A1 Review Center

Licensure Examination for Teachers (LET)

GENERAL EDUCATION
ENGLISH
1. I ________you as to the idea on how are we going to go about solving the
problem of garbage in our barangay.
a. differ in
c. differ with
b. differ from
d. differ on
e.
2. Which of the following sentence is correct?
a. We depend to our client for
c. Pray as if everything
income.
depends on God.
b. Work as if everything
d. Work as if everything is
depended on God.
dependent on you.
3. I ______him and he has kept his promise not to deceive me.
a. Confided in
c. Confided with
b. Confided to
d. Confide to
4. Come to our party and ______your staff.
a. bring along
c. go with
b. bring
d. come with
5. Which of the following sentences is correct?
a. He brings checks to the bank and take home cash.
b. He bring checks to the bank and brings home cash.
c. He takes checks to the bank and brings home cash.
d. He takes checks to the bank and bring home cash.
6. We are all in ___the best solution.
a. search of
b. search for
c. the search of
d. searching
7. May I request that he _______the meeting at 5.00pm at the faculty room.
a. attends
b. attend
c. Will attend
d. must attend
8. I want to deal with ______has the authority to issue the necessary permits.
a. Whom one
b. Whomever
c. Whoever
d. Who
9. A number of employees___ late this morning due to a vehicular accident
along C-5.
a. was
b. were
c. got
d. has been
10.

11.The police confiscated three double-bladed______ from the suspected

terrorist.
a. Knife
b. Knifes
c. Knives
d. Knive
12.Which of the following utterances show dejection?
a. Its too bad
b. I cant believe it
c. A am sorry to hear that
d. I did not have the chance.
13.As he __________of this eulogy, he stressed his hopes for more peace and
understanding for everyone.
a. Nears the end
b. Near the end
c. Neared the end
d. Neared that end
14.Let ________who believes in this prophet speaks now of what he knows.
a. He
b. Himself
c. Him
d. His self
15.The family of Bernadette Fernandez does not live here ________.
a. No ore
b. Any more
c. Anymore
d. Already
16.Uncle Pido bought the camping gear for Robert and _________ as a prize for
winning the competition.
a. Mine
b. Myself
c. Me
d. I
17.Have you _________enough water today before the final long distance
competition?
a. Drink
b. Drunken
c. Drank
d. Drunk
18.The DENR Secretary and the MMDA Chairman _______going tom lead the
campaign against smoke-belchers along EDSA on Monday.
a. Is both
b. Were
c. Are
d. Will be
19. History is the witness that _________passing of time.
a. Testifies the
b. Testifies for
c. Will testify for
d. Will testify

20.The statement: Speak evil of no man refers to ______?

a. Clich
b. Shock
c. Gossip
d. Truth
21.An autocratic leader who serves his people well is at all times called_______
dictator.
a. Benevolent
b. Belligerent
c. Beneficial
d. Gratuitous
22.He has been absent for 3 days because he is ____measles.
a. Affected of
b. Afflicted of
c. Afflicted with
d. Affected with
23.If I could speak Spanish, I ________studying in Spain next year.
a. Will spent
b. Will be
c. Would spend
d. Would have spend
24.The _______that, for various reasons, girls spent less time working with
computers than boys.
a. Studies revealing
b. Studies reveal
c. Studies revealed
d. Studies will reveal
25.The Home office Module greatly benefits single mothers from running their
business because they can stay home, make money and ________a variety of
people.
a. Get to meet
b. To meet
c. Meet
d. Be meeting
26.What is meant by the underlines words in this statement?
27.
We moved into this new office last week but I am afraid everything is
still at sixes and sevens.
a. The office furniture has not been shipped.
b. Greatly delayed
c. In a state of confusion
d. Between six and seven
28.Which contraction is the correct from as used in the following sentence?
a. Which knew its a sin to tell a lie
b. He knows its a sin to tell a lie
c. He knows its a sin to tell a lie
d. He knew it a sin to tell a lie
29.___dates are irrelevant to her case being heard by the Judge De la Cruz.
a. This
b. These
c. That

d. those
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.The convicted criminal will be ________the day after tomorrow.
a. Hanged
b. Hang
c. Hunged
d. Hung
35.The reference may not _______these regulations no matter how you protest.
a. Exempt you from
b. Excuse you from
c. Include you from
d. Explain to you
36.Our heroes like Rizal and Bonifacio are worth_____.
a. Enervating
b. Comparing
c. Idolizing
d. Emulating
37.The modern space explorers have gone_______ earlier explorers.
a. Further of
b. Farther than
c. Farther on
d. Further than
38.Everyone in the field of entertainment________ to watch the Oscar Awards.
a. Was excited
b. Were excited
c. Is certainly excited
d. Are certainly excited
39._______ to our appeal for consideration, the board of trustees will not give us
any extension for filling additional evidence.
a. As regard
b. In regard
c. In regards
d. With regards
40.The sales clerk advised the costumer trying the clothes _____.
a. Do not try on the clothes before they are bought
b. Do not try more clothes unless they are sold
c. Do not try on more clothes
d. Do not try on the clothes many times
41.Therefore, in aid of legislation, ________must be no letup in the investigations
and public hearings.
a. Therell
b. Theyre
c. There
d. Their
42.This digital video disc player is my sisters. How about this?
a. This is his
b. This is of him

c. This is to his
d. This is him
43.The provincial Board member said, I _________ won the election without the
backing of religious sect
a. Could of
b. Should have not
c. Shall have not
d. Should of
44.During the Independence Day celebrations, the directive is ______.
a. Hang your flags on June 12
b. Hanged your flags on June 12
c. Hanged your flags during June 12
d. Hung your flags on June 12
45.The local basketball players were supported by the Filipino-American imports.
This group ____efforts.
a. Complicated the team
b. Complimented the team
c. Complimented the team
d. Completed the team
46.Most natural calamities happen in July and August. Students are sent home
early______.
a. To avoid missing the transport
b. To avoid traffic jams
c. To avoid getting wet
d. To avoid the flash floods
47.The union members cannot _________ the kind of compensation plan they
want.
a. Agree on
b. Agree to
c. Agree with
d. Get agree with
48.Please _______ the book with you next time you come to my office.
a. Bring
b. Take
c. Carry along
d. Bring along
49.It is essential that harmony prevail _______ the departments.
a. Between
b. With
c. Among
d. With all
50.Ever since Mr. De la Cruz was elected President of the organization, the
members ____ better socials.
a. Had enjoy
b. Have enjoy
c. Enjoyed
d. Are enjoying
51.Join the streets rallies and demonstrations! shouted the rallyists. What was
asked of the crowd?
a. Apathy for a cause

b. Sympathy for a cause

c. Empathy for a cause
d. Avoidance of the action
52.The statement I am used with the same tales means _________
a. There is redundancy
b. There is nothing new
c. This is original
d. There is a difference
53.It cost twice ___I thought it would.
a. As much as
b. As much
c. More than
d. Than
54.She was much different ___________ I expected.
a. Than
b. From what
c. From
d. From
e. Than what
55.When a leader is succeeded by another leader, the former is referred to
as_________.
a. Replaced
b. Dethroned
c. Defeated
d. Deposed
56.
57.
VOCABULARY

58.
59. Direction: each sentence below has an underlined word phrase. Choose the
word or phrase that is mostly nearly similar to the underlined word.
60.
61.Because of the drugs soporific effect, you should not drive after taking it.
a. Inimical
b. poignant
c. noxious
d. sedative
e. poisonous
62.Indulgent parents spoil their children by giving in to their every demands and
whim.
a. Loving
b. Generous
c. Beneficial
d. Yielding
e. Indecisive
63.Somebody has to corroborate your evidence; otherwise, it will not stand as
defense in court.
a. Witness
b. Collaborate
c. Confirm
d. Negate

e. Be credible
64.The depravity of the criminals behavior shocked all.
a. Harshness
b. Gravity
c. Deprivations
d. Effects
e. Viciousness
65.He is more concerned with mundane matters like the movement of the stock
market.
a. Simple
b. Financial
c. Worldly
d. Investments
e. Economic
66.Do not be so dogmatic about the statement; it can be easily refuted.
a. Arbitrary
b. Religious
c. Disagreeing
d. Technical
e. Whimsical
67.The hot, humid weather can enervate even hearty souls.
a. Intimidate
b. Incite
c. Invigorate
d. Impugn
e. Weaken
68.He was expelled from the club because of his nefarious activities.
a. Unsolicited
b. Unauthorized
c. Questionable
d. Immature
e. Sinister
69.His difference caused him to miss many opportunities.
a. Ignorance
b. Laziness
c. Timidity
d. Arrogance
e. Indifference
70.The ancient city was a labyrinth of narrow, winding streets.
a. Confusion
b. Collection
c. Model
d. Path
e. Maze
71.Teresa was frightened by the amorphous mass which had floated in form the
sea.
a. Shapeless
b. Solid
c. Starlike
d. Rock-hard rotting

72.They resent his hypocritical as a friend for they know he is interested only on
his own advancement.
a. Exaggerated
b. Excessive
c. Deceitful
d. Narrow-minded
e. Modest
73.Let him drink the juice. It is innocuous and will have no effect.
a. Incapable
b. Non dangerous
c. Harmful
d. Tasteless toxic
74.Although the artist uses various materials for her artworks, she has the
predilection for indigenous materials.
a. Superiority
b. Foresight
c. Choice
d. Preference
e. Abundance
75.The secret agents in charge of protecting the president tried to be as
unobtrusive as possible.
a. Novel
b. Shadowy
c. Harsh
d. Strict
e. inconspicuous
76.They vowed to remain steadfast in their support of the groups cause.
a. Strong
b. Articulate
c. Loyal
d. Noble
e. Reassuring
77.The young wrestler struggled to defeat his adversary who is the current
Southeast Asian games champion.
a. Opponent
b. Partner
c. Colleague
d. Mentor
e. Enemy
78.The father upbraided his children for their extravagance.
a. Advocated
b. Scorned
c. Scolded
d. Praised
e. Punished
79.Beng, the customer relations Director, responded with alacrity to every
customer request or complaint.
a. Indignation
b. Aggression
c. Laxity

d. Indifference
e. Zeal
80.Health benefits and financial assistance are part of the remuneration that
goes with the position.
a. Allowances
b. Compensation
c. Contribution
d. Advantages
e. Package
81.News of the surreptitious meeting of the Magdalo Group gradually leaked out
to the media.
a. Secret
b. Illegal
c. Constant
d. Grand
e. Nightly
82.Science is constantly seeking to discover the immutable laws of nature.
a. Silent
b. Unchangeable
c. Constant
d. Impenetrable
e. Varied
83.Elizabeth feigned illness so she could avoid attending the school meetings.
a. Deserved
b. Escaped
c. Condoned
d. Pretended
e. Destroy
84.The lawyer was accused of trying to mulct his client of his legacy.
a. Swindle
b. Avenge
c. Appease
d. Suggest
e. Destroy
85.We must face the enemy without trepidation if we are to win the battle.
a. Reservations
b. Fear
c. Depravity
d. Logistics
e. Trauma
86.The regency club is perfect for the business traveler in search of privacy,
convenience and the eminent level of personalized service.
a. Topmost
b. Welcome
c. Distinguished
d. Approximate
e. Classy
87.395 elegantly designed and tacitly furnished guest rooms and suites with
residential ambiance.
a. Sweet

b. Cool and relaxing

c. Penetrating atmospheres
d. Clattered
e. Architectural
88.Erminita and malate are known for its bohemian lifestyle and tourist
attractions.
a. Stylish
b. conventional
c. unconventional
d. subdued
e. complacent
89.Lorenzo Ruiz refused to renounce his faith even though he knew he would
suffer martyrdom.
a. Announce
b. Refute
c. Abandon
d. Reconcile
e. Permeate
90.There is no panacea that will solve our financial difficulty.
a. Cure all
b. Problem
c. Paradox
d. Criteria
e. Answer
91.
92.CHOOSE THE NUMBER WHERE THE WORD IS MISSPELLED.
93.
94.
a. Acknowledgement
b. Committee
c. Illicit
d. Grizzly
e. No error
95.
a. Strenght
b. Receipt
c. parallel
d. Commission
e. No error
96.
a. Receive
b. Fourteen
c. Miniature
d. Commission
e. No error
97.
a. Disinterested
b. Immigrate
c. Supercede
d. Illegal

e. No error
98.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Noticeable
Separate
Environment
Oppurtunity
No error
99.
100.
SELECT THE MEANING OF THE UNDERLINED PART OF EACH SENTENCE
FROM THE CHOICES GIVEN:
101.
102.
She is the vision of the feminine pulchritude stands for
a. Aggressiveness
b. Homebuddy
c. Simplicity
d. Beauty and poise
e. Talent
103.
I value a man for the size of the his heart can be interpreted as
a. Size of heart determines the length of life
b. Mans kindness is most important
c. Man will perish without a big heart
d. Mans love is measured by the size of his heart
e. Man should use his mind over his heart
104.
President Quezon said I prefer a government ran like hell by a
Filipinos rather than one ran by foreigners. This means that
a. Though difficult, Filipinos are preferred to lead
b. Foreign leaders are better in governing
c. Filipinos are incapable of administering their own affairs
d. Leadership can only be provided by foreigners
e. Filipinos can never lead their own government
105.
George Shaw said You see things that are and you ask why. But I
dream things that never were and ask why not. Such lines speaks of
a. Clever thinking
b. Immorality
c. Curiosity
d. Rich imagination
e. Differences in outlook
106.
Mrs. Gonzales is as good as her last triumph
a. Cannot be good at all throughout
b. Cannot be bad
c. Sa nice as ever
d. Sustainably superb
e. In serious trouble
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
SENTENCE BELOW CONTAINS ERRORS IN IDIOMS, GRAMMAR, WORD
CHOICE, ENGLISH USAGE, ETC. YOU ARE TO DETECT SUCH ERRORS BY

WRITING THE LETTERS OF THE PART OF THE SENTENCE WHERE THE MISTAKE
IS FOUND.
113.
114.
115.
Take note of the immediate affect this drug has on the behavior of
the hamsters in the cage.
116.
A
B
C
D
117.
No error.
118.
E
119.
This scholarship should be awarded to whomever best meets the
requirements. No error
120. A
B C
D
E
121.
122.
I fail to understand why you are seeking my council after you ignored
my advice last week.
123. A
B
C
D
124.
125.
126.
must
127.

No error
E
Ours is a critical period; we are confronted with grave problems which
be solved if we are
A
B
C
D
128.
avert to a tragedy. No error
129.
E
130.
Alfredo usually eats a quick lunch, regardless of whether what he eats
is healthy or not. No error
131. A
B
C
D
E
132.
133.
CHOOSE THE SET OF WORDS THAT BEST FITS THE MEANING OF THE
SENTENCE AS A WHOLE.
134.
135.
It is __________to try to destroy pest completely with pesticide, for as
each new chemical pesticides is introduced the pest, gradually
become________ to it.
a. Useless----------drawn
b. Pointless-----vulnerable
c. Futile--------resistance
d. Wicked-------indifferent
e. Worthwhile ----immune
136.
The usual solution proposed for the chronic ________ of affordable
housing in the Philippines is to build new houses, often with government
subsidies to ______________.
a. Scarcity------conceal
b. Deterioration-----repair
c. Excess-----eliminate
d. Undersupply-----augment
e. Shortage-----reduce

137.
Pain is the bodys early warning system: loss of ___________ in the
extremities leaves a person_______injuring himself unwittingly.
a. Agony-----incapable
b. Sensation---vulnerable to
c. Consciousness----habits
d. Philosophical------questions
e. Abstract-----ideas
138.
Reubens interest was focused on _________ the division between theory
and empiricism; he was convinced that a ____ of philosophy and applied
science was possible and necessary.
a. Eliminating--------synthesis
b. Maintaining-----restoration
c. Crossing----stabilization
d. Ignoring------duplicity
e. Denying------delineation
139.
140.
As environmentalist recently _________in studying effects of natural
caused forest fires, some phenomena that appeared on the surface to be
destructive, often have a hidden_________ effect on the balance of nature.
a. Disproved------beneficial
b. Uncovered-----positive
c. Hypothesized---------catastrophic
d. Disclosed----unenvironmental
e. Determined----disastrous
141.
142.
READING
143.
144.
The father of reading is
a. Kenneth Goodman
b. William Gray
c. Jean Piaget
d. Oliver Wendell Holmes
145.
Which of the following statement is true?
a. Reading is an interaction between language and thought
b. Reading includes the ability to grasp central thoughts and details
c. Reading involves reacting to the meaning in terms of present knowledge
alone
d. Reading depends on using the eye as little as possible
146.
The result of interaction between reader resources and text data is
known as
a. Perception
b. Comprehension
c. Integration
d. Information
147.
Reading is very important because
a. It provides pleasure for everyone
b. 80 % of the things we do daily involve reading
c. A person who cannot read cannot vote
d. Nobody succeeds without reading
148.
Integration in reading involves

a. Fusion of ideas with all previous related experiences

b. Exercise of sound judgment in evaluating what is comprehended
c. Ability to judge accuracy, quality and worth
d. Applying ideas acquired in solving problems
149.
In reading any type of selection, the reader must take into
consideration
a. Purpose in reading
b. Background experience
c. Professional goals
d. Concept of the materials
150.
Rate in reading is best regarded as
a. Varied according to purpose
b. Constant in various selection
c. Rapid for shorter selection
d. Slow for longer materials
151.
Which statement is not correct?
a. One should read ideas not words
b. The span of recognition can be evidence through phrase reading
c. One who makes many regression is a good reader
d. A person who makes fewer fixation is a good reader
152.
Teacher must bear in mind that initial reading should be
a. From the blackboard and charts
b. From charts and books
c. From books and workbooks
d. From the blackboard and workbooks
153.
Which of the following statement best explains why reading is a
problem in language processing?
a. Reading processes are cycles of sampling, predicting and testing
b. Reading involves the selection of enough clues- graphic, syntactic and
semantic to trigger the readers appropriate language experience
c. Reading involves a growing visual discrimination of objects and symbols
d. Reading involves an interaction between language and experience
154.
Given the same open ended story to read, students were asked to
provide a conclusion. The variety of interpretation is best explained by the
a. Students to read
b. Students ability to comprehend
c. Students skill in judgment
d. Students cultural background
155.
A young student is able to arrange pictures in correct sequence and to
retail the story. This students on level of
a. Reading readiness
b. Beginning reading
c. Rapid growth
d. Refinement period
156.
Teachers of beginning readers use both silent and oral reading
techniques. However most teachers prefer oral work as the medium to
introduce the child to the use of the reading process. Which of the following
statements justify their choice?
a. Children enjoy expressing themselves orally
b. Oral expressions add to the childs ability to remember words

c. Oral work greatly aids correct enunciation and pronunciation

d. All of the above
157.
Three letters blends, silent letters, syllabication, suffixes and
hyphenated words are introduced in
a. Kindergarten
b. Primary grades
c. Intermediate levels
d. Secondary levels
158.
Most children in period of rapid growth or expanding power have
mastered the techniques of beginning reading. Generally, these children
belong to
a. First and second grades
b. Third and fourth grades
c. Fifth and sixth grades
d. Seventh grades
159.
The aspect of the reading program which provides for the development
of interest in literature, literary material appreciation and state in the
selection and enjoyment of reading matter is
a. Functional reading
b. Development reading
c. Recreatory reading
d. Remedial reading
160.
A student has poor skills if he cannot
a. Pick out appropriate meanings
b. Arrange letters in proper sequence
c. Use guidewords correctly
d. Read symbols from left to right
161.
Leo is in fifth grade. He was asked to read a paragraph for sixth grade.
He makes one error in every 100 words and his comprehension was 75-89 %
accurate. Which of the following should be reading teacher do?
a. Have him read materials for fifth grade
b. Help him with sixth grade materials
c. Encourage him to read materials for freshmen
d. Tell him to read more materials for fourth year
162.
In the above mentioned situation, which of the following screening
process did the teacher use to assess leos reading level?
a. Reading survey test
b. An I.Q test
c. A reading attitude test
d. An informal reading inventory
163.
Which of the following is not a retarded reader?
a. Those whose reading is poor
b. Those who have a slow mental development
c. Those who can read but will not
d. Those who read well below his grade
164.
165.
LITERATURE
166.
167.
In greek mythology she is a mortal princess, granddaughter of Perseus
and Andromeda and the mother of Heracles by Zeus. She is

a. Semele
b. Alcmene
c. Hera
d. Cybele
168.
In classical Athens, there were three great tragic playwrights who
pioneered and dominated Greek literature. One of these dramatists is
Sophocles who wrote his best known drama called
a. Oedipus Rex
b. Trojan women
c. Prometheus bound
d. The training of the shrew
169.
Charles lam was one of the great essayists who worked with his
brother John and created a persona to reflect his won thoughts on a variety of
subjects. The name of his persona is
a. Elijah
b. Mary Ann cross
c. Elia
d. Mary Ann Evans
170.
A song or poem expressing sorrow or lamentation, especially for one
who is dead is called
a. A parody
b. An ode
c. An elegy
d. A ballad
171.
What is the Italian monumental epic poem which tackles profoundly
the Christian vision of human temporal and eternal destiny? It is the story of
mans journey through hell. Purgatory and paradise. He has to guides: Virgil,
who leads him through the inferno and Purgatorio, and Beatrice, who
introduces him to Paradisco.
a. Song of Ronald
b. Divine comedy
c. El cid
d. Kalevala
172.
In roman mythology, she is the chief goddess closely resembling the
Greek hera and was connected all aspects of the life of women most
particularly married life?
a. Athena
b. Demeter
c. Ceres
d. Juno
173.
A figure of speech which shows an inverted relationship between the
syntactic elements of parallel as in to stop too fearful, and too faint to go,
is called
a. An epithet
b. An anastrophe
c. An anaphora
d. A chiasmus
174.
The usually short fictions story that illustrates a moral attitude, a
doctrine, a stand of conduct, or religious principle is called
a. Myth

b. Legend
c. Anecdote
d. Parable
175.
In homers epic poem the Illiad, a lycian broke the truce between the
Trojans and the Greek by treacherously wounding Menelaus, the king of
Sparta. Finally slain by the warrior Diomedes , this lycian is
a. Panduro
b. Pandora
c. Pandarus
d. Pangloss
176.
The sun of traditionally derived and orally transmitted literature,
material culture and custom subcultures within predominantly literate and
technologically-advanced societies is referred to as
a. Folk literature
b. Folk tale
c. Folklore
d. Folk song
177.
178.
INTRODUCTION TO MASS COMMUNICATION
179.
180.
The 1st known Philippine news letter is
a. La esperanza
b. Sucesos Felices
c. Diario de Filipinos
181.
The law enacted in 1931 to regulate the broadcasting industry in the
Philippines is
a. Radio control law
b. Broadcasting law
c. Telecommunication
182.
Communication is best defined as a
a. Dynamic exchange of words
b. Dynamic, systemic process where communications interact symbolically
c. Dynamic set of rules to determine issues
183.
Media is referred to as
a. The fourth estate
b. The fifth estate
c. The seventh estate
184.
The 5 Ws in journalism are
a. Whom, whenever, which, will, however
b. What, when, where, who, why
c. Whichever, whenever, wherever, whatever, whoever
185.
Harold laswells model of communication adheres to
a. where and why you say this to whom
b. Who says what in which channel to whom..?
c. To whom did you say that ?
186.
yellow journalism means
a. Obituary
b. Investigative reporting
c. Sensationalized journalism
187.
E mail via internet is known as

a. Electronic mail
b. Electrodes mailing
c. Ecclectic
188.
A new communication technique where people talk and see each other
on a computer is called
a. Teleconference
b. Video conferencing
c. Mini conferencing
189.
The inventor of the 1st printing press was
a. Johann Strauss
b. Johann Gutenberg
c. Johann Guggenheim
190.
191.
FILIPINO
192.
1. Ang matandang panitikang Pilipino ay karugtong ng mga unang kultura ng
a. Timog-silangang Asya
b. Timog Hilagang Asya
c. Timog kanlurang Asya
d. Hilagang kanlurang Asya
2. Ang matandang panitikan ay nanggaling sa mga personal na pagsasamahan,
sa mga institusyong sosyal at
a. Kabuhayan
b. Pagpapahalagang moral
c. Samahang makarelihiyon at pulitika
d. Ikmpluwensiya ng mga dayuhan
3. Ang paniniwala ng matandang Pilipino sa mga katutubong espiritu ang nag
akay sa kanila sa paglikha ng
a. Alamat
b. Mito
c. Kuwento ng kababalaghan
d. Pabula
4. Isang patunay na ang panitikang tagalong ay nalahiran ng kulutrang
sanskrito at intsik ay mapapansin sa
a. Pagsasayaw habang umaawit
b. Pagbabasa ng tula na umaawit
c. Umaawit habang umaarte
d. Tumutula sa pag-arte
5. Ipinanganak ang panitikang Panrelihiyon sa Pilipinas noong panahon ng
kastila nang
a. Marami ng nagging relihiyoso
b. Mag-aral ang Pilipino ng panitikan ng kastila
c. Iutos and pagsulat ng mga paksa tunkol sa relihiyon
d. Maraming Pilipino ang nagpari at nagkani- kaniyang pagsulat
6. Isang palatandaan ng pag-iisang dibdib ng panitikan ng kanluran at silangan
noong panahon ng kastila ay nang
a. Tanggapin ng mga Pilipino ng kultura ng mga kastila
b. Ang mga kastila ay mag-aaral ng wikang Filipino
c. Magsisulat ang mga Pilipino ng mga akdang may kulay kristiyanismo
d. Pagsabayin ang pagsulat ng wikang kastila at Filipino

