Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Corporate finance
Theory & practice
seventh edition
Brief contents
Preface
Book plan
PART 1
PART 2
PART 3
PART 4
xvii
xx
INTRODUCTION
Decision objectives
14
INVESTMENT DECISIONS
31
33
50
67
94
125
Capital rationing
148
RISK ANALYSIS
177
179
204
11 Portfolio theory
226
255
13 Option valuation
291
325
FINANCING DECISIONS
353
15 Financial markets
355
379
420
442
vi
PART 5
PART 6
BRIEF CONTENTS
462
488
506
534
551
23 Acquisition decisions
553
24 Company valuation
577
INTERNATIONAL ISSUES
593
25 Foreign exchange
595
615
642
Tables
667
673
Answers to problems
699
Index
783
Detailed contents
xvii
Preface
xx
Book plan
PART 1
PART 2
INTRODUCTION
Chapter 1
3
4
6
11
12
12
13
Chapter 2
14
Decision objectives
14
15
16
23
26
27
28
29
29
30
30
INVESTMENT DECISIONS
31
Chapter 3
33
Introduction
The payback method
Return on capital employed
Conclusions
Summary
Notes
Further reading
Quickie questions
Problems
33
34
41
44
44
45
47
47
48
viii
DETAILED CONTENTS
Chapter 4
50
50
51
53
55
57
61
62
62
63
65
65
66
Chapter 5
67
67
73
78
83
84
85
85
89
90
90
91
Chapter 6
94
94
99
108
109
113
114
115
116
119
120
121
121
122
Chapter 7
125
125
130
131
ix
DETAILED CONTENTS
PART 3
132
136
141
141
142
143
143
144
Chapter 8
148
Capital rationing
Introduction
Hard and soft capital rationing
Single-period capital rationing
Multi-period capital rationing
Summary
Appendix: linear programming
Notes
Further reading
Quickie questions
Problems
148
150
152
158
168
169
171
171
172
173
RISK ANALYSIS
177
Chapter 9
179
179
180
186
191
194
196
197
197
198
199
204
Introduction to uncertainty
The expected utility model
Risk, return and the investment decision
Summary
Notes
Further reading
Quickie questions
Problem
204
206
213
222
223
223
224
224
DETAILED CONTENTS
226
Two-asset portfolios
Multi-asset portfolios
Introduction of a risk-free investment
The capital market line
Diversification within companies
Summary
Notes
Further reading
Quickie questions
Problems
226
234
237
243
248
249
251
251
252
252
255
255
259
262
271
276
278
281
282
285
285
286
287
291
Introduction
The basic characteristics of options
Option terminology
The valuation of options
The Black and Scholes model
The building blocks of investment
Putcall parity theorem
Using share options
The option Greeks
The binomial model
Summary
Appendix: the area under the normal curve
Notes
Further reading
Quickie questions
Problems
291
291
293
293
298
302
307
310
314
318
320
321
323
323
323
323
DETAILED CONTENTS
PART 4
xi
325
Introduction
The money markets
Forward forward loans
Forward rate agreements
Interest rate guarantees
Option contract markets
Interest rate futures
Caps, collars and floors
Interest rate swaps
Summary
Notes
Further reading
Quickie questions
Problems
325
325
327
328
331
333
334
343
344
348
348
349
349
350
FINANCING DECISIONS
353
355
Introduction
Market efficiency
Market efficiency and share dealing
The empirical evidence of EMH
The term structure of interest rates
Pure expectations hypothesis
Summary
Notes
Further reading
Quickie questions
Problems
355
355
358
360
365
369
375
376
377
378
378
379
379
380
383
385
393
395
397
409
410
414
414
416
416
417
xii
DETAILED CONTENTS
420
420
423
427
430
431
437
437
438
438
Chapter 18
442
Introduction
An optimal capital structure
Business and financial risk
The arbitrage proof
Summary
Notes
Further reading
Quickie questions
Problems
442
442
446
450
457
458
458
459
459
462
462
467
472
477
482
482
483
484
484
485
488
488
491
493
496
500
501
501
501
502
DETAILED CONTENTS
PART 5
xiii
506
506
507
507
508
508
509
514
521
524
529
529
529
530
531
534
534
538
542
544
545
546
547
547
548
548
551
553
Introduction
Synergy
Valuing synergy
Acquisition premiums
Organic growth versus growth via acquisition
The coinsurance effect
Bootstrapping EPS
Diversification
Takeover defence
Financing acquisitions
Summary
Notes
Further reading
Quickie questions
Problems
553
554
557
558
560
562
564
567
568
571
572
574
574
574
575
xiv
PART 6
DETAILED CONTENTS
577
Introduction
Asset basis
Earnings basis
Dividend basis
Free cash flow basis
Intellectual capital
Summary
Further reading
Quickie questions
Problems
577
577
579
582
582
584
586
587
587
588
INTERNATIONAL ISSUES
593
595
Introduction
Exchange rates
Foreign exchange markets
Exchange rate systems
Determinants of FX rates
Summary
Notes
Further reading
Quickie questions
Problems
595
595
600
605
608
612
613
613
613
614
615
Definitions
Transaction risk hedging
FX futures contracts
Forward versus futures
FX options contracts
Setting up an option hedge
Early exercise
Contingent exposure to FX risk
Traded options versus OTC options
Summary
Notes
Further reading
Quickie questions
Problems
615
616
621
626
627
629
634
635
635
636
637
637
637
639
642
Introduction
Project cash flows
Project discount rate
642
644
648
DETAILED CONTENTS
xv
Translation risk
Economic risk
Country/political risk
Management charges and transfer pricing
Summary
Notes
Further reading
Quickie questions
Problems
653
656
659
660
661
662
662
663
663
Tables
667
673
Answers to problems
699
Index
783
xvii
Preface
There is a popular feeling that theory is opposed to practice and the merits lie with
practice. This is a false conclusion, based on a false supposition. If practice has long been
successful and does not conform to theory, the theory is bad and in need of revision... The
distinction should not be between theory and practice; it should be between good theory
and bad theory, between good practice and bad practice... Practice is brick; theory is
mortar. Both are essential and both must be good if we are to erect a worthy structure.
d. paarlberg, great myths of economics
The description in plain language will be a criterion of the degree of understanding that
has been reached.
w. heisenberg, physics and philosophy
This book takes these two quotations as its starting point. Its subject matter
covers some of the major financial decisions that face companies: investment,
financing, the dividend decision, acquisitions and the management of risk. These
are areas of vital importance to companies because they represent the main ways
by which firms can enhance the worth of the owners. This importance is
reflected in the fact that corporate finance is a standard element of most degree
courses that are concerned with industrial or commercial decision-making, as
well as being a prominent element in professional accountancy examinations.
It is with all these groups of people in mind that this book has been written.
However, we hope that practising financial decision-makers will also find its
contents of interest, in that it may help to provoke thoughtful reflection on how
financial decisions are actually made.
The books origins lie in the courses we have taught at various universities at
both undergraduate and postgraduate level and in the courses taught to students studying for professional accountancy qualifications. In reality, this is the
seventh edition of Investment Appraisal and Financial Decisions, but we have taken
the opportunity of a new edition to change the title to Corporate Finance, in
order to reflect better its scope and contents.
In many ways this is not our book, but our students book. Their searching
questions have often prompted us to think through the subject matter in greater
xviii
PREFACE
depth and to seek out alternative ways of providing clear and full explanations
of the subject matter.
In this new edition we have made a number of substantial additions, as well as
several more minor amendments, revisions and rearrangements. The main
extension has been to include the area of mergers and acquisitions, with a new
chapter on the valuation of companies for purposes of acquisition and a chapter
that covers a number of aspects of acquisition activity. Mergers and acquisitions
are amongst the most important events that occur in the life of a company and
this is an area that takes a central role in the preoccupations of corporate treasurers and other finance professionals.
In addition to these new chapters, the chapter on option valuation theory has
been rewritten to improve the clarity with which this complex subject matter is
developed. We have also extended the chapter on the capital structure decision
in the real world to include a discussion of the so-called pecking order theory
and have revised and updated several other areas within the book, including the
ever-developing issue of corporate governance and the potential conflicts of
interest between shareholders and managers.
Finally, the layout of the book has been entirely redesigned to help enhance
its ease of use. It is all too easy for authors to lose sight of just how difficult
some topics can be to the new reader. Familiarity, if not exactly breeding contempt, can sometimes lead to an over-concise exposition of the subject being
discussed. Hopefully we have managed to avoid this pitfall, and we are confident that the books new design further enhances the clarity of presentation of
the subject matter.
What has been retained from previous editions are the end-of-chapter summaries, together with suggestions on selected further reading, sets of Quickie
questions (and answers) and full-length exam-style questions.
The summaries are designed to give a general overview of the topics covered
in each chapter and to give just a quick snapshot picture of the main points. The
suggested further reading has been compiled with particular emphasis on providing articles that are, in the main, accessible to those readers who do not
posses a higher degree in mathematics! The Quickie questions are designed to
test both recall and understanding and to give the reader essential feedback
the Quickie answers are tucked away at the back of the book, in order to reduce
the temptation to cheat! Finally, the exam-style questions - all 60 of them have been selected to try and cover the major elements of each chapters subject
matter. These questions are either of our own design, or have been culled from
the examination papers of various professional accountancy bodies. Collectively
these examiners have set some splendid questions in the past, and we are
grateful to the accountancy bodies concerned for their kind permission to use
them. One other change to this new edition - and this is in response to reader
demands - is that many of the answers to these questions are now included at
the end of the book!
The books website: www.thomsonlearning.co.uk/accountingandfinance/
lumbyandjones/, contains an extensive multiple-choice question bank to
provide further opportunities for testing and feedback. Although solutions to
most of the exam-style questions are given at the end of the book, the solutions
to certain questions have been placed in a lecturers only area of the website.
PREFACE
xix
As before, we should make it clear that this is not a how-to-do-it book of
corporate financial management. Such a book is not really a possibility in the
complex, practical and ever-changing area of corporate finance. Instead, it is an
attempt at a fairly detailed, reasoned discussion of the normative theory of corporate finance. Examples that have used real-world data are there for the purposes of exposition, rather than to encourage unthinking application of the
theory to practical decision-making. It is not our aim to put forward theoretical
solutions to practical problems, but to promote thought and reflection on how
decisions are actually made and, perhaps, how they can be improved.
As far as possible, the presentation has been argued in descriptive and graphical terms rather than using a strict mathematical analysis. The reasons for this
are two-fold. First, a mathematical treatment often excludes a great many
potential enquirers and reduces the subject matter to a degree of terseness that
makes unrealistic demands upon the concentration of the reader. Second, a
mathematical treatment, although often rather elegant, can sometimes fail to
make clear the full significance of important conclusions. However, it has been
impossible to exclude mathematics completely - indeed it would have been
counterproductive to do so in some areas - but its complexity has been kept to
an absolute minimum. We have resisted the temptation to derive formulas and
relationships just for the sake of it and have only done so where the mathematical derivation leads to a greater understanding for the reader.
All that remains is to thank the people at Thomson Learning, in particular
Pat Bond as editor, Fiona Freel as production manager and Katie Thorn, who is
concerned with the marketing, for all their help, understanding and general
prodding to get the book written and onto the bookshelves. Most of all our
thanks go to our students who make writing and teaching so enjoyable!
Book plan
Part 1
1
Financial
decision
making
Part 2
3
Traditional
methods of
investment
appraisal
Part 3
9
Simple risk
technique
Part 4
15
Financial
markets
Part 5
23
Acquisition
decisions
Part 6
25
Foreign
exchange
Introduction
2
Decision
objectives
Investment decisions
4
Investment
consumption
decision
model
5
The
discounted
cash flow
approach
6
Net present
value and
internal rate
of return
7
Project
cash flows
8
Capital
rationing
12
The capital
asset pricing
model
13
Option
valuation
14
Interest rate
risk
18
Capital
structure in
a simple
world
19
Capital
stucture in
a complex
world
20
Capital
structure in
practice
Risk analysis
10
Risk and
return
11
Portfolio
theory
Financing decisions
16
The cost of
capital
17
Weighted
average cost
of capital
International issues
26
Foreign
exchange
hedging
27
Foreign
direct
investment
21
Investment
and
financing
interactions
22
The
dividend
decision
Part 1
Introduction
apparent change in value bases in those particular areas and a transfer of many
public sector enterprises into the private sector.
A warning
As a final point, the reader should be constantly aware that the theory of financial decisions presented here is neither in a state of general detailed agreement,
nor does it yet provide complete solutions to many of the important problems
of financial decision making. In order to reflect this state of affairs, we shall
examine the causes and evidence of these controversies and point out the irrationalities, ambiguities and inconsistencies that necessarily accompany the
development of any theory that aspires to real-world application.
decision needs to be made. We can specify two necessary conditions for a decision situation: the existence of alternatives and the existence of an objective or
goal.
Valuation of alternatives
Together, these two necessary conditions provide the rationale for making
decisions: if the decision maker does not perceive alternatives, or sees no reason
to choose between the alternatives if they are perceived, then no decision will
be made (except one of a totally arbitrary kind, as in note six). But once these
conditions do exist, a decision cannot actually be made until values are placed
upon the alternatives. In fact, we can assert that the only reason why any alternative course of action is ever evaluated is in order to make a decision about it;
therefore, the valuation method used must be related to the objective involved
in making the decision and the way in which that objective is expressed.
For example, if our objective were to drive from A to B in the shortest possible time, then we should value the alternative routes from A to B by a
common value criterion that was related to our objective of time, and choose
whichever route took the shortest time. Suppose there were three alternative
routes and one we valued by time, one by distance and one by scenic beauty.
We obviously could not make a decision because the alternatives have different
measures or yardsticks of value and so cannot be compared. Alternatively, if all
three routes were measured in terms of scenic beauty, we should again be
unable to make a decision, even though we could compare the routes, because
the basis of the comparison is not the one that gives the rationale for the deci7
sion: the value base of the objective, which in this example is time.
Therefore, any decision-making process consists of these three components:
a series of perceived alternatives, an expectation that these alternatives are not
all equally desirable in terms of attaining an objective held by the decision
maker, and a common value base related to the decision objective. So it is with
all financial decisions made in business.
provide other benefits such as technological advance, the fact remains that the
fundamental rationale for their existence must be to bring benefit to their
owners.
This rationale for existence undoubtedly holds true for the great majority of
privately owned9 companies (and also, to some extent, for state-owned indus10
tries although their rationale for existence can be more complex ). Therefore,
managements objective in making financial decisions should be to further the
very reason for the companys existence, of benefiting the owners, i.e. the
shareholders. We shall see that there might be other managerial objectives but,
in essence, we will treat those as deviating from what they should be (this is
consistent with the idea of adopting a normative approach). So if the decision
objective is to benefit the owners, what is the value base to be used for the comparison of alternatives?
To answer this question, we have to examine the decision objective more
closely. It is obvious from what we have already said that not only should
company managements make financial decisions so as to benefit the shareholders but they should also strive to maximize that benefit, otherwise shareholders will be interested in replacing them with a set of decision makers who
will do this. Therefore, what is meant by the term maximizing owners or
shareholders benefit?
In market economies, we can develop a theory of financial decisions for privately owned firms in this way because of the workings of the market system for
company capital. Ordinary share capital, the substance of ownership, is
normally provided through supply and demand markets (e.g. stock exchanges),
which means that potential shareholders can buy shares in companies that they
expect will provide them with the greatest possible increase in wealth
(i.e. shareholders have to make financial decisions in much the same way as
management, choosing between alternative ownership opportunities), and
existing shareholders can sell their shares if they see other companies providing
greater increases to their owners wealth than they are receiving. (An important
concept here, and one we have yet to deal with, is that the future is uncertain
and so any decision amongst alternatives usually has a risk attached to
it: the risk that the alternative chosen may not turn out as expected. Some alternatives are riskier than others and so shareholders will really want to own
companies that they expect will give them the greatest possible increase in
wealth, for a given level of risk. This concept will be considered much more
fully later.)
Therefore, if a company were to make its decisions on bases other than that
of maximizing shareholder wealth, the whole rationale for the companys existence so far as shareholders are concerned would be in doubt and they
would be likely to take their investment funds elsewhere. In the extreme case,
company law provides the opportunity for shareholders to replace a companys
decision makers if enough of them believe that decisions are not being taken in
their best interests.
Defining wealth
However, we still cannot determine the value base for financial decision making
until we have defined wealth, because the purpose of the value base is to act as a
common denominator with which to make the alternative courses of action
directly comparable and to see which one leads furthest towards the decision
objective. As the objective of financial decisions is assumed to be to maximize
the increase in owners wealth, let us define wealth and so determine the value
base.
Wealth can be defined as the capacity to consume, or, to put it in more
straightforward terms, money or cash.11 Thus the objective of management
becomes the maximization of shareholders purchasing power, which can be
achieved by maximizing the amount of cash paid out to shareholders in the
form of dividends. But which dividends should a companys management try to
maximize: this years, next years or what?
The point here is that it would be a relatively easy task for a company to maximize a single years dividend, simply by selling up all the assets and paying a
final liquidation dividend! (We are ignoring the niceties of company law here,
but the point still remains.) Obviously this is not what is meant by our decision
objective of maximizing dividends, and the trouble arises through the omission
of the time dimension. When fully defined, including the time dimension, the
objective of a companys financial decision makers becomes the maximizing of
the flow of dividends to shareholders over or through time.
10
11
Given this argument, our theory will assume that shares derive their (equilibrium) stock market price on the basis of the sum of the dividend flow that they
will produce through time. (As the future is uncertain, it is more correct to talk
of valuation based on the expected dividend flow, but we shall return to this
later.) Thus the greater the future dividend flow, the more highly are the shares
valued. Therefore if our financial decision makers are taking decisions so as to
maximize dividend flow through time, then via the direct link between dividend
flow and a shares market price, this action will result in the maximization of the
market value of the companys shares. It is this that we shall take as being the operational objective of financial management decision making.13
A fundamental assumption
As a final point, let us state the assumptions about the shareholder that have
been implied in the analysis. It was earlier argued that the maximization of
shareholders wealth had to be the fundamental decision objective, because of
the nature of the capital markets. However, the validity of this assertion
depends entirely upon the assumption that shareholders perceive wealth in the
way we have postulated and that in this perception they are rational. In essence
this means that we have assumed that shareholders see wealth as the receipt of
cash flows through time and that they will always prefer a greater to a lesser
cash flow. These appear reasonably safe assumptions, but we shall consider situations where they may not hold when we look later at dividend policies.
12
revolution of the 18th and 19th centuries. It is now most unlikely that decision
makers will not have access to computer facilities and the power of the typical
desktop machine is now such that sophisticated software can be used to aid their
decisions. In most cases the type of software used will be based on spreadsheets
such as Microsoft Excel and you are encouraged to use the software available to
you when answering the problems set throughout the text. However, it is
important that you understand the underlying principles so it is not advisable to
rely solely on the financial functions embedded in the software. It is also worth
mentioning that some of the functions can be somewhat problematical as we
will see.
Summary
Notes
QUICKIE QUESTIONS
13
allocation of the economys resources (land, labour and machinery) through a supply
and demand price mechanism.
5. Indeed, we shall also occasionally allude to the psychological processes behind firms
financial decisions where conflicts of interest arise.
6. In a way, in specifying this second necessary condition, we are ignoring the situation
where a decision has to be made, even though this second condition does not exist. For
instance, if you are out for a walk with no particular destination in mind and you come
to a crossroads, a decision has to be taken on which direction to take, even though the
second necessary condition is really unfulfilled. Such situations are of little interest as
far as the decision process is concerned; we could call them indifference decisions.
7. For the present, we shall ignore the possibility of multiple objectives, although we
shall touch upon it later. However we may observe that where multiple objectives exist
in real life, one objective is often regarded (either implicitly or explicitly) as being of
overriding importance, with the other objectives acting as constraining factors or
considerations.
8. In abstract terms we can define a company as a collection of assets. The owners of
the company have therefore pooled their funds to assemble such a collection and are
logically only likely to do so in order to bring benefit (either directly or indirectly) to
themselves.
9. The term privately owned companies can be a source of confusion. It refers to all
companies that are owned by individuals, either singly or collectively, whether or not
they are publicly quoted (plc) on a stock exchange or otherwise. Thus both public and
private companies (in financial nomenclature) are privately owned companies.
10. See, for instance, Ivy Papps, Government and Enterprise, Hobart Paper No. 61,
Institute of Economic Affairs, 1975.
11. We shall be ignoring the effects of inflation until later.
12. This is obviously a simplification, as in practice each share has two equilibrium
prices, a buying price and a selling price. The former will be the higher of the two, and
the difference constitutes the market-makers turn. However, for simplicity, we will
ignore this complication and use a middle value.
13. Of course, if the companys shares are not quoted on a stock exchange, then the
objective simply reduces to the maximization of the value of the companys shares.
This, however, still leaves the problem of how the shares are to be valued. In fact they
should be valued on exactly the same basis as quoted shares: the future expected
dividend flow. It is one of the great advantages of a stock market quotation that this
value is automatically and continuously provided for use both by management and by
investors.
Quickie
questions
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
(See the Answers to quickie questions section at the back of the book.)
