.12.2012 BSNL technical Assistant recruitment details
EXAMINATION DATE : To be announced later.
Bharat Sanchar Nigam Ltd. BSNL NE-I Circle, will fill up about 15(fifteen) vacancies for
112/118
2/9/2014
Whole-Testpaper
Mizoram SSA [subject to variation depending on the availability of vacancies] of

Telecom Technical Assistant in the IDA Pay Scale of Rs.13600-25420 through an open competitive
examination likely to be held in the month of February-March 2013
Selection: C andidates
will be selected as Telecom Technical Assistant on the basis of a competitive

examination. Date and venue of the examination will be communicated to the candidates in due course
BSNL Technical Assistant Written Test Pattern
PART-II BASIC ENGINEERING 90
The examination is fully objective multiple choice pattern . There will be a written test
comprising of 3 ( three) parts consisting of Part-I (General ability test - 20 marks), Part-II (Basic
Engineering-90 marks) and Part-III (Specialization - 90 marks) of 3 hours duration. Candidates will have the
option to answer Part-II & III in Hindi or English language. Option once exercised in respect of medium of
answer shall be final and in no way will be allowed to change. Scheme and syllabus of the examination is
in Annexure-II
Examination :
SCHEME & SYLLABUS FOR TTA DIRECT RECRUIMENT EXAMINATION

The standard of Paper in General ability test will be such as may be expected of an Engineering Diploma
holder. The standard of papers in other subjects will approximately be that of Diploma level of an Indian
Polytechnic. There shall be a single multiple choice objective types Paper of 3 hrs duration as per given
below:
Paper Marks Time
PART-II BASIC ENGINEERING 90 3hrs
Detailed syllabus
PART-I:
Detailed syllabus
113/118
2/9/2014
Detailed syllabus
Whole-Testpaper
PART-I: GENERAL ABILITY TEST 20 MARKS
The candidates comprehension and understanding of General English shall be tested through simple
exercise such as provision of antonyms and synonyms, fill in the blanks and multiple-choice exercise etc.
This shall also include questions on current events, general knowledge and such matters of everyday
observation and experiences as may be expected of Diploma holder.
PART-II: BASIC ENGINEERING 90 MARKS
Detailed Syllabus is as under:
1. Applied mathematics: Co-ordinate
Geometry, Vector Algebra; Matrix and Determinant; Differential

Calculus; Integral Calculus Differential equation of second order; Fourier series; Laplace Transform;
Complex Number; Partial Differentiation.
2. Applied Physics: Measurement- Units and Dimension; Waves, Acoustic, Ultrasonic; Light; Laser and
its Application, Atomic Structure and Energy Levels.
3. Basic Electricity: Electrostatics; Coulombs law, Electric field, Gausss theorem, concept of
potential difference, concept of capacitance and capacitors; Ohms law, power and energy, Kirchhoffs
voltage, current laws and their applications in simple DC circuits, Basic Magnetism;Electric Magnetism;
Electromagnetic Induction; Concept of alternating voltage & current; Cells and Batteries, Voltage and
Current Sources, The venins theorem, Nortons theorem and their applications.
4. Electronics Devices and Circuits: Classification of materials into conductor, semi conductor, insulator
etc, electrical properties, magnetic materials, various types of relays, switches and connectors.
semi conductor Physics; Semiconductor Diode; Bipolar transistor & their circuits; Transistor Biasing
stabilisation of operating point; Single stage transistor amplifier; field effect transistor, Mosfet circuits
application.
Multistage Transistor Amplifier; Transistor Audio Power Amplifier; feedback in Amplifier; Sinusoidal;
Oscillators; Tuned Voltage Amplifier; Opto Electronics Devices and their applications; Operational
Amplifier, Wave shaping and switching circuits.
Block diagram of IC. Timer (such as 555) and is working; Motivation Circuits; Time Base Circuits; Tnyristory
and UT Regulated Power Supply.
5. Digital Techniques: Applications and advantages of digital system; number system ( binary and
hexadecimal); Logic Gates; Logic Simplication; Codes and Parity; Arithmetic Circuits; Decoders, Display
Devices and Associated Circuits,Multliplexers and De- multiplexers; batches and Flip Flops; Counters;
Shift Registers; Memories A/D and D/A converters.
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PART-III: SPECIALIZATION 90 MARKS
Detailed Syllabus is as under:1. Electrical:

3 phases vs single-phase supply, Star data connections, relation between phase & line voltage power
factor and their measurements; construction and principles of working of various types of electrical
measuring instruments. All types of motor and generator AC & DC transformers,starters,rectifiers,
inverters, battery charges, batteries, servo and stepper motor, contactor control circuits, switchgear,
relays, protection devices & schemes, substation, protective relaying, circuits breaker, generator
protection. Transformer protection, feeder & lightening protection feeder & bus bar protection, lightening
arrestor,earthing, voltage stabilizer & regulators, power control devices & circuits phase controlled
rectifiers,inverters,choppers dual converters cycloconverters; power electronics application in control of
drivers, refrigeration and air conditioning.
2. Communication:
Modulation and de- modulation and principles and operation of various type of AM, FM and PM
modulator/demodulator pulse modulation TDM, PAM, PPM, PWM, Multiplexing. Principle and
applications of PCM.
Introduction of basic block diagram of digital and data communication system. Coding error detection and
correction techniques; digital modulation techniques ASK, ICW, FSK,PSK; Characteristic/ working of
data transmission circuits; UART,USART;Modems ; protocols and their function; brief idea of ISDN
interfaces; local area Net work, carrier Telephony futures of carrier telephone system.
Microwave Engineering; Microwave Devices; Waves guides; microwaves component; microwave
communication link.
3 Network, Filters and Transmission Lines:
Two port network; Attenuators; Filters; Transmission Lines and their applications characteristic impedance
of line; concept of refection and standing waves on a transmission line; Transmission line equation;
principles of impedance matching, Bandwidth consideration of a transmission line.
4. Instruments and Measurements:
Specification of instruments- accuracy, precision, sensitivity, resolution range, Errors in measurements

and loading effect; principles of voltage, current and resistance measurements; Transducers,
measurement of displacement & strain forces & torque measuring devices, pressure measuring devices
flow measuring devices, power control devices & circuits. Types of AC milli voltmeters Amplifier rectifier
and rectifier amplifier. Block diagram explanation of a basic CRO and a triggered sweep oscilloscope,
front panel controls; impedance Bridges and Q- Meters. Principles of working and specifications of logic
probes, signature analyzer and logic analyzer, signal generator, distortion factor meter, spectrum
analyzer.
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analyzer.
5. Control System:
Basic elements of control system, open and closed loop system, concept of feedback, Block diagram of
control system, Time lag, hysteresis, linearity concepts, self regulating and non- self regulating control
systems. Transfer function of simple control components, single feedback configuration.
6. Time response of systems.
Stability Analysis Characteristics equation, Rouths table, Nyquist criterion, Relative stability, phase margin
and gain margin.
Routh Hurwitz criteria, root locus techniques, Bode plot, Power plot, Gain margin and phase margin.
7. Microprocessors:
Typical organization of a microprocessor system & functions of its various blocks; Architecture of a
Microprocessors; Memories and I/O Interfacing, Brief idea of M/C assembly languages, Machines &
Mnemonic codes; Instruction format and Addressing Mode; concept of Instruction set; programming
exercises in assembly language; concept of interrupt Data transfer
techniques- sync data transfer, interrupt driven data transfer , DMA, serial output data, serial input data.
8. Computer:
Computer and its working, types of computers, familiarisation with DOS and Windows, concept of file,
directory, folder, number system. Data representation programming - Elements of a high level
programming language, Pascal, C: Use of basic data structures; Fundamentals of computer Architecture,
processor design, Control Unit design, memory Organisation. I/O system organisation. Microprocessors Microprocessors Architecture, instruction set and simple Assembly level programming. Microprocessors
based system design; typical examples. Personal computers and their typical uses. Data communication
layer and network layer, networking components; Communication protocol- X.25, TCP/IP.
9. Database Management System:
Basic concepts, entity relationship model, relational model, DBMS based on relational model.
Fore more details :http://www.ne1.bsnl.co.in/admin/ttarecttnov12.pdf
Yes
No
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1. Out of the following which centre is making use of enriched Uranium?

1. Out of the following which centre is making use of enriched Uranium?

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7 The largest gland in human body is (a) endocrine

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(b) Port Blair (c) Katchtibu

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20. The term Third World is related to

21. Which of the following is a bulwark of personal freedom?

22. The anode in a dry cell consists of

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24. Which of the following types of lens is used in a camera?

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28. Find the odd one

31. Satellite : Planetary path

32. Brittle: Break:

(b) Sharp : Scratch

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34. Fill in the missing letter in the following series

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48 Arrange the following words according to dictionary

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54. What is necessary for a nursing home?

55. If 854 = 12, 467 = 38, then 683 =?

60 If + means x, means , x means f, and means +, then what is the value of 9 + 8 8

64. Choose the correct number from the options?

015 : 00015: : 103:?

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Indian-Airforce Whole-Testpaper placement paper

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TIME ALLOTTED 2 HRS.

(d) destiny with sharp edges.

According to the writer, wisdom on the razors edge of destiny means:

His actions had ________ pain and suffering on thousands of people.

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