7. Nagsimula anfg pagsulat ng mgfa Pilipino ng mga paksang may damdaming

pagkamakabayan sa panahon ng
a. Pagsisimula ng pananakop ng mga kastila
b. Kilusang propaganda ng himagsikan
c. Paglunsad ng mga amerikano sa leyte
d. Pamamayagpag ng kapangyarihang hapon
8. An g akdang makarelihiyon ay nagging pambayan ang himig sa panahon ng
a. Pagbabago tungo sa kalayaan
b. Pananalasa ng mga banyagang kanluranin
c. Propaganda at himagsikan
d. Paglusog ng mga kaisipang binansot
9. Kaalinsabagay ng pag-unlad ng nobelang tagalong ang pag-unlad ng
kaisipang pulituiko ng mga Pilipino sa panahon ng mga
a. Propaganda ng Himagsikan
b. Hapon
c. Amerikano
d. Kasalukuyan
10.Upang mapanatili ang tempo ng mga berso, ang mga matatandang Pilipino
ay gumagamit ng instrumentong
a. Tambol
b. Gong
c. Gitara
d. Alpa
11.Ang pangkat na mayaman sa bersong narinig kaysa nababasa tulad ng mga
bugtong salawikain ay ang
a. Mga bisaya
b. Mga ilokano
c. Mga muslim
d. Mga tagalong
12.Ang mga sumusunod ay mga katawagan sa mga awit ng pag-ibig maliban sa
a. Diana
b. Kundiman
c. Balitao
d. Kumintang
13.Nang maganap ang mga pangyayari sa cavite noong 1637 sa pagitan ni Don
Sebastian de Corcuera at Cachil Corralat noong 17 daang taon, ditto
nagsimulang maisulat ang
a. Epiko
b. Moro-moro
c. Zarzuela
d. Ulat pangkasaysayan
14.Sa panahon ng kastila, ipinalagay na ang wikang kastila ay para lamang sa
marurunong kayat marami sa mga manunulat ang gumagamit na
kasangkapan sa wikang tagalog sa pagsulat ng
a. Dula
b. Kawikaa
c. Tula
d. Bugtong
15.Ang mga sinaunang awit at tula ay nagkakatulad sa anyo sapagkat
a. Kapwa nasa anyong malayang taludturan

b. Sinasabayan ng instrument kapag binibigkas

c. Kapwa may sukat at tugma
d. Maikli lamang
16.Ang malaking kaibahan ng matatandang panitikan sa panitikan noong
panahon ng mga kastila ay ang
a. Pagbabago ng mga paksa ng mga awit at tula
b. Paggamit ng wikang kastila sa mga akda
c. Pagdaragdag ng mga akdang epiko
d. Pagkabahid ng kristiyanismo sa panitikan
17.Sa panahon ng kastila, karaniwang paksa ng mga manunulat ang tungkol sa
a. Pagsilang ni hesukristo hanggang sa pagkamatay
b. Pagdarasal sa mga santo
c. Pagkapako ni hesukristo sa krus
d. Pagmimilagro ng mga santo
18.Sa panahon ng Amerikano nagging popular ang zarzuela at dahil ditto, untiunting namatay ang
a. Panulaan
b. Awiting bayan
c. Moro-moro
d. Pasyon
19.Sa makabagong panahon, nagging hamon sa mga manunulat na pagsiglahin
ang mga akdang pampanitikan nang magkaroon ng gantimpalang
palancana itinatag noong
a. 1951
b. 1952
c. 1955
d. 1961
20.Utang sa Ramon Roces Publicationang muling pagsilang ng nobelang
Tagalog noong 1925 hanggang 1941 dahil
a. Nabigyang laya ang kakayahan ng mga nobelistang de kalidad
b. Naakit ang mga mambabasa dahil sa lingguhang paglimbag ng mga de
seryeng nobela
c. Nagbigayang pagkakataon na mailimbag ang mga may uring nobela
d. Napahalagahan ang mga batikang nobelista
21.Ang akda ni Pario Antonio de Borja S.J na nalathala noong 1708 at 1712
bilang kauna unahang nobelang nasalin sa tagalong ay ang
a. Urban at felisa
b. Indarapata at sulayman
c. Barlaan at Josaphat
d. Bidasari
22.Ang carillo, kargatan, duplo at tibag ay mga sinaunag
a. Kuwento
b. Dula
c. Epiko
d. Laro
23.Ang epiko ng mga ifugao na nagsasaad ng kanilang pamumuhay,
pakikipagsapalaran at kaugalian nang pangunahing tauhan ay sina aliguyon
at buganay ay ang
a. Hiruhod
b. Maragtas

c. Alim
d. Hinilawod
24.Ang comedia de capa y espada ay lalong kilala sa tawag na
a. Duplo
b. Karagatan
c. Moro-moro
d. Zarzuela
25.Ang uri ng akdang hindi kabilang sa matatandang Panitikan ay ang
a. Epiko
b. Kuwentong bayan
c. Alamat
d. Moro-moro
26.Ang codigo ni calantiao ay naglalaman ng
a. Batas na dapat sundin ng mga mamamayan
b. Pamantayan sa maayos na pamumuhay
c. Batas ng kagandahang asal
d. Kasunduan sa pakikipaglaban
27.Ang akdang pangkasaysayan na kilala bilang epiko sa kabisayaan ay ang
a. Haraya
b. Lagda
c. Maragtas
d. Hinilawod
28.Ang biag ni lam-ang ay isang epikong labis na pinahahalagahan at
ipinagmamalaki ng ng mga
a. Bikolano
b. Kapangpangan
c. Ilokano
d. Bisaya
29.Ang larong patula na karaniwang ginagampanan ng mga dalagat binata na
ang pinapaksa ay tungkol sa pagliligawan sa tulong ng mga matatalinhagang
pangungusap ay ang
a. Duplo
b. Karagatan
c. Tibag
d. Dalit
30.Ang akda ni Graciano Lopez jaena na tumutuligsa sa mga kastilang pari sa
Pilipinas ay pinamagatang
a. Dasalan at tocsohan
b. Caiingat cayio
c. Pag-ibig sa tinubuang lupa
d. Fray butod
31.Ang tulang binubuo ng may saknong na may apat na taludtod at dalawang
huling taludtud ang siyang nagtataglay ng kahulugan ay ang
a. Tanaga
b. Haiku
c. Pantum melayu
d. Bugtong
32.Ang tinuturing na pinakamatandang epiko ng pilipinas ay ang
a. Ibalon
b. Alim

c. Bidasari
d. Biag-ni lam-ang
33.Ang nobela ni Jose Rizal na tumatalakay sa mga suliraning panlipunan ng
bayan ay ang
a. Noli me tangere
b. Sobre Delos Indonecia Delos Filipinos
c. El Filibusterismo
d. El Copncejo Delos Dioses
34.Ang isa sa pinakatanyag na akda ni Jose de la cruz ay may pamagat na
a. Ibong adarna
b. Dama Ines at prinsipe florin
c. Bernardo carpio
d. El Hardin Serafico
35.Ang akdang hindi kabilang sa mga nobela ay may pamagat na
a. Banaag at siklat
b. Nena at neneng
c. Himagsikan sa mga puso
d. Kamatayan sa Gulod
36.Ang doctrina Cristiana, na kauna-unahang aklat na nalimbag sa Pilipinas, ay
akda ni
a. Pari domingo de Nieva
b. Pari modesta de castro
c. Pari Miguel Lucio-Bustamante
d. Pari juan de Gulod
37.Ang Taguriang huseng Sisiw, isang mahusay ng mga tula at morio-moro ay
kay:
a. Jose Corazon de jesus
b. Jose dela Cruz
c. Jose Corazon Dela cruz
d. Jose de Jesus
38.Ang lumikha ng titik para sa himmo Nacional Filipino ay si
a. Julian felipe
b. Julian Balmaceda
c. Jose Palma
d. Jose Panganiban
39.Ang manunulat at mananalumpati ng La solidaridad, kaunaunahang
mgazin ay si
a. Marcelo del Pilar
b. Emilio Jacinto
c. Graciano Lopez Jaena
d. Apolinario Mabini
40.Ang may akda ng popular na tulang isang dipang Langit ay si
a. Jose Corazon de Jesus
b. Amado V. Hernandez
c. Alejandro Abadilla
d. Inigo Ed Regala
41.Ang umakay sa mga sinaunang Pilipino sa paglikha ng mga Kuwentong bayan
ay
a. Ang pagsamba sa mga diyus-diyosan
b. Ang mga paniniwala sa mga espiritu

c. Ang malulungkot na karanasan

d. Ang paniniwala sa mga sumpa
42.Ditto napabilang ang mga butil ng katarungang kinakaloob ng mabuting payo
na hangho sa tunay na karanasan ng mtatandang Pilipino.
a. Bugtong
b. Talinhaga
c. Salawikain
d. Palaisipan
43.Ito ang kinabibilangan ng awiting bayan na ang pinapaksa ay tungkol sa
panliligaw bagay at mga mapaglubag ang kalooban ng kanyang nabagabag
na kaluluwa.
a. Bangibang
b. Gindaya
c. Bulawon
d. Dura
44.Ang mga katanungan ng matandang Pilipino tungkol sa pinagbuhatan ng mga
bagay-bagay at mga pangyayari ay maari nitong masagot.
a. Alamat
b. Pabula
c. Kuwentong bayan
d. Bugtungan
45.Seremonyang ginaganap kapag may isang kamag-anak ng tribo na pinatay
nang patraidor upang mapaglubag ang kalooban ng kanyang nabagabag na
kaluluwa.
a. Bangibang
b. Gindaya
c. Bulawon
d. Dura
46.Pangkat na pinagmulan ng ba-bag-to na ginagamit sa seremonya ng
pagpapasalamat na naglalaman ng kabutihan saal, tradisyon at kaugalian.
a. ibanag
b. igorot
c. ifugao
d. itawis
47.Isa sa pamamaraang ginagawa ng matatandang Pilipino sa pagsamba sa mga
anito
a. pa-awit ng malulungkot bna awitin
b. paghahanda nang kung ilang araw
c. pag-aalay ng mga prutas at pagkain
d. pagdaraos ng sayawan
48.Ang akdang hindi nauukol sa relihiyon sa panahon ng kastila.
a. Dalit
b. Panuluyan
c. Alay
d. Panubong
49.Panahon kung kalian nasulat ang mga akdang pag-ibig sa tinubuang lupa,
sa anak ng bayan, at Ninay
a. Panahon ng gintong panatikan
b. Pagkamulat sa panitikang dayuhan
c. Pagkabuhay ng mga kilusang propaganda at himagsikan

d. Pagpapalusog sa sariling Panitikan

50.Katotohanang maliwanag na inilarawan sa awit na Florante at laura
a. Kahirapan ng buhay sa pilipinas
b. Tiwaling pamamalakad ng mga kastila
c. Pag-iibigan ng magkaiba ang lahi
d. Paraan ng pamumuhay
51.Noong ang pilipinas ay hindi pa isang kristiyanong bansa,. Ang madalas na
mabanaag sa kanilang panitikan ay ito:
a. Tungkol sa kalikasan
b. Tungkol sa diyus-diyosan
c. Tungkol sa digmaan
d. Tungkol sa pulitika
52.Batay sa matandang panitikan, isa sa mga sumusunod na phayag ang hindi
dapaty mapabilang
a. Pag-ibig ang ugat ng panulaan sa panahong ito
b. Maraming tula ang nagsasaad ng tungkol sa pagsilang, panliligaw at
pagpapakasal
c. Ang dula ay sumilang mula sa tula
d. Kristiyanismo ang pokus ng mga akdang gingamit sa lahat ng mga
pampanitikan
53.Ang mga sumusunod ay paksa ng berso sa matandang Pampanitikan maliban
sa isa.
a. Pakikidigma
b. Paglalakbay
c. Pagpapakasal
d. Pakikipagkalakalan
54.Inaawit sa mga pagtitipong natutungkol sa relihiyon, halimbawa, ang ritwal
ng pa-aani, isang seremonyang ginagawa bago mag-anihan.
a. Daramoke a babay
b. Alim
c. Darangan
d. Bantungan
55.Inaawit n glider sa seremonya na ginagawa kaugnay ng pagnonobena o
siyam na araw na debosyon.
a. Pasyon
b. Alay
c. Talindaw
d. Dalit
56.Mahigpit na ipinagbabawal ng mga kastila ang pagbabasa ng akdang ito at
kamatayan ang kahulugan ng pag-iingat nito.
a. Florante at laura
b. Noli Me tangere
c. La solidaridad
d. Diariong Tagalog
57.Isa sa mga kaganapang hindi kabilang sa panahon ng himagsikan
a. Ang naganap noong 1872 sa cavite ay daan ng panibagong kilusan sa
panitikan
b. Ang matatalinong Pilipino ay sumusulat upang gatungan ang
paghihimagsik ng mag Pilipino
c. Nagging tanyag sina Jose Rizal, Andres bonifacio at M.H del Pilar

d. Ang ika 18 daang taon ng panahon ng panitikang makabayan

58.Dahilan kung bakit noong panahon ng mga hapon ay malimit paksain ng mga
manunulat sa kanilang akda ang tungkol sa buhay lalawigan:
a. Takot maparusahan ng hukbong hapones
b. Walang kalayaan sa pagpili ng paksang susulatin
c. Walang naglakas loob na sumulat nang tungkol sa ibang paksa
d. Walang magandang paksa dahil sa lagay ng panahon
59.Ang dahilan ng pagsigla ng panulat ng mga Pilipino sa magasing liwayway
sa pangangasiwa ng mga hapones ay sapagkat
a. Nabigyan sila ng kaunting laya sa pagsulat
b. Nabigyan ng pagpapahalaga ang sariling wika
c. Hindi na sila takot pumili ng paksa
d. Hindi na maligalig ang bayan
60.Matapos ang ikalawang digmaang pandaigdig, ito ang nagging dahilan ng
pagbabago sa isip at diwa ng mga manunulat na nakasama o nakabuti sa
katayuang moral ng tao
a. Kalagayang pang ekonomiya ng bayan
b. Kalagayang pang pulitika ng bayan
c. Ugnayang panlabas ng pilipinas
d. Pagkaroon ng malayang isipan ng mga manunulat
61.Ang suyuan sa tubigan na akda ni Macario pineda ay naglalarawan ng
a. Pagpapaligsahan ng mga matitipunong lalaki sa pag-aararo
b. Pagdadamayan at pagtutulungan ng mga magkakanayon
c. Pagliligawan ng mga dalagitat binta sa lalawigan
d. Masaynag pagtatanim sa panahon ng tag-araw.
62.Ang pinakamagandang kaisipang maaring mahango sa tata selo ni Rogelio
Sikat ay
a. Ipinagtanggol ang sarili kung kinakilangan
b. Higit na pahalagahan ang pagkilala sa karapatan ng kapwa
c. Ang palalagay ng batas sa sariling kamay ay nagdudulot ng kapahamakan
d. Sa isang dukha ang tanging kanyang maipagmamalaki ay ang kanyang
karangalan.
63.Ang urbana at felisa na akda ni Pari Modesto de Castro ay naglalaman ng
magagandang asal ng mga Pilipino tungkol sa
a. Magandang relasyon ng magkakapatid
b. Pakikipagkapwa, paggalang sa magulang at pakilala sa diyos
c. Pagtupad ng tungkulin sa bayan
d. Pagharap sa mga pagsubok sa bahay
64.Ang sa mga kababaihang taga Malolos na akda ni Dr. Jose Rizal ay
umaakay sa mga Pilipina upang maging
a. Responsableng ina sa pagpapalaki ng mga anak
b. Masunurin sa ilalim ng kapangyarihan ng asawa sa lahat ng pagkakataon
c. Mabuting tgasunod ng mga alagad ng simbahan bago ang pagtupad na
tungkulin sa tahanan.
d. Mparaan sa oras ng kagipitan.
65.Ang Bata, Bata, Paano Ka Ginagawa ni lualhati ay sa anong pananalig ng
teoryang pampanitikan nabibilang?
a. Romantisismo
b. Realism
c. Surealismo

d. Eksistensiyalismo
66.Alin sa mga sumusunod na akda ang umaayon sa pananalig ng teoryang
klasismo?
a. Noli me Tangere
b. Banaag at Sikat
c. Maga Ibong Mandaragit
d. Florante at laura
67.Alin sa mga sumusunod na akda ang umaayon sa pananalig ng teoryang
romantisismo?
a. Ibong adarna
b. Florante at Laura
c. Noli Me Tangere
d. El filibusterismo
68.Sa nobelang dekada 70, ang pagbubulalas ni Amanda ng kanyang matagal
nang nakatagong damdamin bilang asawa waring walang magawa dahil
pagpapasailalim sa kapangyarihan ng asawa ay maliwanag na umaayon sa
pananalig ng teoryang
a. Ekspresyonismo
b. Realismo
c. Pemennismo
d. Impresyonismo
69.Ang banaag at sikat ni lope K. Santos ay naglalahad ng
a. Diwang sosyalista
b. Diwang moralista
c. Diwang aktibista
70.Ang Tata selo ni Rogelio Sikat ay maaring talakayin sa pokus na
a. Pangkaisipan
b. Pang-anyo
c. Panlipunan
d. Pang-arketipo
193.
194.
MATHEMATICS
1. An airplane flying at 15,000 meters climbs 3,000 meters to avoid a storm.
Then it drops 4,000 meters and finally climbs 2,000 meters. What is its final
altitude?
a. 24,000m
b. 6,000m
c. 16,000m
d. 14,000m
2. Given the set of numbers (-8, -6, -1, 1, 4 ), what is the smallest product that
can be obtained by multiplying the two numbers of the set?
a. -1
b. -4
c. -24
d. -48
3. Simplify :( 2-[3+4( 5-3) +7]+ 8 )
a. -11
b. -8
c. 21
d. 22

4. Susan has Php 1000 in blank. She withdraw money to buy her twin nieces a
present that cost Php 274.50 and Php 195.50. She received Php 250.00 from
her mother as her allowance and deposited half that money in her account.
How much money did she have in blank?
a. Php 665
b. Php 595
c. Php 1 125
d. Php 250
5. [ ( -3/2 + )/ 5/8]=_____
a. 1/5
b. -2
c. -25/32
d. 2
6. On a number line, what is the distance between -7 and 8?
a. -1
b. 1
c. 15
d. -15
7. What is the GCF of 16, 24, 40?
a. 4
b. 2
c. 8
d. 6
8. What is the LCM of 16, 24, 40?
a. 240
b. 960
c. 15350
d. 8
9. Two Filipino families migrated to Australia. They came home regularly as
balikbayans. The Garcia family come back to the country every two years and
the Dizon family every three years. If they came together last year (1998),
when will they come home agiain?
a. 2000
b. 2001
c. 2004
10.
A certain supermarket repacks rice in smaller bags from big sacks of
about 5 kg. Whether they use 2 kg or 3 kg bags, they still have 1 kg of rice
left in the sack. How may kg of rice does a sack contain?
a. 50 kg
b. 55kg
c. 48kg
d. 49kg
11.
Janice has several boxes that she wants to pack in bigger boxes. If she
packs 4 or 5 small boxes in a bigger box, she has 2 left over. If she packs 6 of
them together, none is left over. How many boxes does she have?
a. 42
b. 6
c. 22
d. 122

12.
If a number is divided by 2, theres a remainder of 1; divided by 3, a
remainder of 2; divided by 4, a remainder of 3; and so on up to divided by 9
which gives a remainder of 8. What is the number?
a. 2517
b. 2518
c. 2519
d. 2520
13.
Which of the given number is both divisible by 2 and 3?
a. 27
b. 30
c. 200
d. 23
14.
Which of the given number are both divisible by 11?
a. 1211
b. 1021
c. 2101
d. 1120
15.
Which of the following given numbers is divisible by 8?
a. 518
b. 632
c. 416
d. 832
16.
For a given number 126, 3_8 what number may be placed in the blank
to make it divisible by 3.
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
17.
Given 25__3____ 9, what numbers may be placed in the blank to make
it divisible by 9?
a. 8 and 9
b. 10 and 7
c. 5 and 4
d. 6 and 3
18.
Find the largest three digit numbers that is divisible by 22 and the sum
of whose digit is 11.
a. 209
b. 920
c. 290
d. 902
19.
In one section, the ratio of boys and girls is 4:3. If there are 42
students in a class, how may are girls?
a. 18
b. 6
c. 24
d. 36
20.
A hospital charges a patient Php 78.00 for capsules. How much should
it charge for 18 capsules?
a. 111
b. 114

c. 117
d. 120
21.
A magnolia bar contains 200 calories. How many bars would you need
to eat to get 500 calories?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 2
d. 3
22.
The distance between two cities on a road map is 11cm. Actually, the
cities are 308 km apart. The distance between two other cities is 15 cm. how
far apart are the cities?
a. 420 km
b. 3388 km
c. 4620 km
d. 312 km
23.
Lyn has 25 m ribbon. If she needs 3 dm to tie a certificate, how many
certificates can she prepare with a ribbon?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
24.
Two people take 12 days to repair a sidewalk. How many people are
needed to complete the repair in 4 days?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
25.
Three numbers are in ratio 2:4:6. The middle number is 68, what is the
sum of the 3 numbers?
a. 196
b. 200
c. 204
d. 208
26.
If a certain amount of food will last 50 days for 200 soldiers are added
at the end of 20 days?
a. 24 days
b. 26 days
c. 28 days
d. 30 days
27.
90 is what percent of 450?
a. 2 %
b. 5 %
c. 20 %
d. 50 %
28.
79.2 is 16.5 % of what number?
a. 13.068
b. 66.132
c. 4.8
d. 480
29.
6.2 % of 98 is ____.

a. 6.076
b. 60.76
c. 607.6
d. 6076
30.
If x is 125 of y, then y is what percent of x?
a. 75 %
b. 80 %
c. 85 %
d. 90 %
31.
The cost of an electric fan was Php 1053 including an 8 % sales tax.
What was the price of the electric fan without tax?
a. 968.76
b. 975
c. 975.50
d. 980
32.
In a group of 100 percent, 48 have black pens , 32 have blue pens and
20 have red pens. What percent of the students have either black or red
pens?
a. 8 %
b. 32 %
c. 48 %
d. 80 %
33.
A jacket on sale at Php is 60 % of the regular price, what is the regular
price?
a. 288
b. 195
c. 800
d. 765
34.
A room is 10 m by 7 m. There is a 7.5 m by 5 m carpet in the middle.
What percent of the room is uncovered?
a. 46.4 %
b. 53.6 %
c. 26.5 %
d. 73. 5 %
35.
What is the area of the largest circle which can be cut from a rectangle
whose length and width are 40 cm and 30 cm respectively?
a. 1256 cm2
b. 706.5cm2
c. 2826 cm2
d. 94.2 cm2
36.
Two empty tanks are being filled with water. The first tank fills at the
rate of 60 liters per minute for 2 minutes before the water to the second tank
is turned on. The second tank fills at the rate of 80 liters per minute. How
many minutes will it take until the second tank has the same amount of water
as the first tank?
a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 7

37.
A faucet starts dripping into a 120 milliliters glass. The first minute it
drips 1 millimeter, the second minute it drips 2 millimeters, the third minute 3
millimeters, and so on. How many minutes will it takes to fill the glass?
a. 10 minutes
b. 100 minutes
c. 15 minutes
d. 120 minutes
38.
How many circles of radius 5 cm can be cut from a piece of cartolina
52 cm widely by 71 cm long?
a. 47
b. 35
c. 78
d. 117
39.
A picture 10 cm by 8 cm is mounted on a piece of hard cardboard. If
there is a margin of 2 cm around the picture, what is the perimeter of the
cardboard used?
a. 37 cm
b. 47 cm
c. 57 cm
d. 67 cm
40.
A picture 25 cm by 25 cm is to be framed. If the width of the wood is 2
cm, how long would be the piece of wood needed for the frame?
a. 128 cm
b. 136 cm
c. 120 cm
d. 875 cm
195.
BASIC AND ADVANCE ALGEBRA
196.
1. Simplify : 2( 3r- 7t )- 5 (2r+3t) +(5r+t)
a. R+28t
b. 28t-r
c. r-28t
d. R-28t
2. If five times the smaller of 2 consecutives integers is added to 3 times the
larger, the result is 59. Find the smaller integer.
a. 7
b. 8
c. 9
d. 10
3. If (28-27)(25-24)= 2x, what is x?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 11
d. 28
4. What is the real value of x such that if 64 x-1 is divided by 4x-1 the quotient is
2562x?
a. 1/3
b. -1/3
c. 3
d. -3

5. What must be subtracted from 5x3-4x2+3x-5 to get 2x3-8+5x-2x2?

a. 3x3-2x22x+3
b. 3x3-2x2-2x-3
c. 3x3+2x2+2x+3
d. 3x3-2x2+2x+3
6. Multiply and simplify 3ab2(3a2+3ab)-2b(a3b-ab2)
a. 11a3b+7ab3
b. 7a3b+11ab
c. 7a3b-11ab3
d. 11ab3-7a3b
7. If the replacement set is the set of positive integers, find the solution set of
4x/3 - 2<3- 3x/4
a. x<2.4
b. {-1,0,1,2}
c. {1,2}
d. {1,2,3}
8. If y=3-4x and -5 x5, find the range of y.
a. -17y23
b. -23y17
c. 23y17
d. 17y23
9. Two candles of the same height are lightened at the same time. The first is
consumed in 4 hours and the second in 3 hours. Assuming that each candle
burns at a constant rate, in how many hours after being lighted was the first
candle twice the height of the second?
a. 2 hours
b. 2.2 hours
c. 2.4 hours
d. 2.6 hours
10.
A kerosene tank is 5/7 full. Mother used 3/5 of it and the remainder is 9
liters. How many liters does the tank contain?
a. 6.85
b. 78.75
c. 21
d. 31.5
11.
An open box is to be made from a rectangular sheet of metal by
cutting 2 cm square from each other corner. If the perimeter of the base of
the box must be 40 cm. what is the maximum possible volume of the box?
a. 100cm2
b. 200cm2
c. 300cm2
d. 400cm2
12.
Find the length of a rectangle garden with a perimeter of 124 m such
that its area is a maximum.
a. 31 cm
b. 32 cm
c. 33 cm
d. 34 cm

13.
One quarter, a student received 22 grade points for making A or B in
each of the 6 subjects he studied. If each A was worth four grade points and
each B was worth three grade points, in how subjects did he make A?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
14.
Fred thinks of three numbers. If they are added in pairs the result are
38, 44 and 52. Find the largest of the three numbers.
a. 15
b. 23
c. 29
d. 31
15.
A childs age increased by 3 years gives a perfect square. The age
decreased by 3 years gives the square root of that perfect square. What is
the childs age?
a. 1
b. 23
c. 29
d. 31
16.
If a b and c are positive integers, the radical a+b/c and b/c are
equal when and only when c=
a. B(a2-1)/a
b. A2b- b
c. B(a2+1)/a
d. B(a2-1)
17.
The sum of the squares of two numbers is 225 and the square of their
sum is 441. What is their product?
a. 108
b. 216
c. 250
d. 300
18.
By what experience of the lowest degree can (2x 2-x-6)(x2+x-6) be
multiplied to make it a perfect square.
a. 2x2-9x-9
b. 2x2+9x+9
c. 2x2+9x-9
d. 2x2-9x+9
19.
The fraction (5x-11)/2x2+x-6 was obtained by adding the two fraction
A/(x+2) and B/ (2x-3). Find the value of B.
a. -2
b. -1
c. 0
d. 1
20.
Factor completely: 4x3-12x2-x+3
a. (x+3)(4x2-1)
b. (x+3)(4x2+1)
c. (x-3)(2x+1)(2x+1)
d. (x-3)(2x+1)(2x-1)
197.
PLANE GEOMETRY

1. K,L, and M are collinear points. K has coordinate 12 and L has coordinate -6. If
L is between k and M and KM=25. What is the coordinate of M?
a. 13
b. 37
c. -13
d. -37
2. If AB=36 and C is the midpoint of line AB, what is the coordinate of point C if
the coordinate of A is 5?
a. 13
b. 18
c. 22
d. 31
3. Through a given external point, there is _____ line parallel to a given line.
a. Only one
b. Two
c. Three
d. Infinite
4. In a plane through a point on an given line, there is ____line perpendicular to
the given line.
a. Infinite
b. Three
c. Only one
d. Two
5. If one angle of a linear pair is obtuse, the other angle is_______.
a. Acute
b. Right
c. Obtuse
d. Straight
6. What is the supplement of the complementary angle of 38 degrees?
a. 142 degrees
b. 128 degrees
c. 90 degrees
d. 52 degrees
7. What is the equation of the perpendicular bisector of the segment whose
endpoints are (-2,3) and (4,-1)?
a. 3x+2y-5=0
b. 3x-2y+1=0
c. 3x-2y-1=0
d. 3x-2y-2=0
198.
8. ABCD is the trapezoid such that AB is parallel to CD. Points M and N are the
midpoints of AD and BC respectively. If the altitude of ABCD is 3cm and the
lengths of the bases are 5cm and 9 cm, what is the area of the quadrilateral
ABNM.
199.
A
B
200.
201.
202.
M
N
203.
204.
D
C

205.
a. 16cm2
b. 18cm2
c. 21cm2
d. 9cm2
9. In triangle ABC, <A is greater than <C. the bisectors of angle A and C meet at
point D. which of the following is true?
a. /CD/>/AD/
b. /CD/=/AD/
c. /CD/</AD/
d. /CD//AD/
10.
Which of the following cannot describe just one triangle?
a. Acute and scalene triangle
b. Acute and equilateral triangle
c. Right and isosceles
d. Right and equilateral
11.
If two sides of the triangle are of lengths 7 and 10, then how long must
the third side be?
a. Between 3 and 10
b. Between 7 and 17
c. Between 3 and 17
d. Greater than three
12.
A man travels 7km. due north, 3 km.due east, and then 3 km. due
south. How far he is from his starting point?
a. 13km
b. 7km
c. 5km
d. 4km
13.
ABCD is a square. Triangle XCD is equilateral. How many degrees is
<BXC?
a. 100 degrees
A
B
X
b. 75 degrees
c. 90 degrees
d. 60 degrees
206.
D
C
14.
In a parallelogram, two adjacent, two adjacent angles differ by 70 0.
Find the measure in degrees of the largest angle.
a. 550
b. 120
c. 1300
d. 1250
15.
EF is the median of the trapezoid ABCD. If AD//BC,AD=5 cm and
EF=9cm. find BC.
a. 13 cm
b. 10 cm
c. 9 cm
d. 4 cm
16.
The angles of a certain convex polygon have an average of 150
degrees. How many sides does a polygon have?
a. 9

b. 10
c. 11
d. 12
17.
Find the measure of each angle of a regular pentadecagon.
a. 900
b. 1080
c. 1200
d. 1560
18.
Find the sum of the measure of the five angles at points of this star.
a. 180degrees
b. 360 degrees
c. 540 degrees
d. 900 degrees
19.
A circle has a radius of 8cm. what is the radius in cm of a circle which
has four times its area?
a. 32 cm
b. 16 cm
c. 256 cm
d. 8 cm
20.
Two circles with centers at A and C intersects at B and D. if each circle
has radius 5, what is the perimeter of the quadrilateral with vertices at A,B,C
and D?
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
207.
ANALYTIC GEOMETRY
1. Find the slope of the line through (2,3) and (-4,6).
a. -2
b. -1
c. -1/2
d.
2. Find the slope of a line whose equation is y=-8
a. 0
b. 1
c. -8
d. Undefined
3. Find the equation of the line whose slope is -2 and y intercept is 5.
a. 2x+y-5=0
b. -2x+y-5=0
c. 2x-y-5=0
d. 2x+y+5=0
4. Find the equation of the line with slope of passing through the point (-2,3).
a. X+2y+8=0
b. X-2y-8=0
c. X-2y+8=0
d. x-2y+8=0
5. Find the equation of the line passing through the points (1,4)and (6,8).
a. 4x +5y+16=0
b. 4x-5y+16=0

c. 4x-5y-16=0
d. -4x-5y-16=0
6. Find the slope of the line parallel to 4x-3y-5=0.
a. 4
b. -4
c. -4/3
d. 4/3
7. Find the equation of the line with y intercept of 10 and parallel to 2x-5y+1=0.
a. 2x-5y-50=0
b. 5y-2x-50=0
c. 2x+5y+50=0
d. 2x-5y+50=0
8. Find the slope of the line perpendicular to y +4x+2=0.
a. -4
b. 4
c.
d. -1/4
9. Find the equation of the line perpendicular to x+2y-6=0 and passing through
the origin.
a. 2x+y=0
b. 2x-y=0
c. -2x-y=0
d. x+2y=0
10.
Find the distance between the pair of points (3,-1) and (6,-5).
a. 5
b. -5
c. 25
d. 12.5
208.
CIRCULAR AND TRIGOMETRIC FUNCTION
1. Express 11/6 radians in degree measures.
a. 3300
b. 6600
c. 180/
d. 3500
2. Evaluate: Sin 300+cos600-tan450
a. 1
b. -1
c. 0
d. 2
3. Find the sin (-4200).
a. -1/2
b. -3/2
c. 3/2
d.
4. Convert to radians: 1.50
a. /120
b. 9/4
c. 23/36
d. /150
5. Triangle ABC is right triangle with right angle at C. if tan A=2/3,find sec. B.

a. 13/3
b. 13/2
c. 3/13
d. 2/150
209.
PROBABILITY AND STATISTICS
1. A die tossed. What is the probability of tossing an odd number?
a.
b. 1/3
c.
d. 1/5
2. A single card is drawn from a deck of cards. What is the probability that the
card is either queen or a spade?
a. 13/52
b. 4/52
c. 2/13
d. 4/13
3. A coin is tossed three times. What is the probability that not all three tosses
are the same?
a. 1/8
b. 3/8
c.
d.
4. Two cards are drawn from a deck of 52 cards with the first card replaced
before the second card is drawn. What is the probability that neither card is a
spade?
a. 9/16
b.
c. 1/16
d. 19/34
5. How many three letters words composed from the 26 letters of the alphabet
are possible? No duplication of letters is permitted.
a. 13,600
b. 15,600
c. 600
d. 156
210.
211.
GENERAL SCENCE
212.
1. The school will hold a science fair. You tried to make a project but failed. The
next thing you do is
a. To ask your farther to do it for you
b. Not to submit a project anymore
c. To try and try until you proceed one
d. To tell your teacher that you cant make one
2. A dozen medium sized eggs have a mass of About 675 grams. What is the
average mass of one egg in kg?
a. 56 kg
b. .056 kg
c. 56.2 kg
d. 5.6 kg