667
Tables
TABLE B
Present value
factor
(1 + i)N
i
N
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
i
N
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
0.04
0.06
0.08
0.10
0.12
0.14
0.16
0.18
0.20
1.0400
1.0816
1.1249
1.1699
1.2167
1.2653
1.3159
1.3686
1.4233
1.4802
1.5395
1.6010
1.6651
1.7317
1.8009
1.0600
1.1236
1.1910
1.2625
1.3382
1.4185
1.5036
1.5939
1.6895
1.7909
1.8983
2.0122
2.1329
2.2609
2.3966
1.0800
1.1664
1.2597
1.3605
1.4693
1.5869
1.7138
1.8509
1.9990
2.1589
2.3316
2.5182
2.7196
2.9372
3.1722
1.1000
1.2100
1.3310
1.4641
1.6105
1.7716
1.9487
2.1436
2.3580
2.5937
2.8531
3.1384
3.4523
3.7975
4.1773
1.1200
1.2544
1.4049
1.5735
1.7623
1.9738
2.2107
2.4760
2.7731
3.1058
3.4785
3.8960
4.3635
4.8871
5.4736
1.1400
1.2996
1.4815
1.6890
1.9254
2.1950
2.5023
2.8526
3.2519
3.7072
4.2262
4.8179
5.4924
6.2613
7.1379
0.04
0.06
0.08
0.10
0.12
0.14
0.16
0.18
0.20
0.9615
0.9246
0.8890
0.8548
0.8219
0.7903
0.7599
0.7307
0.7026
0.6756
0.6496
0.6246
0.6006
0.5775
0.5553
0.9434
0.8900
0.8396
0.7921
0.7473
0.7050
0.6651
0.6274
0.5919
0.5584
0.5268
0.4970
0.4686
0.4423
0.4173
0.9259
0.8573
0.7938
0.7350
0.6806
0.6302
0.5835
0.5403
0.5002
0.4632
0.4289
0.3971
0.3677
0.3405
0.3152
0.9091
0.8264
0.7513
0.6830
0.6209
0.5645
0.5132
0.4665
0.4241
0.3855
0.3505
0.3186
0.2897
0.2633
0.2394
0.8929
0.7972
0.7118
0.6355
0.5674
0.5066
0.4532
0.4039
0.3606
0.3220
0.2875
0.2567
0.2292
0.2046
0.1827
0.8772
0.7695
0.6750
0.5921
0.5194
0.4556
0.3996
0.3506
0.3075
0.2697
0.2366
0.2076
0.1821
0.1597
0.1401
0.8621
0.7432
0.6407
0.5523
0.4761
0.4014
0.3538
0.3050
0.2630
0.2267
0.1954
0.1685
0.1452
0.1252
0.1079
0.8475
0.7182
0.6086
0.5158
0.4371
0.3704
0.3139
0.2660
0.2255
0.1911
0.1619
0.1372
0.1163
0.0985
0.0835
0.8333
0.6944
0.5787
0.4823
0.4019
0.3349
0.2791
0.2326
0.1938
0.1615
0.1346
0.1122
0.0935
0.0779
0.0649
668
TABLE C
Present value of
an annuity AN i
TABLES
i
N
TABLE D
Terminal value of
an annuity SN i
0.04
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
i
N
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
0.06
0.08
0.10
0.12
0.14
0.16
0.18
0.20
0.9434
1.8334
2.6730
3.,4651
4.2124
4.9173
5.5824
6.2098
6.8017
7.3601
7.8869
8.3838
8.8527
9.2950
9.7122
0.9259
1.7833
2.5771
3.3121
3.9927
4.6229
5.2064
5.7466
6.2469
6.7101
7.1390
7.5361
7.9038
8.2442
8.5595
0.9091
1.7355
2.4869
3.1699
3.7908
4.3553
4.8684
5.3349
5.7590
6.1446
6.4951
6.8137
7.1034
7.3667
7.6061
0.8929
1.6901
2.4018
3.0373
3.6048
4.1114
4.5638
4.9676
5.3282
5.6502
5.9377
6.1944
6.4235
6.6282
6.8109
0.8772
1.6467
2.3216
2.9137
3.4331
3.8887
4.2883
4.6389
4.9464
5.2161
5.4527
5.6603
5.8424
6.0021
6.1422
0.8621
1.6052
2.2459
2.7982
3.2743
3.6847
4.0386
4.3436
4.6065
4.8332
5.0286
5.1971
5.3423
5.4675
5.5755
0.8475
1.5656
2.1743
2.6901
3.1272
3.4976
3.8115
4.0776
4.3030
4.4941
4.6560
4.7932
4.9095
5.0081
5.0916
0.8333
1.5278
2.1065
2.5887
2.9906
3.3255
3.6046
3.8372
4.0310
4.1925
4.3271
4.4392
4.5327
4.6106
4.6755
0.04
0.06
0.08
0.10
0.12
0.14
0.16
0.18
0.20
1.0000
2.0400
3.1216
4.2465
5.4163
6.6330
7.8983
9.2142
10.5828
12.0061
13.4864
15.0258
16.6268
18.2919
20.0236
1.0000
2.0600
3.1836
4.3746
5.6371
6.9753
8.3938
9.8975
11.4913
13.1808
14.9716
16.8699
18.8821
21.0151
23.2760
1.0000
2.0800
3.2464
4.5061
5.8666
7.3359
8.9228
10.6366
12.4876
14.4866
16.6455
18.9771
21.4953
24.2149
27.1521
1.0000
2.1000
3.3100
4.6410
6.1051
7.7156
9.4872
11.4359
13.5795
15.9374
18.5312
21.3843
24.5227
27.9750
31.7725
1.0000
2.1200
3.3744
4.7793
6.3528
8.1152
10.0890
12.2997
14.7757
17.5487
20.6546
24.1331
28.0291
32.3926
37.2797
1.0000
2.1400
3.4396
4.9211
6.6101
8.5355
10.7305
13.2328
16.0853
19.3373
23.0445
27.2707
32.0887
37.5811
43.8424
1.0000
2.1600
3.5056
5.0665
6.8771
8.9775
11.4139
14.2401
17.5185
21.3215
25.7329
30.8502
36.7862
43.6720
51.6595
1.0000
2.1800
3.5724
5.2154
7.1542
9.4420
12.1415
15.3270
19.0859
23.5213
28.7551
34.9311
42.2187
50.8180
60.9653
1.0000
2.2000
3.6400
5.3680
7.4416
9.9299
12.9159
16.4991
20.7989
25.9587
32.1504
39.5805
48.4966
59.1959
72.0351
0.9615
1.8861
2.7751
3.6299
4.4518
5.2421
6.0021
6.7327
7.4353
8.1109
8.7605
9.3851
9.9856
10.5631
11.1184
669
TABLE E
Annual equivalent
1
factor A N i
i
N
TABLE F
Sinking fund factor
1
S N i
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
i
N
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
0.04
0.06
0.08
0.10
0.12
0.14
0.16
0.18
0.20
1.0400
0.5302
0.3603
0.2755
0.2446
0.1908
0.1666
0.1485
0.1345
0.1233
0.1141
0.1066
0.1001
0.0947
0.0899
1.0600
0.5454
0.3741
0.2886
0.2374
0.2034
0.1791
0.1610
0.1470
0.1359
0.1268
0.1193
0.1130
0.1076
0.1030
1.0800
0.5608
0.3880
0.3019
0.2505
0.2163
0.1921
0.1740
0.1601
0.1490
0.1401
0.1327
0.1265
0.1213
0.1168
1.1000
0.5762
0.4021
0.3155
0.2638
0.2296
0.2054
0.1874
0.1736
0.1627
0.1540
0.1468
0.1408
0.1357
0.1315
1.1200
0.5917
0.4163
0.3292
0.2774
0.2432
0.2191
0.2013
0.1877
0.1770
0.1684
0.1614
0.1557
0.1509
0.1468
1.1400
0.6073
0.4307
0.3432
0.2913
0.2572
0.2332
0.2156
0.2022
0.1917
0.1834
0.1767
0.1712
0.1666
0.1628
1.1600
0.6230
0.4453
0.3574
0.3054
0.2714
0.2476
0.2302
0.2171
0.2069
0.1989
0.1924
0.1872
0.1829
0.1794
1.1800
0.6387
0.4599
0.3717
0.3198
0.2859
0.2624
0.2452
0.2324
0.2225
0.2148
0.2086
0.2037
0.1997
0.1964
1.2000
0.6545
0.4747
0.3863
0.3344
0.3007
0.2774
0.2606
0.2481
0.2385
0.2311
0.2253
0.2206
0.2169
0.2139
0.04
0.06
0.08
0.10
0.12
0.14
0.16
0.18
0.20
1.0000
0.4902
0.3203
0.2355
0.1846
0.1508
0.1266
0.1085
0.0945
0.0833
0.0741
0.0666
0.0601
0.0547
0.0499
1.0000
0.4854
0.3141
0.2286
0.1774
0.1343
0.1191
0.1010
0.0870
0.0759
0.0668
0.0593
0.0530
0.0476
0.0430
1.0000
0.4808
0.3080
0.2219
0.1705
0.1363
0.1121
0.0940
0.0801
0.0690
0.0601
0.0527
0.0465
0.0413
0.0368
1.0000
0.4762
0.3021
0.2155
0.1638
0.1296
0.1054
0.0874
0.0736
0.0627
0.0540
0.0468
0.0408
0.0357
0.0315
1.0000
0.4717
0.2963
0.2092
0.1574
0.1232
0.0991
0.0813
0.0677
0.0570
0.0484
0.0414
0.0357
0.0309
0.0268
1.0000
0.4673
0.2907
0.2032
0.1513
0.1172
0.0932
0.0756
0.0622
0.0517
0.0434
0.0367
0.0312
0.0266
0.0228
1.0000
0.4630
0.2853
0.1974
0.1454
0.1114
0.0876
0.0702
0.0571
0.0469
0.0389
0.0324
0.0272
0.0229
0.0194
1.0000
0.4587
0.2799
0.1917
0.1398
0.1059
0.0824
0.0652
0.0524
0.0425
0.0348
0.0286
0.0237
0.0197
0.0164
1.0000
0.4545
0.2747
0.1863
0.1344
0.1007
0.0774
0.0606
0.0481
0.0385
0.0311
0.0253
0.0206
0.0169
0.0139
670
TABLE G
Compound interest
N0.5
factor (1 + i)
Present value of 1
received evenly
through year
TABLES
i
N
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
0.04
0.06
0.08
0.10
0.12
0.14
0.16
0.18
0.20
0.9806
0.9429
0.9066
0.8717
0.8382
0.8060
0.7750
0.7452
0.7165
0.6889
0.6624
0.6370
0.6125
0.5889
0.5663
0.9713
0.9163
0.8644
0.8155
0.7693
0.7258
0.6847
0.6460
0.6094
0.5749
0.5424
0.5117
0.4827
0.4554
0.4296
0.9623
0.8910
0.8250
0.7639
0.7073
0.6549
0.6064
0.5615
0.5199
0.4814
0.4457
0.4127
0.3821
0.3538
0.3276
0.9535
0.8668
0.7880
0.7164
0.6512
0.5920
0.5382
0.4893
0.4448
0.4044
0.3676
0.3342
0.3038
0.2762
0.2511
0.9449
0.8437
0.7533
0.6726
0.6005
0.5362
0.4787
0.4274
0.3816
0.3407
0.3042
0.2716
0.2425
0.2165
0.1933
0.9366
0.8216
0.7207
0.6322
0.5545
0.4864
0.4267
0.3743
0.3283
0.2880
0.2526
0.2216
0.1944
0.1705
0.1496
0.9285
0.8004
0.6900
0.5948
0.5128
0.4421
0.3811
0.3285
0.2832
0.2441
0.2105
0.1814
0.1564
0.1348
0.1162
0.9206
0.7801
0.6611
0.5603
0.4748
0.4024
0.3410
0.2890
0.2449
0.2075
0.1759
0.1491
0.1263
0.1071
0.0907
0.9129
0.7607
0.6339
0.5283
0.4402
0.3669
0.3057
0.2548
0.2123
0.1769
0.1474
0.1229
0.1024
0.0853
0.0711
Using this discount factor actually assumes that the cash flows take place in the middle of the
year. However this is a very good approximation for cash flows that are spread evenly during
the year.
TABLE H
Present value of an
annuity AN05i
Present value of 1
received each year
evenly throughout
the year
i
N
2%
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
0.9901
1.9609
2.9126
3.8456
4.7604
5.6572
6.5364
7.3984
8.2435
9.0720
9.8842
10.6806
11.4613
12.2267
12.9771
4%
0.9806
1.9234
2.8300
3.7018
4.5400
5.3460
6.1209
6.8661
7.5826
8.2715
8.9340
9.5709
10.1834
10.7723
11.3386
6%
8%
10%
12%
14%
16%
18%
20%
0.9713
1.8876
2.7520
3.5675
4.3369
5.0627
5.7474
6.3934
7.0028
7.5777
8.1200
8.6317
9.1144
9.5698
9.9994
0.9623
1.8532
2.6782
3.4421
4.1493
4.8042
5.4106
5.9721
6.4920
6.9733
7.4190
7.8317
8.2138
8.5677
8.8953
0.9535
1.8202
2.6082
3.3246
3.9758
4.5678
5.1060
5.5953
6.0401
6.4445
6.8121
7.1463
7.4501
7.7262
7.9773
0.9449
1.7886
2.5419
3.2144
3.8149
4.3511
4.8298
5.2573
5.6389
5.9796
6.2839
6.5555
6.7980
7.0146
7.2079
0.9366
1.7582
2.4788
3.1110
3.6655
4.1520
4.5787
4.9530
5.2813
5.5693
5.8219
6.0435
6.2379
6.4085
6.5580
0.9285
1.7289
2.4189
3.0137
3.5265
3.9686
4.3497
4.6782
4.9614
5.2055
5.4160
5.5975
5.7539
5.8887
6.0050
0.9206
1.7007
2.3619
2.9222
3.3970
3.7994
4.1404
4.4294
4.6743
4.8818
5.0577
5.2068
5.3331
5.4401
5.5309
0.9129
1.6736
2.3075
2.8358
3.2761
3.6429
3.9486
4.2034
4.4157
4.5926
4.7401
4.8629
4.9653
5.0506
5.1217
Using this discount factor actually assumes that the cash flows take place in the middle of
each year. However this is a very good approximation for cash flows that are spread evenly
during each year. It will be noticed that at 10% over 10 years, the annuity factor is 6.4445
whilst using the year-end cash flow assumption (Table C) produces a factor of 6.1446. It is a
matter of judgement as to whether or not this difference (of 5%) is seen as being significant.
671
TABLE I
Areas under the
normal distribution
0.00
0.01
0.02
0.03
0.04
0.05
0.06
0.07
0.08
0.09
0.0
0.1
0.2
0.3
0.4
0.5
0.6
0.7
0.8
0.9
1.0
1.1
1.2
1.3
1.4
1.5
1.6
1.7
1.8
1.9
2.0
2.1
2.2
2.3
2.4
2.5
2.6
2.7
2.8
2.9
3.0
.0000
.0398
.0793
.1179
.1554
.1915
.2257
.2580
.2881
.3159
.3413
.3643
.3849
.4032
.4192
.4332
.4452
.4554
.4641
.4713
.4773
.4821
.4861
.4893
.4918
.4938
.4953
.4965
.4974
.4981
.4987
.0040
.0438
.0832
.1217
.1591
.1950
.2291
.2611
.2910
.3186
.3438
.3665
.3869
.4049
.4207
.4345
.4463
.4564
.4649
.4719
.4778
.4826
.4864
.4896
.4920
.4940
.4955
.4966
.4975
.4982
.4987
.0080
.0478
.0871
.1255
.1628
.1985
.2324
.2642
.2939
.3212
.3461
.3686
.3888
.4066
.4222
.4357
.4474
.4573
.4656
.4726
.4783
.4830
.4868
.4898
.4922
.4941
.4956
.4967
.4976
.4982
.4987
.0120
.0517
.0910
.1293
.1664
.2019
.2357
.2673
.2967
.3238
.3485
.3708
.3907
.4082
.4236
.4370
.4484
.4582
.4664
.4732
.4788
.4834
.4871
.4901
.4925
.4943
.4957
.4968
.4977
.4982
.4988
.0160
.0557
.0948
.1331
.1700
.2054
.2389
.2704
.2995
.3264
.3508
.3729
.3925
.4099
.4251
.4382
.4495
.4591
.4671
.4738
.4793
.4838
.4875
.4904
.4927
.4945
.4959
.4969
.4977
.4984
.4988
.0199
.0596
.0987
.1368
.1736
.2088
.2422
.2734
.3023
.3289
.3531
.3749
.3944
.4115
.4265
.4394
.4505
.4599
.4678
.4744
.4798
.4842
.4878
.4906
.4929
.4946
.4960
.4970
.4978
.4984
.4989
.0239
.0636
.1026
.1406
.1772
.2123
.2454
.2764
.3051
.3315
.3554
.3770
.3962
.4131
.4279
.4406
.4515
.4608
.4686
.4750
.4803
.4846
.4881
.4909
.4931
.4948
.4961
.4971
.4979
.4985
.4989
.0279
.0675
.1064
.1443
.1808
.2157
.2486
.2794
.3078
.3340
.3577
.3790
.3980
.4147
.4292
.4418
.4525
.4616
.4693
.4756
.4808
.4850
.4884
.4911
.4932
.4949
.4962
.4972
.4979
.4985
.4989
.0319
.0714
.1103
.1480
.1844
.2190
.2517
.2823
.3106
.3365
.3599
.3810
.3997
.4162
.4306
.4429
.4535
.4625
.4699
.4761
.4812
.4854
.4887
.4913
.4934
.4951
.4963
.4973
.4980
.4986
.4990
.0359
.0753
.1141
.1517
.1879
.2224
.2549
.2852
.3133
.3389
.3621
.3830
.4015
.4177
.4319
.4441
.4545
.4633
.4706
.4767
.4817
.4857
.4890
.4916
.4936
.4952
.4964
.4974
.4981
.4986
.4990
672
Natural logarithms
TABLE J
N
1.0
.1
.2
.3
.4
.5
.6
.7
.8
.9
2.0
.1
.2
.3
.4
.5
.6
.7
.8
.9
3.0
.1
.2
.3
.4
.5
.6
.7
.8
.9
4.0
.1
.2
.3
.4
.5
.6
.7
.8
.9
0.0000
.0953
.1823
.2623
.3364
.4054
.4700
.5306
.5877
.6418
0.6931
.7419
.7884
.8329
.8754
.9162
.9555
.9932
1.0296
.0647
1.0986
.1314
.1631
.1939
.2237
.2527
.2809
.3083
.3350
.3609
1.3862
.4109
.4350
.4586
.4816
.5040
.5260
.5475
.5686
.5892
.0099
.1043
.1906
.2700
.3435
.4121
.4762
.5364
.5933
.6471
.6981
.7466
.7929
.8372
.8796
.9202
.9593
.9969
a
.0331
.0681
.1019
.1346
.1662
.1969
.2267
.2556
.2837
.3110
.3376
.3635
.3887
.4134
.4374
.4609
.4838
.5063
.5282
.5496
.5707
.5912
.0198
.1133
.1988
.2776
.3506
.4187
.4824
.5423
.5988
.6523
.7031
.7514
.7975
.8415
.8837
.9242
.9631
a
.0006
.0367
.0715
.1052
.1378
.1693
.1999
.2296
.2584
.2864
.3137
.3402
.3660
.3912
.4158
.4398
.4632
.4861
.5085
.5303
.5518
.5727
.5933
.0295
.1222
.2070
.2851
.3576
.4252
.4885
.5481
.6043
.6575
.7080
.7561
.8020
.8458
.8878
.9282
.9669
a
.0043
.0402
.0750
.1085
.1410
.1724
.2029
.2325
.2613
.2892
.3164
.3428
.3686
.3937
.4182
.4422
.4655
.4884
.5107
.5325
.5539
.5748
.5953
.0392
.1310
.2151
.2926
.3646
.4317
.4947
.5538
.6097
.6626
.7129
.7608
.8064
.8501
.8920
.9321
.9707
a
.0079
.0438
.0784
.1118
.1442
.1755
.2059
.2354
.2641
.2919
.3190
.3454
.3711
.3962
.4207
.4445
.4678
.4906
.5129
.5347
.5560
.5769
.5973
.0487
.1397
.2231
.3001
.3715
.4382
.5007
.5596
.6151
.6678
.7178
.7654
.8109
.8542
.8960
.9360
.9745
a
.0116
.0473
.0818
.1151
.1474
.1786
.2089
.2383
.2669
.2947
.3217
.3480
.3737
.3987
.4231
.4469
.4701
.4929
.5151
.5368
.5581
.5789
.5993
.0582
.1484
.2311
.3074
.3784
.4446
.5068
.5653
.6205
.6729
.7227
.7701
.8153
.8586
.9001
.9400
.9783
a
.0152
.0508
.0851
.1184
.1505
.1817
.2119
.2412
.2697
.2974
.3244
.3506
.3762
.4011
.4255
.4492
.4724
.4951
.5173
.5390
.5602
.5810
.6014
.0676
.1570
.2390
.3148
.3852
.4510
.5128
.5709
.6259
.6780
.7275
.7747
.8197
.8628
.9042
.0439
.9820
a
.0188
.0543
.0885
.1216
.1537
.1847
.2149
.2441
.2725
.3001
.3270
.3532
.3787
.4036
.4279
.4516
.4747
.4973
.5195
.5411
.5623
.5830
.6034
.0769
.1655
.2468
.3220
.3920
.4574
.5187
.5766
.6312
.6831
.7323
.7793
.8241
.8671
.9082
.9477
.9858
a
.0224
.0577
.0919
.1249
.1568
.1878
.2178
.2470
.2753
.3029
.3297
.3558
.3812
.4061
.4303
.4539
.4770
.4996
.5217
.5433
.5644
.5851
.6054
.0861
.1739
.2546
.3293
.3987
.4637
.5247
.5822
.6365
.6881
.7371
.7839
.8285
.8712
.9122
.9516
.9895
a
.0260
.0612
.0952
.1281
.1600
.1908
.2208
.2499
.2781
.3056
.3323
.3584
.3837
.4085
.4327
.4562
.4793
.5018
.5238
.5454
.5665
.5871
.6074
673
2.
3.
4.
5.
Chapter 2
1. The problem is one of control. How does the principal control the agent to ensure
that the agent acts in the principals best interests?
2. Fiduciary responsibilities; independent external audit; London Stock Exchange
Yellow Book listing rules and Model Code for directors share dealings;
Companies Act regulations on directors transactions; and the Combined Code
best corporate governance practice.
3. Reward managerial ability, not luck; rewards should have a significant impact on
managerial remuneration; reward system should work two ways; concept of risk
should be taken into account; the shareholders time horizon should be taken into
account; scheme should be simple, inexpensive and difficult to manipulate.
Chapter 3
1. Stage one: The best of the alternative projects has the shortest payback.
Stage two: Accept the best project as long as its payback period satisfies the
decision criterion.
2. Working capital is excluded from the analysis. Net cash flow:
0
1
2
3
4
5
11 000
+ 4 000
+ 4 000
+ 4 000
+ 3 000
+ 3 000
674
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
(c) Saves management the trouble of having to estimate project cash flows beyond
the maximum payback time period.
(d) Convenient method to use in capital rationing.
The payback criterion is reduced until total capital expenditure equates with the
amount of finance available.
(a) Managements experience of successful projects within the firm.
(b) Industry practice.
(c) Reflects the limit of managements forecasting skills.
However, none of these can be seen as being really objective.
The payback decision rule, adjusted to take account of the time value of money.
Ignores cash flows outside the payback time period. (The fact that normal
payback ignores the time value of money is equally important but this criticism
can, of course, be easily overcome through the use of discounted payback.)
Money has a time value because it can earn a rate of interest/a rate of return. This
has nothing to do with inflation although that might have an effect on the levels of
return expected.
The question does not specify which ARR/ROCE to calculate, so both are given:
Annual depreciation: (11 000 1 000) 5 = 2 000.
Profit:
4 000
4 000
4 000
3 000
2 000
Total profit
2 000
2 000
2 000
2 000
2 000
=
=
=
=
=
=
=
2 000
Yr 1
2 000
Yr 2
2 000
Yr 3
1 000
Yr 4
0
Yr 5
7 000 5 = 1 400
Av. ann. profit
Chapter 4
675
CHAPTER 5
5. It invests until the return on the marginal investment equates with the owners
marginal time value of money.
6. Lending at t0 would reduce the amount of money available for consumption at t0
and increase the amount available at t1, hence the move would be up the financial
investment line.
7. The firm should continue to invest in projects as long as the marginal rate of return
is not less than the market rate of interest. This rule is, of course, obvious. There
would be little point in investing money in a project that gave a lower return than
could be obtained by lending the money on the capital market.
The cash (dividend) distribution to shareholders in t0 and t1 that arises out of the
firms investment decision can then be redistributed by shareholders, using the
capital markets, to suit their own set of indifference curves.
8. A risky investment is one where the outcome is uncertain.
9. Ensure that any project earns at least the capital market rate of return that is
available for investments of equivalent risk to the project.
10. (a) single time horizon;
(b) infinitely divisible projects;
(c) all independent projects;
(d) rational investors.
11. Investors dislike risk: they are said to be risk-averse. Hence they require a reward
for taking on a risk, which is the expectation (but, of course, not the certainty) of a
higher return.
12. In these circumstances, the market rate of return offers you greater compensation than
you require to forgo current consumption. Therefore you would want to lend money.
Chapter 5
1. 0
1 000
1
2
3
+ 500
+ 600
+ 400
0.8772=
0.7695=
0.6750=
1 000
+
+
+
+
438.60
461.70
270
170.30 NPV
Therefore IRR = 4% +
(20% 4%) = 19.05% approx.
147.48 (9.28)
With any problem like this it is a good idea to use a computer to arrive at an
answer. In this case the solution, using the IRR function of a spreadsheet, is
18.825%.
4. Year Cash flow.
Discount factor
0
500
1
=
500
1
+200
0.9091
=
+181.82
2
+300
0.8264
=
+247.92
3
+200
0.7513
=
+150.26
676
100
= 0.10 or 10%
1 000
because: 1 000 +
10.
Chapter 6
100
= 0 NPV
0.10
1. The NPV rule is to accept whichever project has the largest positive NPV.
Differences in magnitude, duration and risk can be ignored. Hence Project A
should be accepted.
2. The assumptions made are:
(a) There is a perfect capital market so that the firm can finance the large project
just as easily as it can finance the small project.
(b) The projects represent independent decisions in that they are not part of a
continuous replacement chain.
(c) The discount rates used do correctly reflect the risk of each project.
3. NPV and IRR both make assumptions about the rate of return at which
project-generated cash flows are reinvested. NPV assumes that the rate is the
market discount rate, while IRR assumes that it is equal to the IRR of the project
generating those cash flows. Given a perfect capital market, the NPV method is
making the correct assumption.
4. Non-conventional cash flows, where there is more than one change in sign. The
problem can be avoided by using the extended yield technique or the modified
IRR.
5. Using the extended yield technique:
Year 3: 20 (1 + 0.10)3 = 15.02 at Year 0
Therefore the revised cash flow is:
0 115.02
1 + 60
2 + 80
At a 4% discount rate: +16.64 NPV
At a 20% discount rate: 9.46 NPV
16.64
IRR = 4%
(20% 4%) = 14.2%
16.64
(9.46)
677
CHAPTER 7
+ NPV
NPV: B
NPV: B
IRR: A
0 NPV
Discount rate
Discount
rate
IRR: B
IRR of differential
cash flow
NPV profile A
NPV profile B
NPV
7. If IRR diff. c/f > hurdle rate: accept project smallest IRR.
If IRR diff. c/f < hurdle rate: accept project largest IRR.
8.
1 +40 (1.10)2
=
2 +80 (1.10)1
=
3 3 0
=
Year 3 Terminal value
()
+60.5
+88
30
+118.50
Year
0
3
()
80
+118.50
IRR = 5% +
(20% 5%) = 14.9%.
22.36 (11.42)
Chapter 7
1.
(1.13)
1 = 0.086 or 8.6%
(1.04)
2. Either: (a) Project money cash flows discounted at the market discount rate to
NPV; or (b) project money cash flows discounted at the general rate of inflation
and then at the real discount rate to NPV.
3. The money cash flow, deflated (discounted) by the general rate of inflation.
1.155
4.
1 = 0.10 = real discount rate
1.05
(a) 10 000 (1.05)2 = 11 025
(b) 10 000
(a) 11 025 (1.155)2 = 11 025 (1.10)2 (1.05)2 = 8263.73
(b) 10 000 (1.155)2 = 10 000 (1.10)2 (1.05)2 = 7495.45
678
5.
500
125
375
93.75
281.25
0.25
WDA
+125
0.35
Tax relief
+43.75
Timing
Year 2
0.25
+ 93.75 0.35
+32.81
Year 3
+281.25 0.35
+98.44
Year 4
Chapter 8
+60
+90
+20
10
100
200
40
100
=
=
=
=
+0.60
+0.45
+0.50
0.10
(1)
(3)
(2)
()
available
invest in A, producing
+ 60 NPV
invest in C, producing
+ 20 NPV
+ 27 NPV
+107 Total NPV
+60
+90
+20
10
50
200
150
=
=
=
=
+1.200
+0.450
+0.133
available
invest in A, producing
(1)
(2)
(3)
+ 60 NPV
+ 85.5 NPV
+145.5 Total NPV
679
CHAPTER 8
As D has a costbenefit ratio of: 10 20 = 0.50 and B, the marginal project, has a
benefitcost ratio of 0.45, further investment is not worthwhile.