3. Jasmine tells you that it is bad luck when a black a black cat walks across
your path. She does not believe in
a. Tentativeness
b. Nothing happens without a cause
c. Superstitions
d. Curiosity
4. Before inventing the incandescent bulb, Thomas Alva Edison made the
experiment repeatedly. What step of scientific method was shown?
a. Identifying the project
b. Drawing the final conclusion
c. Verifying the conclusion
d. Formulating the hypothesis
5. Which of the following does not belong to the group?
a. Geology
b. Physics
c. Physiology
d. Zoology
6. Which of the following is not true in the definition of science?
a. Body of knowledge and theory
b. Discontinuing explanation of the universe
c. Collection of facts
d. Systematic and meaningful patterns
7. Which unit of measurement is not used for measuring volume
a. Liter
b. Cm2
c. Cm3
d. Gallon
8. A person who specialized in the study of atmosphere conditions is called a
a. Geologist
b. Meteorologist
c. Scientist
d. Weather forecaster
9. Jose jogs around the town at a speed of 3 km per hour. Convert you answer
into m/s.
a. 8.3 m/s
b. 83 m/s
c. .83 m/s
d. .083 m/s
10.An irregularly shaped solid was dropped in a graduated cylinder which has a
reading of 40cm3. The water level rose to 45 cm3. What is the volume of the
solid?
a. 5cm3
b. 5cm
c. 5cm2
d. 5cm6
11.Jericho wants to know the mass of a piece of metal. What is the instrument
should she use?
a. Spring balance
b. Equal arm balance
c. Graduated cylinder

d. Platform balance
12.Your sister has a few fever and you want to know her body temperature.
What apparatus will you use?
a. Graduated cylinder
b. Room thermometer
c. Clinical thermometer
d. Laboratory thermometer
13.The experiment requires a Bunsen burner to heat metals. This is expensive
and is not available in your school. What will you do?
a. Do not perform the experiment anymore
b. Imagine what will happen to the metal when heated
c. Substitute with a local made gas burner
d. Read the result from the book
14.Who among the following would you like to work with?
a. One who relies on actual observation
b. One who is easily convinced
c. One who believes what he hears
d. One who imagine the result of an observation
15.What is the standard unit of mass in the metric system?
a. Meter
b. Kilogram
c. Kilometer
d. Pound
16.Which of the following branches of science deals with the study of matter,
energy and their transformation?
a. Chemistry
b. Physics
c. Biology
d. Genetics
17.What scientific attitude must a person possess in seeking answer to things in
which he is greatly interested?
a. Open mindedness
b. Flexibility
c. Curiosity
d. Resourcefulness
18.Which one of the following is the mental attitude that acts from sound
reasoning?
a. Scientific method
b. Scientific attitude
c. Scientific mind
d. Scientific skills
19.Joshua respects the ideas and opinions of his classmates. He is
a. Open minded
b. Curios
c. Flexible
d. Investigation
20.Jenny wants to know the length of a table. What instrument will she use?
a. Spring balance
b. Graduated cylinder
c. Ruler

d. Thermometer
21.Joy learned in school that fertilizer affect the growth of plants. She wanted to
know how the amount of fertilizer used could affect its growth. Which of the
following should she use do?
a. Ask her science teacher the correct answer
b. Conducted an experiment to find out
c. Look for the correct answer
d. In the book
e. Write to the bureau of soils
22.Michael saw some big crabs crawling on the sand. He wandered where they
came form so he tried investigating. What scientific attitude did he show?
a. Concern for living things
b. Creativity
c. Curiosity
d. Responsibility
23.Which of these concepts is always considered by a scientist?
a. Accurate observations are necessary to recognize problems
b. Events in nature do not occur in a predictable way
c. Experiments provide information that will always support predictions
d. Predictions do not point the way to possible solutions to a problem
24.Which of the following is a technological innovation in the field of
communication?
a. Fiber optics
b. Genetic engineering
c. Radioactive dating
d. Tissue culture
25.You have identified the problem in you experiment. What is the next step?
a. Formulate the hypothesis
b. Formulate the conclusion
c. Gather relevant data
d. Test the hypothesis
26.How are the term experiment and scientific method related?
a. The scientist perform an experiment
b. The scientist method of solving a problem may include doing of an
experiment
c. An experiment proves and disapproves a hypothesis
27.If figures of bi magnitude are to be handled mathematically, it is wise to use
a. Conversion units
b. Extrapolation
c. Scientific notation
d. Square roots
28.Which of the following is not true about science and technology?
a. Science is an organized knowledge about the environment
b. Science taught man the relationship of living things with their
environment
c. Technology helps improve mans life
d. Technology can provide all the solutions to the problem of the society
29.Which of the following is considered as technology?
a. Production of antibiotics
b. Invention of calculator

c. Invention of computer
d. All of the above
30.The scientist who improvised the incubator and popularized the use of
artificial light for newborn babies is
a. Benjamin Alameda Jr.
b. DR. Fe del Mundo
c. Maria Y. Orosa
d. Alfredo Santos
213.
214.
EARTH SCEINCE
215.
31.Why is planet earth not thrown off its orbit?
a. It is controlled by its fast revolution
b. There is a path that holds it firmly
c. The size is just right to maintain its distance
d. The suns gravitational pull and inertia hold it
32.The largest know asteroid is
a. Titan
b. Lyra
c. Ceres
d. Hermes
33.What member of the solar system has eccentric orbits?
a. Comets
b. Asteroids
c. Satellites
d. Meteors
34.The annual journey of the earth around the sun is called
a. Rotation
b. Revolution
c. Transition
d. Precession
35.What is the point in the earths orbit nearest to the sun?
a. Equinox
b. Solstice
c. Aphelion
d. Perihelion
36.What is the inclination of the earths axis?
a. 33.5 degrees
b. 43.5 degrees
c. 23.5 degrees
d. 65.3 degrees
37.Why does the sun rise on the east and sets in the west?
a. The earth rotates from west to east
b. The earth revolves counterclockwise
c. The earth rotates from east to west
d. The sun rotates from north to south
38.We are actually on a spaceship called earth and we are travelling at a
constant speed of
a. 105,600,00 km per hour
b. 105,600 km per hour

c. 1,760 km per hour

d. 1,760,000 km per hour
39.A planets orbit means that the planet
a. Keeps the same distance
b. Is very near the sun
c. Is very far from the sun
d. Gets nearer and farther from the sun
40.When the vertical rays of the sun strike the equator, the whole earth will have
a. Equal days and nights
b. Longer days and shorter nights
c. Longer night and shorter days
d. Shorter nights and shorter days
41.In summer, we see the sun rise early and set late. Why?
a. The tilt of is neither away from nor toward the sun
b. The tilt of the axis is away from the sun
c. The tilt of axis is toward the sun
d. The tilt is changing in degrees
42.The seasons of the year change mainly because of
a. Changing wind direction in summer and winter
b. Changing speed of the earths revolution
c. The inclination of axis and revolution
d. The elliptical orbit of the earth and revolution
43.Exactly how long does it take for the earth to complete one tri around the
sound
a. 365 days, 5 hours, 48 minutes, 46 sec
b. 362 days,5 hours , 48 minutes,45 sec
c. 365 and days
d. 364 days
44.Which part of the play load returns to the earth?
a. Command module
b. Lunar module
c. Service module
d. Ground module
45.For a satellite to escape the gravity of the earth, it must travel at the speed
of
a. 10,000 km per hour
b. 6,000 km per hour
c. 4,ooo km per hour
d. 40,000 km per hour
46.How many astronauts have landed on the moon?
a. 2
b. 12
c. 18
d. 20
47.Which instrument can monitor moonquakes?
a. Magnetometer
b. Chemical analyzer
c. Seismometer
d. Heat flow meter
48.What dangerous rays kill space travelers?

a. X-rays
b. Radio waves
c. Gamma rays
d. Cosmic rays
49.Which satellites are sent to explore other planets like mars and Venus?
a. Weather satellites
b. Navigation satellites
c. Space Prob satellite
d. Communication satellite
50.Which cells produce electricity in spaceship?
a. Fuel cells
b. Nuclear cells
c. Atomic cells
d. Solar cells
51.What protects astronauts from intense heat and decrease pressure?
a. Space suits
b. Radiation suits
c. Oxygen helmets
d. Mask
52.What organism may be taken along in space flights as a source of oxygen?
a. Protozoans
b. Fungi
c. Algae
d. Bacteria
53.What fuel rise from rockets?
a. Kerosene
b. Helium
c. Nuclear power
d. Oxygen
54.When the moon is passing the point of its orbit directly between the earth
and the sun and it cannot be seen, this phase of the moon is
a. Full moon
b. Crescent
c. Gibbon
d. New moon
55.The geological area where earthquake shocks are not easily detected is called
a. Core
b. Crust
c. Shadow core
d. Mantle
56.Locating direction and position by observation of heavenly bodies is called
a. Celestial navigation
b. Astronomics
c. Celestial guidance
d. Gyrocompass
57.An instrument used to measure the elevation of the sun or stars above the
horizon is called
a. Chronometer
b. Sextant
c. Gyrocompass

d. Radio compass
58.When limestone exhibits effervescence, the process is
a. Chemical reaction which release light
b. An envision of a blue light due to an acid
c. A bubbling reaction with a hissing sound
d. A chemical reaction which produces an explosive sound
59.An imaginary line at 23 north latitude is called
a. Tropic of Capricorn
b. Tropic of cancer
c. Arctic circle
d. Antarctic circle
60.It is the length of time between two consecutive vernal equinoxes-365 days,
5 hours, 48 minutes and 46 seconds. This year known as:
a. Sidereal year
b. Calendar year
c. Solar year
d. Tropical year
61.The sun never sets at summer time in this part of the earth
a. Northern hemisphere
b. Southern hemisphere
c. North of arctic circle
d. South of arctic circle
62.On two occasion during the year, day and night are of equal length every
where on the earth. Such occurrence is called
a. Equinox
b. Ephemoris
c. Summer solstice
d. Winter solstice
63.On the topographic maps, the numerous fine brown lines which clearly
indicate the landforms that shows variations in elevation are
a. Index contours
b. Contours lines
c. Bench mark
d. Contour intervals
64.To earth scientists, the most important features on a map are the landforms
that shape the earths surface and are shown in
a. Hydrographic maps
b. Geologic maps
c. Political maps
d. Topographic maps
65.Which of the following is not a property of a mineral?
a. Ductile
b. Brittle
c. Malleable
d. Conduct electricity
66.Topaz is a mineral with a crystal from of access of different lengths that
intersect at 90 degrees angles. This basic crystal system is
a. Isometric
b. Monoclinic
c. Orthorhombic

d. hexagonal
67.Property of minerals that breaks along a plane or planes is called
a. Hardness
b. Cleavage
c. Specific gravity
d. Streak
68.A special property of some materials in which the atoms become excited
when exposed to ultraviolet light and give off visible rays is called
a. Magnetism
b. Florescence
c. Radioactivity
d. Electrical properties
69.It is ore found in lakes or marshes which produces a compound called iron
oxide during bacterial action or oxidation
a. Limonite
b. Hematite
c. Siderite
d. Andesite
70.The branch of earth science that deals with the earths surface features
including the climates, ways man makes use of the soil, waterways, and
natural resources is called
a. Petrology
b. Archeology
c. Geomorphology
d. Physiology
71.An imaginary line running along the top of an anticline or along the bottom of
a syncline is called
a. Strike
b. Dip
c. Axis of fold
d. Pitch
72.This type of fault is a result of compression where the hanging wall has been
pushed up over the foot wall and there is surfaced shortcoming
a. Thrust fault
b. Normal fault
c. Reverse fault
d. Fault zone
73.In some cases, the land between two parallel faults is pushed up when from
the below to form elevated area called
a. Horst
b. Graben
c. Rift
d. Valley
74.It is a type of geological form that contains oil which is formed by a fracture in
the earths strata and is known as
a. Stratigraphic trap
b. Synclinal trap
c. Anticlinal trap
d. Fault trap

75.The wave motion of the sea spreads the rock debris into a smooth flat surface
in a coastal plain that extends seawards into flat surface forming a
a. Continental slope
b. Continental shelf
c. Abyssal plain
d. Atlantic ridges
76.Fissures or holes from which steams and other gases escape during volcanic
activities is called
a. Tunnels
b. Fumaroles
c. Stratified opening
d. Main vent
77.A great basin like depression is formed when explosions completely destroy
the upper part of a volcanic cone or when the cone collapses. It may be due
to
a. A subsidence along a circular fracture
b. Fragments ejected at successive layers
c. An impact of huge meteorites
d. A lowering of lava as it moved down into earth
78.Which of the following is not a mechanical weathering?
a. Water seeps into cracks in rocks and then freezes and expands
b. Thin flakes or curved scales peel off due to temperature changes
c. The roots of plants work their way into small cracks of rock
d. Minerals are continuously removed from the soil and rock b y solution
79.A less obvious but equally-destructive from of soil erosion is called sheet
wash. This occurs when
a. Each gully enlarges with energy rain until a series of miniature canyons
are produced
b. Water washes out small gullies running up and down slopes
c. Water strips away exposed top soil slowly and evenly
d. Top soil exposed area is blown away as clouds of dust and drifting sand
80.Which is not intended primarily to decrease soil erosion?
a. Strip cropping
b. Contour plowing
c. Soil creep
d. Crop rotation
81.The following rock properties have high permeability except
a. Rock composed of nearly the same size particles
b. Rocks which dissolve in water
c. Fractures in solid rock
d. Rocks with particles of many different sizes
82.Water dripping continuously from the cave will eventually produce a long ice
like deposit of calcite which hangs from the roof. This is called
a. Stalactite
b. Stalagmite
c. Sinks
d. Geode
83.Along with the growth of the beginning river and its valleys, branch gullies
are produced by streams flowing in from the sides. These streams become
the

a. Tributaries
b. Distributaries
c. Watershed
d. Drainage basin
84.Which is a characteristic of a young river?
a. Narrow-step walled valley
b. V shaped valley
c. Water falls and rapids
d. All of the above
85.When the river water moves over a smooth surface, it flows along a straight
line path parallel to the direction of the movement. This is called
a. Laminar flow
b. Turbulent flow
c. Horizontal flow
d. Irregular flow
86.The earth science that deals with the study of rock layer is
a. Paleontology
b. Petrology
c. Stratigraphy
d. Archeology
87.Eroded surface rocks may be covered with a new horizontal layers of
sediments and the surface that separates younger layer of rocks from those
laid down at an earlier time Is called
a. Unconformity
b. Strata
c. Superposition
d. Alternation of rock
88.The ground water which accumulates above the qualifier underground has
many sources. Which of the following is a source of this kind of water?
a. Flood water
b. Meteoric water
c. Connate water
d. Magnetic water
89.A type of hot spring that, at intervals throws steam and water high in the air
is known as
a. Geysers
b. Hillside spring
c. Alkali spring
d. Mudflow
90.Faulting frequently forms Lake Basin in the depression between tilted rocks.
This type of lake is formed through the process called
a. Glacial action
b. River action
c. Volcanic eruption
d. Diastrophism
91.Basin that become partly or completely filled with fresh and decayed
vegetation, sediments and water are called
a. Ponds
b. Swamps
c. Lakes

d. Playas
92.Geologically science that deals with the studies of oceans, currents and the
energy that produces and retards the current is called?
a. Submarine geology
b. Physical oceanography
c. Chemical oceanography
d. Biological oceanography
93.The part of the ocean floor which is formed by faults along which volcanic
eruptions occur and where the deepest spots in the ocean are located is
called
a. Continental slope
b. Continental shelf
c. Mi-ocean ridges
d. Trench
94.Ocean water carried up on the shore by breaking waves escapes back to the
deeper water in the form of
a. Rip current
b. Undertow
c. Undercurrent
d. Breaker
95.When a river empties into the sea at a point where unusually high tides are, a
particularly strong tidal current occurs. This is known as
a. Tidal pulse
b. Tidal oscillation
c. Tsunami
d. Tidal bore
96.Which is not considered a composite of pure dry air?
a. Nitrogen
b. Oxygen
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Ozone
97.Sometimes a layer of warm air exist above a layer of cool air next to the
ground and it traps the polluted air becomes the upper warm air acts bas a
lid to prevent it from being carried away. This condition is called?
a. Temperature inversion
b. Temperature immersion
c. Fountain layer
d. Ozone layer
98.A type of barometer used to measure approximate altitude above the earths
surface is the
a. Barograph
b. Altimeter
c. Mercurial barometer
d. Aneroid barometer
99.Because of earths rotation on air movement, the path of things that move
over the earth tends to curve sidewise. This known as
a. Coriolis effect
b. Doldrums
c. Circumpolar whirl
d. Mountain breeze

100.
At night belt of highly pressure created by the descending air in the
vicinity of 30 latitude is known as
a. Trade wind
b. Prevailing
c. Horse latitude
d. Polar easterly
101.
The earth belt of high pressure created by the descending air the
vicinity of 30 latitude is known as
a. Trade wind
b. Prevailing
c. Horse latitude
d. Polar easterly
102.
All of the following instrument are used to measure humidity in the air
except
a. Hydrometer
b. Hygrometer
c. Wet and dry bulb thermometer
d. Psychomotor
103.
Thin, feather like clouds with a delicate appearance, frequently
arranged in bends across the sky sometimes called mares tail is
a. Cirrostratus
b. Cirrocumulus
c. Cirrus
d. Stratus
104.
Some kind of microscopic particles are required upon which the water
may collect and condense known as condensation nuclei. An example is
a. Dust
b. Smoke
c. Salt particle
d. All of the above
105.
The type of fog which is formed by the adiabatic cooling of air as it
sweeps up rising land slopes is known as
a. Advection
b. Upslope
c. Radiation fog
d. Stationary front
e. Violent front
106.
A type of front is formed when moving cold air mass its way under a
warm air mass. It is called
a. Cold front
b. Warm front
c. Stationary front
d. Violent front
107.
The following instrument are used as weather except the
a. Thermometer
b. Barometer
c. Clinometers
d. Anemometer
108.
One valuable electronic weather instruments is radar. What is it used
for?

A.
B.
C.
D.

To
To
To
To
a.
b.
c.
d.

give the precise location and extent of storms

track hurricanes
measure the speed of high altitude wind
predict earthquake
A and B
A,B,&C
B,C & D
B&D
109.
When station models have been recorded on the weather map, the
next step is the drawing of lines which connect points of equal pressure. The
lines are called
a. Isobars
b. Millibars
c. Hydrographs
d. Thermometer
110.
The basic tool of a weather forecaster is the
a. Station model
b. Weather model
c. Radiosonde
d. Thermograph
111.
The total energy received by the earth in the form of solar radiations as
these fall upon its surface is called
a. Foehn
b. Doldrums
c. Isotherm
d. Insolation
112.
A special property of minerals which gives off the light rays after
exposure to ultra violet light is called
a. Fluorescence
b. Phosphorescence
c. Luminescence
d. Irradiation
113.
If you describe the direction in which mineral tends to break, the
property referred to is
a. Cleavage
b. Specific gravity
c. Steak
d. Hardness
114.
Where would chemical weathering occur rapidly?
a. In humid climate
b. In dry climate
c. In cold climate
d. In polar climate
115.
After a rain, flowing water forms narrow channels called
a. Streams
b. Rivers
c. Gullies
d. Dunes
116.
How can changes in temperature break rocks?
a. Minerals expand and contract at uniform rate

b. Minerals contract and do not expand

c. Minerals expand and do not return to their original size
d. Minerals expand and do not contract in unequal amount
117.
Which part of a fold may form from a mountain?
a. Anticline
b. Syncline
c. Trough
d. Crest
118.
Which of the following elevation is to be considered a mountain?
a. A land form 792 m high
b. A land form about 67 m high
c. A land that is flat
d. A land 1000 m high
119.
Which of the changes on the surface of the earth is a chemical
change?
a. The edges of the earths crust plates bend or rock when they bump each
other
b. Rocks under great pressure and temperature become harder, denser and
produce new minerals
c. Salt crystal from when water containing dissolved sediments evaporates
d. The rising warm air from the ocean gets cold and form clouds in the sky
120.
Suppose you have samples of rocks which are hard, layered and
contains small particles of shells or remains of plants and animals, how do
you classify these rocks?
a. Metamorphic rocks
b. Igneous rock
c. Sedimentary rock
d. A mixture of all three types
121.
The molten material found inside the earth is
a. Magma
b. Lava
c. Extrusive
d. Sediments
122.
What type of igneous rock forms large crystals?
a. Metamorphic
b. Sediment
c. Extrusive
d. Intrusive
123.
When clay or mud is hardened and cemented, it forms
a. Sandstone
b. Slate
c. Limestone
d. Conglomerate
124.
Which particles are deposited last by a flowing stream? Why?
a. The finest particles because they are light
b. The largest particles because they are heavy
c. The medium sized particles because they are heavy
d. All particles because they drop at the same time
125.
What sedimentary rock is formed from organic deposits
a. Marble

b. Conglomerates
c. Sandstone
d. Limestone
126.
Bricks and tiles come from what sediments
a. Pebbles
b. Sand
c. Clay
d. Calcite
127.
What metamorphic rock is formed from limestone
a. Shale
b. Marble
c. Genesis
d. Slate
128.
What elements make 75 % of the earths crust
a. Oxygen and silicon
b. Sodium and magnesium
c. Iron and calcium
d. Iron and nickel
129.
What natural force change rock into metamorphic rock?
a. Cutting force of sea waves
b. Extremely high temperature
c. Expulsion from a volcano
d. Erupting force of running water
130.
Which of the following planets has the highest gravitational pull?
a. Earth
b. Mercury
c. Jupiter
d. Saturn
131.
Which of the following planets has no atmosphere
a. Mercury
b. Earth
c. Venus
d. Mars
132.
A river ends at its mouth forming a semi-circular or triangular island
called
a. Channels
b. Sea cave
c. Sea cliff
d. Delta
133.
In a swimming pool, as we go deeper, water pressure
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Stay the same
d. Decreases then increases
134.
What characteristics do air, water and minerals have in common
a. They contain atoms
b. Their atoms are close together
c. Their atoms are moving at the same speed
d. Their atoms are separated by great distance

135.
Insecticide spray can are provided with a caution labels: keep in a cool
place. What will happen if these cans are stored in a hot environment?
a. The can will burst
b. The can will collapse
c. Nothing will happen to the can
d. The can will corrode faster
136.
The assumption of the kinetic theory of gases are given below:
I.
They are composed of particles
II.
The volume of particles is very small compared to the volume of the
gas
III.
The particles move very rapidly
IV.
Collision between particles are very elastic
V.
The attraction between particles is weak
VI.
The higher the temperature, the faster the particles will move
216. Which of the above ideas are applicable to solids?
a. All ( I-VI )
b. I,II,III, & VI only
c. I,IV and V
d. I, and VI
137.
If water pressure decreases when depth decreases we can say that
a. Water pressure is proportional to depth
b. Water pressure is inversely proportional to depth
c. Water pressure is independent of the depth
d. Depth is dependent on the water pressure
138.
Two rectangle wooden blocks are on the floor. The block are identical
but one is lying down one is lying down on its longer side (B) while the other
one is standing up
217.
218.
219.
A
220.
221.
222.
B
223.
224.
225.
Which of the following statements is true?
a. Two blocks exert the same force on the floor but pressure due to the
block A id greater
b. The two blocks exert the same force on the floor so the pressure due
them is also the same
c. Block B exerts more force but exerts less pressure than block A
because the force exerted by block B is spread out over a larger area
d. Block A exert force and consequently exerts less pressure than block B
because of the smaller surface area
139.
An empty glass is inverted into a swimming pool. If a glass is kept
vertical, the line pressure of the air inside the glass will prevent the water
from getting in. a swimmer dives to the bottom pool keeping the glass
vertical at all times. At a depth of about 5 meters, he finds that air is now
only 2/3 of its original volume. As you reach the bottom, the volume of air has

decreased to half of the volume at the surface. Why did the air volume
decrease?
a. Some of the air managed to escape
b. Some of the air dissolved in the water
c. Increased water pressure at the bottom caused the volume to decrease
d. The higher density of water at the bottom pushes water into glass
140.
How deep is the swimming pool?
a. 6 and 1/3 m
b. 5 and 1/3 m
c. 10m
d. Need more data
141.
Which of the following is not a physical description of metamorphic
rocks?
a. Will effervesce ( bubble ) with diluted HCL
b. Generally white sparkly crystals faces
c. Composed principally of calcite or dolomite
d. Can be scratched by a fingernails
142.
What is the hardest mineral?
a. Tale
b. Sulfur
c. Diamond
d. Gypsum
143.
Due to the sinking of the faulting in the islands, huge sea waves rose
and swept four towns into the sea. These are called
a. Tsunamis
b. Isostasies
c. Sea quakes
d. Fissures
144.
What instrument detects earthquakes?
a. Barometer
b. Clinometers
c. Seismograph
d. Thermograph
145.
Which part of a fold may form from a mountain?
a. Anticline
b. Syncline
c. Trough
d. Crest
146.
In what planet can you find the great dark spot?
a. Neptune
b. Saturn
c. Jupiter
d. Uranus
147.
What happens when air is heated?
a. It remains the same
b. It expands and rises
c. It remains at sea level
d. It expands and moves down
148.
What do you call the asteroids that orbit inside the earths orbit?
a. Gaca

b. Trojan
c. Voyagers
d. Apollo
149.
The nearest galaxy to the milky way is
a. Andromeda
b. Sirius
c. Large magellanic cloud
d. None of the above
150.
A mountain cannot be formed by
a. Volcanic eruption
b. Folding
c. Faulting
d. Weathering
151.
Which of the following will tell you that a rock has been mechanically
weathered?
a. The rock has smooth, rounded edges
b. The rock has large colored crystals and is crumbly
c. The rock is reddish in color
d. The outer art of the rock is soft
152.
We usually feel uncomfortable during humid days. A humid day is a
condition in which the air is
a. Warm and dry
b. Warm and moist
c. Clod and moist
d. Cold and dry
153.
Which process involves chemical weathering?
a. Oxidation
b. Hydration
c. Carbonation
d. All of the above
154.
Some homeowners cover their concrete fences with creeping plants.
What would be the effect of those plants on the concrete fences?
a. These plants will decorate only fencers
b. The growth of the plants inside crevices can split the rocks apart
c. These plants produce weak acids which can dissolve and break down
concrete fences
d. The growth of the plants can cause the rocks to move close
155.
The Banawe rice terraces show how people practice soil conservation.
How does terracing conserve soil?
a. Slows down the flows of water
b. Prevents the formation of gullies
c. Retains runoff water
d. All of the above
156.
Which of the following statement is true about water?
a. It is denser at 10 degrees C
b. It is denser at 50 degrees C
c. It is denser between 60-70 degrees C
d. It is denser at 85 degrees C
157.
Why is oxygen regarded as the life giving element on earth
a. It supports burning of material

b. It is needed for many chemical processes in the body

c. It is given off by plants
d. It captures sunlight
158.
Why oxygen regarded as the life giving element on earth?
a. It supports burning of materials
b. It is needed for many chemical processes in the body
c. It is given off by plants
d. It captures sunlight
159.
In which setup does water drip last?
a. Setup A
b. Setup B
c. Setup C
160.
Which sand samples allows water to pass through at once?
a. Sand
b. Loam
c. Clay
161.
Which soil sample has better drainage?
a. Sand
b. Loam
c. Clay
162.
The monsoon prevailing over the country from November to February
is the
a. Northeast monsoon
b. Southeast monsoon
c. Trade winds
d. Northwest monsoon
163.
The low-lying over flat clouds are
a. Stratus clouds
b. Cummulus clouds
c. Nimbus clouds
d. Nimbostratus clouds
164.
The scientist who explained land and sea distribution change about the
crustal movement of the earth was
a. Alfred Wegener
b. Francis bacon
c. Aristotle
d. Kepler
165.
What are the rocks that are form by cooling and hardening of molten
materials?
a. Igneous rock
b. Sedimentary rock
c. Metamorphic rock
d. Marble
166.
When the moon is between the earth and the sun, we experience a
a. Lunar eclipse
b. Solar eclipse
c. Full moon
d. New moon