5. Benefitcost ratios:
A:
*B:
*C:
D:
E:
40
30
50
10
4
300
100
200
100
100
100
0
100
100
200
100
50
=
=
=
=
=
0.40
0.30
0.25
0.10
0.08
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
available
invest in A, producing
+40 NPV
invest in B, producing
+30 NPV
invest in D, producing
+10 NPV
+80 Total NPV
available
invest in A, producing
+40 NPV
invest in C, producing
+50 NPV
+90 Total NPV
alternatively:
300
100
200
200
0
40a
100a
200a
30c
20b
+ 150b
+ 120c
+ 50c
+ 200c
a, b, c
a, b, c
7.
Dual values
1.86
0.73
0.64
1.21
+
+
+
+
+
Max.
190
110 + 70b
50a + 70b
1
0
=
=
=
=
=
680
8. NPV:
100
+ 40
+ 90
1
0.9091
0.8264
=
=
=
100.00
+ 36.36
+ 74.38
+ 10.74 NPV
186.00
+ 29.20
+ 57.60
99.20
Chapter 9
1. Success:
Failure:
State
I
II
Prob.
0.45
0.55
2. Survey indicates
State I
State II
NPV
+243
130
Action
Accept
Reject
Prob.
0.45
0.55
Action
Accept
Accept
Reject
Reject
:
:
:
Probability
0.45 0.75
0.45 0.25
0.55 0.75
0.55 0.25
Prob.
0.3375
0.1125
0.4125
0.1375
=
=
Outcome
+243 NPV =
0 NPV =
+109
+ 37
+ 72
=
=
=
=
:
:
:
+41
+37
+ 4
State
A
B
C
D
0.3375
0.1125
0.4125
0.1375
Outcome
+243 NPV
72 NPV
0 NPV
243 NPV
ENPV
+109
72
+ 37 ENPV
=
=
=
=
+82
8
0
33
+41
+109
0
+109 ENPV
681
CHAPTER 9
4.
State
I
II
III
Prob.
0.3
0.5
0.2
NPV
+100
+ 50
300
ENPV
=
=
=
+30
+25
60
5
Therefore, without the survey we would not accept the project and so incur a zero
NPV.
Survey indicates
State I
State II
State III
Action
Accept
Accept
Reject
Prob.
0.3
0.5
0.2
:
:
:
Outcome
+100
+ 50
+ 0
ENPV
=
=
=
+30
+25
0
+55
+55
0
+55
5. If the machine is bought and, at the end of Yr 1, the decision is taken not to
abandon the project, then the outcome will be:
State
I
II
III
Yr 1
60
60
60
Yr 2
+100
+ 60
+ 40
NPV
+23.43
6.81
21.93
Decision
Dont abandon
Abandon
Abandon
Yr 0
140
140
III
140
Yr 1
+100
+ 60
+ 60
+ 40
+ 60
Yr 2
+100
NPV
+22.57
35.65
Prob.
0.70 = +15.80
0.10 = 3.56
53.04
0.20 = 10.61
ENPV
+ 1.63
The complete decision is that the company should purchase the machine but, if
either states II or III occur, then the machine should be sold off at the end of the
first year.
6. 1 000 + 280 A50.10 = +61.42 NPV
Life = x
x = 4+
(5 4 ) = 4.65 yrs.
61.42+112.40
Thus the life of the project can be reduced by up to 0.35 of a year (approx 4
months) before the original decision advice is incorrect. This represents a
maximum change of 0.35 5 = 7%.
Net cash flow = x
1000 + x A50.10 = 0 NPV
x = 1000 A50.10 = 264
682
Thus the annual net cash flow can fall by up to 16 per year, or 16 280 = 5.7%
before the original decision advice is incorrect.
Chapter 10
Prob.
0.20
0.60
0.20
Return
+40%
+15%
10%
Prob.
0.20
0.60
0.20
=
=
=
=
=
=
+ 8%
+ 9%
2%
+15% = E(r)
320
135
20
475 = E(r2)
2
= = 250 = 15.81%
Solution: Expected return: 15%
Risk (std. dev.): 15.81%
10. Downside risk is concerned with the possibility that an investment might do worse
than expected.
11. In this situation the variance or standard deviation of the returns are not adequate
descriptors of risk. An investment with a lower variance might also be the
investment that bears the greater chance of a loss.
Chapter 11
1.
2.
The correlation coefficient. The further away it is from +1, the greater the degree
of risk-reduction effect.
p = [x22A + (1 x)2 2B + 2x(1 x)Cov(rA, rB)],
or
p = [x22A + (1 x)2 2B + 2x(1 x)A B A, B].
683
CHAPTER 11
3.
A: 0.3
0.4
0.3
=
=
=
=
28%
18%
6%
E(rA)
(28% 17.4%)
(18% 17.4%)
(6% 17.4%)
A: 0.3
0.4
0.3
(28%)2
(18%)2
(6%)2
E(r2A)
=
=
=
=
B:
0.3
0.4
0.3
(35% 22.5%)
(15% 22.5%)
(20% 22.5%)
235.2
129.6
10.8
375.6
B:
0.3
0.4
0.3
35%
15%
20%
E(rB)
0.3 =
0.4 =
0.3 =
Cov(rA, rB)
(35%)2
(15%)2
(20%)2
E(r2B)
A = [ E ( rA2 ) E ( rA )2 ]
B = [ E ( rB2 ) E ( rB )2 ]
A, B =
4.
8.4%
7.2%
1.8%
17.4%
=
=
=
=
=
=
=
=
10.5%
6%
6%
22.5%
+39.75
1.80
+ 8.55
+46.50
367.5
90.0
120.0
577.5
Cov.( rA , rB )
46.50
=
= 0.65
A B
8.5 8.4
5.
N
E ( ri ) = x i i .
i=1
p =
6.
x x
i=1 j=1
i j ij
A portfolio which lies along the capital market line (CML). It provides either (a)
the maximum level of expected return for a given level of risk; or (b) the minimum
level of risk for a given level of return.
7.
E ( r j ) = rF + j or E ( r j ) = rF +
8.
E ( rM ) rF
j.
M
684
Therefore 83 % of the funds should be placed in the market portfolio and the
balance, 16 %, should be invested in government stock. The resulting portfolios
risk can be calculated from:
E ( rp ) = rF +
E ( rM ) rF
p
M
15% = 10% =
16% 10%
p
3%
15% 10%
= p = 2.5%.
2%
9.
20%
20
20 10
10
10
6
=
=
=
=
=
x 16% + (1 x) 10%
16x + 10 10x
16x 10x
6x
x = 1.66.
Therefore borrow 66 % of own personal funds at the risk-free interest rate of
10%:
Borrow 1000 0.66 = 666.67.
Invest your own funds (1000) plus the borrowed funds (666.67) in the market
portfolio.
Risk of the portfolio would be:
20% = 10% +
16% 10%
p
3%
20% 10%
= p = 5%
2%
10. The market portfolio is the ultimate diversified portfolio and so contains only
non-diversifiable risk. It consists of shares in all companies quoted on the stock
exchange, held in proportion to the companies total market values.
Chapter 12
1. rA = rF + [E(rM) rF] A.
2.
3.
4.
5.
The market portfolio has a beta of 1 so a portfolio with a beta of 0.5 would only be
half as risky as the market portfolio.
The systematic risk of an investment, relative to the risk of the market portfolio.
Unsystematic risk is that part of an investments total risk that can be diversified
away. Its sources are those factors that are specific to the investment, such as its
managements ability and the quality of its research and development activities.
There are three principal factors:
(a) the sensitivity of the firms revenues to the level of economic activity in the
economy;
(b) the proportion of fixed to variable costs;
(c) the amount of debt finance (gearing).
20% 0.6 = 12% = systematic risk
8% = unsystematic risk
20% = total risk
B =
685
CHAPTER 14
=
=
=
100.00
+ 52.18
+ 37.80
10.02 NPV
The project has a negative NPV when discounted at 15%. Thus it produces a return of
less than 15%. As the CAPM indicates that the minimum return from an investment
with this level of systematic risk (estimated by the beta value of the industry group into
which the project can be classified) is 15%, the project should be rejected.
Chapter 13
1. An option to sell shares that can only be exercised on the expiry date.
2. An option to buy shares that can be exercised at any time up to the expiry date.
3. At expiry.
4. Use a straddle. Simultaneously buy both call options and put options at the same
exercise price and expiry date.
5. The effect is the same as if the underlying shares had been bought: if the share
price goes up, you gain; if the share price falls you make a loss. However, buying a
call and selling a put is significantly cheaper than buying the underlying shares
instead.
6. The intrinsic value of the option and the time value of the option.
7. The Black and Scholes model is a function of:
(a) the current share price;
(b) the future exercise price;
(c) the risk-free rate of interest;
(d) the time to expiry;
(e) the volatility of the market price of the underlying shares.
8. Shares, risk-free bonds, call options on the shares and put options on the shares.
The fundamental equality relationship is:
S + P = B + C.
T
9. S X (1 + rF) = C P or S Xe rF. T = C P.
10. Delta risk is the hedge ratio of the option. It measures the sensitivity in the value of
the option to changes in the value of the shares. It is given by N(d1). The greater
the delta risk, the greater the sensitivity of the options value to changes in the
underlying share price, and vice versa.
Chapter 14
686
4. FRAs provide a hedge against adverse and favourable interest rate movements.
IRGs provide a hedge against adverse movements, but allow advantage to be taken
of a favourable movement in interest rates.
5. You require a short hedge: you would sell futures.
6. Futures are priced on an indexed basis and so this implies: 100 92.75 = 7.25%.
7. $1 million 3/12 0.0001 = $25.
8. It is the risk that the futures price will not move precisely in line with interest rate
movements.
9. Because of basis risk and because only whole contracts can be traded.
10. No. For there to be an advantage to an interest rate swap there must be a quality
spread differential. Here, the QSD is zero. Fixed interest: 12.75% 11% = 1.75%;
LIBOR: 2.75% 1% = 1.75%; QSD = 1.75% 1.75% = 0.
Chapter 15
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
687
CHAPTER 16
Chapter 16
g = (1311 41 ) 3 1 = 0.049
KE =
13(1 + 0.049)
+ 0.049 = 0.154 or 15.4%.
130
KD = 5% +
(15% 5%) = 8.5%
22.28 +12.07
688
lower coupon than straight debt and, with luck, never having to repay the loan (as
investors will convert).
9. In four years time, the share price is likely to be: 165p (1.08)4 = 224.5p. Thus 50
shares will be worth: 50 224.5p = 112.25. Therefore we would expect investors
to convert. The coupon rate is 5% and so the after-tax interest payments payable
by the company are: 5 (1 0.33) = 3.35. The after-tax cost of the convertible
debt is given by the internal rate of return on the following cash flow:
Year:
0
88
(3.35)
4
(112.25)
NPV at 4% = 20.11
NPV at 12% = +6.49.
20.11
K D AT = 4%
(12% 4%) = 10%.
20.11 6.49
10. The minimum value of a convertible is the greater of its value as straight debt and
its conversion value.
Chapter 17
1.
KE =
K DQ =
5(1.07)
+ 0.07 = 13.4%
83
15(1 0.35)
= 8.9%
110
VE = 24 mn 83p = 19.92mn
V B Q = 25 mn 1.10 = 27.5mn
12(1 0.35)
=
= 87.64
VB UQ = 10 mn 0.8764 = 8.76
0.089
KL = 14%(10.35) = 9.1% VL = 3mn
V0 = 19.92mn + 27.5mn + 3mn = 59.18mn
19.92
27.5
8.75
+ 8.9%
+ 8.9%
K 0 = 13.4%
59.18
59.18
59.18
3
= 10.4%.
+ 9.1%
59.18
2. In the medium to long term the company will maintain a fixed capital structure
and it is the overall return on this mix of capital that projects must be able to
generate to allow the company to continue in existence.
3. (a) Project is small relative to the size of the company.
(b) Project will be financed in such a way as not to change the capital structure.
(c) Project has the same degree of systematic risk as that of the companys
existing cash flows.
(d) All level-perpetuity cash flows.
4. Its WACC will reflect its average level of systematic risk, and not the particular
level of systematic risk of any one of its individual business activities. Thus the
WACC is an unsuitable NPVdiscount rate with which to evaluate projects in any
one of the companys areas of activity.
5. The CAPM produces an NPVdiscount rate which is tailor-made to the level of
systematic risk of the individual project. The WACC only reflects the companys
existing, average systematic risk level.
6. Because companies, but not individual investors, can get tax relief on debt interest.
689
CHAPTER 18
Chapter 18
1. Given
K E g = K E ug + ( K E ug KD )
VB
then
VE
20% = K E ug = ( K E ug 10%)
1
4
3
= 22.8%.
5
In a no-tax world, the gearing ratio does not affect the WACC. So the change in
capital structure will leave K0 unchanged:
K 0 = 20%
4
1
+ 10% = 18%.
5
5
K 0 = 22.8%
5
3
+ 10% = 18%.
8
8
3. Sell your shares in company A for 100 cash and buy 25 of debt in company B
and 75 of company Bs equity.
4. In arbitrage it is necessary to show the pure gain that can be made with no change
in either business or financial risk. Business risk does not cause problems as the two
companies involved in the arbitrage would be in the same business risk class (same
asset betas). However, if a shareholder in a geared company wished to arbitrage
into another company, care must be taken in order to preserve the existing degree
of financial risk held. This is maintained by substituting home-made for corporate
gearing.
5. Financial risk is borne by the shareholders in a geared company. It arises out of the
fact that, because debt interest has to be paid in full before equity dividends can be
paid, then shareholders are at risk that the company may have insufficient cash
flow to pay dividends because it has all gone out in interest payments. This is
financial risk.
6. As KD = rF = 10%, then we can assume debt = 0
Using CAPM, 20% = 10% + (15% 10%) equity
therefore
20% 10%
= equity = 2.0
(15% 10%)
assets = 2.0
7.
assets = assets
2
1
+ 0 = 1.33
3
3
7
V0
= 1.33 = 1.87.
5
VE
690
8. For two companies to be in the same business risk class, they should have the same
asset betas and in a no-tax world the same WACC. As the WACCs of the two
companies are not the same, we can conclude that they are not in the same
business risk class:
K 0 = 20%
2
1
+ 10% = 16.67%.
3
3
K 0 = 20%
5
2
+ 10% = 17.14%.
7
7
7
7
Chapter 19
1.
Using: K E g = K E ug + ( K E ug + K D )
VB (1 TC )
VE
then:
1(1 0.35)
3
2.17%
25% = K E ug + ( K E ug 10%)
25% = K E ug + 0.217 K E ug
25% = 2.17 = 1.217 K E ug
1 0.35
K 0 g = 22.32%1
1+ 2
K 0 = 22.32% 0.8833 = 19.7%.
3. V0 g = VE ug + VBTC, therefore
V0 g = 40mn + (10 0.35) = 43.5mn.
Shareholder wealth would have increased by the value of the tax shield:
VBTC = 10mn 0.35 = 3.5mn.
4.
VT
K 0 g = K 0 ug 1 B C .
V0
5. The tax shield represents the present value of the tax relief on debt interest. It is
the source of the increase in shareholders wealth that arises from increasing the
level of gearing.
6. Debt capacity describes an assets ability to act as security for a loan. Specifically,
an assets percentage debt capacity indicates the size of loan it would act as security
for, expressed as a percentage of the assets worth.
7. Using:
V0 g = VE ug + VBTC E(b/c)
then:
40mn = VE ug + (10mn 0.35) (0.05 1mn)
40mn 3.5mn + 0.05mn = VE ug = 36.55mn.
691
CHAPTER 21
8.
(1 TC )(1 TE )
V0 g = V0 ug + VB 1
.
1 TD
Chapter 20
1.
2.
3. Gearing ratios cannot be viewed as being high or low in absolute terms (within
reason), but only in relative terms. Thus whether, at 50%, a company could be
considered to have a high or low level of gearing would depend on the gearing
ratio of other companies in its industry group.
This is likely to be related to the business risk of the particular industry, cost
structures, etc.
4. Financial risk is all systematic. It is not unsystematic.
5. There are two main factors:
(a) the revenue sensitivity of the company;
(b) the proportion of fixed to variable operating costs.
6.
7. DOG gives the percentage change in EBIT for every 1% change in revenues.
8. The greater the DOG value, the greater the systematic business risk of a company
in comparison with similar companies. Thus the company with a DOG of 2.50 has
a greater degree of systematic business risk than a similar company whose DOG
value is only 1.50.
Chapter 21
1. Because the projects NPV will add to the market value of the equity.
2. The return required from the project which purely reflects its systematic business
risk (i.e. it assumes the project is all-equity financed).
3. What the NPV of the project would be, if it was all-equity financed.
4. An operating lease is essentially a marketing device to encourage sales and can be
viewed as an operating cash flow. A financial lease is a particular method of project
financing.
5.
5
2(1 0.35)
assets 1.45
+ 0.25
= 1.20.
5 + 2(1 0.35)
5 + 2(1 0.35)
6. The equity beta reflects both the business and financial systematic risk. The asset
beta purely reflects the business systematic risk. Therefore the financial systematic
risk is reflected in a beta value of: 1.45 1.20 = 0.25.
7. Debt capacity concerns an assets ability to act as security for a loan.
8. The PV of the tax shield is based on debt capacity. Therefore the PV of the tax
shield can be calculated as:
2500 0.10 = 250 0.35 = 87.50 = Annual tax relief
PV of tax relief: 87.50 A50.10 (1.10)1 = 301.54.
692
Chapter 22
1. The dividend decision could be said to be irrelevant because it does not affect the
overall return on the shares, but simply determines how that return is split up
between dividend and capital gain.
2. Given the irrelevancy argument of the dividend decision, a company should invest
as much of its retained earnings as possible in positive NPV projects. If all earnings
cannot be utilized in this way, then the residual should be paid out as a dividend. In
this way, shareholder wealth will be maximized.
3. If dividends are to be truly irrelevant, then companies must be indifferent between
financing projects with retained earnings and financing via cash raised externally.
For this to be the case, the companys capital structure must also be an irrelevant
consideration.
4. The bird-in-the-hand argument is that dividends, because they represent a certain
current cash flow, are worth more than retained earnings which represent an
uncertain future cash flow. Hence dividends are preferred to capital gains.
5. Investors with high marginal rates of personal tax are likely to prefer capital gains
to dividends. There are two reasons. The first is that the marginal rate of capital
gains tax is likely to be less than the marginal rate of tax on dividends. Secondly,
the investor can control the time at which he takes his capital gains to give the
greatest degree of tax efficiency. In contrast dividends must be taken when the
company decides to pay them.
6. The clientele effect implies that companies should follow a consistent dividend
policy to attract a specific clientele of investors.
7. There are two main classes of evidence. One is that companies seem reluctant to
face a situation where they have to reduce dividends from one year to the next.
Thus dividend growth lags behind earnings growth. The other evidence suggests
that share prices react significantly to unexpected changes in dividends.
8. Given the evidence on signalling, to retain an expected dividend for capital
investment purposes might be thought of as unwise. The market might interpret
the decision as a signal about an unfavourable financial position.
There is, however, evidence that so long as shareholders are properly prepared by
the company, the withholding of a dividend for investment purposes can be seen as
a good thing.
Chapter 23
1. Increased revenues, reduced operating costs, tax savings and financing savings.
2. By generating economies of scale and so lowering unit costs of production,
increased efficiency through coordination of activities, use of complementary
resources and the elimination of weak management teams.
3. No, unless it helps to reduce the volatility of the companys cash flow and so lower
its risk of debt default, resulting in increased debt capacity and a lower cost of debt
capital.
4. Offer: One A share for four B shares.
One A share is worth
480p 4 B shares = 120p bid value.
Acquisition premium
120p 100p = 20p per share or 20p/110p = 20%.
5. Post-acquisition As share price is likely to fall as a result of payment of the
acquisition premium. However, synergy benefits might offset this effect.
6. The key advantages of an acquisition-led growth strategy are: speed, achievement
of critical mass, use of companys own shares to finance the strategy; allows the
acquisition of the intellectual assets as well as the tangible assets of the business.
7. Because of the coinsurance effect.
8. It will harm the position of shareholders as it will result in a transfer of wealth from
shareholders to debt holders.
693
CHAPTER 25
9. Two factors. One is the variability of the companys cash flows the greater the
variability, the greater the potential for a reduction in variability, and so the greater
the potential gain to shareholders. The other factor is the correlation coefficient of
the two companies cash flows. The further away it is from +1, the greater will be
the coinsurance effect and the greater the consequent gain to debt holders.
10. When A bids for B through a share-for-share exchange and B is valued on a lower
PER than A.
11. The post-acquisition PER of the predator company will be an average of the
pre-acquisition PERs of the two companies, weighted by their earnings.
12. They will try to: (a) argue that the value of the bid undervalues the company and
(b) question the desirability of the terms of the offer.
13. If the post-acquisition market share is in excess of 25% and there are significant
barriers to new entrants to the industry.
14. The value of the cash alternative will typically be around 10% below the value of
the share-for-share exchange. The main reason for this is to account for the fact
that the value of the cash offer is certain, whilst the value of the share-for-share
exchange varies as the predators share price changes.
Chapter 24
Chapter 25
1. Spot:
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
187.50 192.40
less premium:
1.20 1.10
Forward:
186.30 191.30
As the forward rate is at a premium, the first currency () is appreciating against
the second currency (). Therefore, it follows that the must be depreciating
against the .
350 000 187.50 = 65.625mn cost.
3.5mn 191.30 = 18 296 receipt.
$/:
1.5280
E/: 1.6240
1.6240
E/$:
1.5280
E/$
1.0628
187.50 [1 0.03]4 [1 + 0.10]2 = 200.85: Year 6 forward.
Using the IRPT:
1.5815
US bills yield = 1.05
19.18%.
1.5210
694
Future $/ spot:
9.
0.05 0.06
= 0.0094
1.06
1.5835(1 0.0094) = 1.5686
0.07 0.07
=0
1.07
1.5686(1 + 0) = 1.5686
0.09 0.05
= +0.038
1.05
1.5686(1 + 0.038) = 1.6282
Current $/ spot
Year 1 forecast
Year 2 forecast
Year 3 forecast
Chapter 26
1.
1.05
1.4550 = 1.4832.
1.03
Year 1
Year 2
Year 3
:
:
:
:
1.5835
1.5686
1.5686
1.6282
Spot:
1.1020 1.1050
less Premium:
Forward
180
165
1.0840 1.0885
Ex = 99 173
Sell E99 173 at spot to give:
E99 173 1.1050 = $89 750 received now.
0.11
= 90 573
(c) $89 750. 1 +
12
As the forward market hedge produces $91 869 in one months time, the
forward market hedge is best.
4. $ / =
9.8040
= 1.9216.
5.1020
695
CHAPTER 26
(ii) A spot sale of $100 000 at 1.70 will yield: 58 823.53 therefore allow
option to lapse and sell currency in spot market.
(b) (i) A spot purchase of $100 000 at 1.95 will only cost 51 282.05. Therefore
spot purchase $100 000 and then sell them through exercising the option
to yield a profit of: 55 555.56 51 282.05 = 4273.51.
(ii) A spot purchase of $100 000 at 1.70 would cost 58 823.53, therefore it is
not worth exercising the option allow it to lapse.
6. The deal will be done at the worst rate to forward sell the dollar: 1.7650.
7. (a) OTC options available in large numbers of currencies, traded currency
options available only in major currencies.
(b) OTC options available in cross currencies, traded currency options are only
available against dollars.
(c) OTC options are available for any reasonable exercise date; traded currency
options only 3/6/9 months forward.
(d) OTC option prices determined by bank. Thus a big company can use its
financial strength to strike a better deal.
(e) A very large transaction may be difficult to arrange on a traded currency
option exchange (LIFFE).
(f) OTC currency options are not dependent on the option exchange being open
to deal or exercise.
(g) OTC currency options are available for any amount of currency; traded
currency options come in standardized amounts (i.e. 25 000 is the unit in
sterling options).
8. (a) Target receipt:
$526 000 1.1050 = E476 081
Number of contracts:
$526 000 1.1060 =
E 475 587
= 9.51 10 contracts.
E50 000
Buy or sell?
contract size currency: E (E50 000 per contract);
cash market: sell 526 000 and buy E;
therefore: buy futures.
Hedge: buy 10 $/E futures for September at $1.1060.
(b) In August, the company receives $526 000 which it sells at spot:
$526 000 1.0580 =
Target receipt:
Profit on target:
E497 164
E476 018
E 21 146
Close out the futures position: sell 10 $/E September futures at $1.0595.
Loss on futures:
Bought: 10 E50 000 1.1060 =
Sold:
10 E50 000 1.0550 =
Loss:
E21146
= 95.9%.
E22 038
696
175 000
= 14 contracts.
12 500
=
=
These dollars would then have to be bought at spot to pay off the loss: $14 000
1.3800 = 7865 cost. Therefore the net cost of invoice: 167 135 + 7865 =
175 000, which is the same as the outcome of the forward market hedge.
Chapter 27
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
697
Answers to Problems
Chapter 2
Decision objectives
problem 1
If shareholders want to ensure that their managers act in the best interests of shareholders, then it is vital that an attempt is made to bring managers own personal objectives into line with their shareholders objectives. This can be done through a
variety of schemes designed to give the management an incentive to be wealth maximizers rather than just satisficers.
One obvious approach would be to link management pay to profitability. This could be
done either in absolute terms or in relative terms via earnings per share. However, this
raises two problems. The first concerns the undoubted conflict that can occur between
short-term and long-term profitability. It is difficult to devise an incentive scheme based
on long-term profitability managers are often in their positions for a relatively short
time and want to be rewarded via an incentive scheme on a yearly basis and therefore
there is always the temptation to sacrifice long-term profitability for short-term profitability. (An example would be where the use of lower quality raw materials increases
product contribution, but damages the longer-term reputation of the product.)