167.
The extending from Marikina to northeastern places of Luzon causes
much tension in these areas. The process causes sliding and breaking down
of rocks resulting in earthquakes. This is called
a. Vocano
b. Huge magma
c. Fault line
d. Folded rock
168.
The seasons of the earth are caused by the
a. Elliptical orbit and varying speed of revolution
b. Greater distance of the earth from the sun during winter than summer
c. Inclination of the axis of rotation to the planet of its orbit and revolution
around the sun
d. Variation in the amount of energy given off by the sun
169.
Due to lack of rain in metro manila, weather scientist produce artificial
rain by dropping dry ice from the airplane to humidity clouds. The process is
known as
a. Cloud seeding
b. Precipitation
c. Condensation
d. Evaporation
170.
Energy from underground hors ring is utilized in power plants located
in Tiwi, albay and MT. Makiling Laguna. This energy is called
a. Nuclear energy
b. Hydroelectric energy
c. Dendrothermal energy
d. Geothermal energy
171.
The thinning of ozone layer is due to the use of
a. Weed killers and insecticide spray
b. Hydrocarbons like gasoline
c. Supersonic transport and aerosol sprays
d. Mercury in gold mines
172.
How many galaxies are there in the local cluster?
a. 20
b. 28
c. 30
d. 10
173.
A humid is a condition in which you feel uncomfortable because the
atmosphere is
a. Warm and moist
b. Warm and dry
c. Cold and moist
d. Cold and dry
174.
Which of the following would be the effect of a rise in carbon dioxide in
the atmosphere?
a. Cooling of the atmosphere
b. Increase in the solar radiation
c. Darkening of the air in the cities
d. Warming of the atmosphere
175.
The farthest object visible to the naked eye are
a. Pulsars

b. Galaxies
c. Quasars
d. Neutron stars
176.
As soon as the planet completes its regular trip around the sun, what
unit of time is completed
a. Day
b. Night
c. Year
d. Month
177.
What phenomenon on earth is caused by its revolution?
a. Day and night
b. Seasons
c. Weather disturbance
d. Light interference
178.
Which part of the atmosphere filters the ultraviolet rays of the sun?
a. Stratosphere
b. Ozone layer
c. Exosphere
d. Troposphere
179.
The rising of the sun in the east and the setting of the sun in the west
is caused by the
a. Rotation of the earth from east to west
b. Rotation of the earth from the west to east
c. Counter clockwise revolution of the earth
d. Tilting of earth on its axis
180.
Which of the following is an artificial source of light?
a. Sun
b. Star
c. Firefly
d. Flashlight
181.
An eclipse occurs when the sun, moon and the earth are in the same
line. Which of the following statements best explain this?
a. Light travels in a straight line
b. Light can be refracted
c. The speed and direction of light can be reflected
d. Light can be reflected
182.
Why the sun is is the only star which gives much heat and light to the
earth?
a. The sun is bigger than the other stars
b. The sun is hotter than the other sun
c. The sun is closer to the earth than the other star
d. The sun is moving faster than the other star
183.
Who was the first man to land in space?
a. Neil Armstrong
b. William glenn
c. Allan Sheppard
d. Yuri Gagarin
184.
The greenhouse effect refers to the
a. Absorption of the green color of the sunlight
b. Reflection of green color of the sunlight

c. Release of oxygen by green plants in the atmosphere

d. Trapping of heat rays by the earths atmosphere
185.
How will you recognize a comet from other stars in the universe?
a. It consists of a head and tail
b. It moves very much faster than the stars
c. Its bright light resembles a shooting star
d. It is very much brighter than the star
186.
The second brightest star visible to the naked eye?
a. Canopus
b. Sirius
c. R10-83
d. Riged
187.
The speed of the planet moving on its orbit around the sun is
a. Constant all throughout
b. Fastest when farther from the sun
c. Fastest when closest to the sun
d. Slowest when closest to the sun
188.
Identify the kind of tide that occurs during new moon and full moon
a. Neap tide
b. Spring tide
c. Seasons tide
d. Crescent tide
189.
Molten materials expelled outside the earths surface are called
a. Magma
b. Lava
c. Steam
d. Dunes
190.
Which of the following rocks is metamorphic?
a. Basalt
b. Granite
c. Slate
d. Limestone
191.
Clouds help determine the weather condition. Which of the following
clouds are rain producing
a. Cumulus
b. Stratus
c. Nimbus
d. Cumulunimbus
192.
Which part of the sun is visible during the total eclipse?
a. Photosphere
b. Corona
c. Chromospheres
d. Reversing layer
193.
What is the difference between a cloud and water vapor?
a. A cloud contains bigger water molecules than water vapor
b. A cloud is found much higher in the atmosphere than water vapor
c. A cloud is liquid while water vapor is gas
d. There is no difference between a cloud and water vapor
194.
What happens when warm moist air in the atmosphere is cooled?
a. Drops of H2o are formed

b. It expands
c. It becomes less dense
d. It becomes lighter
195.
Ozone gas is composed of
a. Atomic oxygen
b. Oxygen gas
c. It becomes less dense
d. It becomes lighter
196.
The unequal heating of the earths surface produces
a. Convection current
b. Convex current
c. Concave current
d. Radiation
197.
The process whereby some minerals in rocks dissolve when in contact
with water and leach away from the rock is
a. Solution
b. Hydration
c. Oxidation
d. Carbonation
198.
The scientific phenomenon best describe by the disappearance of
either the sun or the moon is the
a. Eclipse
b. Full moon
c. New moon
d. Crescent
199.
The process of breaking down rocks into pieces is
a. Carbonation
b. Precipitation
c. Volcanism
d. Weathering
200.
What is formed by the collision of oceanic plates and continental
plates?
a. Ridges
b. Trench
c. Sea clip
d. Sea cave
226.
227.
BIOLOGY
228.
201.
Water is excreted from the paramecium by means of
a. Active transport
b. Diffusion
c. Passive transport
d. Osmosis
202.
In terms of tropic levels, the following pairs of organism perform similar
functions except
a. Tress & shrubs: Phytoplanktons
b. Birds & mammals : Zooplanktons
c. Insects and spiders : Saprotrohs
d. Fungi : Phagotrophs

203.
Which type of organism is not shown in the food chain?
229.
Grass
mouse
snake
hawk
a. Herbivores
b. Decomposers
c. Producers
d. Carnivores
204.
Which of the following pairs of organism and diseases is incorrect?
a. Sporozoan: malaria
b. Prion : syphilis
c. Bacterium : syphilis
d. Archeobacterium : gonorrhea
205.
What relationship exists between Bangus and tilapia in the fish pond?
a. Mutualism
b. Commensalism
c. Predation
d. Competition
206.
How does one biome differ from another?
a. By the different animals that live in it
b. By the range of temperature, rainfall, type of soil and amount of light
c. By the different types of people that live there
d. None of the above
207.
Fresh water protozoa may be distinguished from many marine
protozoa by the fact that fresh water species contains
a. Cytoplasm
b. Plasma membrane
c. Chromosome
d. Contractive vacuoles
208.
A specie said to be ______ when its number are so few that it will most
likely disappear altogether unless given proper protection
a. Extinct
b. Endangered
c. Depleted
d. Disappearing
209.
A chemical that clogs spiracles and tracheal tubes would directly
interfere with respiration in the
a. Earthworm
b. Hydra
c. Grasshopper
d. Human
210.
Give the outstanding characteristics of animals in island
a. With small body size and well developed difference mechanism
b. With short nose and small eyes
c. With large body and poor difference mechanism
d. All of the above
211.
Heart is to circulatory as endocrine is to
a. Bile
b. Juices
c. Hormone
d. Lymph
212.
The role and depth of breathing may be increased by

a. A drop in oxygen concentration in the blood

b. An increase in carbon dioxide concentration in the blood
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
213.
Doing sit-ups helps tone the muscles which are called the
a. Deltoids
b. Latissimus dorsi
c. Pectoralis
d. Rectus abdominis
214.
The surface of the area of the human lung is made larger by alveoli
and is approximately the size of a
a. Dinner plate
b. Table
c. Four person tent
d. Tennis court
215.
How much blood in the circulatory system of an average person?
a. 1 liter
b. 2.5 liter
c. 5 liter
d. 10 liters
216.
Rank the answers in order of decreasing oxygen
concentration( highest to lowest )
a. Tissue cells, inhaled air, blood leaving the lungs
b. Inhaled air, blood leaving the lungs, tissue cells
c. Blood leaving the lungs, inhaled air, tissue cells
d. Inhaled air, tissue cells, blood leaving the lungs
217.
The pattern of fossils from early to late in the fossils record is from
a. Large to small
b. Simple to complex
c. Complex to simple
d. Young to old
218.
The control center of the bodys biological clock is located at the
a. Cerebellum
b. Pineal body
c. Pituitary gland
d. Hypothalamus
219.
Which of the following sequences correctly traces the passage of food
through the human digestive tract?
a. Pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine
b. Esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, pharynx
c. Esophagus, pharynx, stomach, large intestine, small intestine
d. Pharynx, stomach, esophagus, small intestines, large intestines
220.
Hemoglobin is found in the blood of humans and earth worms but not
in the blood of grasshoppers. Which conclusion is best supported by the
statement?
a. The human and the earthworm transport more oxygen with their blood
than the grasshopper
b. The human and the earthworm have open circulatory systems; the
grasshopper has closed circulatory system
c. The human and the earth worm are adapted for aerobic respiration

d. The human and the earth worm have lungs, the grasshopper does not
have lungs
221.
In animals that reproduce sexually, which is the correct sequence for
the development of a new organism/
a. Zygote-gametes-fertilization-embryo
b. Gametes-fertilization-zygote-embryo
c. Gametes-zygote-fertilization-embryo
d. Fertilization-zygote-gametes-embryo
222.
Which will cause the process of respiration to stop?
a. Presence of sunlight
b. Absence of oxygen
c. Occurrence of darkness
d. Decrease in water supply
223.
If you swallow something you cannot take it back. This is because you
have no control over the movement of your digestive system. What kind of
muscles makes up your digestive system?
a. Striated muscle
b. Cardiac muscle
c. Skeletal muscle
d. Smooth muscle
224.
Which of the following statement is true to euglena?
a. They are negatively photoactive
b. They locomote by means of a flag ellum
c. They have a rigid cell wall
d. They do not have chloroplasts
225.
Which of the following activities occurs in the light reaction?
a. Fixing of carbon to form carbohydrates
b. Reduction of co2 molecules
c. Splitting of water molecules and chemical trapping of hydrogen
d. Union of co2 and water
226.
Sports physiologist at an Olympic training wanted to monitor athletes
to determine at what point their muscles were functioning an aerobically.
They could do this by
a. ATP
b. Lactic acid
c. Carbon dioxide
d. ADP
227.
Arm and leg muscles are arranged in an antagonistic pairs. How does
this affect their functioning?
a. A back u is provided if one of the muscles is injured
b. One muscle of the pi rushes while the other pulls
c. The muscles are allowed to produce opposing movements
d. The strength of contraction is doubled
228.
A type of a cell called lymphocytes makes proteins that are exported
from the cell. It is possible ton trace the path of these proteins as they leave
the cell by labeling them with radioactive isotopes. Which of the following
might be the path of proteins from where they are made to the lymphocytes
plasma membranes?
a. Chloroplast, Golgi , Plasms
b. Golgi, RER, plasma membrane

c. RER, lysosomes, Plasma membrane

d. SER, lysosomes, Plasma membrane
229.
230.
Human organ transplant are sometimes rejected by the recipient as a
result of the recipients
a. Failure to produce a sufficient number of blood cells
b. Production of antibodies which have a negative effect on the transplant
c. Production of hormones which react chemically with the hormone in the
transplant
d. Demonstration of Rh incompatibility
231.
The genetic information in DNA is coded in the
a. Sequence of Ribonucleotides
b. Proportion of the base present
c. Sequence of nucleotides
d. Base pairing
232.
More men are colorblind than women because
a. The allele for colorblindness is in the X-chromosomes
b. The allele for normal vision does not show up in men
c. The allele for colorblindness is in the y chromosomes
d. Men have weaker vision than women
233.
A man who has type B blood and a woman who has type A blood could
have children. Which of the following phenotypes?
a. A or B only
b. AB only
c. A, B or O
d. A, B, AB, O
234.
If the mother has type O blood and the father has type AB blood, what
will be the blood type of their children?
a. Type o
b. Type AB
c. Type A and B
d. All of the above
235.
Which id the major nitrogenous waste produced by water-dwelling
organisms such as the paramecium and hydra?
a. Nitrates
b. Urea
c. Ammonia
d. Uric acid
236.
These are three alleles for ABO blood group in humans. Why there are
only two alleles normally present in any individual?
a. Each parent contributes only one allele for the ABO blood group to the
offspring
b. The alleles that determine the ABO blood group are on the Xchromosomes
c. Every gene for the ABO blood group must be recessive
d. The alleles for the ABO group always segregate independently during
meiosis
237.
A mans lawyer tells him that he cannot use blood type in paternity
suit against him because the child could, in fact, be his according to blood

type. Which of the following is the only possible combination supporting this
hypothetical circumstances?
a. A: B: O
b. A:O:B
c. AB: A: O
d. AB:O:AB
238.
Since having blue eyes in a recessive characteristics, children from
two blue eyed parents
a. Will have brown eyes because brown eyes are dominant
b. Will have eyes with blue and brown combination
c. May have either brown eyes or blue eyes
d. Will have blue eyes because the parents are pure for blue eyes
239.
In certain species of salamander, the gene for red-spotted skin (R), is
dominant over the gene for brown spotted ( r ). A homozygous red-spotted
salamander was crossed with a brown spotted salamander and all offspring
were heterozygous red-spotted. Based on the genotype of the offspring, the
genotype of the Parent generation most probably could be
a. RR and Rr
b. Rr and rr
c. RR and rr
d. Rr and Rr
240.
If an egg cell contains 8 chromosomes, the sperm cell would contain
a. 4 chromosomes
b. 8 chromosomes
c. 16 chromosomes
d. 2 chromosomes
241.
How does a zygote differ from an ovum?
a. A zygote has more chromosomes
b. A zygote is smaller
c. A zygote consists of more than one cell
d. A zygote is much larger
242.
Which of the following is true to both moss and fern a plant?
a. They have both dominant gametophytes and small sporophytes
b. They have dominant sporophytes and small gametophytes
c. They van live in dry habitats
d. They need water for the sperm cell to reach the egg cell
243.
Plants are like animals because of the presence of
a. Chloroplast
b. Mitochondria
c. Spores
d. Meristems
244.
Which of the following groups of plants is sensitive to airborne
chemicals and is often used to indicate the presence of pollution?
a. Weeds
b. Ferns
c. Algae
d. Lichens
245.
Deserts are usually unable to support vegetation they do not have
a. Moderate temperature
b. Sufficient water

c. Good soil with sufficient nutrients

d. None of the above
246.
Which part of the human central nervous system is correctly paired
with its function?
a. Medulla-maintain muscular coordination
b. Cerebellum-serves as the center to reflex action
c. Spinal cord- coordination learning activities
d. Cerebrum- serves as the unit for memory and reasoning
247.
Which adaptation found within human respiratory system filters,
warms and moister the air before it enters the lungs?
a. Rings of cartilage
b. Clusters of alveoli
c. Ciliated muscous membrane
d. Involuntary smooth muscle
230.
248.
Why does gangrene usually develop on diabetics legs?
a. Bacterial infection
b. Excess sugar
c. Limited blood circulation
d. All of the choices
249.
What features do all insects have?
a. 2 legs and 4 body parts
b. 4 legs and 2 body parts
c. 6 legs and 3 body parts
d. 8 legs and 3 body parts
250.
A seed sprouts when the temperature is 27 degrees C and it rises 1.5
degrees C per week, in how many weeks will the seed sprout?
a. About 3 weeks
b. About 4 week s
c. About 5 weeks
d. About 6 weeks
251.
What term is used when egg develop into a new organism without
itself being fertilized by a sperm?
a. Parthenogenesis
b. Conjugation
c. Fission
d. Budding
252.
If an intestinal cell in a grasshopper contains 24 chromosomes, how
many chromosomes would the grasshopper sperm cell contain?
a. 6
b. 8
c. 12
d. 24
253.
White blood cells ingest, and then digest a number of bacteria. Which
cell organelles were directly responsible for the digestion of the bacteria?
a. Centrioles
b. Lysosomes
c. Mitochondria
d. Ribosome

254.
Root hairs absorb water and minerals from the soil. To which region of
a root tip can you find this root hair?
a. Region of elongation
b. Region of maturation
c. Meristematic region
d. Root cap
255.
Which of the following correctly ranks the structure in order of size,
form largest to smallest?
a. Gene-chromosome-nucleotide-codon
b. Chromosome-gene-codon-nucleotide
c. Nucleotide-chromosome-gene-codon
d. Chromosome-nucleotide-gene-codon
256.
What is the main function of polysaccharide in living cells?
a. Energy storage
b. Storage of hereditary information
c. Catalytic activity
d. Formation of membrane
257.
During the process of photosynthesis, oxygen is given off as a by
product. This osygen came from
a. Carbon dioxide and water
b. Water and not from carbon dioxide
c. Carbon dioxide and not from water
d. None of the above
258.
A farmer planted mongo in between corn plants. This practice is done
to increase the nitrate in the soil which is needed by plants. What organism
thrives in the roots of mongo that can change nitrogen to nitrate in the
atmosphere?
a. Ferns
b. Mosses
c. Anabaena azolla
d. Rhizobium bacteria
259.
Green plants are considered autotrophs because they
a. Have many pigments that capture light
b. Can build simple inorganic substance into complete organic substances
c. Can build any kind of substances
d. Depend on the other sources for their food
260.
Which of the following is not a function of transpiration?
a. Cooling of leaves
b. Excretion of minerals
c. Uptake of minerals
d. Uptake of water
261.
While looking through a microscope at a section of a leaf from fresh
water plant, a student observed some cells in which chloroplast were moving
around with cytoplasm. This type of movement is known as
a. Pinocytosis
b. Cyclosis
c. Synapsis
d. Osmosis
262.
Most of the reaction involved in aeronic respiration occur in the
a. Golgi bodies

b. Mitochondria
c. Endoplasmic reticulum
d. Ribosomes
263.
Variation of the result of
a. Mutation
b. Fertilization
c. Meiosis
d. All of the above
264.
The nerve system of grasshopper is most similar to the nerve system
of
a. Birds
b. Hydras
c. Man
d. Earthworm
265.
Plants A and b classified as members of the same species. Plants C
and D are classified in the same genes as A and B, but not the same species
as A and B. according to this information, which statement is correct/
a. Plants A has many characteristics in common with plant B
b. Plant C cannot be the same species as plant D
c. Plants A and B belong to a different kingdom as plants C and D
d. Plants A, B,C ,D must all belong to different phyla.
266.
How many kinds of gametes could be produced by an Rr Yy parent?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
267.
The following are example of standing water except
a. Creek
b. Swamps
c. Lake
d. Pond
268.
All of the following are components of the ecosystem except
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Temperature
c. Protein
d. Hydrocarbons
269.
Flagella, cilia, and pseudopodia are structures associated with the
locomotion of
a. Earthworms
b. Hydras
c. Protozoa
d. Grasshopper
270.
Planktons are food producers of the sea while rice plants are the food
producers on land. What is the characteristic is common to plankton and rice
plant that enables them to carry out photosynthesis?
a. Capacity to produce carbon dioxide
b. Presence of chlorophyll
c. Ability to live in water
d. Giving off carbon dioxide

271.
Affluent lifestyle has led to increased demands for a wide variety of
consumable products. The packaging of these products has caused
environmental problems that are most directly associated with
a. Urbanization
b. Solid waste disposal
c. PCB pollution
d. Food web contamination
272.
The regulatory system of a hydra can best described as a
a. Fused ganglion
b. Nerve net
c. Central nervous system
d. System similar controlled protozoa
273.
The structural relationship between an antigen and antibody is like the
relationship between
a. Bullet and gun
b. Hand and glove
c. Car and driver
d. Hammer and nail
274.
In recent research, a specific DNA code for an organic catalyst was
removed from each of the three different species of soil bacteria. Using DNA
codes, a single bacterium capable of synthesizing the three different organic
catalysts was produced. Which technique was used to produce the new
bacterium?
a. Translation
b. Genetic engineering
c. Hybridization
d. Mutagen screening
275.
Genetic engineering has been utilized for the production of
a. Human growth hormone
b. Uric acid
c. Salivary amylase
d. Hydrochloric acid
276.
Unfertilized eggs of a frog can be made to undergo cleavage if the
eggs are icked with a needle. This type of development is known as
a. Metamorphosis
b. Differentiation
c. Pinocytosis
d. Parthenogenesis
277.
A neuron does not contain
a. Synapse
b. Dendrites
c. An Axom
d. Cyton
278.
When you draw away your finger from a candle flame, which
characteristics do you show?
a. Reproduction
b. Metabolism
c. Irritability
d. Growth
279.
What is the chemical nature of enzymes?

a. Lipid
b. Protein
c. Nucleic acid
d. Amino acid
280.
Analysis of a particular aquatic organism reveals that its cell contains
much greater concentration of a particular substance than its surrounding
medium. Which explains the concentration difference?
a. Osmosis
b. Plasmolysis
c. Active transport
d. Endocytosis
231.
281-283. Refer to the different classifications of organism as to region
or subhabitat:
a. Litoral zone
b. Limnetic zone
c. Profundal zone
281.
The shallow-water region with light penetration to the bottom
282.
The bottom and deep water area which beyond the depth of effective
light penetration
283.
The open water zone to the depth of effective light penetration which
is called compensation level.
232.
284-289. Refer to the following categories of terrestrial ecology:
a. Epiphytes
b. Phanerophytes
c. Chamaephytes
d. Hemi-cryptophytes
e. Cryptophytes
f. Therophytes
284.
Earth plants
285.
Surface plants
286.
Annuals; complete life cycle from seed in one vegetative period.
287.
Air plants
288.
Tussock plants
289.
Aerial plants
290.
Which of the following is referred to as the powerhouse of the cell?
a. Mitochondria
b. Nucleus
c. Nucleolus
d. Endoplasmic reticulum
291.
The phase of mitosis characterized by chromosomes separation and
migration is
a. Telophase
b. Anaphase
c. Interphase
d. Metaphase
292.
Glucagon is secreted by cells that represent in the
a. Liver
b. Islets of langerhans
c. Small intestine
d. Thyroid

293.
The number of chromosomes in a fertilized egg is
a. Half as many as in unfertilized egg
b. The same as in a sperm
c. Twice the number as in a sperm
d. Twice the number as in a skin
294.
The bowmans capsules in the kidney function as
a. Filters
b. Bellows
c. Suction pumps
d. Sponge
295.
Smooth muscle are generally found
a. Attached to the skeleton
b. At the joints
c. In the digestive system
d. In the heart
296.
Which of the following statement is true?
a. Nuclei acids are linear molecules
b. Sucrose is an isomer of galactose
c. Steroids have at least 12 carbon atoms
d. Steroids are proteins
297.
Which glands secrete their chemicals directly into the circulatory
fluid?
a. Salivary glands
b. Tear glands
c. Endocrine glands
d. Sweat glands
298.
Most of the red blood cells in the body are produced in the ____of long
bones such as the tibia.
a. Cartilage
b. Joint
c. Ligaments
d. Marrow
299.
The muscle called extensor radials longus is found in the
a. Arm
b. Chest
c. Leg
d. Neck
300.
Which is the characteristic of endocrine system but not the
characteristic of the nervous system?
a. They help maintain homeostasis
b. They secrete chemical messengers
c. Their secretions are carried by the blood transportation system
d. They are found in the vertebrate and invertebrate
233.
CHEMISTRY
234.
301.
Which statement is characteristic of a non-metallic material?
a. Good conductor of heat
b. Good conductor of electricity
c. The oxides from basic solution with water
d. The oxides from acid solution with water

302.
A solution is acidic when the color change with litmus paper is
a. Red to pink
b. Red to blue
c. Pink to blue
d. Blue to red
303.
Candle is classified as
a. Inorganic substance
b. Ionic substance
c. Organic substance
d. Metalloid
304.
Protium, deuterium and tritium are all hydrogen. What are they
called?
a. Isotones
b. Isotopes
c. Isomers
d. Isobars
305.
Formula of heptene:
a. C7h12
b. C7h16
c. C7h10
d. C7h14
306.
The principal components of foods are fats, carbohydrates, vitamins,
water, proteins and
a. Minerals
b. Acid
c. Salts
d. Oxides
307.
Given are the coinage metals except
a. Gold
b. Silver
c. Copper
d. Chromium
308.
Which of the following does not represent 0.0003?
a. 3/104
b. 3/1x104
c. 3x104
d. 3x10-4
235.
For no. 309-312 the options are
a. Colloids
b. Elements
c. Compounds
d. Mixtures
309.
Hydrogen, mercury, gold
310.
Butter, cloud, fog, cheese
311.
Fruit salad, arroz caldo, menudo
312.
Potassium nitrate, water, sulfuric acid
313.
Which of the following equation is balanced?
236.
a. H2+O2
H 2O
b. NaClO3
NaCL + O2

c. KCL+FeBr3
FeCL3+KBr
d. 2NaCl+BaO
Na2O+BaCl2
314.
The type of colloid produced when the dispersed phase is a gas and
the dispersion medium is a liquid is
a. Emulsion
b. Sol
c. Foam
d. Liquid aerosol
315.
Noble gas are inert because
a. They belong to the same group
b. They belong to the same family
c. They donate electrons
d. They have 8 electrons in their outermost shell.
316.
How many members does the halogen family have?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 6
d. 5
237.
For nos. 317-322 the given is 8016. The options will be
a. 8
b. 16
c. 2
d. 6
238.
317.
What is the atomic number of oxygen?
318.
How many protons do oxygen atoms have?
319.
How many electrons surround the nucleus of oxygen atom?
320.
How many energy levels are occupied by electrons of oxygen atom?
321.
What is the atomic mass of oxygen?
322.
To what group does oxygen belong?
323.
At what temperature is there no more volume of gas?
a. 0oC
b. 237oK
c. 212oF
d. Absolute zero
324.
The number of molecules a mole of all gases contains
a. 6.02x1023 molecules
b. 6.2x1024molecules
c. 60.20x1023 molecules
d. 602x1023 molecules
325.
The volume occupied by one mole of gas at standard temperature and
pressure is
a. 2.24 liters
b. 224 liters
c. 22.4 liters
d. 1 liter
326.
The formula mass of iron III sulfate is ( atomic mass: Fe= 56g,
S=32g,O=16g )
a. 300g
b. 400g

c. 350g
d. 450g
327.
The rate of diffusion of a gas depends on its
a. Molecular mass
b. Volume
c. Attractive force
d. Density
328.
In 18.0 grams of water, the number of water ( molecular mass:
188/mole ) molecules is
a. 18 molecules
b. 60.2x1023 molecules
c. 6.2x1024molecules
d. 602x1023 molecules
329.
Decomposition of 150 grams of potassium chlorate produces 84g of
potassium chloride and how many grams of oxygen?
a. 234g
b. 66g
c. 90.5g
d. 300g
330.
Ozone is an allotropic from of
a. Nitrogen
b. Hydrogen
c. Oxygen
d. Chlorine
331.
What will not happen if we live in an atmosphere of 100 % oxygen?
a. Fire would be more frequent
b. Rusting of iron would be very fast
c. People would age more slowly
d. A more rapid rate of metabolism would take place
332.
Denatured alcohol cannot be used for beverage purposes because of
the presence of
a. Methyl alcohol
b. Ethyl alcohol
c. Propyl alcohol
d. Pentyl alcohol
333.
The formula of decane:
a. C10H16
b. C10H18
c. C10H2O
d. C10H22
334.
The formula of nonyne:
a. C9H18
b. C9H20
c. C9H16
d. C9H22
335.
The formula of heptene is
a. C7H16
b. C7H14
c. C7H12
d. C7H10

336.
Which of the following chemical system exhibit Tyndall effect?
a. Aqueous alcohol solution
b. Distilled water
c. Smoke
d. All of the above
337.
Which of the following is not classified as matter?
a. Sugar
b. Sand
c. Water
d. Power
338.
A yellow solid substance changes into violet gas when heat is applied;
the gas resolidifies to the original yellow solid in the cooler part of the tube.
The yellow solid is
a. Mixture
b. A metalloid
c. An element
d. A compound
339.
Nine and ninety eight hundredths grams is equal to
a. .998kg
b. .000998kg
c. .00998kg
d. 9.980kg
340.
The mass ratio of A and B is 2:3. If a mixture of 60g A and 60 G of B are
allowed to react, the mass of the production is
a. 50g
b. 100g
c. 150g
d. 120g
341.
Nickel has the composition of
a. 70% copper and 30% nickel
b. 75 % copper and 25 % nickel
c. 80 % copper and 20% nickel
d. 65 % copper and 35 % nickel
239.
342.
The half life of radium is 1620 years. Suppose you have 50g of the
radioactive sample now, after how many years will you have only 25g of the
sample?
a. 1620 years
b. 3240 years
c. 6480 years
d. 810 years
343.
The production of ionization of sodium bromide are
a. Nao and Bro
c. Na+ and Brb. Nao and Br
d. Na+and Bro
5
4
344.
The sum of 7.13X10 and 2.13x 10 is
a. 7.343x10-5
b. 7.343x105
c. 9.26x109
d.
9.26x10-9

e.
345.
The product of (4x10-8)(2x105) is
a. 8x10-3
c. 8x10-13
b. 8x105
d. 8x1013
346.
The correct position of an element with an atomic number of 35 in the
periodic table of element s is
a. Period 4 and group VII-A
c. Period 5 and group IV-A
b. Period 3 and group VI A
d. Period 6 and group VI-A
347.
The valence electrons of an atom with atomic number of 20 is
a. 20
c. 4
b. 2
d. 6
348.
When the nucleus of an atom ejects alpha particles , the atomic
number of the atom will decreases by
a. 2
c. 6
b. 4
d. 1
349.
the graphic representation of benzene as
was proposed by
a. Claus
c. Kekule
b. Dewar
d. Armstrong
350.
When beta particles is released by the nucleus of atom, the atomic
number of the atom will increased by
a. 2
c. 6
b. 4
d. 1
351.
In the fermentation process, organic compounds are broken down into
simple compounds by
a. Adding catalyst
b. The action of enzymes
c. Heating
d. Salt

e.
352.
When gaseous molecule are compressed, they have the tendency to
a. Increase in volume
b. Repel each other
c. Decrease in volume
d. Attract each other
353.
An atom becomes positively charges when it
a. Gains electrons
b. Loses electrons
c. Gains neutrons
d. Attract neutrons
354.
What is the percentage of sulfur in magnesium sulfate? (atomic mass:
Mg-24 g
S-32 g
O-16g)
a. 26.67 %
c. 56%
b. 25.6 %
d. 48%
355.
A compound was found to contain 15 grams of carbon and 5g of
oxygen. What is the mass ratio of carbon to oxygen?
a. 4 :1
c. 3:1
b. 3:2
d. 1:3
356.
What group of elements is considered to be most non-metallic?
a. Group 1-A
b. Group II-A
c. Group VI-A
d. Group VII-A