The second difficulty with incentive schemes based on profit is that the level of profitability is not solely a function of managerial ability and effort. A large number of
external macroeconomic factors that are outside the control of management such as
the rate of national economic growth affect the profitability of the firm. A fundamental
principle of any incentive scheme is that it should be related directly to effort and should
not be affected by other factors. Thus, to reward management for a rise in profitability
that is unconnected with their efforts or to penalize them for a fall in profitability that
has been caused by external economic influences outside their control would mean that
the incentive scheme was not performing its intended task.
To avoid both these problems, it would be better to link the incentive scheme to the
share price of the company (or, in the case of a company not quoted on a stock market,
link the incentive scheme to a periodic private valuation of the shares). In so doing, this
gets over the problem of a possible conflict between the long and short term (to some
extent) as the share price should reflect all the implications of managements actions.
In addition, if the incentive scheme was linked to relative share price performance,
this would then ensure that only the superior or inferior actions of the managements
performance would be rewarded or penalized. What is meant by linking the incentive
scheme to relative share price performance is that the link should be between the performance (i.e. increase or decrease) in the companys share price relative to the share price
of its competitors. In this way macroeconomic influences on the companys share price
(which are largely beyond the control of the management) can be screened out of the
incentive reward system.
In essence, a perfect incentive scheme would be almost impossible to devise in that it
should try to take the following factors into account.
698
ANSWERS TO PROBLEMS
3. It should work both ways: rewarding good performance and penalizing poor.
4. It should take into account the maximum level of risk to which shareholders are
willing to expose themselves. This is to avoid a potential problem (particularly with a
one-way scheme) where managers take very high risks in the hope that they will
pay off and so they generate a large bonus, with the knowledge that if a risky venture
fails, managers can always leave and find a job elsewhere (leaving the mess for the
shareholders to clean up).
5. The incentive scheme should operate over the same time horizon as that used by
shareholders for decision making, so as to avoid the problem (referred to above) of
short term versus long term.
6. The scheme should be simple in structure and easy to understand by all parties and it
should be cheap to monitor.
7. Management should not be able to artificially manipulate the schemes criteria.
problem 2
problem 3
Chapter 3
Given that the total outlay for the electronics project is 2 million, the
project pays back a total of 1.6 million at Year 3 and 2.4 million at Year 4. Therefore,
breakeven is achieved at approximately Year 3.5. The decision advice here is ambiguous.
CHAPTER 3
699
On the one hand the project does not pay back within three years of the projects
starting date, while on the other hand it does pay back within three years (actually 2.5
years) of the completion of the capital expenditure.
Property project
The property project has a straight three-year payback and so just meets the decision
criterion.
Mining project
Again, the decision advice is ambiguous. The project pays back its outlay in two years
and so, on that criterion, is acceptable. However, a further outlay is required at Year 4.
(b) The best choice here is not clear. One interpretation would be to accept the Electronics project as it pays back in 2.5 years as opposed to three years for the Property
project.
An alternative interpretation would be that the Property project pays back by Year 3
while the Electronics project pays back by Year 3.5. Therefore, the former should be
accepted.
A further factor to consider is the post-payback cash flows. Post-payback, the Electronics project generates a further 1.2 million. The Property project only generates a
further 400 000 post-payback. Quite simply, there is no clearly correct decision using
payback.
(c) The Mining project, on one basis, has a payback of two years against a payback of
three years for the Property project. However, the Mining project requires an extra
0.75 million outlay and only generates a net 0.05 million post-payback. In contrast,
the Property project does not require any further capital expenditure and generates 0.4
million post-payback. Again the correct decision advice is unclear.
(d) The payback decision criterion should really take the project risk into account. The
more risky the project (that is, the more uncertain its expected future cash flows) the
shorter should be the maximum permitted payback.
Almost certainly, these three projects are of unequal risk. Clearly the property project,
with its rent-paying tenant already installed, has much less uncertain cash flows than the
other two projects. Thus the companys use of the same decision criterion for all three
divisions does not appear sensible.
problem 2
(a) Payback calculation (excluding working capital)
Year
0
1
2
3
4
80 000
Scrap value
Therefore the project has less than a three-year payback and is acceptable. However, it is
debatable whether, in this example, working capital should be excluded from the analysis
as it is not fully recovered. If it were to be included, then the analysis would be:
700
ANSWERS TO PROBLEMS
Year
0
(50 000)
50 000
60 000
110 000
20 000
80 000
40 000
1
2
3
4
Scrap value
Working capital recovery
The project now takes longer than three years to pay back and should not be accepted.
ROCE calculation
Annual depreciation: (200 000 80 000) 4 = 30 000
Year
1
2
3
4
Depreciation
30 000
30 000
30 000
30 000
=
=
=
=
=
Profit
20 000
30 000
80 000
(10 000)
Total profit
120 000
30000
= 0.12
250000
As the project only has a ROCE of 12%, against a decision criterion of 13%, it is
unacceptable.
Advice
The project does not meet the firms ROCE criterion and, on one interpretation, nor
does it satisfy the payback criterion. Therefore, on balance, the advice would be to
reject.
(b) Normally, working capital (WC) is excluded from the payback analysis on the basis
that it is automatically paid back whenever the project is terminated: the stocks are eliminated and the debtors pay up. However, in the project currently under consideration,
working capital is not fully recovered. In such circumstances there is a strong argument
for including working capital expenditure (i.e. expenditure on current assets) along with
expenditure on fixed assets (capital expenditure) in the payback calculation.
(c) In many ways, the return on average capital employed is a more sensible measure of
profitability than the return on initial capital employed. Average annual profits are compared to the average capital employed in generating those profits. The average annual
profit is 30 000. The average capital employed is given by
Capital expenditure Scrap value
+
+
WC expenditure WC recovered
=
2
(200 000 + 50 000 ) + (80 000 + 40 000 )
= 185000
2
CHAPTER 4
701
Chapter 4
FIG. P4.1
t1
630
III
420
I
300
FIL
II
PIL
200
300
(1.08)
500
t0
702
ANSWERS TO PROBLEMS
If the market interest rate moved to 4%, then all three projects would be
accepted.
(ii) If the market interest rate moved to 25% then only Project II would be
accepted.
(iii) If the market interest rate moved to 20% then Project II would be accepted and
Project III would be rejected. However, the firm would be indifferent between
accepting or rejecting Project I as it gives the same return as the market.
(d) The new project produces a return of 32% (330/250) 1 = 0.32. Thus the firm
would now undertake Projects I, II and IV. However this would require a total investment of 550 at t0. As the firm only has 500 available at t0, it should borrow the additional 50 required at the market interest rate of 8%.
If the firm cannot borrow additional resources, or does not wish to do so, then the
optimal investment decision is to accept Projects II and IV and 50% of Project I, as Fig.
P4.2 shows.
FIG. P4.2
t1
960
III
750
I
660
IV
300
II
250
50
50
300
500
t0
CHAPTER 5
Chapter 5
703
Year
0
1
.
.
.
.
6
7
.
.
.
10
Net revenue
+ 0.5
.
.
.
.
.
+ 0.5
+ 0.3
.
.
.
+ 0.3
+ 0.5
6
10
(1.8 0.5)
10 = 0.13mn/year
0.5 0.13 =
0.37 mn/year, Years 1 to 6
0.3 0.13 =
0.17mn/year, Years 7 to 10
Average annual profit: [(0.37 6) + (0.17 4)] 10 = 0.29 million
1.8 + 0.5
= 1.15 million
2
0.29
= 0.252 or 25.2 %
Return on average capital employed =
1.15
0.29
Return on initial capital employed =
= 0.161 or 16.1%
1.8
Average capital employed:
(c) The project pays back its outlay on capital expenditure after 3.6 years.
(d) Report to the chairman
Trionym PLC
Subject: Chocolate-coating machine decision
It is advised that the capital expenditure proposal should be evaluated on the basis of the
net present value (NPV) decision rule. This decision rule, given certain assumptions
outlined below, will ensure that projects are selected only if they lead to an increase in
the market value of the companys shares.
On this basis, the chocolate-coating machine currently under consideration should be
undertaken as it has a positive NPV of 343 200. This indicates that, as a result of acceptance, the total market value of Trionyms equity should rise by this amount (and so
increase shareholders wealth).
The NPV investment appraisal decision rule can be justified on the basis of a number
of interconnected reasons. First, it evaluates investment proposals on the basis of cash
704
ANSWERS TO PROBLEMS
flow, rather than profitability. This is important because a capital investment decision is
an economic (or resource allocation) decision and the economic unit of account is cash,
not accounting profit. This is because it is cash, not profit, which gives power to
command resources. Accounting profit is not, in fact, a decision-making concept at all. It
is a reporting concept, used to report on the outcome of investment (and other)
decisions.
The second reason to justify the use of NPV is that it takes account of the time value
or opportunity cost of cash through the discounting process. Money has a time value in
the sense that a rate of interest or rate of return can be earned by investing money (the
return expected from such an investment being determined by the risk involved). Therefore, when money is invested in a particular project, the opportunity cost or the rate of
return available elsewhere from a similar risk investment that is forgone must be taken
into account.
This is achieved through the discounting process used by the NPV technique. As a
result, the magnitude of the NPV indicates how much extra return that particular
project produces (in current terms) over and above the return available elsewhere from a
similar risk investment. Therefore, by having a 343 200 positive NPV, when discounted at 18%, the chocolate-coating machine can be said to produce an extra return of
that amount, over and above the 18% return available elsewhere.
This leads directly on to the third justification for the use of the NPV decision rule.
The magnitude of the NPV indicates the increase in the companys total equity market
value or the increase in shareholder wealth that will arise from the project. Thus the
decision rule can be seen to link in directly with the companys overall objective.
However, there are two important reservations that should be mentioned about the
advice given above. The first is that it is assumed that the company is not facing any
form of effective capital expenditure constraint (either internally or externally imposed).
The second is that an 18% discount rate does correctly reflect the projects risk and so
represents the return available elsewhere on the capital market from an investment with
a similar degree of risk.
(e) Discounted payback (mn)
Year
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
.
.
Capital
Net
expenditure cash flow
1.8
+ 0.5
+ 0.5
+ 0.5
+ 0.5
+ 0.5
+ 0.5
+ 0.3
.
.
1.8
+ 0.4237
+ 0.3591
+ 0.3043
+ 0.2579
+ 0.2185
+ 0.1852
+ 0.0942.
.
.
CHAPTER 5
705
(ii) In the case of the chocolate-coating machine, given a five-year payback criterion, the project will not produce a positive NPV at the end of five years: only after
6.5 years will it reach the zero NPV breakeven point.
(iii) Discounted payback has all the advantages of the normal NPV technique, but
with one important addition. Many companies feel that they only have a limited ability
to forecast accurately future project cash flows and so are uncomfortable at making a
decision on a project based on forecasted cash flows over the whole of its life, when
some of the estimated cash flows in later years may be more like guesses rather than
estimates. Discounted payback can be used to acknowledge this reality by placing on
the projects evaluation an artificial time horizon, which may be used to indicate the
perceived limits of the managements forecasting ability.
(iv) However, this additional advantage of discounted payback is also a disadvantage. The technique does not take into account project cash flows that arise outside
the maximum acceptable payback criterion. Thus the decision-making process may
be seriously biased towards shorter-term rather than longer-term projects.
(f) Decision criteria
The main problem with the current investment appraisal procedures of Trionym plc is
that the decision rules can give conflicting advice. Under these circumstances, it is not at
all clear how the company would resolve such conflicts nor is it clear whether such a resolution would necessarily lead to optimal decisions being taken.
problem 2
(a) Calculations
Project 1
000
Project 2
000
200
100
500
263
100
237
Initial investment
Scrap value
556
56
1 616
301
Total depreciation
500
1 315
5
= Annual depreciation
100
263
306
1616 + 301
2
(ii)
958.5
32.7%
(556)
687
24.7%
(1 616)
1 717
29
156
706
ANSWERS TO PROBLEMS
+ 160
+ 257
160
14% +
(20% 14%) = 24%
160 64
NPV = + 257
NPV = + 0
20%
200
556
2.8
Project 1
32.7%
+ 160
24%
2.8
500
1 616
3.2
Project 2
24.7%
+ 257
20%
3.2
Best project
1
2
1
1
(b) On the basis of the calculations made in answer to part (a), Congo Ltd should undertake Project 2. In doing so they would be following the advice given by the NPV decision rule and would be rejecting the advice given by the other three decision criteria.
The NPV decision advice should be accepted because it provides the correct decision
advice, given a perfect capital market. Project 2 will lead to the greatest increase in
shareholder wealth as it has the largest positive NPV.
All three of the other investment appraisal techniques can be faulted and so give unreliable decision advice.
(i) The ARR evaluates the projects in percentage terms and so ignores differences
in outlay. It does not use any discounting process and so ignores the time value of
money. It evaluates the projects on the basis of their profitability, which is incorrect.
Accounting profit is a reporting concept, not a decision-making concept.
(ii) The IRR method cannot be relied upon to give the correct decision advice in a
situation such as this which involves mutually exclusive projects. This is for two
reasons. One is because, like the ARR, it evaluates on the basis of a percentage and
so ignores differences in project outlay. The other is that it employs an incorrect
assumption about the rate at which project-generated cash flows are reinvested.
(iii) The payback method can be criticized on two grounds. First, as discounted
payback has not been used, the time value of money has been ignored. Secondly, the
approach does not evaluate project cash flows that lie beyond the project payback
time period.
CHAPTER 6
707
Chapter
Chapter66 Net
Netpresent
presentvalue
valueand
andinternal
internalrate
rateofofreturn
return
problem
problem11
(a)
Type A
At 4% NPV = +558 (approx.)
At 20% NPV = + 47 (approx.)
558
IRR = 4% +
(20% 4%)= 21.5%
558 47
Type B
At 4% NPV = +849 (approx.)
At 20% NPV = 86 (approx.)
849
IRR = 4% +
(20% 4%)= 18.5%
849 86
IRR = 4% +
(20% 4%)= 15.0%
291 + 133
In this cash flow there are two changes in sign and so two IRRs can be expected. The
problem is that in such circumstances, the IRR decisions rules break down absolutely
and cannot be operated reliably.
Another serious problem with the IRR is confined to decisions concerning mutually
exclusive projects. Under these circumstances the normal IRR decision rule i.e. accept
whichever alternative project produces the largest IRR (given that it exceeds the cut-off
rate) cannot be relied upon to give the correct investment decision advice. The problem
is caused by the fact that the IRR calculation for a project implicitly assumes that the
project cash flows possess an opportunity cost equal to the IRR of the generating project.
708
ANSWERS TO PROBLEMS
Thus, when comparing mutually exclusive projects with different IRRs, the implicit
assumption becomes inconsistent and, as a result, the decision rule fails. A modified decision rule can be used (as in (a) above) but the rule is really no more than a rule of thumb
with very little underlying logic to sustain it.
In contrast, given the circumstances surrounding Saucy Steamboats Ltd, the net
present value decision rule evades these difficulties and can be relied upon to produce
correct investment decision advice, given the assumption that the discount rate used
reflects the projects risk level correctly.
problem
problem22
(a) 000s
Project A
Discount rate
4%
8%
12%
18%
NPV
+21
+14
+ 7
2
Project B
Discount rate
4%
8%
12%
18%
NPV
+26
+14
+ 3
10
(b) From the graph shown in Fig. P6.1, the internal rate of return of Project A is
approximately 17% and the internal rate of return of Project B is approximately 13%.
(c) Based on the information given and the graph, the following advice should be given
to Mr Cowdrey:
(i) if his discount rate is 6%, Project B should be undertaken, because at a 6% discount rate the NPV of Project B is higher than for Project A;
(ii) if his discount rate is 12%, Project A should be chosen, because the NPV of
Project A is higher than the NPV for Project B.
(d) The following additional information would be useful to Mr Cowdrey in making the
decision:
(i) The degree of accuracy of the cash flow estimates.
(ii) Tax implications and how these might affect the projects cash flows.
(iii) Riskness of each project.
(iv) Effects, if any, of each projects acceptance on the overall business risk.
(v) Existence of other projects not included in the current appraisal.
(vi) More general social effects that acceptance of the project would impose on the
firm, its employees and its surrounding environment.
(vii) Cut-off rate required by Mr Cowdrey.
(e) The decision rule under the NPV method is to accept all projects that yield positive
NPVs when discounted at the specified discount rate. Under the IRR method, all projects with IRRs that exceed the required rate should be accepted. Both methods give the
same decision advice in simple accept/reject situations. However, we have argued that,
theoretically, the NPV method should be preferred.
The NPV approach is more consistent with the assumed objective of maximization of
shareholders wealth than the IRR method. In a simple accept/reject situation, knowledge of the projects NPV is sufficient to ensure that the shareholders wealth will be
maximized when the present value of the future stream of cash flows received by the
shareholders is maximized. However, knowledge of a projects IRR is not in itself sufficient for optimal investment decisions, nor is it necessary; the IRR method makes economic sense only because in simple accept/reject situations it gives the same decision as
the NPV method.
CHAPTER 6
FIG. P6.1
709
+NPV
(000)
28
26
24
22
20
18
16
14
12
10
8
6
13%
17%
2
0
2
4
12
18
Discount rate %
Project A
6
10
14
Project B
NPV
(000)
The two methods may give different decision advice when choosing between two
mutually exclusive investments. This difference stems from the different assumptions
made regarding the reinvestment rates of intermediate cash flows. The NPV approach
assumes that intermediate cash flows can be reinvested at a rate of interest equivalent to
that used as the discount rate. The IRR method assumes that these can be reinvested and
earn a return equal to the projects IRR. Of the two, it appears that the NPV assumption
is more realistic, given a perfect capital market.
When viewed in a ranking situation, the NPV approach assumes that the discount rate
reflects the opportunity cost of capital. The opportunity cost concept under the IRR
method is less valid because of the IRR reinvestment assumption. In fact, the actual
opportunity cost of funds does not even enter into the IRR method when the method is
used for ranking.
The NPV method gives an absolute measure that may be more meaningful than the
average concept used in the IRR method. Also, the NPV method is generally more flexible. It can be easily adjusted to include multiple discount rates over time.
Multiple rates of return are possible under the IRR method. The presence of multiple
rates of return makes interpretation difficult, and, for some patterns of cash flows, under
the IRR method it may not be possible to derive a meaningful IRR at all.
All that said, however, it is often argued that the theoretical difficulties of the IRR
method are outweighed by its practical advantages. For instance, being based on a rate of
return concept, the method is more easily understood and accepted by managers. It is also
argued that the method obviates the decision maker from having to work out the firms
710
ANSWERS TO PROBLEMS
discount rate, which in itself poses a number of problems. The NPV method, on the other
hand, requires the decision maker to determine the discount rate to be used from the start.
problem 3
(a) As funds are readily available at the market interest rate of 10%, you should accept
all projects having a positive net present value (NPV) when discounted at 10%. Justification for the NPV rule is based on two main assumptions:
(i) that the companys objective is to maximize the wealth of its shareholders, as
measured by the current market value of its ordinary shares;
(ii) that the discount rate used (the companys cost of capital) reflects the return
available elsewhere on similar-risk investments.
If these assumptions hold, the net present value of a project measures the amount by
which the wealth of a companys shareholders will change if the project is accepted (an
increase if the NPV is positive and vice versa).
The NPVs of the four projects under consideration are
NPV
Project 1
Project 2
Project 3
Project 4
= 13
2
+ 1 400 (1 + 0.1)
+ (1 400 0.8264) = + 248
2
+ 600 (1 + 0.1)
+ (600 0.8264)
= + 223
= 243
(Reject)
(Accept)
(Accept)
(Reject)
(b) The decision rule would then be: accept whichever project has the largest positive
NPV. This is Project 2.
The decision rule does not have to take account of (i) differing project lives or (ii) differing capital outlays because it is assumed that (i) all considerations of risk are allowed
for in the discount rate and (ii) there is a perfect capital market.
(c) Project 2
10% discount rate NPV +248
20% discount rate NPV + 55
248
IRR = 10% +
(20% 10%)=23%
248 55
Project 3
10% discount rate NPV +223
20% discount rate NPV + 83
223
IRR = 10% +
(20% 10%)=26%
223 83
It would not be valid to use the normal IRR decision rule for mutually exclusive projects:
accept whichever project has the largest IRR, given that it is greater than the cut-off
rate. This is because the IRR decision rule makes an incorrect assumption concerning
the opportunity cost of project-generated cash flows which makes its decision advice
unreliable when faced with mutually exclusive projects.
The alternative decision rule, making use of the IRR of the differential cash flow is:
(i) If IRR (differential cash flow) > cut-off rate, accept the project with the smallest
IRR.
CHAPTER 6
711
(ii)
If IRR (differential cash flow) < cut-off rate, accept the project with the largest
IRR.
Therefore:
Project 2
1 000
+ 100
+1 400
+ 500
23 %
+ 248
Project 3
1 000
+ 800
+ 600
+ 400
26%
+ 223
2 minus 3
0
700
+ 800
14 1%
3
700 +
100
= i = 0143
. , or14 13 %)
700
As the IRR (2 minus 3) > 10%, accept the project with the smallest IRR (Project 2)
which is, of course, the project with the largest positive NPV. The result is shown
graphically in Fig. P6.2.
(d) The principal reasons for the managerial preference for IRR over NPV are as
follows.
(i) Management are familiar with a decision rule that uses a percentage rate of
return.
FIG. P6.2
+NPV
+500
+400
+248
+223
10 141/3
23
26
NPV
Discount rate %
3
712
ANSWERS TO PROBLEMS
(ii)
With IRR, the discount/cut-off rate does not have to be specified in the calculations, but only at the time of the final decision. Even then, an exact cut-off
rate does not need to be specified. The decision can be made in reply to the
question: Is this projects IRR sufficiently high to make it acceptable?
(iii) Many managements (incorrectly) see a link between a projects IRR, current
market interest rates and accounting rates of return.
(iv) Many managements believe (incorrectly) that the capital rationing problem can
more easily be overcome by using IRR instead of NPV (see Chapter 8).
Using IRR instead of NPV may well lead to the wrong project being selected when a
mutually exclusive choice has to be made among alternatives, but it should not lead to a
project being accepted that has a negative NPV (i.e. the IRR decision rule will help
select investments that will increase shareholder wealth, but not necessarily maximize it).
Of course, this ignores the problem of multiple IRRs where such a choice is possible, but
probably unlikely. Furthermore, both DCF methods only evaluate a project in terms of
their quantifiable financial effects. Most managements have a high level of qualitative
factor inputs into a decision, such as strategic reasons or competitiveness.
Chapter 7
(i)
(ii)
1 200 000
300 000
900 000
225 000
675 000
168 750
506 250
126 562
379 688
94 922
284 766
200 000
84 766
0.25 =
300 000
0.4
0.25 =
225 000
0.4
90 000
0.25 =
168 750
0.4
67 500
0.25 =
126 562
0.4
50 625
0.25 =
94 922
0.4
37 969
=
=
Sale proceeds
Balancing allowance 0.4 = 33 906
CHAPTER 7
713
1
=
1
720 000
0.9091
=
2
450 000
0.8264
=
3
427 500
0.7513
=
4
410 625
0.6830
=
5
747 969
0.6209
=
6
(206 094)
0.5645
=
Net project
cash flow
=
=
=
=
=
=
=
(1 350)
720
450
427.5
410.625
747.969
(206.094)
PV cash flow
(1 350 000)
654 552
371 880
321 181
280 457
464 414
(116 340)
626 144
problem 2
Contract 1: PV costs (000s)
Special materials
Other materials
Skilled labour
Unskilled labour
0
30
30
1
100
42
58.8
110
46.2
64.7
200.8
220.9
12.05
13.25
212.85
234.15
0.9091
0.9091 0.8621
30
193.50
183.51
1
120
42
66.15
2
132
46.2
72.75
Direct costs
Variable overheads (6% direct costs)
228.15
13.7
250.95
15.05
241.85
0.9091
266.0
0.9091 0.8621
PV cash flows
219.87
208.47
PV: 407.01
Contract 2: PV costs (000s)
Other materials
Skilled labour
Unskilled labour
PV: 428.34
714
ANSWERS TO PROBLEMS
=
=
467 730
+700 000
+232 270 NPV
=
=
505 911
+680 000
+174 089 NPV
Therefore the best option, given the constraints, is to produce Contract 2 in-house and
subcontract Contract 1. This results in the greatest amount of aggregate NPV.
Chapter 8
Capital rationing
problem 1
(a) The conflict arises from the differing assumptions that the NPV and IRR methods
make about the opportunity cost (or reinvestment rate) of generated cash flows. Given a
perfect capital market, the NPVs assumption that their opportunity cost is equal to the
market interest rate (for that level of risk) is correct. The IRRs assumption that their opportunity cost is equal to the IRR of the project which generates the cash flows is incorrect.
Therefore the company should accept the alternative with the largest positive NPV:
the electrically powered vans. This selection will provide the greatest increase to shareholder wealth.
(b) Given that the situation is one of single-period capital rationing, the capital allocation problem can be solved using benefitcost ratios:
Project
A
B
C
D
Petrol fleet (P-F)
Electrical fleet (E-F)
Benefitcost ratio
60/50
= 1.2
40/80
= 0.5
84/140
= 0.6
32/80
= 0.4
80/100
= 0.8
110.5/170
= 0.65
Ranking
1
5
4
6
2
3
CHAPTER 8
715
CAPITAL RATIONING
As projects P-F and E-F are mutually exclusive (the two van fleets) two alternative
combinations of projects have to be evaluated, each containing one of the mutually
exclusive alternatives:
Project
A
P-F
C
Outlay at t0
50
100
140
290
Project
A
E-F
0.5C
Outlay at t0
50
170
70
290
NPV:
60 + 80 + 84 = +224 000
NPV:
60 + 110.5 + 42 = 212 500
Therefore, projects A, C and the petrol-powered van fleet should be accepted as this
will provide the largest total of positive NPV, given the capital constraint.
(c) If the delivery fleet project were delayed by one year, their NPVs become:
P-F
E-F
80/1.15
110.5/1.15
=
=
69 565
96 087
Clearly, the electrically powered van fleet is the best alternative. Therefore, excluding
the above from the capital rationing problem:
Project
A
C
B
1D
4
Outlay at t0
50
140
80
20
290
NPV:
60 + 84 + 40 + 8 = 192 000
Hence, the total NPV would be: 192 000 + 96 087 = +288 087, which represents a
gain of 64 087 over the original solution. This is the additional gain in shareholder
wealth.
problem 2
(a) Accept all projects with NPV 0.
Project
A
B
C
D
E
NPV (000s)
+58.5
+39.3
20.7
+109.1
+38.8
NPV
Rationed investment
716
ANSWERS TO PROBLEMS
000s
A
+ 58.5/100
=
0.585
3
B
+ 39.3/50
=
0.786
2
C
20.7/100
=
0.207
5
D
+ 109.1/100 =
1.091
1
E
+ 38.8/200
=
0.194
4
225 000 available, therefore accept D, B, 75% of A.
Ranking
000s
109.1 + 39.3 + 14.55
D, A, 12 12% of E
000s
162.95 NPV
172.45 NPV
1
2
+58.5/100
+39.3/100
20.7/
+109.1/50
+38.8/50
=
=
=
=
=
0.585
0.393
2.182
0.776
3
4
1
2
Ranking
If project C is accepted, this makes an extra 100 000 of investment finance available
at t1; however, in doing so, a negative NPV (20 700) is incurred. Thus we will have to
examine whether the extra +NPV generated by the additional investment finance outweighs this cost.
150 000 of capital: accept D, E and 50% of A. Total NPV = 177 150.
150 000 + 100 000 of capital: accept D, E, A, 50% of B and C. Total NPV =
205 350. This is the optimal combination.
(f) Let a equal the proportion of Project A undertaken,
b be the proportion of Project B undertaken,
c be the proportion of Project C undertaken,
d be the proportion of Project D undertaken, and
e be the proportion of Project E undertaken.
Objective function
58.5a + 39.3b 20.7c + 109.1d + 38.8e Max
Constraints
100a + 50b + 200c + 100d + 200e
100a + 100b + 50d + 50e
a, b, c, d, e
225
150 + 100c
1
Non-negativity conditions
a, b, c, d, e 0
1a, b, c, d, e
CHAPTER 9
717
(g)
Year 0
Year 1
Year 2
DV of
cash
10% Discount
factor
Total opportunity
cost
0.92
0.84
0
+
+
+
1.0
0.9091
0.8264
=
=
=
1.9200
1.7491
0.8264
Therefore, the company would have to be offered a minimum rate of interest of 117%
before they would be willing to transfer money from t1 to t2.
Chapter 9
Stage 2
Stage 3
The seismic survey. There is a 50% chance that this will reveal that the geology indicates the possibility of oil. If it does, we proceed to the next stage.
But there is also a 50% chance (i.e. 1.0 0.50 = 0.50) that the geology indicates that there will be no oil. Under these circumstances, the company
goes no further and abandons the project.
The exploration wells. If the seismic survey indicates the possibility of oil then
the company will proceed to drill exploration wells to see if oil does actually
occur. There is a 30% chance that the exploration well will discover oil, in
which case we proceed to stage 3. However, there is a 70% chance (i.e. 1.0
0.30 = 0.70) that the exploration well will indicate no oil is present. Under the
circumstances, the company will go no further and abandon the project.
The appraisal wells. If the exploration wells indicate oil then we will proceed to
drill appraisal wells to identify just what quantity of oil is there. There is a 60%
chance that the oil will be in negligible quantities (what the question refers to
as type I). In those circumstances, the project is then obviously abandoned.
However, there is a 32% chance that the appraisal wells will indicate the presence of 42 million barrels of oil (type II) and an 8% chance that 2250 million
barrels of oil will be indicated (type III). Under each of these last two circumstances the company will then proceed to extract the oil.
As a result, there are five possible outcome combinations, or states of the world.
State A
718
ANSWERS TO PROBLEMS
State B
State C
State D
State E
Seismic survey indicates that there may be oil, an exploration well is drilled
and finds no oil. The project is then abandoned.
Seismic survey indicates that there may be oil, an exploration well is drilled
and also indicates oil. Therefore an appraisal well is drilled, but a negligible
amount of oil is found. The project is abandoned.
This is the same as for State C, except the appraisal well discovers 42 million
barrels of oil which the company then extracts.
Again, the same as for State C, except the appraisal well discovers 2250 million
barrels of oil which the company then extracts.
The probability of occurence of each of these five states can be found from the product
of the probability of each event in each state.
State A
0.50 or 50%
State B
State C
State D
State E
State E
14 million barrels per year output for the first two years of the oilfields life
and 7 million barrels per year for the second two years: 14 million +
14 million + 7 million + 7 million = 42 million
300 million barrels per year output for the first five years of the oilfields life
and then 150 million barrels per year for each of the remaining five years:
(5 300 million) + (5 150 million) = 2250 million.
(ii) As all the other financial figures are provided in terms, we need to express the oil
revenues similarly. At $26.40 a barrel and an exchange rate of $1.20 = 1, the revenue
from a barrel is $26.40 1.20 = 22.
(iii) The operating net cash flow (pre-tax) per barrel is: 22 0.45 = 9.90.
(iv) The annual revenues (pre-tax) will be:
7 million barrels = 69.3 million
14 million barrels = 138.6 million
140 million barrels = 1 485 million
300 million barrels = 2 970 million
(v) The annual tax cash flow on these net revenues are as follows:
69.3 million 0.77 = 53.361 million
138.6 million 0.77 = 106.722 million
1 485.0 million 0.77 = 1 143.45 million
2 970.0 million 0.77 = 2 286.9 million
(vi) Finally, there is the timing of cash flows and the discount rate. The licence fee of
20 million and the seismic survey cost of 2 million both occur at Year 0. The appraisal
wells cost of 100 million and the exploration well cost of 10 million both occur at Year
CHAPTER 9
719
1. All exploration costs receive tax relief at 50%. The first oil production revenues occur
at Year 2 and the first tax charge occurs at Year 3. The discount rate is 16%.
The NPV calculations ( millions)
In these calculations (which really test your discounting ability), use can be made of the
fact that a lot of the cash flows are annuities.
State A
Year 0
Year 1
20
2
+10
=22
1
=+11(1.16)
+1
=22.00
=+ 9.48
NPV
State B
Year 0
Year 1
Year 2
20
2
+10
+1
10
+5
=22
1
=+(1.16)
2
=+5(1.16)
=22.00
=+ 0.86
=+ 3.72
NPV
State C
Year 0
Year 1
Year 2
Year 0
Year 1
Year 2
20
2
+10
+1
10
+5
100
+50
22
= 22.00
1
99(1.16) = 85.35
2
+55(1.16) =+40.88
NPV = 66.47
State D
1
2
1
22
99(1.16)
+55(1.16)
+138.6A
2 0 .16 (1.16)
2
3
106.722 A
+ 69.3 A
2 0 .16 (1.16)
2 0 .16 (1.16)
4
53.361 A
2 0 .16 (1.16)
22 85.35 + 40.88 + 191.80
137.32 + 71.27
47.31 = +11.97 NPV
State E
1
2
1
22 99(1.16) + 55(1.16) + 2 970 A
5 0 .16 (1.16)
2
6
2 286.9 A
+ 1 485 A
5 0 .16 (1.16)
5 0 .16 (1.16)
7
1 143 A
5 0 .16 (1.16)
22 85.35 + 40.88 + 8 383.64
5 565.08 + 1 964.37
1 324.10 = +3 892.86 NPV
Expected NPV
mn NPV
12.52
17.42
66.47
+11.97
+3 892.86
Probability
0.50
=
0.35
=
0.09
=
0.048
=
0.012
=
6.26
6.10
5.98
+ 0.57
+ 46.71
+28.94mn ENPV
=12.52
=17.42
=22
=99
=+55
720
ANSWERS TO PROBLEMS
FIG.P 9.1
Probability
0.6
9%
0.32
4.8%
0.08
1.2%
15%
70%
I
II
: oil
lore
Exp
0.50
Exp
lore
: no
oil
0.50
il
y: o
rve
u
S
0
0.3
Su
rve
y: n
0.7 o oil
0
III
NPV
mn
12.52
17.42
Existing
probability
0.50
0.35
State
=6.26
=6.10
ENPV
12.36
A
B
NPV
mn
12.52
17.42
Revised
probability
0.70 =8.76
0.15 =2.61
ENPV 11.37
2.13mn =
0.50 (1.16) =
0.569 =
=
2.13
2.13
2.13/0.569 = 3.74mn (approx.)
problem 2
(a) The market research cost has already been incurred and so can be ignored for decision purposes.
NPV analysis
Outlay: 200 000
Revenue: 250 000 per year
Variable costs: 150 000 per year
Fixed costs: 25 000 per year
Scrap value: 2 000
Life: 4 years
Discount rate: 10%
CHAPTER 9
721
Sensitivity analysis
Let outlay =
4
+75 A
= 0 NPV
4 0 .10 + 2(1.10)
4
= 75 A
= 239 108
4 0 .10 2(1.10)
% change:
Let revenue =
4
200 + A
=0
4 0 .10 175 A
4 0 .10 + 2(1.10)
=
200 + 175 A
2(110
. )4
4 0 .10
A
4 0 .10
% change:
= 237662
250000 237662
= 0.049
250 000
=0
200 + 250 A
4 0 .10 A
4 0 .10 25 A
4 0 .10 + 2(1.10)
=
200 250 A
. )4
4 0 .10 + 25 A
4 0 .10 2(110
= 162 337
4 0 .10
A
% change:
200 + 250 A
=0
4 0 .10 150 A
4 0 .10 A
4 0 .10 + 2(1.10)
=
. )4
200 250 A
4 0 .10 + 150 A
4 0 .10 2(110
= 37 337
A
4 0 .10
% change:
37 337 25000
= 0.494
25000
200 + 75 A
=0
X 0 .10 + 2(1.10)
When = 4 NPV = +39 108
When = 2 NPV = 200 + (75 1.7355) + (2 0.8264) = 68 185
68 185
= 2+
( 4 2) = 3.27 years
68 185 39 108
% change:
4 327
.
= 0.182
4
200 + 50 A
=0
4 0 .10 175 A
4 0 .10 + 2(1.10)
=
200 + 175 A
4 0 .10
50A
2(1.10 )4
4 0 .10
= 4.75
722
ANSWERS TO PROBLEMS
5 4.75
= 0.05
5
% change:
Let sales volume =
=0
200 + (5 3) A
4 0 .10 25 A
4 0 .10 + 2(1.10)
=
. )
200 + 25 A
4 0 .10 2(110
(5 3) A
4 0 .10
% change:
= 43 831 bottles
50 000 43 831
= 0.123
43 831
=0
200 + 250 A
4 0 .10 50 A
4 0 .10 25 A
4 0 .10 + 2(1.10)
=
4
200 250 A
4 0 .10 + 25 A
4 0 .10 + 2(1.10 )
= 3.25
50 A
4 0 .10
% change:
3.25 3
= 0.083
3
Max. % change
19.6% rise
4.9% fall
8.2% rise
49.4% rise
18.2% fall
5.0% fall
12.3% fall
8.3% rise
The sensitivity table indicates that the accept advice given by the NPV analysis is most
sensitive to changes in the estimates of the annual revenue and the sales price. Management should go back and ensure that they cannot significantly improve their confidence
in the reliability of both estimates.
(c) Expected Year 6 sales:
Successful:
28 000 0.5 =
9 000 0.5 =
14 000
4 500
18 500
Unsuccessful:
12 000 0.5 =
5 000 0.5 =
6 000
2 500
8 500
Contribution/sale: 5 3 = 2
ENPV of contribution (000s):
5
6
5
6
+70(1.10)
+37(1.10)
5
6
+14(1.10)
+17(1.10)
=
=
PV
64 350
18 289
Probability
0.6 = 38 610
0.4 = 7 316
+45 926
CHAPTER 9
723
problem 3
(a) Report
Assuming that the investment in Goer is undertaken, is it better to continue with the
project at the end of the first year, or to abandon it?
If it is decided not to abandon the project at Year 1, there is an opportunity cost of
141 000 the payment from Goer that is forgone.
In Year 2, there are four possible outcomes: a cash flow of 80 000, 90 000, 100 000
or 110 000, plus 81 000 final payment.
The NPV of deciding not to abandon at Year 1 is as follows:
Year 1 cash flow: 80 000
Year 1
(141 000)
Year 2
80 000
81 000
NPV at 18%
(3 867)
Prob.
0.6
(2 320)
(141 000)
90 000
81 000
3 314
0.4
1 326
ENPV
(994)
Year 2
81 000
(141 000) 110 000
81 000
NPV at 18%
Prob.
10 497
0.6
6 298
17 679
0.4
7 072
ENPV
13 370
Therefore if, at the end of Year 1, the company receives a cash flow of 80 000, the best
course of action is then to abandon the project (for to continue incurs a negative ENPV
of 994). However, if at the end of Year 1, the company receives a cash flow of 100 000,
the best course of action is to continue the project (for continuing generates a positive
ENPV of 13 370).
724
ANSWERS TO PROBLEMS
Now that the optimal action at Year 1 is known, the overall investment decision can
be evaluated.
There are three possible states of the world. State 1 is where the company receives an
80 000 cash inflow at Year 1 and so abandons the project. The probability of this state
is 0.60.
State II is where the company receives a 100 000 cash inflow at Year 1, continues
with the project and receives another 100 000 cash inflow at Year 2. The probability of
this state is: 0.40 0.60 = 0.24.
State III is where the company receives a 100 000 cash inflow at Year 1, continues
with the project and receives a 110 000 cash inflow at Year 2. The probability of this
state is: 0.40 0.40 = 0.16.
NPV analysis
State
Year 0
Year 1
(201 000)
80 000
141 000
II
(201 000)
100 000
100 000
Year 2
NPV at
18%
(13 702)
Probability
0.6
(8 221)
81 000
0 .24
3 299
81 000
0.16
3 348
ENPV (1 574)
Therefore, despite the abandonment option at Year 1, the overall project is not worthwhile. The company would do better to invest its 20 000 in the money market, which
represents a zero NPV investment.
(b) The practical problems of abandonment analysis relate primarily to the estimation
of the relevant cash flows. It is difficult, if not impossible, to accurately estimate:
(i) annual net cash flows cash flows are usually estimated to be single figures, e.g.
80 000 or 100 000, whereas in reality they might take various alternative
values;
(ii) the conditional probabilities associated with the cash flows;
(iii) the actual abandonment value unless contractual agreements exist, the abandonment value estimated may be subject to substantial error.
Estimates of NPV are likely to be less accurate as the number of years that an abandonment opportunity exists increases.
Abandonment is normally advocated in the first year that the present value of abandonment exceeds the present value of expected cash flows from continued operation.
However, abandonment at a later date might produce an even greater expected present
value. The normal abandonment rule might lead, therefore, to a sub-optimal decision.
Abandonment part-way through the expected economic life might occur for many
reasons, which results in the present value of abandonment exceeding the expected
present value of continuing. Important factors might include unexpected unfavourable
changes in inflation, exchange rates, taxation, labour, material and other costs, the development of new technology, labour disputes and increased competition.
CHAPTER 10
Chapter 10
725
Similarly:
(ii)
1.0
0.8
0.6
0.4
0.2
1 000
2 000
3 000
4 000
Total income
726
ANSWERS TO PROBLEMS
(ii)
2 000 0.5 =
3 500 0.5 =
1 250
1 500
2 750
1 000
1 750
2 750
Variances
(i)
2
(2 500 2 750) 0.50
2
(3 000 2 750) 0.50
= 31 250
= 31 250
(ii)
2
(2 000 2 750) 0.5
2
(3 500 2 750) 0.5
= 281 250
= 281 250
Variance
= 62 500
Variance
= 562 500
(d) (ii) is preferred by the investor even though it has a greater variance than (i) and the
same expected value. Variance is a successful measure of risk where individuals are
risk-averse. The investor is not risk-averse over the range of utilities of (i) and (ii).
CHAPTER 11
Chapter 11
727
PORTFOLIO THEORY
Portfolio theory
problem 1
(a) In Fig. P11.1 AB, BC and AC are joined by straight lines since they are perfectly
positively correlated.
The shaded area represents possible risky portfolios. CML represents the capital
market line. The market portfolio is risky Security B.
(b) The market price of risk is represented by the slope of CML:
015
. 0.08 0.07
=
= 175
.
0.04
0.04
Therefore, investors will receive an expected return of 1.75% (in addition to the
risk-free return) for every 1% increase in risk (standard deviation of return) that they
accept, if they hold an efficient portfolio.
(c) Investors would only be willing to hold risky Security B in possible combination
with the risk-free security, assuming that all investors were risk-averse. This is because
Security B gives the best price for risk, i.e. the maximum slope for the capital market
line. Since A and C do not give as good a price for risk there must be a temporary disequilibrium; they are both giving a return that is too low for the risk involved.
(d)
E(rp)
E(rM)
rF
E(rp)
0.10
0.10
0.02
0.02
=
=
=
=
=
=
=
x E(rM) + (1 x)rF
0.15
0.08
0.10
0.15x + (1 x) 0.08
0.15x + 0.08 0.08x
0.07x
0.07
=
x = 0.286
Thus the investor would place 28.6% of his investment capital in Security B and the
remainder (71.4%) in the risk-free security.
The risk of the resulting portfolio can either be calculated via the market price of risk:
0.10 0.08
= 0.011
1.75
or via:
2
x = 1.714
728
ANSWERS TO PROBLEMS
FIG. P11.1
E(rp )
%
CML
20
15
10
8
Therefore an investor will borrow an amount equivalent to 71.4% of his own funds.
These borrowings, together with his own investment funds, will be placed in Security B.
The risk attached to this portfolio yielding a 20% expected period return is as follows:
via the market price of risk
p =
0.20 0.08
= 0.0686
1.75
or:
2
p = x
problem 3
(a)
CHAPTER 12
(b) p = x
2 2
A
2
+ (1 x)
2
729
+ 2x(1 x)ABAB
=
=
=
x 3% (1 x) 7%
3%x 7% + 7%x
10%x
10%
= x = 0.70
Therefore 70% of the funds should be placed in Project A and the other 30% in Project B.
Chapter 12
then:
Systematic risk of shares = SHARES Risk of market portfolio
Also given:
x + y = x
x
y
+y
x+ y
x+ y
Therefore:
62
4
62
4
62
4
730
ANSWERS TO PROBLEMS
And so:
Systematic
M
risk
V+A
=
0.67
16%
V+B
=
0.698
16%
V+C
=
0.683
16%
In all three cases, the new market value of the
62 million + 4 million = 66 million.
=
10.72%
=
11.17%
=
10.93%
company would be expected to be:
(b) Portfolio theory shows that when assets are combined, the total risk of the combination (measured as standard deviation of returns) is less than a weighted average of the
risks of the individual assets, as long as the assets are less than perfectly positively correlated with each other. The further away the correlation coefficient is from being perfectly positive (i.e. +1), the greater will be the amount of risk reduction.
The simplest type of portfolio is a two-asset portfolio. Vanhal, plus an acquired
company, could be viewed as such a portfolio. For example, if Vanhal were to acquire
company A, then the total risk of the enlarged company would be given by:
2 2
V+A = x
+ 2x(1 x)VAV,A
CHAPTER 12
731
and assuming that they all have the same correlation coefficient with Vanhal (which is
not unrealistic, given the circumstances), then company A is likely to be preferable as it
has the smallest amount of total risk and specific risk. (Non-specific or systematic risk
cannot be diversified away.) If the assumption about the correlation coefficient is unsafe,
then the company best suiting the directors requirements would be that whose combination of total risk and correlation coefficient used in the expression given in answer to
part (b) above would result in the lowest level of total risk for the enlarged company.
(d) Portfolio theory and the capital asset pricing model suggest that investors should
only be interested in systematic risk. As systematic risk cannot be diversified away, there
would be no risk reduction benefits accruing to shareholders as a result of the merger,
assuming that they already hold well diversified investment portfolios.
In fact such a move as that contemplated by Vanhal may be unwelcome to shareholders if it were to significantly change the total market value and beta of the company.
In such circumstances, a shareholder holding a diversified portfolio with a desired beta
value would have to adjust his/her portfolio (and so incur transaction costs) in the light
of the change to Vanhal.
Despite the foregoing, shareholders might still welcome the takeover, even given the
assumption in part (a) of the question that there are no synergy benefits. For example,
shareholders holding non-fully diversified portfolios would gain some risk reduction
effect. Alternatively, if the company taken over was worth more than the 4 million purchase price, then Vanhals shareholders wealth would increase. Again if, as a result of the
takeover, Vanhal were able to increase their debt capacity, then the tax shield benefits (if
they exist) would also accrue to the shareholders (see Chapter 19).
However, given a reasonably efficient capital market with shareholders holding well
diversified investment portfolios, the value to shareholders of such a takeover as that
proposed is likely to be minimal. In fact, the costs (both internally and externally to
Vanhal) associated with the takeover may result in shareholders suffering an actual
reduction in their wealth.
problem 2
(a) Given that Mr Swift has a well diversified portfolio, it will be safe to assume that
most of the unsystematic risk that is attached to the individual securities in the portfolio
will have been diversified away. Thus his portfolio risk will largely consist of systematic
risk and so the variance of returns on his portfolio will essentially measure systematic
risk.
If he wishes to include shares that will reduce his portfolio variance, then he will be
concerned with the covariance of returns between any new share and his existing portfolio. In other words, he is interested in selecting the shares of that company which
would help to bring the greatest reduction in portfolio risk. This would be indicated by
looking at the product of the standard deviation of returns and the correlation with Mr
Swifts existing portfolio:
Dove:
Jay:
Under these circumstances, the optimal course of action for Mr Swift given his
objective would be to invest in the shares of Dove plc.
(b) The CAPM shows that there is a positive relationship between the expected return
on a security and its degree of systematic risk which is normally measured by its beta
value. Thus, the greater the amount of systematic risk the greater will be the expected
return demanded by investors in an equilibrium stock market. The systematic risk of
732
ANSWERS TO PROBLEMS
individual securities can be measured as the product of their standard deviation of return
and their correlation coefficient with the market portfolio. In the case of Dove and Jay,
this gives values for systematic risk of:
Dove:
Jay:
As Dove plc has the higher level of systematic risk, it would follow that Dove should
have the higher expected return, as indeed it does: 9% as against only 7% for Jay plc.
(c) If Mr Swifts portfolio contained shares in a few companies only, then he would be
holding a largely undiversified portfolio. Hence, the variance of returns of the portfolio
would reflect both the systematic and unsystematic risk components as there would be
insufficient diversification to wash out the unsystematic risk.
Without passing comment on whether such a portfolio is wise (although it would
appear sensible for Mr Swift to diversify further), in order to meet his objective on portfolio variance Mr Swift would be most interested in selecting that company which would
help to bring the greatest reduction to the total risk of his existing portfolio.
However, in these particular circumstances a problem arises from the fact that with
small portfolios a securitys contribution to portfolio risk can arise out of its own variance, as well as from its covariance with the existing portfolio. Thus, although Dove plc,
as was seen in the answer to (a), has the smaller covariance with the existing portfolio, it
has a higher variance (or standard deviation) than Jay:
2
D
= 0.1225
J = 0.09
Therefore the final choice between the two companies will depend upon the existing
components of Mr Swifts portfolio and their weights and the resulting changes brought
about through the introduction of the new security.
(d) Shareholders, assuming that they hold well diversified efficient portfolios, will be
interested in the effect on the risk of their portfolio of the addition to it of any particular
security. However, because the portfolio is fully diversified, when a new share is added
(again, assuming that only a marginal investment is made), then that new shares unsystematic risk is eliminated, or is washed out, and it is only the systematic risk that is added
to the portfolio. It is therefore for this reason that the relevant measure of risk for a companys shareholders is the amount of systematic risk. This is most conveniently measured in relative terms via the beta value.
Debt holders are also interested in the systematic risk of their investment which,
again, could be measured by beta. However, as most debt is unquoted, beta does not
provide a convenient measure of risk. Hence debt holders attempt to measure the risk of
a companys debt through a series of alternative measures including the degree of capital
gearing, the interest cover ratio, the amount of tangible assets held by the company and
the stability, or otherwise, of the companys annual net cash flow. Just which of these
factors contribute to systematic risk and which to unsystematic risk is somewhat unclear.
What evidence there is available suggests that all four factors with the possible exception of the amount of tangible assets held are likely to contribute to systematic risk.
Finally, managers, as far as their labour is concerned, hold undiversified portfolios.
Therefore, unlike outside investors, they are interested in the total risk of a company
and in particular the likelihood that it will fall. Thus, managers are likely to measure
risk by the variability of net annual cash flows (i.e. by the variance of corporate net cash
flows), the skew of those cash flows and by the degree of capital gearing. All three factors
will have a bearing on the riskiness of the company as seen from managements
viewpoint.