357.
An atom is ionized negatively by
a. Sharing with another a tom
b. Losing an electron
c. Acquiring an electron
d. Combining with another atom
358.
A test half filled with water weights 450.8 grams. What is the mass of
the test tube if the mass of the water inside the test tube is 255 g?
a. 220.8 g
b. 225.8 g
c. 230 g
d. 228 g
359.
The average temperature was recorded yesterday as 35 degrees C.
what is this in Kelvin?
a. 308
b. 300
c. 273
d. 360
360.
When magnesium is heated in the presence of air, the substance
formed is
a. Oxide
b. Base
c. Acid
d. Solution
361.
The symbol of the name of element lead:
a. Le
b. Ld
c. Ph
d. Pd
362.
Which forms a white precipitate with lime water?
a. N2
b. NaCl
c. CO2
d. O2
363.
What constitutes the mass number of a given atom of an element?
a. Protons only
b. Electrons only
c. Protons and electrons
d. Protons and neutrons
364.
To which groups does a metal belong?
a. Solution
b. Mixture
c. Element
d. Compound
365.
Which statement about two elements as having the same valence
configuration is correct? They belong to
a. The same period but different families
b. Different periods but same families
c. Same period and family
d. Different period and families

366.
When gaseous substances are compressed, the result is a decrease in
the
a. Size of the particles
b. Distance between the particles
c. Temperature
d. Pressure exerted by the particles
367.
The following are monosaccharides or simple sugar except
a. Glucose
b. Fructose
c. Lactose
d. Galactose
368.
The following are polysaccharides except
a. Maltose
b. Starch
c. Cellulose
d. Dextrins
369.
The vitamin that prevents Xeropthalmia, an eye disease is
a. Vitamin B
b. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin A
370.
The vitamin that prevents rickets a disease of the bones is
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B12
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin k
371.
The vitamin that prevents hemorrhage or profuse bleeding is
a. Vitamin k
b. Vitamin F
c. Vitamin c
d. Vitamin D
372.
The digestion of carbohydrates begins in the mouth. The enzyme that
starts the digestion of carbohydrates in the mouth is
a. Ptyalin
b. Pepsin
c. Lipase
d. Rennin
373.
In the small intestine , the digestion of fats and oils is secreted by the
enzyme called
a. Ptyalin
b. Lipase
c. Protease
d. Pepsin
374.
The digestion of proteins begins in the stomach. It is secreted by the
enzyme called
a. Pepsin and rennin
b. Ptyalin
c. Lipase
d. Amino acid
375.
All are natural textile fibers, except

a. Cotton
b. Linen
c. Wood
d. Nylon
376.
All are synthetic textile fibers except
a. Rayon
b. Banlon
c. Nylon
d. Silk
377.
All are natural textile dyes, except
a. Indigo blue
b. Logwood
c. Tyrean purle
d. Prussian blue
378.
In 1856 william perkins, a young English chemist, developed the first
artificial dye called
a. Vat dyes
b. Mordant dyes
c. Direct dyes
d. Mauve
379.
PEnicillin, an antibiotic, was discovered and extracted from mold by
a. Dr. Howard Walter Flory
b. Dr. Ernest Boris Chain
c. Dr. Alexander Fleming
d. Dr. Albert Chatz
380.
The most active alkali metal is
a. Li.
b. K.
c. Fr.
d. Cs.
381.
The most active earth alkaline metal is
a. Be.
b. Ca.
c. Sr.
d. Ra.
382.
A given gas occupies 2000 cc at a pressure of 90cm of mercury. What
volume will the gas occupy when the pressure is reduced by of the original
pressure?
a. 1000 cc
b. 3000 cc
c. 4000 cc
d. 5000 cc
383.
A given gas occupies 2000 cc at a pressure of 90cm of mercury. What
volume will the gas occupy when the pressure is doubled?
a. 1000 cc
b. 3000 cc
c. 4000 cc
d. 5000 cc
384.
A given mass of gas occupies 2000 cc at 5 degrees C. what volume will
the same mass of gas occupy at 25 degrees C?

a. 2044
b. 2144
c. 2244
d. 2444
385.
A reaction which absorbs energy as it proceeds:
a. Exothermic reaction
b. Endothermic reaction
c. Reversible reaction
d. Complete reaction
386.
A reaction which liberates heat energy of any from as it proceeds:
a. Exothermic reaction
b. Endothermic reaction
c. Reversible reaction
d. Complete reaction
387.
Formula of lactic a cid
a. C2H3O2
b. HC3H5O5
c. HC4H7O2
d. H3C6H5O7
388.
Formula for acetic Acid
a. HC2H3O2
b. HC3H5O5
c. HC4H7O2
d. H 3C6H5O7
389.
Formula of butyric acid
a. H2 C3O2
b. HC3H5O5
c. HC4H7O2
d. H3 C6H5O7
390.
How many grams of magnesium carbonate must be decomposed to
produce 8 liters of carbon dioxide at STP? (atomic masses Mg=24g C=12g
O=16g)
a. 20gMgco3
b. 25gMgco3
c. 30gMgco3
d. 35gMgco3
391.
How many grams of CaO can be produced from heating 85g of calcium
carbonate?
a. 40.6
b. 45.6
c. 47.6
d. 48.6
392.
How many grams of KNO3, are needed to prepare a .125 m solution in
300ml of H2O?
a. 1.79 KNO3
b. 2.79 KNO3
c. 3.79 KNO3
d. 4.79 KNO3
393.
A solution contains 22g of NaCl dissolved in 150g of H 2O.what is the
molar concentration of the solution?

a.
b.
c.
d.
394.
a.
b.
c.
d.
395.
a.
b.
c.
d.
396.
a.
b.
c.
d.
397.
a.
b.
c.
d.
398.
a.
b.
c.
d.
399.
a.
b.
c.
d.
400.
a.
b.
c.
d.
401.
402.
a.
b.
c.
d.
403.
a.
b.
c.
d.

2.5
2.4
2.6
2.7

m
m
m
m
The reaction between 6 CO2 and 6 H2O produces 6O2 and
C12H22O11
C6H12O6
2C6H12O6
C6H12O8
The hydrolysis of C12H22O11 produces
C6H12O6
2C12H22O11
2C6H12O6
3C2H12O6
The constituents of lipid:
Carbon, hydrogen and oxygen
Carbon, hydrogen and nitrogen
Carbon, nitrogen, hydrogen
Carbon, nitrogen, phosphorous and oxygen
Fermentation of C6H12O6 produces 2CO2 and ________?
C2H5OH
3C2H5O H
2C2H5O H
2 H 2O
Complete combustion of C2H4 produces 2H2O and _______?
Co2
3Co2
2Co2
4Co2
Complete reaction of C2H4 produces HCl and ______?
CH5Cl2
C 2H5Cl
C2 H 5
2C 2H5Cl
Alcohol + organic acid
water +________?
Aldehyde
Ester
Acetone
Alkaline
PHYSICS
Which of the following rays are the best producers of ions?
Alpha
Beta
Gamma
X-rays
What is the dimension of a Newton?
G cm/s2
Kg m/s2
Cm/s2
m/s2

404.
What is the total resistance of two resistors R 1 and R2 connected in
parallel?
a. R1 R2/ (R1 + R2)
b. R1+ R2
c. R1 /( R1+ R2 )
d. R2/ (R1+ R2)
405.
A 20 cd lamp is .6 m above a study table. The illumination on the table
is
a. 56 lm
b. 48 lm
c. 24 lm
d. 12 lm
406.
If the light travels at a speed of 3.0 x 108ms, how long will take to
cover 100m?
a. 3.3 x 107ms
b. 3.3 x 10-7ms
c. 3 x 106ms
d. 3 x 1010ms
407.
What law explains why Ayie can withdraw a sheet of paper from under
a glass of water if the paper is pulled quickly?
a. Law of acceleration
b. Law of conservation of momentum
c. Law of interaction
d. Law of inertia

a. 1.28 x10 -11N

b. 1. x10 -10N
c. 1.28 x10 11N
d. 1.33 x10 10N
453.
Which of the following is the correct statement of the law of reflection?
a. The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection.
b. The angle of incidence is less than the angle of reflection
c. The angle of reflection is greater than the angle of incidence
d. The angle of incidence can be greater or less than the angle of reflection
454.
Which of the following is a type of inclined plane?
a. Gear wheel
b. Wheel and axle
c. Screw
d. Pulley
455.
The most active which has played a significant role in the treatment of
cancer is
a. Polonium
b. Thorium
c. Actium
d. Radium
456.
If inertia is doubled, what force is needed to overcome it?
a. One half of the guitar value
b. One fourth of the original value
c. Twice as much
d. Four times as much
457.
With what characteristic of light is color associated?
a. Speed
b. Wavelength
c. Frequency
d. Period
458.
What is an electric motor?
a. A device for changing electrical energy to mechanical energy
b. A device for converting mechanical energy to electrical energy
c. A device for changing electrical energy to potential energy
d. A device for converting potential energy to mechanical energy
459.
A stone makes 20 revolutions in 10 seconds. What is angular velocity?
( 1 rad=.1592)
a. 2 rad/ s
b. 12.56 rad
c. 25.12 rad/s
d. 30 rad/s
460.
Whose discovery involved the production of magnetism by means of
electricity?
a. Ohm
b. Lenz
c. Faraday
d. Oersted
461.
What does the slope of distance time graph represent?
a. Acceleration
b. Momentum

c. Speed
d. Velocity
462.
At what rate is the vertical motion of a projectile uniformly
accelerated?
a. -10 m/s
b. -10m/s 2
c. -9.8m/s 2
d. 9.8 m/s 2
463.
What is the period of pendulum that is one meter long? (g=9.8 m /2)
a. .5 s
b. 1 s
c. 1.5 s
d. 2.0 s
464.
What happens to the attractive force between two bodies if the
distance separating them is doubled?
a. Doubles
b. Reduces to one half
c. Reduces to one fourth
d. Increases four times
465.
Which of the following describes a simple harmonic motion?
a. A body moves along a curved path of constant radius
b. A particle moves periodically at equal distance in opposite direction from
the equilibrium position
c. A body moves along a curved path at varying speeds
d. A particle moves in a cycle at different amounts of time
466.
The EMF of a generator can be increases by
a. Decreasing the number of turns in the armature
b. Increasing the speed of rotation of the armature
c. Decreasing the speed of rotation of the armature
d. Providing lesser concentration of lines of force
467.
A wire .50 long moves a cross a uniform magnetic field with a velocity
of 6 m/s and an induction of 2x 102 weber /m2. The EMF induced in the wire is
a. 3 v
b. 1.5 v
c. .12 v
d. .06 v
468.
In the base of air friction, what happens when a ball is allowed to roll
down one hill and up a second hill?
a. The ball would lose speed more slowly as it moves up the second hill
b. The ball would travel a longer distance uphill
c. The ball would travel a shorter distance as it moves up
d. The ball would practically reach the same horizontal level where it started
469.
Identical forces act upon two objects. What is the mass of first object if
its acceleration is twice that of the second object?
a. One half of the second
b. Twice of the second object
c. Equal to the second object
d. Constant
470.
What kind of acceleration is imparted to a body by a given force when
its mass is larger?

a. Larger
b. Smaller
c. The same
d. Zero
471.
In what kind of collision is the total momentum conserved?
a. In elastic collision
b. In inelastic collision
c. In perfectly elastic collision
d. In all types of collision
472.
What force must act on a 45 kg mass to give it an acceleration of .05
m/s2?
a. 110.25 N
b. 22.5 N
c. 45.0 N
d. 882 N
473.
What happens when a wave source moves away from you?
a. An increase in speed
b. A decrease in speed
c. An increase in frequency
d. A decrease in frequency
474.
In which of the following substances is the coefficient of starting
friction greatest?
a. Steel on steel
b. Copper on steel
c. Wood on wood
d. Glass on glass
475.
It takes 100 N to start a 200N objects sliding across a floor. What is the
coefficient of starting friction?
a. 2.0
b. 1.0
c. .5
d. Zero
476.
Who demonstrated that even small bodies exert measurable
gravitational attractions on each other?
a. Kepler
b. Newton
c. Cavendish
d. Ptolemy
477.
What is the value of gravitational constant G?
a. 6.67 x 10 10m3/kgs2
b. 6.67 x 10 -10m3/kgs2
c. 6.67 x 10 11m3/kgs2
d. 6.67 x 10 -11m3/kgs2
478.
What work is done by Vinia who pushes a laundry basket along a floor
with a force of 70 N fro a distance of 8 m?
a. 280 joules
b. 560 joules
c. 280 N
d. 560 N
479.
Which of the following is true?

a. In a machine where the resistance is greater than the effort, the distance
the effort moves is greater than the distance the resistance is moved
b. In machine where the effort is greater than the resistance, the efforts
distance is greater than the resistances distance
c. In some machines, such as auto brakes, friction is not useful and should
be decreased
d. To operate a real machine, it is necessary to apply lesser force than would
be needed if the machine were ideal
480.
There are colors of light whose combined effect on the eye is that of
white light. What are these?
a. Red and blue violet
b. Red and blue green
c. Yellow and blue green
d. Green and blue violet
481.
What is the correct formula for finding the efficiency of a machine?
a. Efficiency =input force/output force x 100 %
b. Efficiency =output /input force x 100 %
c. Efficiency =output work/input work x 100 %
d. Efficiency =input work/output work x 100 %
482.
A galvanometer plus a shunt connected in parallel with its coil is a /an
a. Spectrometer
b. Ohmmeter
c. Ammeter
d. Voltmeter
483.
If the equivalent resistance of resistor R 1 and R2 is given R1 R2 /( R1 +R2),
how many are they connected?
a. Series
b. Parallel
c. Perpendicular
d. Series parallel
484.
The threshold of frequency of sample metal is 5.0x10 14 HZ. To free an
electron from metal would require work which is equal to
a. 1.32 x 1010 J
b. 3.3x 1019 J
c. 1.32 x 1020 J
d. 3.3 x 1019 J
485.
What should be the length of the antenna at the transmitter if Jaz
wants to transmit a frequency of 100 megahertz? (wavelength =3m)
a. 6 meters
b. 4.5 meters
c. 3 meters
d. 1.5 meters
486.
Which of the following statements is true?
a. The thicker the wire, the greater the resistance
b. The thicker the wire , the lower the resistance
c. The shorter the wire, the greater the resistance
d. The longer the wire, the lesser the resistance.
487.
What is SI unit of energy?
a. Calorie/joule
b. Joule

c. Newton second
d. Joule/second
488.
What is considered to be an any or all gate?
a. AND gate
b. NOT gate
c. OR gate
d. NOR gate
489.
Suppose the potential energy of stone that falls decrease from 5 J to 0
J, while at the same time its kinetic energy increase from 0 J to 5 J. what is the
sum of the potential and kinetic energies?
a. 0 J
b. 5 J
c. 10 J
d. -10 J
490.
The energy of hammer hitting a nail is
a. Heat
b. Chemical
c. Electric
d. Mechanical
491.
What is the kinetic energy needed to enable a rocket to escape from
the earth?
a. KE greater than binding energy
b. KE lesser than binding energy
c. KE at least equal to binding energy
d. KE equal to potential energy
492.
What is the shape of a graph showing direct proportionality?
a. Hyperbola
b. Straight line
c. Parabola
d. Horizontal line
493.
At what temperature does water have the smallest volume and
greatest density?
a. At 10 degrees C
b. At 20 degrees C
c. At 40 degrees C
d. At 100 degrees C
494.
What is the instrument used to measure the temperature of hot steel?
a. Optical pyrometer
b. Mercury thermometer
c. Helium filled gas thermometer
d. Thermocouple
495.
Which of the following substances has the lowest specific heat?
a. Ethyl alcohol
b. Gold
c. Aluminum
d. Copper
496.
Jun is standing on a weighing scale attached to the floor of an elevator
which reads zero. What does this indicate?
a. Jun is still accelerating
b. Jun is moving at a constant speed

c. Jun is at rest
d. Jun is freely falling
497.
A .5 kg lead is heated from 30 degrees C to 40 degrees C. the specific
heat of lead is 128 J/Kg degrees C. how much heat was absorbed by the
copper?
a. 1920 J
b. 640 J
c. 320 J
d. 256 J
498.
What will be the mass of an object on the moon if its weight on earth is
240 N? ( g= 10 m/s2)
a. 0
b. 4 kg
c. 24 kg
d. 48 kg
499.
Why ice is a good cooling agent?
a. Ice has relatively high heat fusion
b. When ice melts, it adds heat to the air above it
c. Ice easily releases more heat on cooling a given amount
d. The specific heat of ice changes sharply.
500.
Silicon and germanium are classified as
a. Conductors
b. Insulators
c. Inductors
d. Semiconductors
501.
A kettle placed directly on a fire is heated by
a. Convection
b. Conduction
c. Radiation
d. Absorption
502.
503.
SOCIAL SCIENCE
504.
505.
ECONOMICS
506.
507.
Economics is concerned with
a. Mas choice for a living
b. Wealth getting and wealth using
c. The allocation of scarce resources
d. All of the above
508.
The term economics is mostly related with
a. Free
b. Scarce
c. Restricted
d. Unlimited
509.
Economics goods include
a. Consumer goods
b. Producers goods
c. Free goods
d. All goods

510.
An example of non-economics resources:
a. Air
b. Land
c. Building
d. None of the above
511.
Normative economics deals with
a. What should be
b. What is
c. Why is
d. Both B and C
512.
The word function in economics means
a. The demand for a commodity
b. The supply of a commodity
c. The relationship among variables
d. Both A and B
513.
The equilibrium point an economic graph means
a. Stable
b. Changeable
c. Equal
d. None of the above
514.
The most important economic analysis:
a. An aid in understanding how an economy operates
b. Explains how economic variables are related to one another
c. Predicts the result of changes in the economic variables
d. Basis of policy formulation
515.
In drawing economic conclusion, we use
a. Logic
b. Statistics
c. Mathematics
d. Empirical testing
516.
How to produce is a
a. Choice of market to sell
b. Choice of goods and services
c. Choice of an economic method
d. None of the above
517.
The economic problem that determines the nature and services to
produce:
a. What to produce
b. How to produce
c. How much to produce
d. For whom to produce
518.
An market economy solves the basic economic problems by
a. The rice mechanism
b. An economic planning committee
c. A sole proprietor
d. For whom tom produce
519.
An economic planning committee determine what to produce:;
a. Traditional economy
b. Command economy
c. Market economy

d. Mixed economy
520.
The economic system that gives consumer sovereignty on what, how
and for whom to produce are shaped by
a. Traditions
b. The government
c. The people
d. The family
521.
The type of economy of socialist government:
a. Traditional
b. Command
c. Market system
d. Mix of economies
522.
The other name for capitalism:
a. Free market system
b. Entrepreneurial system
c. Laissez faire
d. All of the above
523.
The Philippine economy is a mixed economy; however it is more
a. Traditional
b. Command
c. Market-oriented
d. Traditional than command
524.
The industry in the Philippines which is more market oriented;
a. Agricultural
b. Manufacturing
c. Service industry
d. None of the above
525.
The most important aim of economic system;
a. Satisfy human wants
b. Choose the product to produce
c. Exchange of commodities
d. Manage the economy
526.
The choice of nations economic system is important because it
determines
a. The manner in which goods will be produced
b. The quantities of each good that will be produced
c. The distribution of goods and services
d. All of the above
527.
The root cause of scarcity in resources is
a. Unlimited wants
b. Increase in population
c. Obsolete technology
d. Competing use of resources
528.
To solve the problem of scarcity, one must
a. Control his desire
b. Economize the use of resources
c. Know proper budgeting
d. Both B and C
529.
Microeconomics theory deals with the economic behavior of a
a. Consumer

b.
c.
d.
530.
a.
b.
c.
d.
531.
a.
b.
c.
d.
532.
a.
b.
c.
d.
533.
a.
b.
c.
d.
534.
a.
b.
c.
d.
535.
a.
b.
c.
d.
536.
a.
b.
c.
d.
537.
a.
b.
c.
d.
538.
a.
b.
c.
d.
539.
a.

Business
Resources owner
All of the above
Microeconomics deals with how a market economy determines
The price of goods
The price of services
The price of economic resources
All of the above
Which of the following is not a concern of microeconomics?
Decision of individual units
Economic issues affecting the national economy
Price determination in various types of market
Social welfare
The technique which is not used in studying microeconomics
Model
Dissection
Mathematics
Comparative statics
The quantity of good that buyers are willing to buy
Demand
Demand schedule
Demand function
Demand curve
How much is demanded at a price of 10 pesos, if Qd= 25- 2P?
-5
5
10
45
As the price of goods increases, the quantity demanded
Increases
Decreases
Remains constant
It depends
If demands varies according to a change in price,
The demand is the dependent variable to the price
The price is the independent variable of demand
Both A and B
None of the above
The negative slope of the demand curve is caused by
Lowering of prices
Higher of prices
Constant changing of prices
All of the above
The relationship between price and quantity demanded is
Direct
Inverse
Proportional
None of the above
Panic buying is not good because it results in
An increase in demand and shortage

b. A decrease in demand and surplus

c. Stabilizing the demand
d. None of then above
540.
The demand for all dollars increase despite the increase in exchange
rate of the dollar against the peso due to
a. The supply
b. The demand
c. The quantity demanded
d. None of the above
541.
A non price determinant of demand:
a. Income
b. Population
c. Taste and preference
d. Poor technological development
542.
The leftward shift of the demand curve denotes
a. An increase in income
b. A decrease in income
c. A balance in income
d. A static income
543.
An instance that shifts the demand to the right
a. Decrease in income
b. Increase in population with the presence of related product
c. Lower preference of the consumer fro the good
d. Expected future increase in prices
544.
It shows the quantities that are offered for sale at various prices
a. Supply
b. Supply function
c. Supply schedule
d. Supply curve
545.
How much is supplied at a price of 15 pesos if Qs= 30 (P)
a. 2
b. 15
c. 30
d. 450
546.
The higher the price, the ____supply:
a. More
b. Minimum
c. Less
d. Maximum
547.
The relationship between price and quantity supplied is
a. Direct
b. Inverse
c. Balance
d. None of the above
548.
If the cost of producing flour decreases, the supply will
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Remain constant
d. Be negative
549.
The curve of highest supply

a.
b.
c.
d.
550.
a.
b.
c.
d.
551.
a.
b.
c.
d.
552.
a.
b.
c.
d.
553.
a.
b.
c.
d.
554.
a.
b.
c.
d.
555.
a.
b.
c.
d.
556.
a.
b.
c.
d.
557.
a.
b.
c.
d.
558.
a.
b.
c.
d.
559.

S1
S2
S3
S4
A change in supply means
A rightward shift
A leftward shift
An upward shift from the left to right
A downward shift from the right to left
If Petron decides to increase the price of oil,
The supply of oil increases
The supply of oil decreases
The supply of oil remains constant
The supply of oil remains undetermined
An increase in the number of sellers shifts the supply curve to
The right
The left
Upward
Downward
A nonprice determinant of supply:
Number of sellers
Cost of production
Better technology
Population
Which of the following instances shifts the supply curve to the left?
Increase in the number of sellers
Decrease inn the number of sellers
Better technology
Decrease in the cost of production
A shift in the producers supply curve means
A change in quantity supplied
A change in the entire supply curve
Both A and B
Neither A nor B
A change in supply caused by a change in non-price determinant will
Change the entire supply curve
Shift the supply curve
Not change the entire supply curve
Not change the supply curve
The method of processing meat has improved ; as a seller you
Increase the supply
Decrease the supply
Stay constant with the supply
Not change the supply
The market equilibrium for a commodity is determined by
The demand
The supply
The balance of supply and demand
Any of the above

560.

The shift of the supply curve is due to the

Price change
Changes in non-price factor of demand
Changes in non-price factor of supply
None of the above
561.
The equilibrium point of this demand and supply schedule
562. Price
Demand
supply
563.
a. 5
80
100
b. 10
70
80
c. 15
60
60
d. 20
50
40
a.
b.
c.
d.

564.
There will be a shortage of goods in market economy if
a. S D
b. DS
c. S=D
d. None of the above
565.
The exceed of supply over the demand results in
a. A surplus
b. A shortage
c. A bankruptcy
d. Both B and C
566.
A poor market demand causes
a. An increase in supply
b. A decrease in supply
c. A constant supply
d. Any of the above
567.
Excess supply produces
a. An upward pressure on prices
b. A downward pressure on prices
c. An equilibrium pressure on level of prices
d. Both B and C
568.
The population of the Philippines increase by 15 %; this affects
a. An increase in demand
b. An increase in supply
c. A decrease in demand
d. A decrease in supply
569.
If the demand exceeds supply because of an increase in population,
the price would
a. Go up
b. Go down
c. Remain the same
d. Vary
570.
The law of supply and demand is important in the Philippine economy
because it is
a. A traditional economy
b. A command economy
c. A dominantly market oriented economy
d. A mix of economies

571.
A wise buyer
a. Use credit cards
b. Pays by installment
c. Buys at his capacity
d. None of the above
572.
Elasticity in economics refers to ______of demand and supply to a
change in determinant
a. Relativity
b. Adjustment
c. Responsiveness
d. A change
573.
It is a measure of consumer response to a change in price
a. Income elasticity of demand
b. Income elasticity of supply
c. Price elasticity of demand price elasticity of supply
574.
The relationship between % Q and % P:
a. Income elasticity
b. Price elasticity
c. Cross elasticity
d. None of the above
575.
Demand is elastic if
a. % Qd % P
b. % Qd %P
c. % Qd= %P
d. None of the above
576.
The coefficient of price elasticity shows
a. Degree of market competition
b. Degree of responsiveness to price changes
c. Degree of responsiveness to income changes
d. Degree of responsiveness to population growth
577.
Total revenue in price elasticity is
a. price plus quantity
b. price minus quantity
c. price times quantity
d. price divided by quantity
578.
If demand is inelastic, total revenue decreases as price decreases.
Marginal revenue
a. increases
b. decreases
c. is positive
d. is negative
579.
Price elasticity is important to seller to decide
a. How far to go with price change
b. How far to go with a quantity supplied
c. Either A or B
d. Neither A nor B
580.
The demand price for rice as a staple food of Filipinos is
a. Elastic
b. Inelastic
c. Unitary elastic

d. None of the above

581.
An elasticity that measures a movement along a curve rather than a
shift to the curve
a. Price elasticity of demand
b. Price elasticity of supply
c. Income elasticity of demand
d. Cross elasticity of demand
582.
A perfect elastic demand means
a. A change in price leads to a significant changes in quantity demanded
b. A change in price leads to a single to a slight change in quantity
demanded
c. That at a given price, quantity demanded can infinity changes
d. That at any price, the quantity demanded will remain the same
583.
The coefficient of price elasticity of demand is less than 1; the demand
is
a. Elastic
b. Inelastic
c. Perfectly elastic
d. Perfectly inelastic
584.
What goods are increasingly demanded when income increases?
a. Normal goods
b. Substitute goods
c. Unitary goods
d. Prestige goods
585.
The lesser the substitute there are for a good , the lesser the
demanded because the good is
a. Elastic
b. Inelastic
c. Unitary
d. None of the above
586.
Which of the following manifest perfectly-elastic demand?
a. P
587.
588. Qd
589.
D1
590.
b. P
591.
592.
D2 Qd
593.
c. P
594.
595.
D2 Qd
596.
597.
d. P
S1
598.
599.
600. Q4
601.
Goods which are easy to manufacture tend to have

a.
b.
c.
d.
602.
a.

An elastic supply
An inelastic supply
A perfectly supply
A perfectly supply
Which of the following does not manifest elasticity of supply?
P
S1
603.
604.
Qs
605.
606.

b. P
607.
608.
609.
c. P

S3
Qs

S1

610.

611.
612.
613.
d. P
614.

S4
615.

616.
617.
618.
619.
a.
b.
c.
d.
620.
a.
b.
c.
d.
621.
a.
b.
c.
d.
622.
a.
b.
c.
d.
623.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Qs

Q3

P
Q
P
Perfectly elastic
Inelastic
Perfectly inelastic
Perfectly inelastic
Quantity supplied does not change as price changes:
elastic
inelastic
perfectly elastic
perfectly inelastic
the effect of unitary elastic to expenditure:
less
more
constant
none of the above
complementary goods are used together:
true
false
it depends
none of the above
coffee and tea are examples of
basic goods
complementary goods
substitute goods
secondary goods

624.
a change in the price of margarine affects the demand for butter
because
a. margarine is related to butter
b. butter is a substitute for margarine
c. margarine and butter are complementary goods
d. none of the above
625.
the relationship between % Q and % Y:
a. income elasticity
b. price elasticity
c. cross elasticity
d. none of the above
626.
an increase in gasoline affects the demand for cars:
a. price elasticity of demand
b. income elasticity demand
c. cross elasticity demand
d. none of the above
627.
according to angels law, as income increases, the added income goes
to
a. food
b. other basic necessities
c. luxury items
d. savings
628.
The factor that deeply influence consumer behavior:
a. Social
b. Personal
c. Cultural
d. Psychological
629.
Utility function refers to
a. The satisfaction refers to
a. The satisfaction on the quantity consumed
b. A particular taste of individual
c. The preference to a particular good
d. Both B and C
630.
The marginal utility of the third consumption with a total utility of 18 if
the total utility of second consumption is 1:3
a. 5
b. 15:5
c. 31
d. 234
631.
How much utility is gained by a marginal utility 0f 7 and 8 in fourth and
fifth consumption?
a. 1
b. 13
c. 56
d. None of the above
632.
Which is true based on utility schedule?
633. Consumption
total utility
marginal utility
634. 1
6
6
635. 2
10
4
636. 3
10
0

637. 4
6
-4
a. Consumption registers a positive change, therefore, there is an increase
in total utility so long as MU is positive
b. TU curve registers a negative change and, therefore, a decline as MU is
negative
c. Both false
d. Both A and B
638.
Marginal utility is positive when total utility is
a. Increasing
b. Decreasing
c. Either A and B
d. Neither A nor B
639.
The law of diminishing marginal utility proves
a. Man has no satisfaction
b. Consumption is up to the point of maximum satisfaction
c. Maximum consumption is only up to maximum utility
d. Both A and B
640.
Substitute effect is a result of a
a. Change in marginal utility
b. Change in total satisfaction
c. Change in relation to the marginal utility
d. Decrease in the marginal utility of one commodity
641.
Which is true about productivity?
a. Productivity is the ration of output to input
b. Productivity measures how much every unit of input can produce and how
well resources are utilized
c. Productivity improves when ration of output to input increases
d. All of the above
642.
Man made goods used in the production of goods and services:
a. Labor
b. Capital
c. Natural resources
d. Entrepreneurship
643.
A buy and sell business also implies a production of function.
a. True
b. False
c. Either true or false
d. Neither true or false
644.
The marginal product of 14 and 12:
a. -2
b. 2
c. 13
d. 26
645.
646.
TAXATION
647.
648.
The biggest source of government funds
a. Tax revenue
b. Non tax revenue
c. Either A and B

d.
649.
a.
b.
c.
d.
650.
a.
b.
c.
d.
651.
a.
b.
c.
d.
652.
a.
b.
c.
d.
653.
a.
b.
c.
d.
654.
a.
b.
c.
d.
655.
a.
b.
c.
d.
656.
a.
b.
c.
d.
657.
a.
b.
c.
d.
658.
a.
b.
c.

None of the above

Taxation system includes
Taxation
Tax administration
Tax collection
Both A and B
Taxation is concern of
Monetary policy
Fiscal policy
Both A and b
None of the above
The power to tax is exercised by
The president
The supreme court
Congress
The bureau of internal revenue
The economics responsible for political economy and taxation
Adam smith
David Ricardo
Thomas Malthus
John Maynard Keynes
A policy that controls taxes and government expenditures
Monetary policy
Fiscal policy
Trade policy
None of the above
The income-earner for taxes
Laborer
Business firm
Government
BIR
Philippine income tax is
Progressive
Regressive
Proportional
Either A and C
Imposing more progressive taxes
Takes more money from the rich and less from the poor
Takes less money from the rich and more from the poor
Takes more money away from the rich and poor
Takes less money from the rich and poor
An onerous taxation system is
Progressive
Regressive
Proportional
None of the above
In a regressive tax system, the
Poor and abled are taxed equally more
Abled to pay tax are taxed more and the poor are taxed less
Abled to pay tax are taxed less and the poor are taxed more

d.
659.
a.
b.
c.
d.
660.
a.
b.
c.
d.
661.
a.
b.
c.
d.
662.
a.
b.
c.
d.
663.
a.
b.
c.
d.
664.
a.
b.
c.
d.
665.
a.
b.
c.
d.
666.
a.
b.
c.
d.
667.
a.
b.
c.
d.
668.
669.
670.

Poor and abled are tax equally less

Stages in taxation
Levy, assessment, collection
Assessment, levy, collection
Collection, assessment, levy
Assessment, levy, collection
Uniformity in taxation implies
Equality in amount
Equality in tax base
Equality in tax rates
Equality in burden
The value that is subject to tax is
Tax base
Tax rate
Tax withheld
Tax exemption
In increasing tax rates, disposable income
Increases
Decreases
Is maintained
Either A and B
A proportional tax of 10 % for those who earn sixty five thousand pesos
65 pesos
650 pesos
6,500 pesos
None of the above
Taxes collected by the bureau of customs
Import taxes
Ad valoren tax
Custom duties
All of the above
A nontax revenue
Licenses and registration
Profits earned by the government-operated and controlled corporation
Real estate
Both A and B
Value added tax is
Direct tax
Indirect tax
Exercise tax
Custom tax
A community tax is classified as
Personal tax
Property tax
Exercise tax
Custom tax
PHILIPPINE HISTORY

671.
The province in Luzon that can claim to have been the habitat of man
about 150,000 years ago
a. Cagayan valley
b. Palawan
c. Oriental Mindoro
d. Quezon
672.
Carmen Guerrero Nakpil describes the aliping namamahay as a
a. Serf
b. A higher type of slave
c. A commoner
d. Property owner
673.
Spaniards in 1500 to 1600 were lured to go up the great chain of cliffs
and peaks because of
a. Religion
b. Gold
c. The beautiful sceneries
d. The igorots
674.
These people, as defined by Dr. W. H. Scott, are Filipinos born in the
grand Cordillera
a. Tasadays
b. Mangyans
c. Igorots
d. Ibanags
675.
The most impressive observation of Miguel Lopez de legaspi regarding
the Filipinos was that
a. The Filipinos owned pearl as big as hens egg
b. The Filipinos do not try become wealthy
c. The Filipinos have abundance of fish and game
d. The Filipinos can exchange gold for even a cheap little hawks bill
676.
In the middle of 16th century, there were distinguishing races
discovered by the Spaniards, one of which was described as a poorer yet
fiecer race
a. Moros
b. Mountains
c. Tagalogs
d. Ilocanos
677.
In the early 16th century, according to C. G. Nakpil, sultan Bulkeaiah of
Brunei conquered salurong which today is known as
a. Pasay
b. Pasig
c. Manila
d. Caloocan
678.
The most important material gains in manila before and after legaspi
a. Copper
b. Diamond
c. Pearl
d. Gold
679.
The government in ancient manila was by ransom which means
a. Lack of money mean that one becomes a slave
b. One can be free of any offense if he has the money to ay for his crime

c. People aided each other with money loans

d. When they desired anything to each according to his office
680.
The Spanish expedition responsible for naming the archipelago
felipinas
a. Villalobos expedition
b. Legaspi expedition
c. Loarca expedition
d. Magellans expedition
681.
These were the people that had engaged in the higher state of learning
in science philosophy, literature and the arts.
a. Arabians
b. Angolo Saxons
c. Chinese
d. Hindus
682.
This nation can be found south of Taiwan, north Indonesia, and is a
sunkissed archipelago
a. China
b. Japan
c. Philippines
d. Korea
683.
The first printed book, Christian doctrine, had two translations. These
were
a. Sanskrit and Chinese
b. Chinese and Filipino
c. Filipino and Sanskrit
d. Nipongo and Filipino
684.
The term that refers ton the class of Filipinos who were free and
independent
a. Maharlika
b. Aliping namamahay
c. Aliping saguiguilid
d. Timawa
685.
The symbol of Filipino freedom
a. Mactan
b. Limasawa
c. Cebu
d. Homonhon
686.
The instrument used by the Spaniards to make the Filipinos read and
write was
a. The strict, with punishment, way of teaching
b. The promulgation of laws on education
c. The teaching of cathecism
d. The use of books with pictures
687.
In the 19th century of Spanish colonialism in the Philippines , a new
group of people called the illustrados appeared was composed of
a. The rich hacienda owners
b. Businessmen, doctors and teachers
c. The farmers
d. Consumers

688.
This discovery paved the way to the first circumnavigation of the globe
and greater geographical exploits.
a. Discovery of America
b. Discovery of the pacific
c. Discovery of brazil
d. Discovery of the cape of good hope
689.
Spains aim to stay in the Philippines for 300 years was to
a. Control the spice trade in Malaysia
b. Gain material profit out of her colonial venture in the far east
c. Maintain its powerful suzerainty
d. Spread the Christian religion
690.
Ecclesiastic administration means the rule of the
a. Local government
b. Financial department of the government
c. Business sector of the land
d. Religious sector of the country
691.
692.
RIZAL AND LIFE WORKS
693.
694.
Jose Rizals mother suffered difficult labor in delivering him into this
world, hence she promised a pilgrimage to the
a. Sto. Nino of tondo
b. Jesus of Nazarene in Quiapo
c. Church of Sta. Clara in obando
d. Virgin of antipolo
695.
There were eleven children born to Jose Rizals parents. He was the
a. Fourth child
b. Seventh child
c. Tent child
d. Second child
696.
Jose Rizals profound sense of dignity and self respect was inherited
from his
a. Father
b. Mother
c. Uncle
d. Grandfather
697.
Jose Rizal had well remembered lesson from his mother derived from
the fable about the
a. Fly and mosquitoes
b. Young monkey and the old
c. Young and the old moth
d. The wolf and the turtle
698.
Rizals Binanero teacher in Spanish
a. Jose Antonio santos
b. Mariano lopez sevilla
c. Juan Fernando samonte
d. Justiniano Aquino Cruz
699.
Rizas first lesson in drawing and painting was with
a. The father in law of his uncle
b. His father

c. His teacher in Spanish

d. The father in law of Justiniano
700.
The type of transport Rizal and family used in going to the promised
pilgrimage of his mother
a. Calesa
b. Casco
c. Banca
d. Carromata
701.
The tragic event that led Rizal to think that is was glorious to suffer or
die ones ideals and convictions
a. The imprisonment of his mother
b. The death of young sister
c. His brother Pacianos encounter with the Spaniards
d. The death of gomburza
702.
In Ateneo , Rizal was guided and directed in painting and drawing by
a. Prof. Don Agustin Sez
b. Father Villaclara
c. Father mineves
d. Father Francisco Sanchez
703.
Rizals instructor in sculptor was
a. Father Leoncio Lopez
b. Romualdo de Jesus
c. Segundino Reyes
d. Father Francisco Sanchez
704.
The school term when Rizal started to study medicine simultaneously
taking the subjects of the preparatory course and of the first year in
philosophy and letters at Ateneo
a. 1877-1878
b. 1875-1876
c. 1878-1879
d. 1879-1880
705.
The composition of Rizal that speaks of the Philippines as the country
of the Filipinos :
a. To my fellow children
b. To the Filipino youth
c. Our mother tongue
d. To the flowers of Heidelberg
706.
Another work of Rizal that won a gold ring where the bust of Cervantes
engraved was
a. Junto Al Pasig
b. Our mother tongue
c. The counsel of the Gods
d. To the flowers of Heidelberg
707.
Rizal made another written work that the literary academy of Ateneo
presented the intention of which was to revive the love of Filipinos for things
Philippines
a. The counsel of Gods
b. Our mother tongue
c. To the Filipino youth
d. Junto Al Pasig

708.
The event that convinced Jose Rizal that, in his country, the Filipinos
were not treated with just because of being indios belonging to an
underrated race
a. When his complaint were not heard by the governor general
b. When his mother was imprisoned
c. When the three priest were executed
d. When the tax of hacienda leased by his father was increased
709.
Jose Rizal established a secret society designed to promote civic and
patriotic education. This society was called
a. La liga Filipina
b. Companerismo
c. El Sociedad Secreto
d. La Juventud Sociedad
710.
Realizing the problem of abasement and demoralization of his
countrymen, Rizal decided to
a. Let things just be as they were
b. Do what many were doing live and vegetate
c. Find out the contrast between life at home with life abroad
d. Be a friend of the friars and the civil guards
711.
The ship where Rizal sailed from manila
a. La conception
b. SS Trinidad
c. SS Cristina
d. SS Salvador
712.
The first foreign land that Rizal reached :
a. Hongkong
b. Colombo
c. Cape Guardafui
d. Singapore
713.
You have lost the ideals of your souls, who wounded in heart, have
seen your illusions disappear one by one. This is an excerpt from Rizals
writing. Which was it?
a. El Armor Patrio
b. A La Juventud
c. EL Consejo de los Dioses
d. Los Viajes
714.
715.
PHILIPPINE GOVERNMENT AND CONSTITUTION
716.
717.
The elements of the state
a. Government
b. People
c. Territory
d. All of these
718.
The congress of the Philippines is
a. Unilateral
b. Bilateral
c. Quadrilateral
d. Multilateral

719.
The form of government of the Philippines based on the seat of
government
a. Presidential
b. Democratic
c. Unitary
d. Federal
720.
The law making body of the Philippines:
a. Congress
b. Supreme court
c. President
d. All of these
721.
The conformation body of congress
a. Commission of human rights
b. Commission on appointments
c. Commission on election
d. Commission on higher education
722.
It refers to the power of the state in internal and external revenue
affairs:
a. Government
b. Sovereignty
c. Territory
d. People
723.
The power of the government to get real property for public use with
just compensation:
a. Police power
b. Power of Eminent Domain
c. Power of taxation
d. All
724.
The supreme law of the land
a. Executive order
b. Constitution
c. Jurisprudence
d. Republic acts
725.
Article III of the constitution
a. National territory
b. Office of the president
c. Bill of rights
d. Declaration of principles
726.
The percentage allowed for foreign ownership:
a. 60/40 %
b. 50/50 %
c. 70 /70 %
d. 80/20 %
727.
The oldest written constitution
a. Code of kalantiao
b. 1935 constitution
c. 1937 constitution
d. 1987 constitution
728.
The term of office fro the president under the 1973 constitution
a. One term

b. Two terms
c. Three terms
d. Four terms
729.
The good characteristics of the constitution
a. General
b. Short
c. Specific
d. All of these
730.
The third highest ranking officer in the Philippines
a. Chief justice
b. Speaker of the house
c. Senate president
d. Solicitor general
731.
The international law territorial boundaries
a. 10-mile limit
b. 12 mile limit
c. 15 mile limit
d. 18-mile limit
732.
The fundamental law of the land
a. Constitution
b. Republic acts
c. Executive orders
d. Jurisprudence
733.
Among the basic principles underlying the constitution of 1987 which is
reflective of the sociological aspects of life is
a. Recognition of the aid of almighty God
b. Separation of church and the state
c. Recognition of the importance of the family as basic unit social institution
d. Government through suffrage
734.
A study that deals with the methods and strategies used in the actual
management of the state affairs by executive, legislative and judicial
branches of the government
a. Political theory
b. Public laws
c. Public administration
d. Statistics and logic
735.
The primary objective of the political science curriculum
a. Liberal education
b. Knowledge and understanding of government
c. Education for citizenship
d. Government economic programs
736.
The difference between the state and nation is that
a. The state is a political concept
b. The state is an ethnic concept
c. The state may or may not be independent
d. The state is a government agency
737.
738.
WORLD HISTORY
739.
740.
Agriculture is one of the great inventions of this age

a. Old stone age

b. New stone age
c. Copper age
d. Bronze age
741.
The theory of evolution states that man originated from
a. A single celled organism
b. a two celled organism
c. a few celled organism
d. complex celled organism
742.
the study that deals with the culture of a certain place
a. geology
b. archeology
c. geography
d. anthropology
743.
the use of this man take one more giant step towards the world of fine
tools and equipments
a. use of metals
b. use of fire
c. use of polished stone
d. use of crude stone tools
744.
Early mans creation that remained a mystery up to this time
a. Stonehenge monument
b. Pre-historic village
c. Paintings in caves
d. Pyramids
745.
These are stone monuments that releases what the Egyptians were like
and what they did thousand of years ago.
a. Pyramids
b. Sphinxes
c. Obelisks
d. Temple of karnak
746.
The very first Egyptian to believe that there was only one God:
a. Thutmose I
b. Thutmose III
c. Rameses II
d. Amenhotep IV
747.
These ancient people were distinguished in appearance with shoulders,
tall and slender, with finely molded hands and feet.
a. Sumerians
b. Indonesians
c. Egyptians
d. Persians
748.
The ancient alphabet from which our present alphabet was developed:
a. Egyptian alphabet
b. Phoenician alphabet
c. Sumerian alphabet
d. Babylonian alphabet
749.
This ancient school boy had to learn the six hundred syllables of their
written language.
a. Babylonian school boy

b. Egyptian school boy

c. Chinese school boy
d. Persian school boy
750.

ANTHROPOLOGY

751.
Many anthropologist find greatest beauty in art in
a. Its appearance
b. The material it was made of
c. The professional touch of the artist who produced the object for a
segment of the society
d. The way it was expresses and is functionally integrated with mythology or
religion
752.
Folklore may be thought of as an art when
a. It gives sheer enjoyment of interesting skillfully told stories
b. The stories maintain group solidarity
c. The myths are highly explanatory and provide cultural validation
d. All kinds of stories teach a lesson
753.
The fundamental focus of ritual activities in a native culture is the
a. Belief that it can drive away bad spirits
b. Belief that the human body is ugly and must be healed
c. Belief that the place or shrine for ritual gives a special protection for the
family
d. Belief that the more tools and charms the family possessed, the more the
family will be protected
754.
This native people discovered in the early 70s are a symbols of mans
variability, adaptability and university
a. Naciorema
b. T boli
c. Tasadays
d. Manubo
755.
This serves as a source of cultural variability because it provides
limitation, allowing a variety of possibilities
a. Concept of adaption
b. External factor
c. Functional prerequisites
d. Resource utilization
756.
Which of these situations provides limitations and constraints?
a. The development of an outdoor ice fishing complex in southern California
is impossible because of the habitat
b. In the arctic region, the probability of a wheel based mode of transport is
far less likely than a sliding based mode
c. The belief of no God, one God or twenty gods cannot be traced to any
given type of external factors of configuration
d. A group of individuals engaged in an adaptive framework
757.
In the analysis of culture, most anthropologist agree that the emphasis
should be upon
a. Biologically inherited traits
b. Traits that are learned and shared

c. Traits that are solely individual or personal

d. Giving equal weight to all traits
758.
One of the empirical indicators of personal and social custom that an
anthropologist referred to as material object resulting from human action is
a. Word
b. Action
c. Artifact
d. All of the above
759.
It is the attempt to reconstruct and describe the socially-learned traits
of prehistoric and historic populations.
a. A holistic approach towards human nature
b. A deterministic explanation based exclusively on the genetics of cultural
factors
c. An explanation that is derived from a single context
d. Ethnocentrism
760.
THE ENTOMOLOGICAL perspective leads one to adapt
a. A holistic approach towards human nature
b. A deterministic explanation based exclusively on the genetic of cultural
factors
c. An explanation that is derived from a single context
d. Ethnocentrism
761.

GEOGRAPHY

762.
As water runs downhill into stream and joint forces with other streams,
it becomes a
a. Lake
b. River
c. Bay
d. Tributaries
763.
Most scientist now believe that theory of continental drift which means
a. That continents have moved in the distant past
b. That there was only one super continent
c. That continents are still moving slowly
d. That there was once a time the continents cracked
764.
It is that part of the earth that is made of hot solid metal
a. Inner core
b. Outer core
c. Mantle
d. Crust
765.
This is another major force that wears away the earth surface on one
location and builds up apart of the land somewhere.
a. Deposition
b. Drainage basin
c. Silt
d. Erosion
766.
A tolls are actually
a. The action of the ocean current
b. The crooked fingers of the land jutting out from the mainland

c. The narrow neck of the land separating two bodies of water

d. The blue green coral reefs created by the build up skeleton of tiny marine
animals
767.
Scientist considered this instrument to get a true notion of the earths
land and where forms.
a. Photographs taken by astronauts
b. Space eye views
c. Remote sensing
d. Maps
768.
It is best known as parallel of latitude
a. Line of scale
b. Equator
c. Meridian
d. Hemisphere
769.
In the warmer parts of world
a. People tend to live on flat, gently rolling areas
b. People choose to stay on plateaus
c. People prefer the river valleys to live in
d. People live near mountain peaks
770.
It is any force within the earth that causes the earths crust to move
a. Sand storm
b. Hurricane
c. Typhoon
d. Earthquake
771.
A delta is being built out of deposits of sand and soil as a
a. River flows into the quiet waters and it slowly down
b. Rivers flows rapidly through the land
c. River moves slower and spreads out over a wide area
d. River dumps its soil and rock pieces along its lower path
772.
It is a fine yellow, very rich soil known as example of wind deposits
a. Sand dunes
b. Moraine
c. Loess
d. Calves
773.
The country that has many fjords is
a. Alaska
b. Norway
c. Greenland
d. Iceland
774.
An equinox means
a. Shorter daytime
b. Longer nighttime
c. Equal night
d. Equal day
775.
When the sun stands still, it is called
a. The summer solstice
b. Winter solstice
c. The spring equinox
d. Autumnal equinox
776.
This operates like a perpetual motion machine

a. Water
b. Sun
c. Wind
d. Weather
777.
When the water vapor changes from a gas back into a liquid, the
process is
a. Evaporation
b. Transpiration
c. Precipitation
d. Condensation
778.
The biggest river in the world is
a. Rio Grande in Mexico
b. Mississippi River in the US
779.
It is called the biggest river in the world because
a. Water flows out of a huge area
b. This area receives more rainfall than it can stored in the ground
c. The ground is filled with moisture and cannot absorb any added deposits
d. Melting snow and ice add greatly to supply of water in the areas
780.
The country that is affected by the winds that bring cold weather from
the south pole is
a. United states
b. Malaysia
c. Japan
d. Australia
781.
Stormy sounds and lights take place nearly
a. 44,000 times a day around the world
b. 79,000 times the world
c. 10,000 times around the sun
d. 16,000 times around the world
782.
The ocean currents that starts from the gulf of mexico, runs up the
eastern coast of the united states, then Europe
a. Black current
b. Polar current
c. Labrador current
d. Gulf stream
783.
If you go swimming in the morning, the water often feels cold because
a. The water absorbs the heat from the sun rays much more slowly than
does the land does
b. The air around you is heated by the warm land
c. The water returns heat from the atmosphere at a slower rate than does
the land
d. The climate near an ocean current depends on wether the current is cold
or warm
784.
Asias special climate pattern is known as
a. Leeward
b. Windward
c. Prevailing wind
d. Monsoons
785.
Drought is a constant threat to farmer in India when

a. The wet monsoons bring much more wind than rain

b. The air over the ocean has become warmer
c. A cold, dry wind from Asia spring up in the northeast
d. The dry, hot days seen endless and unbearable
786.
Parts of the world that do not receive the moderating effects of the
climate are
a. The island and coastal areas
b. Those located far away from the ocean
c. The interiors of continent
d. Places with low latitudes
787.
The pattern of changes in temperature and moisture conditions over a
period of year
a. Weather
b. Climate
c. Latitude
d. Winds
788.
The warm winds that blow over the ocean are full of water vapor
because
a. Moist air cools as it rises
b. It usually in between the ocean and the mountains
c. Warm air absorbs moisture
d. Water heats up and cool off readily
789.
Cordillera Merida is a mountain range in
a. The Philippines
b. Peru
c. Bolivia
d. Venezuela
790.
Creek is to river as pond is to
a. Field
b. Lock
c. Shore
d. Cups
791.
Corinth is a
a. Mountain
b. River
c. City
d. Town
792.
Landslide is to rock as avalanche is to
a. Rain
b. Stone
c. Mountain
d. Snow
793.
High is to low as mountain is to
a. Steppe
b. Peak
c. Glen
d. River
794.
Hole is to shovel as firth is to
a. Glacier
b. Rakes

795.

796.
a.
b.
c.
d.
797.
a.
b.
c.
d.
798.

c. Water
d. Stone
Sandal is to shoe as foehn is to
a. Strap
b. Shades
c. Tree
d. fuel
Lignite is to coal as oak is to
Black
Shades
Tree
Fuel
Bonn is the capital city of
Austria
Hungary
Yugoslavia
West germany
SOCIETY AND CULTURE

799.
In the concept of group, the primary group is characterized by
a. Personal, formal or business-like relationship
b. Intimate, face to face personal relationship
c. The group where the individual identities himself and is given a sense of
belongingness
d. The group where the members are of the same and age socio-economic
status
800.
A reference group is typified as the group
a. To which the individual identifies himself consciously or unconsciously
b. That caters to people with the same interest
c. Where members join together due to common decisions or needs
d. That is composed of persons with the same interest or line of thinking
801.
Social stratification is the system or process of assigning men their
respective ranks in a society based on
a. One social stratum to another horizontally, vertically or laterally
b. The acquired social and cultural heritage of his society
c. The income, wealth, education, occupation and lifestyle
d. The individual learning about his social position in the society
802.
Members of human groups act toward and react to one another simply
according to
a. Whims and circumstances of the moment
b. The employed single organizing principles
c. Common interest and voluntary associations
d. A set of multi individual expectations that influence and control each
persons attitude
803.
Eligibility for membership in a kin-based social unit is determined by
a. Sociological rules
b. Biological relationship
c. Political and jural arrangements
d. Mutual interests

804.
Greeting behavior in a variety of social contexts could be observed
through
a. Two persons merely shaking hands
b. The way the greeting behavior serves as an indicator of social standing
c. Through the manner of shaking hands, how touching and vigorous the
handshake was
d. Inferring and abstracting a set of cultural traits relating to greeting
805.
806.
This is recognized as a social sorter in all societies
a. Language
b. Sex
c. Age
d. Kinship
807.
It is the important basis for social unit formation in the societies of the
world
a. Mutual interest
b. Kinship
c. Coresidence
d. Age
808.
It is the vertical classification of people into hierarchically arranged
categories
a. Role
b. Stratification
c. Kin-based social units
d. Territorially based unit
809.
When kamejiros mother advised that the best possible marriage would
be to a girl from his own village, to what social unit does the mother refer?
a. Kin based social unit
b. Age based social unit
c. Territorially based units
d. Mutual interest based unit
810.
811.
812.
813.
814.
815.
816.
817.
818.
819.
820.
821.
822.

823.
824.
825.
826.
827.
828.
829. A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER
830. PROFESSIONAL EDUCATION
831.