CHAPTER 13
733
OPTION VALUATION
problem 3
(a) (i) Expected return on Cemenco equity
Average % annual capital gain:
1
[1983 1490] 1 = 0%
3
= c
30% 15% 15
=
1.50
25% 15% 10
(b) It is difficult to predict with any accuracy whether the governments action will make
Cemenco Ltd more or less systematically risky. Although in total risk terms the risk of
the company will be reduced, it is difficult to be certain what will be the effect on systematic risk. The companys revenues will, as always, be fairly sensitive to the level of
Trinkas economic activity and this is unlikely to change by being given a monopoly.
However, there will be price control and this may therefore result in increasing the companys systematic risk exposure.
Chapter 13
Option valuation
problem 1
(i) In order to answer this question, we need to use the Black and Scholes model to
value the Pear call options, where:
S = 415p
X = 400p;
T = 0.25 years
Rf = 0.05
= 0.22.
734
ANSWERS TO PROBLEMS
C = S N (d1) [X e
] N (d2)
where:
( d1 ) =
S
log e + ( Rf T )
X
T
+ (0.5 T
and
(d2) = (d1) T
We will do the calculations, item by item:
log e S/X = log e 415/400 = log e 1.0375 = 0.0368
Rf T = 0.05 0.25 = 0.0125
T = 0.22 0.25 = 0.22 0.50 = 0.11
0.5 T = 0.5 0.11 = 0.055
0.0368 + 0.0125
(d1) =
+ 0.055 = 0.5032
0.11
(d2) = 0.5032 0.11 = 0.3932
Using the area under the normal curve tables:
N (d1) = N (0.50) = 0.5 + 0.1915 = 0.6915
N (d2) = N (0.39) = 0.5 + 0.1517 = 0.6517
and so finally:
0.25 0.05
Rf T
]S
where:
C = 29.5p
X = 400p
S = 415p
e
Rf T
0.05 0.25
=e
= 0.9876
Therefore:
P = 29.5p + [400p 0.9876] 415p = 9.5p
(iii) The delta or hedge ratio for the Pear calls is given by the value of N (d1) = 0.6915.
Therefore, in order to construct a delta neutral hedge on the holding of 50 000 Pear
shares, the investor would need to sell/write:
50 000 shares 0.6915 = 72 307 call options.
As a result, any gains or losses on the shareholding should be exactly matched by offsetting losses or gains on the written call options.
CHAPTER 14
735
problem 2
e
T.
Rf.T
In S/X
One plc
0.988
0.15
0.0125
0.0513
Two plc
0.951
0.177
0.05
0
Three plc
0.963
0.173
0.0375
0.0954
d1
d2
0.5003
0.3503
0.3710
0.1940
0.2482
0.4212
N(d1)
N(d2)
0.6915
0.6368
0.6443
0.5753
0.4013
0.3372
C
P
9.4p
3.3p
9.7p
4.8p
Rf.T
Chapter 14
4.4p
10.3p
8% on 14mn loan
Less Bank fee
= 17 500
= (20 000)
Net cost
= ( 2 500)
Net saving
= 87 500
= (20 000)
= 67 500
736
ANSWERS TO PROBLEMS
Fixed interest
loan
12%
11 3 4 %
1
Interest differentials
Floating rate
loan
LIBOR + 2%
LIBOR + 11 8%
As the interest differentials between the two types of loan are not the same, there is a
benefit to be gained from a swap agreement equal, in total, to the difference between the
two interest differentials:
7
% = 5 8% interest saving
Given that this benefit is to be equally shared, each company will gain an interest saving
of 5 8% 2 = 5 16 %.
The swap arrangement is put together as follows:
1. Greatest interest differential: floating rate loan.
2. The swap partner can raise this type of loan most cheaply: LIBOR + 11 8%.
3. Therefore the swap partner borrows 14mn at LIBOR + 11 8% and Manling keeps its
existing loan at a fixed interest rate of 12%.
4. Manling wants a floating rate loan and we know that through a swap, such a loan can
be arranged at a 5 16 % interest saving on the normal interest rate that Manling would pay
for that type of loan: LIBOR + 2% 5 16 % = LIBOR + 111 16 %.
5. Manling therefore pays LIBOR + 111 16 % interest to the swap partner and, in
exchange, receives a fixed 12% interest rate from the swap partner (which can then be
used to pay the interest on their fixed rate loan).
6. The swap partner therefore:
(i) Pays interest on its own loan :
LIBOR + 11 8%
(ii) Receives from Manling
:
LIBOR + 111 16 %
Gain from swap
(iii) Pays Manling
Net interest cost
16 %
12%
117 16 %
:
:
:
:
:
:
16
% interest saving
11 3 4 %
117 16 %
5
16 %
=
=
Interest
1 636 250
1 680 000
43 750
(20 000)
23 750
CHAPTER 14
737
Swap partner
With swap:
Without swap:
14mn 117 16 %
14mn (10% = 11 8%)
=
=
Interest
1 601 250
1 557 500
Interest cost
Plus bank fee
(43 750)
(20 000)
Total cost
(63 750)
Net interest cost after tax relief: (63 750) 0.65 = (41 438)
Therefore, with the benefit of hindsight, although the swap deal results in a gain for
Manling, it results in a loss for the swap partner.
problem 2
(a) Omniown faces interest rate risk: the risk of an adverse movement in interest rates
over the next three months. All three techniques will help hedge their exposure, but in
different ways.
A forward rate agreement can be used to lock the company into a specific rate of
interest, say 14%, so that whatever happens to interest rates over the next three months,
Omniown will not be affected.
An FRA agreement works on the basis that the company pays the market rate of
interest on its loan but, if that rate is above the agreed 14%, then they receive compensation to bring their net effective interest rate down to the agreed 14%. Conversely, if
market interest rates fall then they will have to pay compensation to bring their interest
costs up to an effective 14%.
Interest rate futures have the same hedging effect as an FRA in that they hedge the
company against both a rise and a fall in interest rates. However, unlike an FRA, futures
are not tailor-made to the companys precise requirements but are standardized contracts and so may not provide a perfect hedge effect.
A futures hedge works by ensuring that whatever happens to interest rates, there will
be an offsetting effect from the futures contracts. Thus, for example, if interest rates rise
over the next three months, Omniown will make an offsetting profit on their futures
market contracts and vice versa.
In contrast to the first two hedging techniques, interest rate guarantees only hedge the
company against a rise in interest rates, but allow the company to take advantage of a fall
in rates. In other words, interest rate guarantees work as an option which the company
exercises if rates rise, to enable the company to borrow at 14%. On the other hand, if
rates fall, the company allows its option to lapse as it can borrow more cheaply at the
open market rate. The only problem with interest rate guarantees is that this advantage
that they have over forward rate agreements and futures means that they are a significantly more expensive hedging device.
(b) Value of a tick: 500 000 3 12 0.0001 = 12.50
Target interest charge: 5mn 6 12 0.14 = 350 000
Hedge:
As the company wishes to hedge against the risk of a rise in interest rates, it needs to sell
futures and then, in March, to close out its futures position it will reverse the effects of
this initial deal by buying futures.
Number of contracts involved:
5mn
= 10 contracts
500 000
738
ANSWERS TO PROBLEMS
But to allow for the maturity mismatch three month futures used to hedge a
six-month loan the number of contracts involved will have to be doubled: 10 2 = 20
contracts.
Therefore Omniown will sell 20 futures contracts at 86.25.
(i) Interest rates rise to 16% and, it is assumed, the futures price falls by 2% to
84.25
Interest on loan: 5mn 6 12 0.16
= 400 000
Target interest
= 350 000
Loss on target
= 50 000
Profit on futures:
Bought at
Sold at
84.25
86.25
Profit
=
=
400 000
(50 000)
350 000
Hedge efficiency:
Profit 50 000
=
= 100%
Loss 50 000
(ii) Interest rates rise to 16% and, it is assumed, the futures price falls by 1.5% to
84.75
Interest on loan: 5mn 6 12 0.16 = 400 000
Target interest
= 350 000
Loss on target
= 50 000
Profit on futures:
Bought at
Sold at
84.75
86.25
Profit
1.50 = 150 ticks/contract
Total profit: 20 150 12.50 = 37 500
Interest on loan
Less profit on futures
= 400 000
= (37 500)
= 362 500
Hedge efficiency:
Profit 37 500
=
= 75%
Loss
50 000
(iii) Interest rates fall to 13% and futures price rises by 0.75% to 87.00.
Interest on loan: 5mn 6 12 0.13
Target interest
= 325 000
= 350 000
Profit on target
= 25 000
CHAPTER 15
739
FINANCIAL MARKETS
Loss on futures:
Bought at
Sold at
87.00
86.25
Loss
0.75 = 75 ticks/contracts
= 325 000
= 18 750
= 343 750
Hedge efficiency:
Profit 25 000
=
= 133.3%
Loss
18 750
Interest rate:
Guarantee rate:
Exercise the guarantee:
16%
14%
= 350 000
= 10 000
= 360 000
(iii)
Interest rate:
Guarantee rate:
Exercise the guarantee:
= 350 000
16%
14%
= 350 000
= 10 000
= 360 000
= 362 500
Interest rate:
Guarantee rate:
Allow the guarantee to lapse:
13%
14%
= 325 000
= 10 000
= 335 000
= 343 750
The outcome of this analysis shows that, with the benefit of hindsight, the interest rate
guarantee would provide the best outcome in scenarios (ii) and (iii), but in scenario (i)
futures provide the best outcome.
Chapter 15
Financial markets
problem 1
740
ANSWERS TO PROBLEMS
problem 2
(a) The spot interest rates can be estimated on the basis that the return on a two-year
bond should be the same as the yield on two consecutive one-year bonds. Therefore:
Year 2 spot rate estimate:
2
Rate
6%
5.5%
5%
3.5%
CHAPTER 15
741
FINANCIAL MARKET
FIG. P15.1
Yield
Falling yield curve
6%
5%
4%
1
2.5%
Therefore:
Year 1:
106
.
1
102
.
3.92%
Year 2:
1055
.
1
102
.
3.43%
Year 3:
105
.
1
102
.
2.94%
Year 4:
1035
.
1
102
.
1.47%
Year 5:
1025
.
1
102
.
0.49%
Year
1
2
3
4
5
Inflation
forecast
3.92%
3.43%
2.94%
1.47%
0.49%
Years to
redemption
742
ANSWERS TO PROBLEMS
2
= 6.5%
whereas the compound annual rate of return on a two-year bond is only 5.75%.
Chapter 16
1 = 22.7%
11(1 + 0.227 )
+ 0.227 = 24%
1002.4
35.8 11
= 0.693
35.8
35.8
= 0.188
190
11(1 + 0.13)
+ 0.13 = 14.2%
1 002.4
the proportion of retained earnings and the companys ROCE remain constant
in the future;
(ii) the company is all-equity financed;
(iii) projects are only financed out of retained earnings.
In the example in question, although the retention rate has remained reasonably constant over the recent past, the firms ROCE has changed significantly, growing steadily
from 15.6% to 18.8%. Thus doubt must be cast on the realism of the assumption that
this will remain constant in the future.
CHAPTER 16
743
744
ANSWERS TO PROBLEMS
problem 2
(a) (i)
d 0 (1 + g )
+g
PE
The total dividend payout is given as 2.14mn and the number of shares in issue is
10mn. Thus the dividend per share, d0, is: 2.14mn 10mn = 21.4p.
The market price per share, PE, is given as 321p (assumed to be ex div) and the
dividend growth rate, g, is given as 11%. Therefore:
KE =
21.4 (1 + 0.11)
+ 0.11 = 0.184 or 18.4%
321
company
market portfolio
company, market
Therefore company =
=
=
=
20%
10%
+0.7
Also, given that the risk-free return (Rf) is 12% and the return on the market portfolio
(Rm) is 16%, then the CAPM can be used to find the companys cost of equity capital
(Rcompany):
Rcompany = 12% + (16% 12%) 1.40 = 17.6%
Assumptions made:
1. The quoted share price is ex div.
2. The share price represents an equilibrium value in an efficient market.
3. The dividend growth rate is expected to remain constant in perpetuity.
(b) Under normal circumstances, we would not expect the dividend valuation model
(DVM) and the CAPM to give the same estimates for the KE of a company. The reasons
for this are as follows:
1. CAPM is a normative model. It indicates what should be the companys cost of
equity capital, given the systematic risk involved. In contrast, the DVM is a positive
model. It indicates what is the companys cost of equity capital.
2. CAPM is a single time period model. It looks at the return on equity over a
single time period. In contrast, the DVM is a multitime period model as it involves a
discounting process and looks at the expected dividend flow over each future time
period.
3. The CAPM, being a normative or predictive model, may be incomplete. That
is to say, the model is a single-factor model in that it assumes that there is only one
factor which determines the return on equity: beta or systematic risk. It may well be
that other factors, such as company size and dividend policy, also determine the
CHAPTER 17
745
return. If this is so, then the estimate of KE given by CAPM would not be correct.
(Notice that this problem of possibly being an incomplete model does not apply to
the DVM as it is a positive or deterministic model. Only predictive models run the
risk of being incomplete.)
4. Finally, both models require data which has to be estimated. Obviously if any
of these estimates are incorrect, the values produced for the cost of equity capital
would not be correct. Thus despite points 1 to 3, only if all the estimated variables
were correct: (g, Rf, Rm and ) would the two models produce the same value for the
cost of equity capital.
Chapter 17
d 0 (1 + g )
+g
PE
where PE = 135 p
1
g = (13.6 / 10 ) 4 1 = 0.08
d 0 = 13.6 p
KE =
13.6(1 + 0.08)
+ 0.08 = 0.189
135
Cost of debentures
VB = 800 000 0.825 = 660 000
KD is found by solving:
+ 82.50 8 [ A4 K D
100(1 + K D )
=0
11.16
K D10% +
6% = 0.142
11.16 4.88
Cost of bank loan
As the interest rate is variable with market rate movements:
VL = 900 000
KL = 0.165
Weighted average cost of capital (K0)
K0 =
VE K E + VB K D + VL K L
VE + VB + VL
where:
VE = 1.35 3mn = 4.05mn
VD = 0.66mn
VL = 0.9mn
K0 =
KE =18.9%
KD =14.2%
KL =16.5%
(b) Apart from the obvious assumptions that the market values and the costs of capital
used in the calculation of the WACC are correct, there are three major assumptions that
746
ANSWERS TO PROBLEMS
have to be made if the WACC is to be a reliable discount rate for project appraisal. They
are:
(i) the project is marginal;
(ii) the company will maintain its existing gearing ratio;
(iii) the project has the same degree of (systematic) risk as the companys existing
cash flows.
The project should be marginal (i.e. small relative to the size of the firm) because the
WACC is a marginal cost of capital figure. It is so because each of the individual costs of
capital that go up to make the WACC are themselves marginal costs of capital. For
example, the cost of equity capital of (approximately) 19% represents the return that the
market would require from a marginal (i.e. relatively small) investment in the companys
equity. Thus the WACC is an appropriate discount rate or minimum required rate of
return for a relatively small capital investment project.
As can be seen in the calculation of the WACC in part (a) above, it is based on the
companys existing capital structure (gearing ratio). If the company were to change its
gearing, then the WACC could be expected to change also, for two reasons.
First, changing the gearing would change the weights applied to the individual costs
of capital, and second, changing the gearing would also change the degree of financial
risk held by ordinary shareholders and would thus, in turn, change the cost of equity
capital. [Only in a Modigliani and Miller world of no taxes and perfect markets would
this assumption prove unnecessary (see next chapter)].
Finally, the companys WACC relates to the degree of risk surrounding the companys existing cash flows. Therefore it would be appropriate to use this as an investment
appraisal discount rate only if the investment project has a similar level of risk.
(c) A number of practical problems are likely to be encountered in the calculation of
real world WACCs. However, there are three principal problems.
The first is that capital structures are often far more complex in practice than in textbook examples/calculations, with some securities causing really difficult valuation problems. Examples would include convertible debentures, loan stocks in foreign currencies
(Eurobonds, etc.) and unquoted, fixed interest capital.
The second problem specifically concerns the calculation of the cost of equity capital.
To obtain this number, estimates are normally required of the market value of the equity
and of the future dividend growth rate. With the market value of the equity there is a
problem in deciding what value to take if the share price is relatively volatile, but the real
problem concerns the dividend growth rate estimate. The past dividend growth rate may
be highly erratic, or it might have been depressed because of legal restraints on dividends, or it may be non-existent in the sense that no dividends have been paid in recent
years. In all cases, estimating the future dividend growth rate becomes highly problematical. The Gordon approach (where the growth rate g = b r) may be of some help in
such circumstances, but again it is hedged around by a number of assumptions such as
constant earnings retention percentages and constant rates of return on reinvested earnings which severely limit its usefulness. One other approach to calculating the cost of
equity capital would be to use the capital asset pricing model rather than the dividend
valuation model, but that too has its operational difficulties, in particular the specification of the risk-free interest rate and the rate of return on the overall market.
The final major problem with the real-world calculation of WACC is caused by taxation. In a taxed world what is required is an after-tax WACC, but the corporate tax
regime is now so complex and specific in terms of how it affects individual companies
that major problems are posed in trying to arrive at a reliable after-tax WACC estimate.
CHAPTER 17
747
problem 2
(a) (i)
Equity capital
KE = 18% (given)
VE = 8mn 1.10 = 8.8mn
(ii)
Irredeemable debentures
KIRR =
KRED 4% +
(10% 4%) = 7.07%
20.75 19.76
VRED = 1.5mn 0.9426 = 1.4139mn
(iv) Loan stock
Current value of each 100 unit of loan stock:
6 A
. )10 = 75.42
10 0 .10 + 100(1 + 010
VL = 2mn 0.7542 = 1.5084mn
KL is found by solving the IRR of the following cash flow:
10
=0
K L 4% +
(10% 4%) = 7.8%
. 1374
.
2377
(v) Bank loans
KB = 13%(1 0.35) = 8.45%
VB = 1.54mn
(vi) Weighted average cost of capital (WACC)
K0 =
195.9
= 14.3%
1366
.
748
ANSWERS TO PROBLEMS
The presence of bank overdrafts in the capital structure do not cause much difficulty
as long as the amount of the overdraft remains reasonably stable. The interest rate
charged on the overdraft can be expected to vary with changes in market interest rates
and so the current market value of the overdraft will remain equal to its nominal
amount. Furthermore, given that the overdraft is repaid at par, the after-tax market
return will simply be the current actual overdraft interest rate, adjusted for the tax relief
on the interest payments.
Convertible loan stock causes greater difficulties. Such stock may well have a market
quotation, and in such circumstances finding its capitalized market value causes no problems. However, if it is unquoted an equivalent valuation must be estimated. The valuation of this type of security can be approached by splitting it into two elements, the loan
stock itself and the convertible option, which is a call option on the companys equity.
Thus its market value can be estimated as whichever is the greater between its value as a
simple loan stock and its value if converted immediately, plus the value of the call option.
Apart from these difficulties, whether or not a market value exists, there is still the
problem of estimating the market return on the security, which requires the determination of the point in time at which conversion is expected to take place, and the expected
gain that the stockholders can be expected to make upon conversion.
(c) There are four fundamental assumptions that are made when a companys weighted
average cost of capital (WACC) is used as an NPV discount rate. These are:
(i) the project under evaluation is marginal;
(ii) the project, if accepted, is financed in such a way as not to change the companys existing capital structure;
(iii) level-perpetuity cash flows;
(iv) the project has the same degree of systematic risk as the companys existing
projects.
The assumption that the project should be marginal, i.e. that it is small relative to the
size of the company is necessary because the WACC itself is a marginal rate of return.
The WACC is made up of the cost of each individual source of the companys capital,
and each of these costs represents the required return on a marginal investment in that
security. For example, the companys cost of equity capital represents the required
market return from a marginal investment in the companys equity. Hence the WACC
should only be applied to evaluating relatively small capital investment projects.
The second assumption is required (except in a Modigliani and Miller world with no
taxation) because a change in the companys capital structure can be expected to change
its WACC. There are two reasons for this. First, changing the gearing ratio will change
the amount of financial risk borne by ordinary shareholders and hence will change the
cost of equity capital value in the WACC calculation, and secondly, changing the
gearing will in turn change the weights (assuming market value weights) used in the
WACC calculation.
The third fundamental assumption arises from the fact that, strictly speaking, the
WACC calculation is a level-perpetuity model. Hence the different types of company
capital should involve only level-perpetuity cash flows, as so too should the cash flows of
the project being evaluated.
Finally, and perhaps most important, is the assumption about a constant level of systematic risk. A companys WACC represents the overall return that the company earns,
given the systematic risk of the existing collection of assets. It therefore follows that its
WACC is applicable only to the evaluation of new investment opportunities that have a
similar level of systematic risk.
It is this last requirement in particular that makes the WACC of Redskins especially
unsuitable for investment appraisal purposes, as it is a holding company consisting of a
number of different subsidiaries in (presumably) different industries, and with the
CHAPTER 18
749
likelihood of different levels of systematic risk. Thus the WACC represents the required
return on the average of these risks, but it cannot be thought to reflect the systematic
risk of any one particular subsidiary.
Chapter 18
Alpha
5.0mn
0.72mn
Beta
5.0mn
Dividends
PE
PB
VE
VB
KE
KD
K0
4.28mn
100p
50
17.2mn
4mn
0.249
0.18
0.236
5.0mn
50p
23.2mn
0.216
0.216
=
=
7 879 interest
46 838 dividends
54 717 income
23.2mn
750
ANSWERS TO PROBLEMS
VB
4.0mn
VE
19.2mn
PE = 19.2mn/17.2mn
1.12/share
problem 2
(a) If two companies are in the same business risk class then their asset betas will be the
same. Given that these two companies are in the same business risk class, this condition
should hold. Furthermore, as Chardonnay is all-equity, its equity beta will equal its asset
beta. Hence its equity beta can be estimated as Cabernets asset beta:
Cabernet assets = 1.6
(b) Cabernet:
KE = 10% + (6% 1.6) = 19.6%
KD = 10%
K0 = (19.6% 0.75) + (10% 0.25) = 17.2%
Chardonnay:
KE = 10% + (6% 1.2) = 17.2% = K0
This is just the result that the Modigliani and Miller no-tax capital structure hypothesis
would expect: companies in the same business risk class have the same weighted average
costs of capital.
(c) Given the information in (b) above, a regular 150 per year dividend should have a
value of 150/0.172 = 872.09. Thus the shareholder is, in effect, being offered a disequilibrium price for his shares. This price implies a WACC of: 150/1 000 = 15%.
Hence there would be a gain to be made by arbitraging into Cabernet. This can be
achieved as follows.
(i) Sell shares in Chardonnay for 1 000 cash.
(ii) Use the money to buy both the debt and equity of Cabernet in the same proportion as Cabernets own debt: equity ratio (1:3). Thus the investor should purchase 250 of Cabernet debt and 750 of Cabernet equity. This would have the
effect of maintaining a zero financial risk level (as at present) and would produce an
annual income of:
250 0.10
750 0.196
=
=
25
147
172/year
Thus the investor is 172 150 = 22/year better off, with no change in risk.
(d) In these circumstances, Cabernets WACC value of 17.2% is an equilibrium value.
Hence Chardonnays WACC (and hence KE also, as it is an all-equity company) should
equal 17.2%. Thus the equilibrium value of the investors shareholding in Chardonnay
is 150/0.172 = 872.09.
Chapter 19
CHAPTER 19
751
= 2.364mn
= 1mn
= 3.264mn
Debt:equity ratio
= 1:2.264
Clarice plc
Companys cost of capital, assuming all-equity financing:
7% + (15% 7%) 1.50 = 19%
Value of company if all-equity financed:
1.2mn(1 0.35)
= 4.105mn
0.19
Total market value of company: 4.105mn + 1mn 0.35 = 4.455mn
Total market value of company:
Less: total market value debt:
4.455mn
1.000mn
3.455mn
3.405mn
1mn
4.405mn
Debt:equity ratio
= 1:3.405
(b) There are, perhaps, four principal determinants behind the capital structure decision
in practice:
(i) bankruptcy costs;
(ii) agency costs;
(iii) debt capacity;
(iv) tax exhaustion.
Each of these will be discussed in turn to examine how they affect the capital structure
decision.
Debt finance involves firms in a contractual agreement to pay interest and repay the
capital sum. If the firm defaults on the agreement, debt holders can appoint receivers
and effectively bankrupt the firm. Except in the case of fraud, firms are only going to
752
ANSWERS TO PROBLEMS
default on loan agreements when there is insufficient cash flow. Thus, the more highly
geared the company, the greater the chance of a shortfall in cash flow and hence the
greater the chance of bankruptcy.
Although shareholders (and others, such as employees) no doubt bear a cost in such
circumstances as the question illustrates the actual cost of bankruptcy is likely to represent only a very small loss in the wealth of a shareholder who has a well-diversified
portfolio. However, in contrast, a very substantial loss would be suffered by the company
directors in such circumstances loss of office and loss of confidence in their professional abilities and this would particularly be the case for the finance director whose
responsibility it is for the companys gearing level.
Thus directors are going to be cautious about the level of corporate gearing so as to
keep the probability of bankruptcy and the associated costs that they would bear at an
acceptably low level. Whether this results in low gearing or higher gearing depends not
only upon the risk attitudes of the directors concerned, but also on the volatility of the
companys pre-interest cash flow. Thus the directors of a property company, with its
very stable (rental income) cash flow, may well be willing to gear the company up to high
levels because even then the probability of loan default and consequent bankruptcy is
relatively low. On the other hand, an engineering companys directors may only indulge
in a low level of gearing because of that type of companys much more volatile cash flow.