ANTROPOLOGICAL FOUNDATION

832.
The adoption of scientific techniques to control and manipulate
environment such as modern methods for farming and fishing is called
a. Social change
b. Technological change
c. Cultural change
d. Discovery change
833.
Heavily sanctioned folkway which no one dares to question because
they embody moral laws are called
a. Beliefs
b. Customs
c. Mores
d. Tradition
834.
What is the inevitable force in history which takes place from time to
time?
a. Change
b. Development
c. Progress
d. Evolution
835.
When an individual or a group adapts the culture of others, practice
them and becomes habitual, this is
a. Status
b. Organization
c. Agency
d. Institution
836.
The proper sequencing of grade levels according to chronological ages
of learns is called
a. Status
b. Organization
c. Agency
d. Institution
837.
Divorce is legal in the United States but is not acceptable in the
Philippines. What does it show?

a. Cultural is illegal
b. Culture is uniform
c. Culture is relative
d. Culture is phenomenon
838.
A school which operates not only to cater to her students but for all the
people where it is located can be called a
a. Public school
b. Private school
c. Societal school
d. Community school
839.
Which of the following culture is difficult to change?
a. Mode of dressing
b. Political affiliation
c. Group values and attitude
d. Social clubs and organization
840.
The Filipino like pasta and pizza pie , foods that come from the west.
What characteristic of the culture is shown?
a. Culture is gratifying
b. Culture is symbolic
c. Culture is universal
d. Culture is borrowed
841.
Which is not a role of the school?
a. Agent of cultural transmission
b. Agent of cultural modernization
c. Agent of assigning status
d. Agent of cultural change
842.
How can a teacher act as an agent of cultural transmission and
socialization?
a. Transmit culture through good lesson planning
b. Transmit cultural through lecture
c. Transmit cultural through singing of Filipino songs
d. Transmit culture through story telling involving Filipino values
843.
Which shows effective acculturation?
a. Paolo learning about Taiwan by watching TV
b. Mia learning about Taiwan through reading
c. Kenken learning about Taiwan through internet
d. Justin learning about Taiwan by living three
844.
Man has no wings like birds, but discovered the airplane to experience
how it is way up there; made the submarine to make him stay in water for a
long time like fish. What does it say about culture?
a. Symbolic
b. Adaptive
c. Organized
d. Borrowed
845.
The school can do the function of the home peer, church and
community. What can you say about the school as an institution?
a. School has a multi faceted roles
b. School can improve moral values
c. School services students at various ages

d. School functions not only for instruction

846.
What two reason make it vey difficult for a teacher to effect change to
his ward?
a. Children carry with them different vales learned at home
b. Parents are reluctant towards changes made by the school
c. Children are afraid of their parents to adapt changes
d. Poor motivation to make the children change
847.
Ideally motivation to make survey of the community more often to :
a. Produce quality graduates for the community
b. Produce needed manpower to match the demands of the community
c. Establish harmonious rapport between the school and the community
d. Help the community move forward successfully
848.
Which of the following situations illustrates social change?
a. A farmer using modern tools to produce better crops
b. An agricultural barangay built a big dike for irrigation system
c. Students using cellphone instead of the land line communication
d. Kissing and hugging the old folks instead of kissing their lands
849.
How can a Teacher Training Institutions (TTI) be assured of quality
teacher graduates?
a. Accept secondary graduates from privates schools only
b. Provides scholarship to Tels students
c. Adapt effective selection, admission, and retention policies
d. Accept students with genuine attitude towards teaching
850.
The main difference between our social stratification from the caste
system of India is
a. Assigned classification cannot be changed anymore
b. A people can move from one step to another
c. A person in the lowest class will stay there forever
d. There is no way of going up and down the ladder
851.
Which of the following examples of culture is non-material?
a. House and lot
b. Furniture and tools
c. Dreams and aspirations
d. Pieces and jewelry
852.
Teacher Fe, an Araling Panlipunan teacher holds the sociological view
of education as social reconstructionism. Which of the following situations
supports this theory?
a. Indoctrinate students with cultural traditions
b. Memorize the best cultural practices
c. Conduct group activities involving costumes
d. Prepare activities for social life and adjustment
853.
All except one support the statement education for social values ,
which is the one?
a. Responding to societal needs
b. Teaches how to go along with others
c. Improves economic condition
d. Deals with community living
854.
Just like the school, home also helps facilitate change. Which of these
statements believes in education as an agent of change?

a. Teacher teaches all the customs and traditions done at home

b. Teachers tell her student to stop practicing some customs
c. Teachers seeks parents help to effect changes
d. Teacher tells students to change the not-so good traditions
855.
In modern classroom, the teacher use video viewing computer,
overhead/opaque projectors. What development is illustrated?
a. Social change
b. Material change
c. Technological change
d. Cultural change
856.
Almost everyday, changes take place in all sectors of society. What
characteristic of culture is being manifested?
a. Relative
b. Adaptive
c. Dynamic
d. Universal
857.
Which is the most accepted definition of sociology?
a. Science of man his achievement
b. Science of human behavior
c. Science of man and society
d. Science of man, development and works
858.
Which curriculum views education as an agent of modernization?
a. Future-oriented
b. Past oriented
c. Classical oriented
d. Traditional oriented
859.
Which does not refer to anthropology?
a. Science of mans nature
b. Study of mans characteristics
c. Science of man and his group
d. Study of man and his achievement
860.
Which does not refer to the culture?
a. The shared product of human learning
b. A social heritage, transmitted to another
c. The sum of total of the skills, beliefs and knowledge
d. The capacity to do work
861.
The agency which gives early lesson on values is the:
a. Home
b. School
c. Group
d. Society
862.
The proper sequencing of grade levels according to the chronological
age of students is
a. Status
b. Pedagogy
c. Agency
d. Organization
863.
What is sure to happen when society adapts modernization abruptly?
a. There is progress and joy
b. There is peace and order

c. There is chaos and confusion

d. There is better understanding
864.
When does culture log take place?
a. When society cannot cope with the changes
b. When there is abrupt change
c. When the change is not acceptable to the people of the society
d. When society refuses to changes
865.
The process of handling down of culture from one who knows to
somebody who does not know is called.
a. Indoctrination
b. Acculturation
c. Enculturation
d. Culturation
866.
A social institutions which linked to a little community is the:
a. Family
b. School
c. Society
d. Church
867.
Which function of the family can be duplicated by other institutions/
a. Perpetuation of species
b. Teaching values
c. Formation of character
d. Learning to read and write
868.
Knowledge about the latest development in technology and science
can be acquired in the school through well planned activities, which is learned
through
a. Acculturation
b. Enculturation
c. Socialization
d. Indoctrination
869.
The secondary school provides varied activities which call for students
interaction and cooperation. Most of these concern clubs and organizations.
What process is being undertaken?
a. Enculturation
b. Acculturation
c. Socialization
d. Modernization
870.
In the school teachers and discuss lessons concerning community life.
What is shown by this practice about the school?
a. School as a problem solver
b. School as a miniature community
c. School as a person social institutions
d. School as a part and parcel of the community
871.
Two of the most accepted problems why the school cannot implement
programs for social reconstruction are:
a. Poor teacher graduates
b. Difficulty in hiring competent teachers
c. In adequate school facilities
d. Many students come from poor families

872.
Manny Pacquiao became a legend in the boxing world of his ability,
determination and hard work. What role does this illustrates?
a. Achieved role
b. Ascribed role
c. Hereditary role
d. Temporary role
873.
Pinning veil around the bribe and the groom/exchange of rings, and
releasing of doves, during the wedding ceremony shows that culture is
a. Symbolic
b. Continuous
c. Historical
d. Borrowed
874.
Aling fely taught her daughter how to prepare delicious deserts from
pineapple and coconut. What cultural transmission process is this?
a. Observation
b. Acculturation
c. Enculturation
d. Indoctrination
875.
Teacher Ziggy was teaching something on values, folkways, customs,
and mores, beliefs in his social studies class. What was his lesson about?
a. Material culture
b. Non-material culture
c. Tangible culture
d. Heredity culture
876.
It was the first day of school. Teacher Jane prepared activities which
will make her grade V children sing, play, talk, learn and introduce
themselves to the class. What process did the teacher emphasize?
a. Enculturation
b. Socialization
c. Indoctrination
d. Acculturation
877.
Leanne, an accountant who now lives with a married man was
disowned by her family and friends. This punishment is a from of
a. Isolation
b. Deportation
c. Octracism
d. Character assassination
878.
When a certain culture is acceptable to one group and questionable
to others, it shows that
a. Culture is borrowed
b. Culture is shared product
c. Culture is varied
d. Culture is relative
879.
The teaching and learning of religion and values mostly make use of
a. Enculturation
b. Indoctrination
c. Culturation
d. Acculturation

880.
An organized and systematized manner of teaching where experience
are controlled the teacher is termed as
a. Instructing
b. Education
c. Schooling
d. Motivation
881.
A social agency that make a child learn to value himself and
eventually others is
a. Home
b. School
c. Group
d. Society
882.
You have some foreign visitors who will stay for a time your community.
What two actions will you take manage conflicting situations and at the same
time bring about values that enhance your sense of nationhood?
a. Try hard speak the way they do for better understanding
b. Bring them to places your community is well known for
c. Serve them the same food that they eat inn their country
d. Show them desirable Filipinos traits
883.
Man is educable because of the following except one. Which should be
excluded?
a. Superior brain structure
b. Five sense organs
c. Free hands
d. Flawless skin
884.
The introduction of more modern techniques to make work lighter and
faster is called
a. Social change
b. Cultural change
c. Technological change
d. Environmental change
885.
Another name for customs and practices is:
a. Values
b. Folkways
c. Attitudes
d. Habits
886.
An inevitable force in history which takes place from time to time is
a. Current event
b. Change
c. Progress
d. Evolution
887.
888.
889.
890.

891.

PHISOLOPHICAL FOUNDATION

892.
Which does not refer to philosophy?
a. A general theory of education
b. A study of human behavior
c. An usually stubborn attempt to think clearly
d. A doctrine of values, meaning and purposes of human life
893.
Which philosophy is the basis for the development of essential skills
like reading, writing and arithmetic?
a. Idealism
b. Essentialism
c. Progressivism
d. Existentialist
894.
All schools of thought below are considered traditional or old. Which is
not?
a. Contemporary
b. Classical
c. Conservative
d. Conventional
895.
Which is not a philosophy from the east?
a. Buddhism
b. Shintoism
c. Christianism
d. Confucianism
896.
The proponents of idealism are:
a. Aristotle and Milton
b. Adler and hutchins
c. Plato and Erasmus
d. James and Dewey
897.
Who is not a Perennialist?
a. St. Thomas Aquinas
b. Mortimer Adler
c. Robert Hutchins
d. Francis bacon
898.
An area of philosophy which recognizes the significance of education.
a. Logic
b. Epistemology
c. Axiology
d. Metaphysics
899.
Ms. Lalunio, an English teacher discussed an appreciation lesson about
Mayon volcano.
a. Logic
b. Metaphysics
c. Aesthetics
d. Moral
900.
Teacher Mari Toni always asks her students to memorize and recite
poems and speeches they have studied in her literature class. What kind of
teacher is she?
a. Idealist

b. Realist
c. Pragmatist
d. Naturalist
901.
Which of the following beliefs is very realistic?
a. Reality in spirit
b. Knowledge is derived from sense experience
c. Values are eternal
d. Goodness is to be found in oneself
902.
The environment of education should be life itself, where the learners
experience living, not to prepare for it. Which philosophy is shown in this
belief?
a. Idealism
b. Progressivism
c. Pragmatism
d. Realism
903.
Which oriental philosophy teaches about the golden rule?
a. Buddhism
b. Taosim
c. Confucianism
d. Shintoismx
904.
Which school of thought strengthens the belief that the means and
ends of education must be completely refashioned to meet the demands of
the present cultural crisis. This is the theory of :
a. Existentialism
b. Perrenialism
c. Progressivism
d. Reconstructionism
905.
The methods and learning activities employed by a teacher which call
for testing or verifying hypotheses is:
a. Inductive
b. Experimental
c. Deductive
d. Dialectic
906.
That philosophy which stresses that knowledge is the result of
successful scientific inquiry is
a. Idealism
b. Realism
c. Pragmatism
d. Perennialism
907.
When a teacher always consult the students whenever decisions have
to be made, like number in a school program; class costume for the intrams,
etc. he /she is
a. An essentialist
b. A progressivist
c. An existentialist
d. A reconstructionist
908.
Ms. Apostol uses lecture, method whenever she has to tackle long
lessons in history. This logic behind this practice is:
a. Idealism

b. Realism
c. Naturalism
d. Experimentalism
909.
Mrs. Karen Kim asks her fourth year high school son. What course he
would like to take. She is in a little way applying
a. Perrenialism
b. Essentialism
c. Progressivisim
d. Existentialism
910.
The manner of teaching from a theory or principle to specific examples
and true to life situation is called:
a. Deductive
b. Inductive
c. Problem solving
d. Experimentation
911.
It is considered as the oldest form of systematic, scholarly inquiry is:
a. Psychology
b. Sociology
c. Philosophy
d. Theology
912.
The belief which emphasizes that human beings are capable of
improving and perfecting their environment belongs to:
a. Perennialism
b. Progressivism
c. Reconstructionism
d. Essentialism
913.
Which of the following statements expresses perrenialism?
a. Anything consistent with nature is valuable
b. Act of knowledge takes lace in the mind
c. Experiencing determines knowledge
d. Goodness is to be found in rationality itself
914.
Which oriental teaching is behind this statement, one who have not
followed the will of Allah, will suffer in fire and heat?
a. Shintoism
b. Buddhism
c. Hinduism
d. Islam
915.
The curriculum which makes the school adopt approaches that seek a
variety of methods to make education more responsive to human/ social
needs is based on the ideas of:
a. Social reconstructionism
b. Japanese Philosophy
c. Muslim Scripture
d. Social Realism
916.
Increasing the time for basic subjects to facilitate culturation of basic
literacy by providing basic and needed essential skills is anchored on the
philosophy:
a. Reconstructionism
b. Perrenialism

c. Essentialism
d. Progressivism
917.
Involving students in extention activities such as community projects
makes them aware of the peoples needs and problems, suggest ways to
make them if not totally solve them is identified with:
a. Social realism
b. Social reconstructionism
c. Social philosophy
d. Social responsibility
918.
The rationale of student performance as contained on DECS order no.
70,s. 1998 is explained by the principle of personhood or structure of the self
which is under the philosophy of
a. Idealism
b. Pragmatism
c. Essentialism
d. Existentialism
919.
A systematic analysis of the question of ultimate reality is one of the
school of thoughts area called______
a. Logic
b. Axcology
c. Metaphysics
d. Epistemology
920.
It refers to traditional or back to the basics approach to education:
a. Essentialism
b. Progressivism
c. Realism
d. Experimentalism
921.
A great German philosopher and a strong moralist.
a. Johann Heinrich Pestalozzi
b. Johann Fredrick Herbart
c. Jean Jacques Rousseau
d. John Locke
922.
923.
a.
b.
c.
d.
924.
a.
b.
c.
d.
925.
a.
b.
c.
d.

HISTOTICAL FOUNDATION
The educational system which emphasized social etiquette is:
Guild education
Saracenic education
Monastic education
Chilvalric education
Who was the founder of the society of Jesuits?
Martin Luther
Ignatius Loyola
Thomas Acquinas
John Batise de la Salle
Who believed that human being is the creator of his own experience?
Essentialists
Idealist
Existentialist
Naturalists

926.
Which method of teaching made people learn what to think rather
learn how to think?
a. Indoctrination
b. Conscious imitation
c. Unconscious imitation
d. Trial and error method
927.
The beginning of modern education is attributed to __________ period :
a. Ancient
b. Medieval
c. Renaissance
d. Primitive
928.
The 3 modern principles of teaching; growth, activity, and
individualization were introduced by:
a. Johann Pestalozzi
b. Jean Jacques Rouseau
c. Jonathan Herbart
d. John Locke
929.
Which of the following laws is not Thorndikes?
a. Law of exercise
b. Law of effect
c. Law of readiness
d. Law of development
930.
The sequencing of grade levels according to chronological ages is
called:
a. Interaction
b. Organization
c. Socialization
d. Acceleration
931.
Which of the following will be less useful for students to adjust to
demands of the real world in which they live?
a. Systematic problem solving
b. Processing information gathered to suit ones needs
c. Repetition and memorization of information learned
d. Objective decision making faced with several alternatives
932.
The process of passing knowledge from one who knows to somebody
who does not know is:
a. Indoctrination
b. Enculturation
c. Culturation
d. Acculturation
933.
The teaching of basic competencies such as language, arithmetic,
social studies , and the sciences , that are important to facilitate acquisition
more knowledge is:
a. Idealism
b. Existentialism
c. Essentialism
d. Progressivism
934.
A type of education which aims to develop individual for maximum
usefulness in the state is :

a. Humanism
b. Realism
c. Utilitarianism
d. Individualism
935.
Which of the following blatantly violates the theory of essentialism/
a. Developing mastery of a subject matter
b. Starting a lesson from low level to high
c. A teacher centered strategy
d. Starting a lesson from difficult lesson to easy one
936.
Although medieval education was religious , it also utilized :
a. Proper exercises
b. Severe punishment
c. Moderate motivation
d. Excessive repetition
937.
There are so many clubs and organizations available to our secondary
students to develop their interaction skills particularly character. These are
aligned with :
a. Aesthetic
b. Axiology
c. Logic
d. Metaphysics
938.
Which is the main instrument of the state for the achievement of its
educational goal?
a. Formal education
b. Non formal education
c. Elementary education
d. Higher education
939.
Which is the most recent concept of education that concerns the whole
world?
a. Community immersion
b. Information technology
c. Values education
d. Global education
940.
The indoctrination of the Filipinos to accept the catholic religion to
foster in God is rooted on the philosophy of:
a. Realism
b. Idealism
c. Pragmatism
d. Existentialism
941.
Progressivism strengthens the goal of personal development to
promote social awareness. Which subject in our curriculum is more oriented
to the realization of this educational goal?
a. Kasaysayan
b. Sibika at kultura
c. GMRC/EKAWP
d. Edukasyong pangkalusugan
942.
According to the constitution the teaching of religion in the public
schools can be done if:
a. There is no additional expense from the parents

b. Parents have written permit for their children to attend

c. The children expresses desire to attend
d. The period for religion become a part of the curriculum
943.
944.
945.
946.
947.
948.

THE PHILIPPINE EDUCATIONAL SYSTEM

949.
What was the characteristic of Philippine education during the America
regime?
a. Emphasis on agriculture
b. Embodiment of democratic ideals
c. Enforcement of public education
d. Influenced by the Christian faith
950.
Which was stressed in the curriculum during the Japanese occupation?
a. Military training
b. Performing arts
c. Vocational training
d. Classroom guidance
951.
What was the purpose of Monroe survey?
a. To survey unschooled population
b. To evaluate the educational system
c. To investigate the efficiency of the textbook board
d. To determine the irregularities committed by the school officials
952.
Religious rituals in the classroom and in the school programs prove the
deep natural religiosity of the Filipinos. Which eastern philosophy has greatly
contributed to his tradition?
a. Greek education
b. Roman education
c. Buddhism
d. Confucianism
953.
This contemporary Filipino educator as a former secretary Education
was instrumental to the development of a conceptual framework that serves
as basis for the offering of values education in the Philippine schools a year
the EDSA People Power Revolution. Who is she?
a. Dr. Liceria B. Soriano
b. Dr. Geronima Pecson
c. Dr. Helena Benitez
d. Dr. Lourdes Quisumbing
954.
Which subjects in the current curriculum would greatly facilitate the
goal of education as a scientifically determined process?
a. Values education

b. Technology and home economics

c. Hekasi
d. Mathematics and Science
955.
That educational philosophy where both the teachers and his/her
students plot the course of action to solve a given social problem is;
a. Essentialism
b. Realism
c. Existentialism
d. Reconstructionism
956.
Which subject in the Philippine schools is most likely to achieve the
objectives of nationalistic education?
a. Makabayan
b. Vocational education
c. Utilitarian education
d. Humanistic education
957.
Ms. Caravan conducted lessons on environment and how to save it.
What values is she trying to imbibe?
a. Social sense
b. Spiritual sense
c. Political sense
d. Ecological sense
958.
Which instructional objectives will be developed by lesson in Christian
living and values education?
a. Inculcate patriotism and nationalism
b. Foster love of humanity
c. Appreciate the roles of national heroes
d. Strengthen ethical and moral values
959.
Which is an operational definition of bilingual education?
a. Use of vernacular as medium of instructional in definite subject areas
b. Use of Filipino as medium of instruction in grade I and English from Grade
II upward
c. Separate use of Filipino and English of instruction in definite subject area
d. Use of English as auxiliary medium in the intermediate grades and in high
school
960.
Character building activities in the daily program of the NESC focus on
a. Health, moral and spiritual values
b. Free religious instruction
c. Basic work skills
d. Relationship of man and government
961.
The new society initiated changes in the Philippine educational system.
Which of the following caused these changes?
a. Redirection of the objectives of education
b. Return to the basis
c. Inclusion of values education
d. Elimination of grade VII
962.
The Spaniards taught the Filipino about religion and other subject areas
except
a. Music
b. Government

c. Language
d. Humanistic
963.
Which of the following notable achievements of our former President
Manuel L. Quezon truly reflected his strong sense of nationalism?
a. He advanced the idea of offering vocational education in the public school
system
b. He suggested for the development and propagation of national language
c. He worked for the development and propagation of national language to
unify the Filipino people
d. He initiated actions towards the inclusion of the Philippines for
membership to the united nation organization
964.
Education should place greater emphasis on the development of
agriculture and other forms of vocational skills. He believed that this form of
education help to discipline their minds, heart and character through their
muscles. Who is being referred to here?
a. Rafael Palma
b. Salvador Escudero
c. Pedro T. Orata
d. Francisco Benitez
965.
The examination which replaced the NCEE?
a. Improved Entrance Examination Program
b. National Secondary Assessment Test
c. New Secondary examination
d. Unified Testing Program
966.
Which of the following is a value thrust of the new Elementary
education?
a. Development of a sense of nationhood
b. Social concerns and services to others
c. Preservation of democratic values
d. Pursuit of higher moral values
967.
How could a teacher help achieve the goals of global education ?
a. Read global education brochures
b. Help establish training centers for global concerns
c. Keep students well informed of the problems of the world society
d. Organizing student rallies for global education
968.
The purposes of our present education can be honestly said that
a. There is good curriculum but lacks competent
b. Objectives set fro education have been idealistic
c. There is a discrepancy between home and school lessons
d. There is a positive direction toward actual national, personal-socio-civic
moral development
969.

FACILITATING LEARNING

970.
Which of the following best characteristics the term learning?
a. A process of acquiring knowledge
b. A change in behavior or a capacity to change behavior which may be
relatively permanent in nature
c. Occurs through relevant experiences

d. Occurs through the efforts exerted by the learner

971.
What process involves the storing/ preserving and retrieving of
learning accurately when a need for such arises?
a. Teaching
b. Transfer
c. Learning
d. Retention
972.
What theory involves THINGKING ABOUT THINKING ?
a. Metacognitive
b. Constructivist
c. Discovery
d. Behaviorist
973.
The idea that childrens knowledge, ideas, attitudes , and values
develop through interaction with others is emphasized in one theory of
cognitive development. Whose view is this?
a. Piaget
b. Vygotskys
c. Bruners
d. Ausubels
974.
That learning is simply a stimulus response phenomenon is the focal
point of the
a. Social learning theory
b. Cognitive learning theory
c. Affective learning theory
d. Behaviorist leaning theory
975.
This cognitive learning theory emphasizes the need for students to be
given opportunities to find the relationship among concepts or search for
solutions to a problem on their own. What theory is this?
a. Meaningful
b. Discovery
c. Information processing
d. Cumulative
976.
What learning process involves the application of previously acquired
learning to the different situations?
a. Motivation
b. Retention
c. Conditioning
d. Transfer
977.
Which type of cognitive learning refers to combining two or more facts
to form a generalized idea?
a. Concept
b. Knowledge
c. Information
d. Generalization
978.
879- 882. What type of learning is referred to? Choose answers from
these options for items 879- 882.
a. Cognitive

b. Psychomotor
c. Affective
d. Creativity
979.
980.
This type of learning includes attitudes, preferences, taste, and values
that influence persons predispositions.
981.
This type of learning involves consistent power and proficiency in
performing certain actions/tasks.
982.
This type of learning is often associated with the ability of an individual
to create response that is neither ordinary nor common but nevertheless
appropriate.
983.
This type of learning always involves mental processes and structures
and the reorganization of such to be able to understand the environment.
984.
The following EXCEPT ONE, are important consideration for learners to
be motivated to learn. Which is the exception?
a. If the learners are ready
b. If the goals are clear
c. If the learnings are beyond their ability levels
d. If they are given regular, positive reinforcement
985.
Which one DOES NOT directly affect retention of learning?
a. Students learning style
b. Sense and meaning
c. Practice provided
d. Learners physical characteristics
986.
885- 888. What theory of motivation is referred to? Choose from these
alternatives for items 885-888.
a. Need gratification
b. Self efficacy
c. Instinct
d. Cognitive
987.
This theory posits that learners are expectedly to learn if they believe
in their ability to do most actions needed for a successful performance.
988.
The drive to learn is already built into the individual on account of
heredity
989.
Mans curiosity and intentions direct him to action.
990.
An individual is moved to action to satisfy his deficiency needs
991.
Psychomotor learning involves the following phases, EXCEPT ONE.
Which one is this?
a. Observing
b. Understanding
c. Organizing
d. Perfecting
992.
The following are ways by which activities may be learned. One of
these not be included. Which one is this?
a. Conditioning
b. Personal intention
c. Observing/ imitating

d. Performance
993.

PRINCIPLES AND STRATEGIES OF TEACHING

994.
One strategy used for the indirect approach involves systematically
generating concepts through an analysis of some data earlier gathered. What
strategy is this?
a. Discussion
b. Deduction
c. Discovery
d. Lecture
995.
In the discovery mode of teaching, the learners go through the
following activities EXCEPT ONE. Which activity is the exception?
a. Observation
b. Generalization formulation
c. Comparison and abstraction
d. Rote of memorization
996.
Part of the instructional events in expository teaching are enumerated
below, EXCEPT ONE. Which of these is it?
a. Defining the nature of the activity for children to be clear about what they
are to do and why
b. Providing practice seat work and exercise
c. Asking many questions and obtaining response from all students
d. Providing explicit feedbacks and correction
997.
One strategy in discovery approach involves such activities as
providing the students with opportunities to use first hand exercise to learn
concepts, as the lesson progresses from observation to generalization. What
strategy is described?
a. Inquiry
b. Induction
c. Discussion
d. Lecture
998.
This indirect teaching strategy is much focused on student responses
since they provide a bases for judging the amount and level of learning.
Which of the following is this?
a. Lecture
b. Deduction
c. Induction
d. Discussion
999.
Which of the following instructional events exemplified the direct
teaching strategies?
a. Multiple points of views are encouraged
b. Active practice is expected
c. Clear and detailed instruction and explanation is provided
d. A short review of past lesson is made.
1000.
Study the following statements. Which one is true to the expository
approach?
a. Its focus is for pupils to develop concepts of their own.

b. It is based on the application of the scientific method of teaching

c. It is very structured; activities are controlled by the teacher
d. It encourages interaction among pupils
1001.
Which of the following may be considered the most acceptable
statement of difference between direct and indirect approach?
a. One is more appropriate than the other because of its brick pacing
b. Some people promote it as the better approach because it emphasizes
mastery learning
c. Other authorities regard it as more effective in acquiring basic skills and
knowledge
d. The emphasizes is on teaching decision-making
1002.
This teaching strategy enables students to learn how to learn and how
to problem solve. Which of the following is it?
a. Induction
b. Discussion
c. Lecture
d. Inquiry
1003.
Which strategy involves the acquisition of information more than its
application?
a. Deduction
b. Lecture
c. Induction
d. Discussion
1004.

CURRICULUM

1005.
A word which refers to the procedure involved in creating,
implementing and evaluating curriculum is
a. Curriculum organization
b. Curriculum process
c. Curriculum product
d. Curriculum products
1006.
Emily works on her assignment which was based on their past lesson
which level of curriculum is this?
a. Experimental curriculum
b. Instructional curriculum
c. Instructional curriculum
d. Societal curriculum
1007.
Which does not indicate values acquisition?
a. Interest
b. Application
c. Talent
d. Aversion
1008.
Which statement relates to learner centered curriculum?
a. Emphasis on teaching facts and knowledge
b. Habits and skills integrated in learning experiences
c. Teacher with full control
d. Low level cooperative interaction
1009.
Which is not true to experienced centered pattern of curriculum?

a. Activity based
b. Teacher controlled
c. Process oriented
d. Child centered
1010.
What do you think is the strongest stumbling block to progress in any
society?
a. Resources
b. Tradition
c. Poverty
d. Family changes
1011.
Which of the following definitions of curriculum is the perception of
administrative officials?
a. A statement of what school authorities, the state government , or some
social groups outside the classroom requires the teacher to teach
b. Its what Im to learn to please the teacher so I can move on
c. A catalog or compendium of the experiences of pupils shared under the
direction of the school
d. The curriculum represents what is taught, how it is taught and why it is
taught.
1012.
Who formulated the theory apperception?
a. John Dewey
b. Johann Pestalozzi
c. Jonathan Herbert
d. Jean Piaget
1013.
Which is considered as the mother of disciplines in which education
finds its rationale?
a. Psychological attributes
b. Sociological factors
c. Philosophical views
d. Cultural factors
1014.
Who is the proponent of cognitive Development theory
a. John Locke
b. Jean Jacques Rousseau
c. Jean Piaget
d. Fredrick Froebel
1015.
Which of the following subject areas will prepare learners to become
good citizens ?
a. Literature
b. Values education
c. Mathematics
d. Sciences
1016.
Who among those philosophers would pride themselves on their ability
to provide innovations in education?
a. Realist
b. Traditionalist
c. Idealist
d. Progressivists
1017.
learner should be involved and expected to develop their own
learning modes within a flexible curriculum is coming from:

a. A realist
b. A progressivist
c. An idealist
d. An essentialist
1018.
The ends of education are necessarily absolute so that the curriculum
that serves these ends can be flexible. This is a view from:
a. Essentialist
b. Existentialist
c. Reconstructionist
d. Perennialist
1019.
Before a student is allowed to enroll in a practicum course, he should
finish the basic professional courses first---this is..
a. Essentialist
b. Existentialist
c. Progressivism existentialist
d. Perennialist
1020.
Which foundation of education is concerned with analysis of human
relationship?
a. Psychological
b. Sociological
c. Philosophical
d. Cultural
1021.
Which is true about experience centered curriculum?
a. Its curriculum is fixed
b. Its content is predetermined
c. It emphasizes skills needed in the future
d. It is developed by reflective practitioners
1022.
A principles which believes that all learners do not equally well to the
same experience is
a. Motivation
b. Concept learning
c. Individual differences
d. Principles learning
1023.
When a child is asked to engage more on thinking and combining
two or more learned principles to create a new principle of higher order, he is
doing a
a. Concept learning
b. Problem solving
c. Multiple discrimination
d. Verbal association
1024.
The other name of pragmatism is
a. Existentialist
b. Experimentalism
c. Realism
d. Idealism
1025.
Who believes that group life should be a center of school experiences
in as much as groups are instrumental in achieving democracy?
a. Pragmatist
b. Realist

c. Existentialist
d. Reconstructionist
1026.
This school of thought prided themselves on listening to learners and
on questions, but not telling what to do. Because they teach students to
make their own choices.
a. Essentialism
b. Existentialism
c. Reconstructionism
d. Perennialism
1027.
Indicates the terminal or the biggest purposes is called
a. Goal
b. Objective
c. Target
d. Aim
1028.
The purpose of the lesson which should be realized at the end of the
learning episode is.
a. Goals
b. Objectives
c. Targets
d. Aims
1029.
Curriculum development is a
a. Start and stop development
b. Normal school activity
c. Non-stop activity
d. Professional activity
1030.
Assessment of curriculum whether it still serves the interest of the
student is an issue of
a. Validity
b. Diversity
c. Relevance
d. Change
1031.
Which statement best defines curriculum?
a. All experience take place inside the classroom
b. All experience that the school accepts responsibility
c. All experiences the student like to undertake
d. All experience inside and outside the school
1032.
Which of the following describes our modern conception of curriculum?
a. Curriculum is a course of study
b. Curriculum is a race experience
c. Curriculum is the source of instructional plans
d. Curriculum is the totality of all learning outcomes
1033.
When is a curriculum described as a document?
a. When legitimized by authorities
b. When it organizes all academic areas
c. When it is a study of a race experience
d. When it is a source of instructional plans
1034.
Which refers to the academic course of study?
a. Curriculum
b. Extra curricular
c. Co-curricular

d. Extra class activities

1035.
In curriculum as an instruction plan, which of the following is NOT true?
a. Plans before teaching
b. Outline of lesson to be taught
c. List of subjects studied permanently
d. List of learning activities
1036.
How do you know that the learners are well motivated?
a. When they have a strong desire to learn
b. When they desire for a reward
c. When they avoid punishement
d. When they follow the teachers order
1037.
Which principle applies best to learning of skills?
a. Repetitive practice
b. Passive participation
c. Extrinsic motivation
d. Transfer and retention
1038.
Which are learned more readily?
a. Easy materials
b. Simple materials
c. Nonsense materials
d. Meaningful materials
1039.
What is the effect of tradition on curriculum?
a. Introduces change in the curriculum
b. Prevents change in the curriculum
c. Modernizes curriculum
d. Alters the curriculum
1040.
Which of the following culture based trends will affect most facilities
and materials of instruction?
a. Participation of lay person
b. Effects of technology
c. Special needs of children
d. Accountability of the school
1041.
Which of the following emerging curriculum trends will require a
curriculum that focuses on pollution and depletion of natural resources?
a. Nuclear education
b. Aging education
c. Nutrition education
d. Environmental education
1042.
What should the curriculum include in the areas of technical literacy?
a. Enhanced writing
b. Faster reading rate
c. Numeracy skills
d. Computer know-how
1043.
Which is a characteristic of curriculum for life long learning?
a. Education is controlled by time
b. Education could study in and out of the school
c. Learning is strictly imposed by the curriculum
d. Individual is restricted by the teachers requirement
1044.
If you are an idealist teacher, which will be your educational aim?
a. Teach one how to do cross stitch

b. Develop the mind and self

c. Adjust to an ever changing world
d. Helps an individual to survive in the world
1045.

EDUCATIONAL TECHNOLOGY

1046.
For teaching, Mr. Yap chooses instructional materials that suit the
readiness and maturity levels of his students. Which factor in selecting
instrumental material does he consider?
a. Economy
b. Ease in handling
c. Durability
d. Appropriateness
1047.
The more common type of graphic materials used in dealing with
geographic location is the _____.
a. Map
b. Compass
c. Locator
d. Pictograph
1048.
Which is used as a better medium for overhead or video projector?
a. Cloth board
b. Magnetic board
c. Multipurpose board
d. Flip chart
1049.
For effectiveness, visual should be ____
a. Cluttered
b. Simple
c. Disorganized
d. Complex
1050.
Which refers to the Application of scientific knowledge in deigning,
developing, and evaluating instructional systems and educational hardware
devices?
a. Technology in education
b. Audio visual technology
c. Educational technology
d. Instructional development
1051.
Which instructional aid provides realistic images and gives precise
expression to verbal description?
a. Graphics
b. Maps
c. Pictures
d. Cartoons
1052.
All these are part of the print media, EXCEPT ONE. Which is this?
a. Textbooks
b. Charts
c. Manual
d. Encyclopedia
1053.
To what type of instructional media do compact disks belong?
a. Still picture

b. Sound recording
c. Video recording
d. Print
1054.
Which instructional media allows students to study almost anything at
convenient locations and with varying ability levels?
a. Video tapes
b. Film and television
c. Radio
d. Computer based learning
1055.
What alternative would you take, if because of financial problems, you
are not able to show to your class the behavior of animals in their natural
habit such as those in a zoo?
a. Describe animals behavior in their natural habitat during discussion
b. Show a videotaped behavior animal seen in a zoo
c. Show pictures of animals movements in their environment
d. Go to the zoo yourself and tell the class what you saw
1056.

ASSESSMENT AND EVALUATION OF LEARNING

1057.
What type of assessment will you use to find out weather or not your
students have learned the lesson on the different landforms?
a. Diagnostic
b. Summative
c. Formative
d. Placement
1058.
Which measure of central tendency did Miss Ortiz use when she added
all of her student scores in science 5 and divided them by the number of
students?
a. Mean
b. Median
c. Mode
d. None of the above
1059.
Which measure of variability is used when the formula followed in HSLS + 1, where HS= highest score and LS= lowest score?
a. Quartile deviation
b. Range
c. Standard deviation
d. Percentile
1060.
Mr. Magno gave his students a test to find out how well they could
demonstrate the newly- taught skills in laying basketball.
a. Cognitive
b. Intelligence
c. Affective
d. Psychomotor
1061.
What possible type of assessment could have been used by Mr.
Magno?
a. Paper and pencil test
b. Performance test
c. Assessment before instructor

d. Assessment during instruction

1062.
Which two statements best show the difference between the terms
assessment and evaluation?
a. While assessment involves organizing data gathered about the learners
performance, evaluation involves judging the same data.
b. Assessment and evaluation provide useful information about the quantity
of learning gained or of learners attributes.
c. Evaluation involves careful analysis of data; so does assessment.
d. Assessment provides inputs that evaluation uses for decision making
purposes; hence, assessment precedes evaluation.
1063.
Which two statements best show the difference between the terms
assessment and evaluation?
a. While assessment involves organizing data gathered about the learners
performance, evaluation involves judging the same data.
b. Assessment and evaluation provide useful information about the quantity
of learning gained or of learners attributes.
c. Evaluation involves careful analysis of data; so does assessment.
d. Assessment provides inputs that evaluation uses for decision making
purposes; hence, assessment precedes evaluation.
1064.
Which of the following statement about rubrics is NOT acceptable?
a. Rubrics as an assessment instrument are no different from a checklist or a
rating scale.
b. It may be holistic or analytic
c. It is made up of very specify criteria used in scoring different levels of
performance or attributes
d. None of the above
1065.
Which of two statements apply to standardized test?
a. They are constructed by classroom teacher
b. They may have as an example what used to be the called the national
elementary achievement test
c. Standardized test are administered using uniform procedures
d. They measure specific objectives
1066.
Which of two statements apply to standardized test?
a. They are constructed by classroom teacher
b. They may have as an example what used to be the called the national
elementary achievement test
c. Standardized test are administered using uniform procedures
d. They measure specific objectives
1067.
In constructing true or false test items in history, MRS. Garcia thought
she would have tricky statements, knowing her students were very bright.
Was she correct in this regard? Why?
a. Yes, because, being bright, the students would know which were tricky
anyway.
b. No because true or false items should be very long
c. No, because this will give undue difficulty on the students
d. Yes, because many students often take this type of test a guessing game.
1068.
To determine what reading task her grade 5 pupils can do within a
given time limit, Mr. Bautista gave this type of test. What test is this?

a. Verbal test
b. Power test
c. Affective test
d. Speed test
1069.
Ms. Clavel gave this type to her grade 4 geography pupils, keeping in
mind that she should limit the items to a maximum of 15 and keep the
answer short and logically ordered. What type of test is this?
a. Multiple choice
b. Matching items
c. Completion items
d. True false items
1070.
Mrs. Abad uses this method of grading that does not compare a
learners performance to that of others. What is this method called?
a. Criterion reference test
b. Norm reference test
c. Average grading
d. Relative grading
1071.
This measure of central tendency has 50 % of the score falling above
the midpoint of the distribution of scores and 50 % falling below it. Which
measure is this?
a. Mode
b. Mean
c. Median
d. Range
1072.
Given these scores (62, 42, 65, 56, 41, 38, 70, 70, 43, 68), the
computed median is______
a. 59
b. 62
c. 56
d. 52
1073.
Mr. Banzon often gives a math test in which very difficult items are
placed at the beginning believing that the students will fare better this way.
Do you agree with him? Why?
a. Yes, because students have clearer mind at the start of the test.
b. No, because the student may be discouraged and demotivated to
continue
c. Yes, because Mr. Banzon knows his students very well
d. No, because many students are poor in math
1074.
What is the correct sequence of this given steps in test construction?
1. Prepare a table of specification
2. Determine the purpose of the test
3. Specify the instructional objective
4. Determine the item format, number of test items, and
difficulty level of the test
a. 2,3,1,4
b. 1,4,2,3
c. 1,2,3,4
d. 3,1,4,2

1075.
Mr. Guillermo, the school guidance counselor, plans to give a test to all
grade 1 pupils to find out the class section each one should belong to. What
kind of that will she give?
a. Placement test
b. Diagnostic test
c. Formative test
d. Summative test
1076.
If Miss Ruiz decided to use an alternative method assessment, which of
the following will she NOT likely use?
a. Portfolios
b. Journal writing
c. Matching item
d. Oral reporting
1077.

SOCIAL DIMENNSION

1078.
Which social dimension concern defines an individuals existence and
protects him from harm and inequality?
a. Gender education
b. Cultural education
c. Human rights education
d. Education for sustainable development
1079.
Why is there a need for environmental education?
a. Technological advances pose dangers to the environment
b. An alteration in the chain of life system on earth threatens the survival
of all earths species
c. There is a strong need to promote care of environment
d. People are one with the environment
1080.
One of the dimension of gender education calls for boys and girls to be
exposed to similar instructional methods and materials and curriculum that
are free from gender biases. Which one is this?
a. Equality of access
b. Equality of learning process
c. Equality of educational outcomes
d. Equality of external result
1081.
Which of the following are two examples of economic rights?
a. Right to social security
b. Right to information
c. Right to an adequate standard of living
d. Right to prohibition of forced labor
1082.
Which of the following are two examples of economic rights?
a. Right to social security
b. Right to information
c. Right to an adequate standard of living
d. Right to prohibition of forced labor
1083.
You found that some of your pupils who belong to a minority tribe,
have very little sense of identity. What could you do to help them?
a. Acquaint them with the accomplishments of successful people who
share their ethnic background

b. Expect little from them so that you and they do not get frustrated
c. Group together those belonging to the same background in doing
classes work
d. Give more attention to majority of the class rather than the few with
different cultural background
1084.
Which of the following refers to the belief that ones own culture is
superior to the other cultures?
a. Multiculturalism
b. Multicultural education
c. Ethnicity
d. Ethnocentrism
1085.
What pillar of education implies learning to be human?
a. Learning to know
b. Learning to do
c. Learning to live together
d. Learning to be
1086.
Two of the following may well be reflective of the concept of universal
harm as a core value of education for sustainable development. Which are
these?
a. Gender education
b. Environmental education
c. Human rights education
d. Multicultural education
1087.
Two of the following may well be reflective of the concept of universal
harm as a core value of education for sustainable development. Which are
these?
a. Gender education
b. Environmental education
c. Human rights education
d. Multicultural education
1088.
1089.

DEVELOPMENTAL EDUCATION

1090.
Developmental reading instruction emphasizes the development of
______.
a. Wide vocabulary
b. Reading power
c. Rapid reading
d. Literally skills
1091.
This is stage in the reading process that involves the readers
construction of meaning from the printed words.
a. Integration
b. Recognition
c. Comprehension stage
d. Reaction stage
1092.
This is a reading model whose concern is to build letters into words and
words into sentences.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Bottom up model
Top down model
Interactive model
Scheme model
1093.
If a teacher provides varied activities for his/ her class, such as reading
stories to pupils, giving time for them to silently read what they want to or
lending them magazines and other appropriate reading materials, She/ He is
trying to provide them opportunities to gain _________.
a. Socio emotional development
b. Physical development
c. Interest in reading
d. Intellectual growth
1094.
Why reading is considered an active process?
a. Because it requires students to read a selection and enjoy it
b. Because the reader needs to use his/her previously-learned knowledge
and skills to understand the selection
c. Because it allows the readers to recognize the words in print and
pronounce them correctly
d. Because the readers are expected to be acquainted with the format,
length, and organization of the text content
1095.
A reading strategy that requires readers to check on their thoughts
while reading is referred to as ________.
a. Organizational strategy
b. Preparatory strategy
c. Metacognitive strategy
d. Elaboration strategy
1096.
The very first stage of reading skills is the_________
a. Beginning reading
b. Rapid growth and development
c. Abstract reading
d. Emergent literacy
1097.
One of the aims of the four pronged approach reading is the _______.
a. Development of genuine love for reading
b. Refinement in the use of reading tools
c. Identification of the general ideas of selection read
d. Promotion of extensive reading
1098.
One of the following does not affect reading comprehension in a big
way. Which is this/
a. Prior knowledge
b. Word pronunciation
c. Nature of printed materials
d. Individuals reading strategies
1099.
Which kind of reading requires more time and concentration?
a. Skimming
b. Scanning
c. Idea reading
d. Exploratory reading
1100.

RELEVANT LAWS FOR TEACHER AND STUDENTS

1101.

RA. No. 7784 provides for establishment of Centers of Excellence in

Elementary education
Secondary Education
Tertiary education
Teacher education
1102.
The other name for the Educational Act of 1982 is
a. Education Development act
b. Batas Pambansa Blg. 232
c. Special Education Act
d. Free Public Education Act
1103.
Which of the following is not covered by non- formal education?
a. Commercial education
b. Agricultural education
c. Special education
d. Industrial education
1104.
Which of the following democratizes access to education
a. Choose schools to enroll in
b. Freely choosing ones course to take
c. Enjoying state scholarship programs
d. Joining schools clubs and organization
1105.
Which program of the government gives access to basic education
even in the countryside?
a. Community immersion
b. Paaralang Pambayan
c. Paaralan Bawat Barangay
d. Global Education
a.
b.
c.
d.

1106.

TEACHING PROFESSION

1107.
Teacher Kevin has been teaching in a public school for 9 years. He
wanted to take a study but knows little about this. Which document will give
him the needed information?
a. Code of ethics for Teachers
b. Code of ethics for Public school teacher
c. Magna Carta for public school Teacher
d. Magna Carta for all teachers
1108.
Annual medical check up required of teachers is done in the interest
of;
a. Pupils
b. Parents
c. School administration
d. Teacher themselves
1109.
What maybe the effect to a teacher violating any of the provision of
the code of Ethics for professional Teachers?
a. Force retirement
b. Revocation of license to teach
c. Reduced monthly salary
d. immediate demotion

1110.
Mr. Cadiz is retiring next month. Which provision of Magna Carta would
be applicable to him?
a. Give him the highest teaching position
b. Give him one range salary increase
c. Give him free medical examination
d. Give him school assignment nearest his residence
1111.
Teacher Janice, a resident if Lipa, batangas, is already a qualified
teacher, and she wants to be assigned to her Barangay school. Which act is
granting appointment of teacher to bonafide resident of her municipality?
a. R.A. 8445- expanded government assistance
b. R.A. 7784- strengthening Government Education
c. R.A. 8190- teacher Assignment Priority
d. R.A. 8525- adopt A- School Program
1112.
1113.
1114.
1115.
1116.
1117.
1118.
1119.
1120.
1121.
1122.
1123.
1124.

1.
ANTROPO
LOGICAL /
SOCIOLOGICAL
FOUNDATIONS
1. B
2. C
3. A
4. B
5. B
6. C
7. D
8. C
9. D
10.C
11.A
12.D
13.B
14.A
15.A,D
16.B
17.D
18.C
19.B
20.C
21.D
22.B
23.D
24.C
25.C
26.C
27.A
28.C
29.D
30.A
31.D
2.
1125.
1126.
1127.
1128.
1129.
1130.
1131.

32.C
33.A
34.B
35.B
36.A
37.A
38.C
39.B
40.B,
C
41.A
42.A
43.C
44.B
45.B
46.C
47.D
48.B
49.C
50.B
51.B,
D
52.D
53.C
54.B
55.B
3.

4. PHILOSOP
HICAL
FOUNDATI
ON
1. B
2. B
3. A
4. C
5. C
6. D
7. B
8. C
9. A
10.B
11.B
12.C
13.D
14.B
15.B
16.C
17.A
18.D
19.A
20.C
21.C
22.D
23.D
24.A
25.C
26.B
27.D
28.C
29.A
30.B

5.
HIS
TORICAL
FOUNDAT
ION
6.
1.D
7.
2.B
8.
3.C
9.
4.A
10. 5.C
11. 6.B
12. 7.D
13. 8.B
14. 9.C
15. 10.
B
16. 11.
C
17. 12.
C
18. 13.
D
19. 14.
B
20. 15.
B
21. 16.
A
22. 17.
D
23. 18.
B
24. 19.
B
25. 20.
B
26.

1132.
1133.
1134.
1135.
1136.
1137.
1138.
1139.
1140.
1141.
1142.
1143.
1144.
1145.
1146.
1147.
1148.
1149.
1150.
1151.
1152.
1153.
1154.
1155.
1156.
1157.

1158.
1159.

27.

28.PHIL.
EDU
C.SY
STE
M
1. B
2. C
3. B
4. D
5. D
6. B
7. D
8. A
9. D
10.D
11.C
12.D
13.A
14.B
15.C
16.B
17.B
18.A
19.C
20.D
29.

35.

36.EDU
CATI
ONA
L
TEC
HNO
LOGY
1. D
2. A
3. C
4. B
5. C
6. C
7. B
8. B
9. A
10.B
37.

48.REL
EVA
NT
LAW
S
1. D
2. B

30.FACI
LITA
TIN
G
LEA
RNI
NG
1. B
2. D
3. A
4. B
5. D
6. B
7. D
8. A
9. C
10.B
11.D
12.A
13.C
14.D
15.B
16.C
17.D
18.A
19.B
20.D

31.PRI
NCI
PLE
S
AND
STR
ATE
GIE
S
OF
TEA
CHI
NG
1. C
2. D
3. C
4. A
5. C
6. C
7. C
8. B
9. D
10.B
11.A
12.B
13.C
14.B
15.D
16.B
17.B
18.B
19.A
20.C
40.
41.
42.
12.D
13.B
14.A
15.A
16.A
17.A
18.A
19.A
20.C
43.

38.ASS
ESS
MEN
T
AND
EVA
LUA
TIO
N
1. C
2. A
3. B
4. D
5. B
6. A
7. D
8. D
9. B
10.C
11.C
39.
50.TEACHING PROFESSION
1. C
2. D
3. B
4. B
5. C

32.CURR
ICUL
UM
DEVE
LOPM
ENT
1. B
2. B
3. C
4. B
5. B
6. B
7. A
8. C
9. A
10.C
11.B
12.D
13.B
14.C
15.A
16.B
17.D
18.C
19.A
20.B
21.D
22.B
23.A

33.
34.
24.B
25.C
26.C
27.B
28.D
29.A
30.A
31.C
32.D
33.D
34.D
35.B
36.B
37.D
38.A
39.A
40.B

44.SOCI
AL
DIME
NSIO
N
1. C
2. B
3. B
4. C
5. D
6. A
7. D
8. C
9. B
10.C
45.

46.DEVEL
OPMEN
TAL
READIN
G
1. B
2. C
3. A
4. C
5. B
6. C
7. D
8. A
9. B
10.D
47.

1161.
GRAMM
AR,
COR
REC
T
USA
GE
AND
VOC
ABU
LAR
Y
1. C
2. B
3. A
4. B
5. C
6. A
7. B
8. C
9. B
10.C
11.D
12.C
13.C
14.C
15.C
16.D
17.C
18.B
19.D
20.B
21.C
22.C
23.C
24.C
25.C
26.C
27.D
28.A
29.A
30.C
31.B
32.C
33.C
34.D
1212.

35.C
36.A
37.B
38.A
39.C
40.A
41.A
42.A
43.C
44.B
45.B
46.B
47.A
48.B
49.A
50.D
51.D
52.C
53.E
54.C
55.A
56.E
57.E
58.C
59.E
60.A
61.C
62.B
63.D
64.E
65.C
66.A
67.C
68.E
69.B
70.A
71.B
72.D

1213.

47.C

73.A
74.B
75.C
76.B
77.C
78.D
79.A
80.A
81.A
82.E
83.C
84.D
85.D
86.B
87.A
88.D
89.A
90.BEFFECT
91.Cwhome
ver
92.Bcounsel
93.A- OUR
94.DHEALTH
FUL
95.C
96.E
97.B
98.A
99.E
1162.

93.C

1163.
DING
1164.
1165.
B
1166.
C
1167.
B
1168.
B
1169.
B
1170.
B
1171.
A
1172.
C
1173.
A
1174.
B
1175.
B
1176.
D
1177.
A
1178.
B
1179.
C
1180.
C
1181.
C
1182.
B
1183.
D
1184.
C
1185.

1215.

REA

1186.
L
ITERAT
URE
1187.
1
20. B
1188.
1
21. A
1189.
1
22. C
1190.
1
23. C
1191.
1
24. B
1192.
1
25. D
1193.
1
26. D
1194.
1
27. D
1195.
1
28. C
1196.
1
29. C
1197.

100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.

1198.
IN
TRODUC
TION
1199.
T
O MASS
1200.
C
OMMUNI
CATION
1201.
1
30. B
1202.
1
31. D
1203.
1
32. B
1204.
1
33. C
1205.
1
34. C
1206.
1
35. A
1207.
1
36. D
1208.
1
37. B
1209.
1
38. C
1210.
1
39. C
1211.

113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.

47.B

94.B

BIOLOG
Y
1. A
2. C
3. B
4. D
5. D
6. B
7. D
8. B
9. C
10.C
11.C
12.A
13.D
14.D
15.C
16.B
17.B
18.D
19.A
20.A
21.D
22.B
23.D
24.B
25.C
26.B
27.C
28.B
29.C
30.B
31.C
32.A
33.D
34.C
35.C
36.A
37.A
38.D
39.C
40.B
41.A
42.D
43.B
44.D
45.B
46.B
1217.

48.A
49.C
50.C
51.A
52.C
53.B
54.B
55.B
56.A
57.A
58.D
59.B
60.C
61.B
62.B
63.A
64.D
65.A
66.D
67.A
68.D
69.C
70.B
71.B
72.B
73.B
74.B
75.A
76.A
77.A
78.C
79.B
80.A
81.C
82.B
83.E
84.C
85.F
86.A
87.D
88.B
89.A
90.B
91.B
92.A

94.A
95.C
96.A
97.C
98.D
99.A
100.
1214.

HEMIS
TRY
1. D
2. D
3. C
4. B
5. D
6. A
7. D
8. C
9. B
10.A
11.D
12.C
13.D
14.C
15.D
16.D
17.A
18.A
19.A
20.C
21.B
22.D
23.D
24.A
25.D
26.B
27.D
28.C
29.B
30.C
31.C
32.A
33.D
34.C
35.B
36.C
37.D
38.C
39.C
40.B
41.B
42.A
43.C
44.B
45.A
46.A

48.A
49.C
50.D
51.B
52.D
53.B
54.A
55.C
56.D
57.C
58.B
59.A
60.A
61.C
62.C
63.D
64.C
65.B
66.B
67.C
68.A
69.D
70.C
71.A
72.A
73.B
74.A
75.D
76.D
77.D
78.D
79.C
80.C
81.D
82.C
83.A
84.B
85.B
86.A
87.B
88.A
89.C
90.C
91.C
92.C
93.A

95.C
96.A
97.C
98.C
99.B
100.
1216.

1218.
1219.
1220.
1221.
1222.
1223.
1224.
1225.
1226.
1227.
1228.
1229.
1230.
1231.
1232.
1233.
1234.
1235.
1236.
1237.
1238.
1239.

1240.
O
VERVI
EW IN
SCIEN
CE
1. C
2. B
3. C
4. C
5. D
6. B
7. C
8. B
9. C
10.A
11.D
12.C
13.C
14.A
15.B
16.B
17.C
18.B
19.A
20.C
21.B
22.C
23.C
24.A
1241.

1245.
1246.

25.A
26.C
27.C
28.D
29.D
30.B
1242.
E
ARTH
SCIEC
NCE
31.D
32.C
33.A
34.B
35.D
36.C
37.A
38.B
39.D
40.B
41.C
42.C
43.A
44.A
45.D
46.B
47.C
48.A
49.C
50.D
51.A
52.C
53.A
54.D
55.C
56.A
57.A
58.C
59.B
60.D
61.C
62.A
63.B
64.D
65.D
66.C
67.B

68.B
69.A
70.D
71.C
72.C
73.A
74.D
75.B
76.B
77.A
78.D
79.C
80.D
81.D
82.A
83.A
84.D
85.A
86.C
87.A
88.A
89.A
90.D
91.C
92.B
93.D
94.B
95.D
96.D
97.A
98.B
99.A
1243.

100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.

B
C
A
D
D
B
A
C
B
A
B
D
B
A
A
C
A
A
A
B
C
A
D
B
B
D
C
B
A
C
C
A
D
A
A
A
D
A
A
C
B
D
C
A
C

145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.
151.
152.
153.
154.
155.
156.
157.
158.
159.
160.
161.
162.
163.
164.
165.
166.
167.
168.
169.
170.
171.
172.
173.
174.
175.
176.
177.
178.
179.
180.
181.
182.
183.
184.
185.
186.
187.
188.
189.

A
A
B
B
C
D
D
B
D
B
D
A
C
B
C
A
B
A
A
A
A
B
C
C
A
D
C
A
A
D
C
C
B
B
B
D
A
C
D
D
A
A
C
B
B

190.
191.
192.
193.
194.
195.
196.
197.
198.
199.
200.
1244.

B
B
B
C
A
D
A
B
A
D
B

1247.
1248.
PHYSIC
S
1. A
2. B
3. A
4. A
5. B
6. D
7. A
8. C
9. D
10.C
11.A
12.D
13.B
14.C
15.D
16.A
17.D
18.A
19.B
20.A
21.C
22.A
23.C
24.C
25.A
26.D
27.A
28.D
29.B
30.C
31.A
32.A
33.B
34.C
35.C
36.B
37.C
38.A
39.D
40.C
41.B
42.B
43.C
1250.

44.D
45.C
46.A
47.B
48.C
49.B
50.C
51.B
52.A
53.C
54.D
55.C
56.B
57.A
58.B
59.D
60.C
61.D
62.D
63.C
64.B
65.B
66.D
67.D
68.A
69.B
70.D
71.B
72.D
73.D
74.C
75.C
76.D
77.B
78.A
79.B
80.C
81.C
82.B
83.B
84.D
85.B
86.B
87.C

88.B
89.D
90.C
91.B
92.C
93.A
94.B
95.D
96.B
97.C
98.A
99.D
100.
1249.

1251.
Ec
onomics
1. D
2. B
3. D
4. A
5. A
6. C
7. C
8. D
9. A
10.C
11.A
12.A
13.B
14.C
15.B
16.D
17.C
18.B
19.D
20.D
21.B
22.D
23.D
24.D
25.B
26.B
27.A
28.B
29.B
30.A
31.A
32.B
33.A
34.C
35.D
36.B
37.B
38.C
39.D
40.A
41.A
42.B
43.D
44.C
45.A

46.A
47.D
48.B
49.B
50.D
51.A
52.C
53.C
54.C
55.B
56.A
57.B
58.B
59.A
60.A
61.C
62.C
63.C
64.C
65.B
66.B
67.B
68.C
69.D
70.A
71.B
72.A
73.C
74.B
75.A
76.B
77.D
78.A
79.D
80.A
81.D
82.C
83.A
84.C
85.B
86.A
87.C
88.C
89.C
90.A
91.A

92.D
93.D
94.A
95.B
96.A
97.D
98.B
99.A
100.

1252.
TA
XATION
1. A
2. D
3. B
4. C
5. B
6. B
7. C
8. A
9. A
10.B
11.B
12.A
13.D
14.A
15.B
16.C
17.D
18.D
19.B
20.A
1253.
P
HIL.HIST
ORY
1. A
2. D
3. B
4. C
5. B
6. C
7. C
8. D
9. B
10.A
11.A
12.C
13.B
14.D
15.A
16.C
17.B
18.B
19.D
20.D

1254. RIZAL
S LIFE AND
WRITINGS
1. D
2. B
3. A
4. C
5. D
6. D
7. B
8. D
9. A
10.B
11.C
12.B
13.C
14.D
15.A
16.B
17.C
18.D
19.D
20.A

1267.

1255. PHIL.
GOV. AND
CONSTITUTI
ON
1. B
2. D
3. C
4. A
5. B
6. B
7. B
8. B
9. C
10.A
11.B
12.B
13.D
14.C
15.B
16.A
17.C
18.C
19.C
20.A

1256. WOR
LD HISTORY
1257.
1. B
2. A
3. D
4. A
5. A
6. C
7. D
8. C
9. B
10.A

1258. ANTH
ROOLOGY
1259.
1260.
1. D
2. A
3. B
4. C
5. B
6. A
7. B
8. C
9. D
10.A
1261.

1262. GEOG
RAPHY
1263.
1264.
1. B
2. C
3. A
4. D
5. D
6. C
7. B
8. B
9. D
10.A
11.C
12.B
13.C
14.A
15.A
16.D
17.C
18.B
19.DA
20.D
21.B
22.B
23.D
24.A
25.B
26.B
27.C
28.D
29.C
30.C
31.D
32.C
33.A
34.D
35.C
36.D

1265. SOCI
ETY AND
CULTURE
1. B
2. A
3. C
4. D
5. A
6. D
7. C
8. B
9. B
10.C
1266.

1268.
1269.
1270.
1271.
1272.
1273.
1274.
1275.
1276.
1277. Arithm
etic and
number
theory
1. C
2. D
3. B
4. A
5. B
6. C
7. C
8. A
9. C
10.D
11.A
12.C
13.B
14.C
15.D
16.B
17.A
18.D
19.A
20.C
21.C
22.A
23.B
24.C
25.C
26.A
27.C
28.D
29.A
30.B
31.B
32.D
33.C
34.A
35.B
36.D

1279. Basic
algebra
1280.
1. D
2. A
3. C
4. B
5. A
6. B
7. C
8. A
9. C
10.D
11.B
12.A
13.B
14.C
15.D
16.A
17.A
18.B
19.B
20.D
1281.

1282. PLANE
GEOMETRY
1283.
1. C
2. C
3. A
4. D
5. A
6. B
7. C
8. D
9. A
10.D
11.C
12.C
13.B
14.D
15.A
16.D
17.D
18.A
19.B
20.D
1284.

1285. ANLYTI
C GEOMETRY
1286.
1. C
2. A
3. B
4. C
5. B
6. D
7. A
8. C
9. B
10.A
11.D
12.C
13.C
14.A
15.B
16.B
17.D
18.A
19.C
20.D
1287.

1288. TRIGO
METRIC
FUNCTIONS
1289.
1. A
2. C
3. B
4. A
5. B
1290. PROBA
BILITY
1. A
2. D
3. D
4. A
5. B
1291.

37.C
38.B
39.C
40.A
1278.
51.
O

1292.
FILIPIN 52.
1. A
2. C
3. C
4. B
5. D
6. C
7. B
8. C
9. C
10.B
11.D
12.A
13.B
14.C
15.C
16.D
17.A
18.C
19.A
20.B
21.B
22.A
23.C
24.C
25.D
26.A
27.C
28.C
29.B
30.D
31.C
32.B
33.A
34.C
35.D
36.A
37.B
38.C
39.C
40.B
41.A
42.C
43.D
44.A
45.A
46.B
47.A
48.D

1293.
49.C
50.B
51.B
52.D
53.D
54.B
55.C
56.B
57.D
58.A
59.B
60.A
61.B
62.D
63.B
64.A
65.B
66.D
67.B
68.C
69.A
70.C
53.

1294.
1295.
1296.
1297.
1298.
1299.
1300.
1301.
1302.
1303.
1304.