The second factor is agency costs. When a company raises debt capital, the loan is
made under a trust deed which has attached to it a series of restrictive conditions. These
conditions represent part of the lenders efforts to control the actions of the management to ensure that they act responsibly with the money lent. In essence, these conditions represent agency costs.
Generally speaking, the more highly geared the company, the more restrictive become
these conditions. (Restrictions may be placed on such things as dividend growth, asset
sales, diversification and further increases in gearing.) Thus once again management may
wish to restrict the level of gearing simply to avoid the more onerous of these agency costs
being imposed.
The third factor is concerned with the fact that most corporate lending is secured
against the assets of the firm. However, different assets have different levels of ability to
act as security for a loan. This is referred to as an assets debt capacity. The main determinants of debt capacity are, first, the efficiency/quality of the second-hand market and,
secondly, the rate of depreciation. The greater the former and the slower the latter, the
better will be an assets ability to act as security. Thus, property assets will have a high
debt capacity and industrial machinery will have a low debt capacity.
Therefore the directors choice as to the companys gearing level may well be dictated
by the debt capacity of the firms assets and hence the capital markets willingness to
supply debt capital. Returning to the example used earlier, even if an engineering companys directors were willing to ignore bankruptcy costs, it is likely that they would be
prevented from gearing the firm up to high levels by the low debt capacity. However,
the capital markets would be willing to gear up the property companys capital structure
more highly because of its high debt capacity.
The final determinant of the gearing ratio arises from the fact that the main attraction
of debt capital is the tax-deductibility of the interest payments. Tax exhaustion refers to
the situation where the firm has insufficient tax liability to take the tax relief available. In
such circumstances, much of the attractiveness of debt, relative to equity, disappears.
Thus companies may well restrict their level of gearing to avoid the possibility of
moving into a situation of tax exhaustion.
Finally, no mention has been made in this discussion of the weighted average cost of
capital (WACC). The reason for this is that first most companies are unable to measure
their WACC with any confidence (principally because of valuation difficulties), and even
CHAPTER 19
753
when they do, the WACC is such a volatile figure that company directors cannot realistically indulge in the static analysis of the traditional view of capital structure, seeking
to identify the minimum point on the WACC function. Certainly companies might try
to identify some optimal capital structure, but its optimality is more likely to be based
on managerial judgement arising out of the four factors discussed earlier, rather than on
an estimate of the WACC function.
Also, mention should also be made of the M and M analysis. M and M suggested that,
in a taxed world, companies should gear up as high as possible in order to take advantage
of debt interest tax relief. Implicit in the foregoing discussion is the assumption that this
is the policy that directors would wish to pursue, but they are prevented from always following this advice because of the factors discussed.
In addition, the later Miller analysis (1977) throws all this analysis into some confusion. Miller argued that in a world of corporate and personal taxes and a perfect market
for corporate debt capital, the capital structure decision (from an M and M viewpoint) is
irrelevant. However, such circumstances if they hold good in the real world still do
not negate the impact of the four factors discussed on the capital structure decision.
problem 3
Modigliani and Miller show that companies that have the same earnings
stream and the same level of business risk will have the same total market values (V0) in
the absence of taxation, whatever their individual capital structures. Dora and Bella are
two such companies and so it is not surprising that in t3, when there was no taxation in
Despina, their total market values were identical:
Dora: VE = V0 = $1mn
Bella: VE + VB = V0 = $0.8m + $0.2mn = $1mn
In the following year taxation was introduced on company profits and therefore
company market values could be expected to fall. However, under the t2 regime there
was no difference between the tax treatment of equity dividends and debt interest.
Therefore the tax charge was unaffected by a companys capital structure. Consequently,
the total market values of the two companies should remain the same, despite their different gearing ratios. This was the case:
Dora: VE = V0 = $0.51mn
Bella: VE + VB = V0 = $0.51mn
In t1 the tax regime was changed so that debt interest was treated differently from
equity dividends. Specifically, debt interest was now allowable against taxation. Thus a
geared company would have a lower tax charge than a similar ungeared company and, as
a result, the geared company would have a higher total market value.
Again Modigliani and Miller showed that under such a tax regime with two identical
companies, except that one was geared while the other was ungeared, then the total
market value of the geared company would be:
V0 (geared) = V0 (ungeared) + VB Tc
where Tc is the rate of corporation tax. Therefore it would be expected that Bella (the
geared company) would have a greater market value than Dora:
Dora: VE = V0 = $0.52mn
Bella: VE + VB = V0 + $0.60mn
and this value for Bella can be shown to fit in with the M and M expression:
V0 (Bella) = V0 (Dora) + (VB (Bella) Tc)
$0.6mn = $0.52mn + ($0.16mn 0.50)
754
ANSWERS TO PROBLEMS
Finally, in t0, although the tax regime remained unchanged from t1, there is effectively
no corporation tax as tax allowances shield operating earnings fully.
Therefore, once again, the total market values of the two companies would be
expected to equate, as they do:
Dora: VE = V0 = $0.98mn
Bella: VE + VB = V0 = $0.98mn
11.17mn
= 32.8%
34.02mn
Thus the extra 10 million of capital will generate extra operating profits of:
10mn 0.328 = 3.28mn
(i) Ordinary share financing
It is assumed that the new shares will be issued at a 10% discount on the current share
price of 350p: 315p.
Thus, the number of new shares issued will be:
10mn/315p = 3 175 00 approx.
Also, it is assumed that the company will maintain its current dividend per share payout
of:
3.467mn
= 34.67p / share
10mn
Operating profit
Interest
11.17 + 3.28 =
Pre-tax profit
Tax at 35%
Earnings
Dividends
Retained earnings
mn
14.45
(2.28)
12.17
(4.26)
7.91
(4.57)
3.34
CHAPTER 20
755
7.91mn
= 60 p
13175
. mn
Revised EPS:
Revised gearing:
12mn + 6mn
= 50.9%
22.02mn + 10mn + 3.34mn
mn
14.45
(2.28)
Pre-tax profit
Tax at 35%
12.17
(4.26)
Earnings
Preference dividends
7.91
(1.40)
6.51
(3.467)
Retained earnings
3.043
6.51mn
= 65.1p
10mn
Revised EPS:
Revised gearing:
(iii) Loan stock financing
Operating profit
Interest
mn
14.45
2.28 + 1.2 = (3.48)
Pre-tax profit
Tax at 35%
10.97
(3.84)
Earnings
Dividend
7.13
(3.467)
Retained earnings
3.663
7.13mn
= 71.3p
10mn
Revised EPS:
Revised gearing:
EPS
57.78p
60p
65.1p
71.3p
Gearing
81.7%
50.9%
111.7%
109%
All three financing packages will result in an increase in EPS. Financing via preference
shares or loan stock will increase the level of gearing, while financing with equity will
reduce the gearing.
756
ANSWERS TO PROBLEMS
problem 2
(a) Business risk arises out of the risky nature of the companys business, which manifests itself in the variability of the companys earnings stream (before interest and tax).
Quite simply, some companies have very stable earnings streams because of the steady,
low-risk nature of their businesses. A supermarket company might be one such example.
In contrast, some other companies have highly volatile earnings, again because of the
very variable high-risk nature of their businesses. A small oil-exploration company might
serve as a suitable example of a company with a high degree of business risk.
Portfolio theory shows that risks can be divided up into systematic risk and unsystematic risk. Systematic risk is that part of total risk that cannot be diversified away,
while unsystematic risk is the risk that can be diversified away. Therefore business risk is
partially systematic and partially unsystematic.
The systematic element of business risk is largely (but not completely) out of the
control of the individual company management. The unsystematic element of business
risk arises out of factors which are specific to the individual company and are directly
under the control of management.
The two main determinants of a companys exposure to systematic business risk
would be the sensitivity of the companys revenues to the level of economic activity in
the economy (and its sensitivity to macroeconomic events in general), and its proportion
of fixed-to-variable operating costs, i.e. the costs incurred in generating those revenues
principally material, labour and energy costs. The greater its revenue sensitivity and
the greater its proportion of fixed costs, the greater its exposure to systematic business
risk.
Such factors as revenue sensitivity and fixed-to-variable operating costs are largely
out of managements control, and arise out of the nature of the market and the production technology. Thus a carpet manufacturing business can do very little about the
highly revenue-sensitive nature of the business (people buy new carpets when the
CHAPTER 20
757
economy booms and not otherwise). Nor can the manufacturer do much about the high
proportion of fixed costs involved in carpet production technology.
However, it should be noted that these factors are not entirely out of managements
control. For example, the carpet manufacturer may try to lock his customers into
long-term deals to bring greater stability to the revenues. Similarly they may try to subcontract out as much of the manufacturing process as they can, on short-term contracts,
to keep as many of their costs variable as possible.
The unsystematic aspects of business risk arise from such factors as the skill of the
top management team, the training of the workforce, the state of labour relations and
the ability of the marketing department. Obviously, such factors are largely under the
direct control of the management.
(b) An investor with a well diversified share portfolio will have eliminated all unsystematic risk. Therefore such an investor is only going to be interested in the systematic
element of business risk which, together with financial risk, goes to make up the beta
value of the shares.
(c) (1) Degree of operating gearing (DOG)
DOG at a given level of turnover is:
Turnover Variables costs
Profit before interest and tax
At the start of the current financial year:
DOG =
3381 2193
= 2.57
462
Assume that variable costs comprise wages and salaries, raw materials and direct selling
expenses. (In reality these are not all likely to vary directly with turnover.)
One interpretation of a 2.57 DOG may be that a 1% change in sales will lead to a
2.57% change in profit before interest and tax (in the same direction).
At the end of the financial year, the expected profit and loss account, assuming no
price changes except those stated, is:
(000s)
(000s)
Turnover (15% increase)
3 888
Operating expenses:
Wages and salaries (1 220 0.80 1.15)
1 122
Raw materials (15% increase)
1 004
Direct selling prices (15% increase)
115
General administration (no increase)
346
Other fixed costs (85 000 increase)
465
3 052
Profit before interest and tax
836
758
ANSWERS TO PROBLEMS
Financial gearing
As an accounting-based analysis of the company is being undertaken, an
accounting-based measure of financial gearing will be used:
Balance sheet value of debt
Shareholders' funds
At the start of the year financial gearing is
570
= 37.7%
1510
At the end of the year profit before interest and tax has been estimated to be 836 000.
(000s)
Profit before interest and tax
836
Interest
(207)
Profit before tax
Tax
629
(252)
377
(189)
Retained earnings
188
Estimated financial gearing
570 + 820
= 81.8%.
1510 + 188
The expected financial gearing more than doubles by the end of the year. The higher
the level of financial gearing, the higher the financial risk placed on the ordinary
shareholders.
(c) (2) (i) If turnover increases by 15%, the expected profit available to ordinary
shareholders is 377 000. There are 3 200 000 issued ordinary shares resulting in an
expected earnings per share of 11.78 pence.
The earnings per share at the start of the year is
227 000
= 7.09 pence per share.
3 200 000
Because of the financial and operating gearing effects, earnings per share are expected
to increase by 66%.
(c) (2) (ii) If turnover falls by 10%
(000s)
(000s)
Turnover
3 043
Operating expenses:
Wages and salaries (1 220 0.90 0.80)
878
Raw materials (10% fall)
786
Direct selling expenses (10% fall)
90
General administration (no change)
346
Other fixed costs (85 000 increase)
465
2 565
Profit before interest and tax
Interest
478
(207)
271
(108)
163
CHAPTER 21
759
163 000
= 5.09 pence.
3 200 000
+ 0.10
= 1.26
3
+ 1(1 0.35 )
3
+
1(1
0.35)
Asset
= 1 036 + 0.018 = 1.054
Asset
project
project
3 0 .16
= 219 PV
Financing side-effects
PV tax shield
3 000 0.14 0.35 + A
3 0 .14
= 341 PV
Issue costs
3 000 0.01 (1 0.35) =
19.5
52
71.5PV
Note that the project gains the tax shield and incurs the issue costs based on how the
project would be financed as a free-standing entity. Hence, assuming that 3000 of
retained earnings would be used and its 30% debt capacity would allow 3000 of debt
financing, this means that, under normal circumstances, 4000 of equity finance (via a
rights issue) would be raised.
Adjusted present value:
219 + 341 71.5 = +50.5 APV Accept
(b) Effect of cheap loan
Interest saved: 10 000 0.14 A3 0 .14
Net saving
+3 250
1 138
+2 112
760
ANSWERS TO PROBLEMS
problem 2
(a) Calculation of an asset beta for project
VE
VB(1 TC )
+ Debt
VE + VB(1 TC )
VE + VB(1 TC )
3
2(1 0.35 )
= 2.29
+ 0.15
3 + 2(1 0.35 )
3 + 2(1 0.35 )
Asset = Equity
Asset
. + 0.04 = 164
.
Asset = 160
Calculation of base-case discount rate for project
Base-case discount rate = rF + [E(rM) rF] Asset
8.5% + [15.5% 8.5%] 1.64 = 20% approx.
Calculation of base-case present value for project
Data
Capital expenditure: 1mn
Scrap value: 0.6mn
Working capital requirement: 0.3mn
Revenues: 1.1mn/year for 5 years
Operating expenses:
Materials: 0.25mn/year
Labour: 0.165mn/year
Supervisory labour: 0.056mn/year
Training: 0.270mn at Year 1
Variable overheads: 0.076mn/year
Rent: 0.012mn/year
Var. selling expenses: 0.095mn/year
(Note: Labour has been costed on an incremental basis. Depreciation has been excluded
as it is a non-cash item. Financing cash flows interest have been excluded. All other
non-incremental/allocated expenses have been excluded.)
Total operating expenses 0.654mn/year
Net revenues 1.1mn 0.654mn = 0.446mn/year pre-tax
Capital allowance tax relief
Capital allowances
1mn
Tax relief
Year
0.25
0.25mn
0.40
0.1mn
0.25
0.1875mn
0.40
0.075mn
0.25
0.1406mn
0.35
0.0492mn
0.25
0.1055mn
0.35
0.0369mn
0.25
0.0791mn
0.35
0.0277mn
(0.3627mn)
0.35
(0.1269mn)
0.25mn
0.75mn
0.1875mn
0.5625mn
0.1406mn
0.4219mn
0.1055mn
0.3164mn
0.0791mn
0.2373
0.6m =
CHAPTER 21
761
0
(1)
0.1
0.075
0.0492
0.0369
0.6
0.0277
0.3
(0.3)
(0.1269)
(0.270)
0.108
0.446
0.446
0.446
0.446
(0.1784) (0.1561) (0.1561) (0.1561) (0.1561)
0.446
(1.3)
0.276
0.4506
0.3391
0.3268
1.2176
(0.283)
0.8333
0.6944
0.5787
0.4823
0.4019
0.3349
PV cash flow
(1.3)
0.23
0.3129
0.1962
0.1576
0.4893
(0.1061)
1mn 0.50 =
0.3mn 0.10 =
0.5mn
0.03mn
Total
0.53mn
Therefore the tax shield will only be calculated as a total of 530 000 of debt financing at
10% interest.
PV tax shield
530 000 0.10 = 53 000/year interest for 5 years.
53 000 0.40 = 21 200 tax relief in Year 1.
53 000 0.35 = 18 550 tax relief/year thereafter
PV: 21 200 (1 + 0.10)
18 550 A
4 0.10
(1+ 0.10)2
= 17 520
= 48 594
66 114
(20 100)
66 114
APV + 46 014
762
ANSWERS TO PROBLEMS
= +560 000
NPV = 80 000 +
0.12
012
.
KE =
Continuing:
23p +
23p
= 215 p
0.12
CHAPTER 22
763
valuation of a company. However, in reality, they do not hold well and it is necessary to
examine those aspects of dividend policy which may in practice affect a companys
market value.
It is information which determines share price and one of the principal pieces of objective information available to investors to assist them in pricing shares is the level of dividend. Whilst published accounts and reported earnings are extremely useful, they are both
historical, indicating what the company has done rather than what it is doing or will do.
Dividends are, by contrast, an indicator of the current state of the company and its future
prospects. The amount of, and trends in, dividends are thus strongly reacted to by the
market. This is strikingly illustrated by the different reactions to reduced dividends in
theory and practice. In theory this could well herald further beneficial investment and
increased company value whereas in practice it is likely to be seen as evidence of severe
difficulties and the share price is likely to drop. Even if the management set out clearly
their intentions for the use of funds, it is possible that the message will not be fully understood, or may be treated with scepticism. In view of these practical realities, company
management are likely to pursue a policy of dividend stability and, where possible, steady
growth at a prudent rate. Above all shareholders require a consistent policy. Where this is
possible, uncertainty, and hence risk, is reduced. The rate of return required by investors
may therefore be adjusted downwards leading to higher market capitalization.
In summary, investors are not indifferent between current dividends and the retention
of earnings with the prospect of future dividends, capital gains, or both. They prefer the
resolution of uncertainty and are willing to pay a higher price or a share that pays a greater
current dividend, all other things being equal.
(c) The factors that will influence company managements dividend policy relate essentially to prudence, company funding requirements and regard for individual shareholders requirements.
With regard to prudence, it might well be that whilst a company makes good profits, a
significant proportion of these may not be realized in cash terms and it is therefore not
possible to pay substantial dividends without placing strains on the companys liquidity.
Dividends must be budgeted for as an integral part of the cash flow forecast and where
necessary further funds obtained for the purpose of dividend payments. The alternative
to this is a more restrained payout policy.
Company management will also have regard to future funding requirements. Use of
retained earnings is one of the simplest and cheapest ways of obtaining finance for expansion, and it is therefore quite attractive to management to pursue a relatively low payout
policy in order to retain funds for expansion. The companys access to capital markets will
also play a large part in the decision on retention policy. A company with ready access to
capital markets may in practice prefer a higher payout policy coupled with regular rights
issues rather than keep dividends deliberately low to provide a large pool of retained earnings. Smaller companies cannot count on this advantage and therefore in practice will seek
funding largely from retained earnings.
In financial management it is generally assumed that the objective of company management is to follow a policy of maximizing the wealth of shareholders. To this end dividend policy is of vital importance. Clearly a high retentions policy is commensurate with
high capital growth in share value whilst high payouts will benefit shareholders who
require high income. Whilst in a perfect capital market with no taxes this differentiation
of policy would be irrelevant, in actuality the tax position of shareholders will significantly influence their accumulation of wealth through shareholdings. Whilst in large
companies researching shareholders preferences and setting policy accordingly might
be impracticable, this will not necessarily be so in small companies where tax considerations may well play an extremely important part in setting dividend policy.
764
ANSWERS TO PROBLEMS
It should not be forgotten that dividends can only be paid regularly where the
company is inherently profitable and hence management must examine profitability in
setting dividend policy, and in particular the stability of earnings. Where earnings are
very stable the company will be less at risk in following a high percentage payout policy
than if earnings are extremely volatile. Dividend cuts are usually anathema to company
management as the market is likely to consider that this presages bad news, with consequent disastrous effects on share price. Hence companies with volatile earnings are
unlikely to risk dividend cuts by pursuing a high payout policy. Indeed good dividend
policy is to pursue the ideals of stability and consistency. Variable dividends are uncertain dividends, giving rise to an increased risk perception in shareholders. This feeds
through into a higher required return and hence lower market capitalization, defeating
the company aim of shareholder wealth maximization.
While the conventional models assume the objective of maximization of shareholder
wealth this may not be the objective being pursued by particular companies. It may be
that corporate managers are pursuing alternative objectives such as sales maximization,
market share maximization or the maximization of managerial discretion subject to the
constraint of providing an acceptable return to investors. Alternatively managers may
not be maximizing at all but may be satisficing, i.e. pursuing a battery of parallel objectives. In such circumstances they will need to modify their dividend policies to suit the
objectives they are pursuing. In any event they will need to know what constitutes an
acceptable return to their investors and this in turn requires a knowledge of what can be
earned on similar risk investments elsewhere, i.e. the opportunity cost of capital.
Finally it cannot be forgotten that there are legal requirements governing dividend
payments and company management must have regard to the legal definitions of distributable profits.
problem 3
(a) Net present value to Charles Pooter (Contractors) Ltd:
2
(b) (i) Lupin is satisfied (as stated in the question). Charles can borrow one half of the
present value of the cash inflows from the project (i.e. he can borrow the present
value of the dividends he expects to receive):
Charles can borrow ( 12 3 205) 1 602 at 4% (and go on the cruise)
Interest Year 1 at 4%
64
1 666
400
Interest Year 2 at 4%
1 266
51
1 317
500
Interest Year 3 at 4%
817
33
850
850
By borrowing, and using his dividends to repay the loan, Charles is 102 better off if
the project is accepted than if it is rejected. So the company is acting in the best interests
of both shareholders by accepting the project.
CHAPTER 23
765
ACQUISITION DECISIONS
(ii) Lupin is still satisfied (as stated in the question). The present value of Charless
dividends at a 10% discount rate is:
1
Recession
(p = 0.15)
(mn)
55
50
105
Slow growth
(p = 0.65)
(mn)
55
80
135
Rapid growth
( p = 0.2)
(mn)
55
140
195
Expected
value
(mn)
55
87.5
142.5
42
42
45
10
55
45
30
75
44.55
12.5
57.05
10
53
63
10
70
80
10
110
120
10
75.45
85.45
Since no operational synergy has occurred on the merger, the total value of the
merged company is equal to the sum of the values of the individual companies:
57.05mn + 85.45mn = 142.5mn
However, there has been a transfer in total value from the shareholders to the debt
holders. The total of the individual companies debt is 44.55 + 10 = 54.55 million, while
the value of the merged companys debt is 55 million. Conversely, the total of the individual companies equity is 12.5 + 75.45 = 87.95 million, while the value of the merged
companys equity is 87.5 million.
This transfer arises from the position of Pedens debt in a time of recession. Peden
would have total net assets to be financed of 42 million, but 45 million of debt. In such
766
ANSWERS TO PROBLEMS
a situation the equity is worthless and 3 million of debt is unable to be repaid. There is
a 0.15 probability that debt holders will lose 3 million, i.e. an expected loss of 450 000.
In the merged company there is no longer any risk that the debt will be unable to be
repaid in full. Therefore the debt holders can expect to be 450 000 better off, as the
above calculations show.
In practice the merged company is likely to have cash flows that are less risky than
each of the individual companies, so both the cost of equity and cost of debt may reduce
after the merger. This would offer a gain to both the equity holders and the debt
holders, even in the absence of any operational synergy.
problem 2
PE ratio
Minprice
2.32
= 13.9
50mn / 300mn
Savealot
2.95
= 14.75.
8mn / 40mn
The shareholders of Savealot will be unwilling to swap into the shares of a company
with worse prospects, unless they are given a proper incentive.
(ii) The intrinsic value of Savealots shares. Using the dividend valuation model,
the shares of Savealot have an intrinsic value of:
P=
D1
12.5p 1.08
= 270p.
=
ke g
13% 8%
This suggests that Savealots shares are currently overvalued at their current price
of 295p, and would be a reason encouraging the Savealot shareholders to get out for
this value while they can.
(iii) The different financial profiles of the two companies. Minprice has much
higher gearing than Savealot, e.g. at book values:
Minprice
314
= 141%
222
Loans
Gearing =
Shareholders' funds
Savealot
17.5
= 32%.
54.7
Minprice has a higher dividend cover than Savealot (2.1 times rather than 1.6 times),
and a lower dividend yield (3.4% rather than 4.2%). If a shareholder was worried about
financial gearing, he would be happier owning Savealot than Minprice. If a shareholder
was most interested in the dividend stream from his investment he would take account of
the dividend statistics calculated above.
Consider now the shareholders of Minprice. Using PE ratios we can estimate the
share price of the combined company. If we first ignore the effects of the rationalization:
Combined earnings
Combined number of shares
Expected combined EPS
=
=
=
50 + 8 = 58mn
300mn + (4 3 40mn) = 353.3mn
16.4p
CHAPTER 24
767
COMPANY VALUATION
=
=
Combined PE ratio
This is marginally below the current share price of 232p, so would not be attractive.
However, the effects on the value of the combined company would be:
Sale of warehouse
Redundancy
Wage savings 2.7 Annuity (12%, 5 years) = 2.7 3.605
mn
6.8
(9.0)
9.7
7.5
7.5mn
= 2.1p
353.3mn
This takes the expected share price after the combination to 232p, i.e. the same as
before the combination. There is no financial reason for the shareholders of Minprice to
want the scheme to go ahead.
However, if the wage savings could last longer than the five years used in the calculation, or if there are other possible synergies from the combination, then Minprices
shareholders would look favourably at the scheme.
768
ANSWERS TO PROBLEMS
think the bid is considerably higher than the true value of the shares. The bid is not
therefore prudent from the point of view of the companys shareholders. This is probably exacerbated by two further problems.
BZOs gearing will increase substantially as a result of taking a loan to finance the
cash purchase.
Directorships will be given to Demasts current directors. As BZO is a conglomerate
they may not have the relevant experience to run other subsidiaries effectively.
Working 1: Book value of net assets acquired
From the balance sheet this is 6 500 000. Reservations are as follows:
The predators are likely to run Demast as a going concern so are more likely to be
concerned with its income than with its assets.
A historical cost balance sheet is not a valuation device.
Working 2: Net realisable value of net assets acquired
Book value of net assets
Less stock devaluation (5 500 000 10%)
Net realizable value
6 500 000
(550 000)
5 950 000
320 58 = 5.5
80.5p 5.5 = 442.75p
442.75 100 1 000 000 4 (25p nominal)
= 17.71mn
CHAPTER 24
769
COMPANY VALUATION
PV of dividends
do/Ke g
do
G
Ke
=
=
=
=
=
Value of shares
Value of shares
1 500 000
9% per annum
16% per annum
Value of shares =
6.5mn
5.95mn
17.71mn
23.3mn
Per share
1.63
1.49
4.43
5.83
In practice the PER multiple is probably the most common valuation method so the
main body of this answer assumes this to be the most accurate valuation. This gives a
price for one Demast share (17.7mn 4mn) = 4.43.
Reservations include:
As stated above the predators are more likely to value Demast on an earnings basis.
Insufficient information is available to value Demast properly. The current market
value, for example, of land and buildings is required.
Working 6: Value of bids
Bid 7 September by BZO
Value of bid per share = 2 7.80 3 = 5.20.
Bid 2 October by Nadion
Value of bid per share = 1.70 +
100
= 5.70.
6.25 4
problem 2
The current market price of 410 pence per share, or a total market value
of 123 million, is likely to be the lowest that shareholders of Omnigen would accept,
and a premium over the current market price will normally be payable.
If industry PERs are used to value Omnigen, the range of values would be 182
million to 210 million. (Omnigens total earnings after tax of 14 million, multiplied by
the PERs of 13:1 and 15:1.)
The realizable value of assets, 82 million, is substantially below the estimates based
upon PERs. This shortfall in value is likely to be caused by the fact that the value of
Omnigens intellectual capital is being ignored.
A better method of estimating the value of Omnigen is to use the cash flow projections to find the present value of Omnigen to Laceto. This will be based upon the free
770
ANSWERS TO PROBLEMS
cash flow after replacement expenditure and expenditure required to achieve the forecast
growth levels.
Financial year
Net sales
Cost of goods sold (50%)
Selling and administrative
expenses
Capital allowances
Taxable
Taxation (30%)
Year 1
(mn)
Year 2 Year 3
Year 4
230
115
261
131
281
141
298
149
32
40
187
43
12.9
30.1
40
34
42
207
54
16.2
37.8
42
36
42
219
62
18.6
43.4
42
38
42
229
69
20.7
48.3
42
Year 5
onwards
19.1(1.03)
= 178.8
.14.03
Total present value is 257.4 million (the sum of the present values for each year).
This value is the value of the entire entity, i.e. equity plus debt. The value of debt will
depend upon the final gearing, and will vary between approximately 45 million and 58
million (18%23% gearing), giving a value of equity between 19.4 million and 212.4
million. If growth is 5% the present value of the entity would be 297.2 million, and the
value of equity between 228.8 million and 243.7 million.
Assuming these cash flow projections are reasonably accurate (which itself must be
subject to serious doubt e.g. can the imbalance after Year 5 between capital allowances
and replacement capital expenditure continue indefinitely), it is clearly worth Laceto
offering a premium over the current market price for the shares of Omnigen. In theory,
using present values to infinity, it could afford to offer a premium of more than 50%
above the current market price, but in order to increase its own value it would offer the
lowest price that would attract more than 50% of the shareholders of Omnigen. It is not
possible to know what this price would be. An initial bid might offer a 2530% premium
above the current price, or between 154 million and 160 million. If that bid was
refused then there is scope for increasing it up to a maximum of the estimated equity
present values discussed above.
It must be stressed that all of the above estimates are subject to significant margins of
error, and that valuation for takeover is not a precise science.
1
Discount rate:
Using the capital asset pricing model
Ke = 6% + (14% 6%) 1.3 = 16.4%
Omnigens cost of equity after the acquisition is used as this is likely to reflect the systematic risk of the activities of Omnigen within Laceto. As the range of expected gearing
levels is quite small (1823%), and gearing is relatively low, it is assumed that the cost of
equity will not significantly change over this range of gearing, other than the change
already reflected in the increase in the equity beta by 0.1.
The cost of debt is not given but may be estimated from the data regarding Lacetos
debenture. As Omnigen currently has a lower gearing than Laceto, it is assumed
CHAPTER 25
771
FOREIGN EXCHANGE
increasing Omnigens gearing should not have a significant effect on Lacetos cost of
debt, even if the overall gearing increases to 23%.
The cost of debt, using linear interpolation is:
At 6% interest
12(1 0.3) 2.673
100 0.840
=
=
22.45
84.00
106.45
At 5% interest
12(1 0.3) 2.723
100 0.864
=
=
22.87
86.40
109.27
By interpolation:
5% +
0.47
1% = 5.17%.
0.47 + 2.35
The weighted average cost of capital may be estimated for the full range of expected
gearing:
At 18% gearing:
The weighted average cost of capital is 16.4 0.82 + 5.17% 0.18 = 14.38%
At 23% gearing:
The weighted average cost of capital is 16.4 0.77 + 5.17% 0.23 = 13.82%
The estimated WACC does not change dramatically over the possible range in
gearing. 14% will be used as the discount rate.
772
ANSWERS TO PROBLEMS
wishing to borrow money might be tempted to borrow $ rather than . But IRPT holds
that what they gain from a more favourable rate of interest they are likely to lose in an
adverse movement in exchange rates: over time it would cost more and more in terms
to pay the 6% $ interest and repay the $ loan.
The third cause of FX movements is inflation rate differentials between countries.
This is the purchasing power parity theorem which states that the currency of the
country with the lower rate of inflation will appreciate against the currency of the
country with the higher rate of inflation by an amount approximately equal to the difference between the two inflation rates.
What lies behind the PPPT is the law of one price which states that the price of a good
in one particular currency, times the exchange rate, should equal the price of that same
good in another currency. If not, there is an opportunity for arbitrage gain. Therefore as
inflation affects the price of the good in each country, the differences in inflation rates
cause the exchange rate to move in compensation so as to maintain the law of one price.
problem 2
The two extreme types of exchange rate system are a system of fixed
exchange rates and a system of freely floating exchange rates. Between these two
extremes are a whole series of semi-fixed/semi-floating type systems.
In a fixed rate system, exchange rates between different currencies are fixed by agreement between the countries concerned. Such a system makes importing and exporting
much more straightforward as there is no foreign exchange risk. An importer invoiced in
the overseas currency knows exactly how much that import deal will cost in his own currency because the exchange rate between the two currencies is fixed and unchanging.
Exporters invoicing in the foreign currency would be equally certain about the outcome
of that export deal in their own currency.
The problem with fixed exchange rate systems is that they try to deny the forces of
supply and demand by attempting to have a fixed price for one currency in terms of
another. Such a system, almost by definition, is going to be unstable unless the economic
conditions are such equality of interest and inflation rates and a balance between
imports and exports to enable currency price stability to be maintained.
A freely floating exchange rate system does not try to deny these supply and demand
market forces as the exchange rate is allowed to float to wherever these forces push it.
Therefore the system is stable in as much as it is a sustainable system, but it has two main
problems.
The first is that, in such a system, international trade is not encouraged because
importers and exporters are exposed to the risk of adverse movements in exchange rates:
foreign exchange risk. The second problem is that the exchange rate plays an important
role in the macroeconomic affairs of an economy. As a result, most governments are not
willing to allow their currencys exchange rate to be determined solely by supply and
demand market forces (as in a freely floating or clean floating system).
Because all of these extremes have both advantages and disadvantages, there are many
examples, throughout the world, of semi-fixed exchange rate systems that try to capture
the advantages of each extreme whilst avoiding their disadvantages. One such system was
the Exchange Rate Mechanism (ERM) of the European Union which was set up in 1979.
In such a system the exchange rates between the member country currencies are fixed,
but those rates then are allowed to appreciate or depreciate, in response to supply and
demand market forces, to a very limited (and specified) extent.
Such a system is designed to encourage international trade between member countries
by having (approximately) fixed exchange rates. The problem is that market forces in
foreign exchange markets can be enormous. With such potentially large market forces it
is very difficult to maintain only a limited movement in exchange rates unless economic
CHAPTER 26
773
conditions (convergence of interest and inflation rates between member countries) can
control them.
= 2.0964
= 1.5047
/US$
= 1/1.5047 = 0.6646
20964
.
= 3.1544
=
0.6646
S$/
= 2.0915
= 1.5105
/US$
= 1/1.5105 = 0.6620
20915
.
=
= 3.1592
0.6620
S$/
There are basically two ways an exporter can hedge against FX risk if they have to
invoice customers in the overseas currency. One is to use the forward market and the
other is to use the money market.
Singapore sale
With Oxlake, as far as the Singapore sale is concerned, they could investigate either
approach. However, due to the uncertainty as to when the customer will pay and the fact
that the company wishes to hedge without taking any risks, this means that only the
forward market approach is possible.
The reason for this is that, with a money market hedge, the company would be open
to risk in that it doesnt know whether to take out a two- or three-month loan. If they
just take out a two-month loan, there is the risk that the customer will not pay until
three months have elapsed. Thus the loan would have to be extended for a month (subjecting the company to interest rate risk) and the increased level of interest payable
(three months rather than two) would also expose the firm to a small FX risk on the
difference.
In order for Oxlake to hedge the Singapore contract without any risk they will need to
take out an option forward contract as the timing of the S$ receipts is uncertain and
could arise at any time between two and three months. Option forward contract rates are
always set at the least favourable rate to the company. A two-month forward contract has
an exchange rate of 3.1544, whilst the three-month contract is at a rate of 3.1592. As it is
the latter which is the least favourable to Oxlake, this will be the rate they are charged on
their option forward contract. Hence the company will take out an option forward contract to sell S$715 500 at some time between two and three months in the future, at an
exchange rate of 3.1592. Thus the expected cash flow will be:
S$715 500 3.1592 = 226 481
774
ANSWERS TO PROBLEMS
Indonesian sale
As there is no forward market in Indonesian rupiahs against , and no rupiah loans are
available, Oxlake must accept their customers offer of US$125 000 in three months if
they wish to be able to hedge the FX risk.
The US$ could be sold three months forward as a FX hedge to yield:
US$125 000 1.5105 = 82 754 received in three months.
The alternative is to use the money market to hedge by taking out a three-month US$
loan for US$x: such that:
US$x (1 + 0.03) = US$125 000.
Therefore they should take out a loan for:
US$x = 125 000 1.03 = US$121 359.
This loan will be repaid (capital, plus interest, will amount to US$125 000) with the
money received from the customer in three months time.
The US$ loan can be converted into at spot:
US$121 359 1.4875 = 81 586 available now.
In order to compare this alternative with the forward market deal, we need to be able
to compare like with like (i.e. 82 754 in three months time as against 81 586 now).
Therefore, assuming that the 81 586 is placed on three-month deposit then this will
yield in three months time:
81 586 (1 + 0.01625) = 82 912.
As this amounts to marginally more than Oxlake could obtain from the forward market
transaction, the company should hedge the Indonesian sale through the use of the
money market.
Summary
Singapore sale: Expected revenues in three months time = 226 481.
Indonesian sale: revenues immediately = 81 586 (or 82 912 in three months time)
The Singapore hedge is achieved through a two-to-three month option forward sale
contract. The Indonesian hedge is achieved through a three-month US$ loan (a
so-called currency overdraft).
(b) Standard sale price:
100 000 2 246 = 224.6mn rupiahs.
Discount price: 224.6mn 0.95 = 213.37mn rupiahs.
The R/US$ spot rate is the cross rate of the R/ and the US$/ spot rates:
2481
= 1 668 = R / US$ spot rate.
1.4875
Therefore the Indonesian customer will pay immediately:
US$ = 213.37mn 1 668 = 127 920
which Oxlake can sell at spot for:
US$127 920 1.4875 = 85 996.
CHAPTER 26
775
As this is more than the 81 586 available immediately from use of the money market,
the offer made by the Indonesian importer is likely to be accepted by Oxlake.
(c) There are three main reasons why it may be advantageous for a company to invoice an
export sale in a foreign currency. First, the foreign currency might be expected to appreciate (i.e. the forward rates would be at a premium) and therefore the company could
expect a favourable FX movement.
The second reason is that the exporter may have an existing liability in that overseas
currency. Therefore, by invoicing the customer in that currency, some hedging of the
FX risk can be gained through the matching principle.
Finally, it may be advantageous to agree to invoice in the foreign currency in order to
gain a competitive advantage over your rival suppliers. Export markets are often very
competitive and offering to invoice in the customers currency may be an effective marketing device.
The main disadvantage of invoicing in a foreign currency is the exposure it creates to
foreign exchange risk. This exposure may be difficult to hedge (because no forward
market exists and there is no convenient proxy currency to invoice in instead) or, if
hedging is possible, then the company has to incur the transaction costs involved, which
can be significant.
problem 2
(a) Four FX hedging techniques are:
1.
2.
3.
4.
With a forward market hedge an exporter who is due to receive payment in a foreign
currency arranges with a bank to sell that currency at a specific rate of exchange for
delivery on a specific future date (or, sometimes, between two specific future dates)
which coincides with the expected payment of the invoice.
With a money market hedge the exporter would borrow an amount of money in the
foreign currency for the period of the credit granted to the customer, such that the principal sum plus the accumulated interest at the end of the loans term would exactly equal
the amount of foreign currency due from the customer on payment of the invoiced
amount. The amount borrowed is sold at spot for and represents the outcome of the
export deal. The principal plus interest is then repaid using the money received from the
customer at the end of the credit period.
If the company were to use a futures market hedge, the exporter would open up a
position on the futures market such that any profit or loss made on the futures when the
position is subsequently closed out approximately offsets the loss or gain made on the
invoiced amount arising out of a movement on exchange rates over the credit period.
Finally an options market hedge guarantees the company a minimum rate of exchange
for its future foreign currency receipt, known as the option exercise or strike price.
Thus, when the foreign currency is received from the export customer, if a better rate of
exchange is available on the spot market, then the option is allowed to lapse and the currency is sold spot. On the other hand, if the spot market provides a less favourable rate of
exchange, then the option is exercised to take advantage of its guaranteed minimum rate
of exchange.
Each of the first three of these hedging techniques hedges the company against both
an adverse and a favourable movement in exchange rates over the credit period granted
to the customer. In contrast, the FX options hedge the exporter against an adverse
776
ANSWERS TO PROBLEMS
movement in exchange rates, but allows him to take advantage of any favourable
movement.
(b) The $/ rates are:
Spot:
3 months forward:
6 months forward:
1.7106 1.7140
1.7024 1.7063
1.6967 1.7006
:
:
:
:
:
116 000
$197 000
$447 000
$154 000
$293 000
No FX risk
Requires hedge
Net out for a natural hedge,
leaving the balance
Requires hedge
[a]
[b]
Purchase the $284 466 spot, at 1.7106, to give 166 296 payable now. The net payment
of $293 000 due in six months time can be made with the contents (capital plus interest)
of the $ deposit account.
Therefore the net position from the forward markets will be:
(i) Three months time:
Pay:
Receive:
116 000
115 454
Net pay:
546
172 688
112 407
166 296
Net pay:
53 889
116 000
CHAPTER 26
777
(ii) As the question only gives details of the spot rate in six months time, it is assumed
that the question only refers to the net payment of $293 000, payable in six months
time.
To hedge this FX risk in the option market we will need to buy June put options.
June options are involved because the payment is due in June (although September
options could possibly be used). Put options are involved because in the cash market we
will need to buy $293 000 to pay the invoice by selling . Therefore we need to buy
options to sell : puts.
With June puts, there is a choice of two exercise prices. (Notice that the more
favourable the exercise price is to the company $1.80 the more expensive will be the
option cost.)
However, we can see that in this case we would not select the $1.70 exercise price, the
reason being that the cost of paying the invoice at this exercise price would be: $293 000
$1.70 = 172 353. This is only marginally cheaper than the cost of paying the invoice
through a forward market hedge: 172 688. The cost of the July options will certainly
be in excess of this saving of 335, therefore we can ignore the $1.70 exercise price in
this case.
Therefore, we would hedge with June puts at an exercise price of $1.80. Paying the
invoice at this rate of exchange would have a cost of:
$293 000 $1.80 = 162 778.
Given the size of option contracts, to hedge the FX risk we would need: 162 778
12 500 = 13.02 contracts.
We are now faced with a choice of two alternatives:
1. hedge with just 13 option contracts and leave a very small amount unhedged;
2. over-hedge by using 14 option contracts.
Assuming that the company wants no FX risk, it will go for the over-hedge. Therefore
we will hedge by buying 14 June puts at an exercise price of $1.80 and a cost of:
14 12 500 9.32 = $16 310
In June, we also have a choice. We either allow the option to lapse and buy $293 000
on the spot market in order to pay the amount due or, alternatively, buy $ through the
exercise of the option contracts.
As the June $/ spot rate is 1.69671.7006, it is obviously better to buy $ by exercising
the option as they can be bought at a more favourable rate of exchange $1.80 than
the 1.6967 rate on the spot market.
Exercising the option contracts:
Buy: 14
The invoice of $293 000 can then be paid out of these purchased $, leaving a surplus of:
$315 000 $293 000 = $22 000. The surplus can then be used to pay the option cost of
$16 310. This leaves a residual of: $22 000 $16 310 = $5690 which can be sold spot at
1.7006 to yield: $5690 1.7006 = 3346.
Therefore, overall:
cost of exercising option contracts
Less the proceeds from sale of surplus $
:
:
175 000
3 346
Net cost
+171 654
778
ANSWERS TO PROBLEMS
As this net cost, payable in six months time, is less than the forward market hedge cost
of 172 688, the option hedge is preferred.
(However, note you can only tell with the benefit of hindsight whether the option
hedge is more or less favourable than the forward market hedge. In this question the
option turns out to be the better alternative, but this will not always be the case.)
(iii) A forward market hedge locks the company into a specific future exchange rate (as
does a futures hedge). Therefore the company is hedged against a favourable move in
FX rates, as well as hedged against an adverse movement.
With options, the company has additional flexibility. The option allows the company
to hedge against an adverse move in FX rates (by exercising the option), but at the same
time the company can take advantage of a favourable movement in FX rates (by allowing
the option to lapse).
This extra flexibility means that options are more expensive than forward contracts,
but they are particularly useful where a company has a contingent exposure to FX risk.
A A, M
M
then:
Subsidiary
Subsidiary
0.65 0.885
= 1.198
0.48
Using CAPM:
E [ rSubsidiary ] = rf + ( E [ rMarket ] rf ) Subsidiary
E [ rSubsidiary ] = 8% + [13% 8%] 1.198 = 14%
Writing-down allowances
Assuming that the capital expenditure is incurred on the first day of the companys
accounting year:
mn
15
3.75
11.25
2.81
8.44
2.11
6.33
1.58
4.75
mn
WDA
0.25
3.75
0.35
1.312
Year 2
0.25
2.81
0.35
0.984
Year 3
0.25
2.11
0.35
0.739
Year 4
0.25
1.58
0.35
0.553
Year 5
10
(5.25)
0.35
(1.837)
Year 6
Writing-down
allowance
tax relief
Balancing charge
CHAPTER 27
779
Contribution/gallon
300 140
160(1.04)
166.4(1.03)
171.39(1.03)
176.53(1.04)
= 160/gal.
= 166.4/gal.
= 171.39/gal.
= 176.53/gal.
= 183.59/gal.
Annual contribution
Year
Contrib/gal.
1
160
2
166.4
3
171.39
4
176.53
5
183.59
Annual fixed costs
Year
1
2
3
4
5
2
2(1.04)
2.08(1.03)
2.142(1.03)
2.206(1.04)
Sales
20 000
50 000
50 000
50 000
50 000
1.4725 (1 0.05)
1.3989 (1 0.05)
1.3289 (1 0.05)
1.2625 (1 0.05)
Royalty payments
Year
Sales
1
20 000 $50 =
2
50 000 $50 =
3
50 000 $50 =
4
50 000 $50 =
5
50 000 $50 =
$mn
1.0
2.5
2.5
2.5
2.5
2
2
8.32
2.08
3
8.57
2.142
4
8.827
2.206
5
9.18
2.294
=
=
=
=
=
m
3.2
8.32
8.57
8.827
9.18
mn
2
2.08
2.142
2.206
2.294
=
=
=
=
=
=
Exchange rate
1.4725
1.3989
1.3289
1.2625
1.1994
Royalties
0.679
1.787
1.881
1.980
2.084
=
=
=
=
=
=
=
=
=
=
=
Year 1
Year 2
Year 3
Year 4
Year 5
Taxable
c/f
0.521
4.453
4.547
4.641
4.802
1.5500
1.4725
1.3989
1.3289
1.2625
1.1994
mn
0.679
1.787
1.881
1.980
2.084
=
=
=
=
=
Tax
rate
0.35
0.35
0.35
0.35
0.35
= Tax
Tax
charge timing
= 0.182
2
= 1.558
3
= 1.591
4
= 1.624
5
= 1.681
6
780
ANSWERS TO PROBLEMS
+1.312
+8.32
2.08
0.182
+0.984
+8.57
2.142
1.558
+0.739
+8.827
2.206
1.591
+10
+0.553
+9.18
2.294
1.624
1.837
1.681
12
1
+1.2
+7.37
0.8772 0.7695
PV c/f
12
+1.053
+3.951
+5.671
+3.416
+8.214
1.603
CHAPTER 27
781
behind this advice is that the company can hedge part of its foreign exchange risk through
matching assets and liabilities in the same currency, while at the same time it gets some
protection from foreign exchange risk on its unmatched assets through the workings of
the law of one price. The reason why the non-property fixed assets are left unmatched is
that they are the most likely assets to react to the law of one price. Therefore if sterling
depreciates against the US dollar (as it is expected to do) it might be reasonable to assume
that the sterling worth of the non-property fixed assets may rise in order to counteract the
reduced worth of sterling, assuming that those assets are capable of being traded
internationally.
problem 2
(a) Base-case present value
Base-case discount rate ( terms)
assets = 1.40
4
= 1.20
4 + 1(1 0.35 )
Depreciation
=
14
18
(5)
(3.75)
Taxable profit
Tax charge
9.25
4.625
(20)
(20)
8.375
8.375
8.375
13.375
2
1
2(1.10)
2
2(1.10)
3
2(1.10)
4
2(1.10)
18
(5)
(4.625)
18
(5)
(4.625)
18
(5)
(4.625)
5
18
(5)
(4.625)
8.375
8.375
8.375
13.375
Exchange =
n
rate
0
1
2
3
4
=
=
=
=
=
mn
(10)
3.807
3.461
3.146
4.568
20%
disount
rate
1
0.833
0.694
0.579
0.482
Base case PV
=
=
=
=
=
m
PV
cash flows
(10)
3.171
2.402
1.821
2.202
(0.404mn)
PV of financing side-effects
PV of tax shield
5mn 0.10
500 000 0.35
=
=
4 0 .10
500 000
175 000
=
554 750
=
=
Annual interest
Annual tax relief
782
ANSWERS TO PROBLEMS
PV of issue costs
5mn 0.025 (1 0.35) = (81 250)
Adjusted present value
Base-case PV
PV tax shield
PV issue costs
mn
(0.404)
0.555
(0.081)
783
Index
abandonment decision, ENPV 18691
accounting role, profit 910
acquisition decisions 55376
acquisition premiums 55860
all-equity situation 5623
anti-competitive defence 5701
bootstrapping EPS 5647
City Code 19
coinsurance effect 5624
cost synergy 5556
defence document 56970
diversification 5678
EPS 5647
financial synergy 557
financing acquisitions 5712
geared situation 5634
organic growth vs. acquisition growth
5602
revenue synergy 5545
synergy 5548
takeover defence 56871
tax synergy 5567
valuing synergy 5578
White Knight defence 571
adjusted present value (APV)
applying 51621
company valuation 5078
investment and financing interactions
5078, 513
maintaining gearing ratio 51011
agency costs
bankruptcy costs 4735
debt capital 4723
all-equity financed companies, WACC
4201
all-equity situation, acquisition decisions
5623
alpha coefficient, beta value 2678
alternatives valuation, decision making 56
American options, option valuation 293,
2967
annual equivalent factors
compounding and discounting 88
table 669
784
INDEX
beta value
adjusting beta 27980
alpha coefficient 2678
beta stability 26970
CAPM 26271
information sources 276
interpreting 2624
investment appraisal 27881
measuring 2656
portfolio betas 2645
project beta 2789
project discount rate 27881
bid prices, cost of capital 386
binomial model, option valuation 31820
Black and Scholes model
assumptions 301
dividends 302
option valuation 298302, 3212
bonds
discount 4034
low coupon 4045
plain vanilla bonds 3989
pricing 399
zero coupon 4034
bootstrapping EPS, acquisition decisions
5647
borrowing possibility, portfolio theory
2402
business risk, capital structure 44650,
4969
buying rates, exchange rates 5958
Cadbury Code 1921
calculated intangible value (CIV),
intellectual capital 585
call options
Black and Scholes model 298302
combining puts 31213
foreign exchange hedging 629
gamma 316
option valuation 293, 294, 304
speculating with calls 310
vega 317
capital asset pricing model (CAPM)
25590
APT 2767
assumptions 2713
beta value 26271
CAPM expression 25971
DVM 3937
empirical evidence 2735
investment appraisal 27881
KE 3937
M and M 4978
NPV 278
PER 275
Rolls critique 2734
SML 2559
systematic risk 25962
unsystematic risk 25962
validity 2716
capital, cost of see cost of capital
capital market borrowing, capital
rationing 14850
capital market line (CML)
portfolio theory 2438
SML 2559
capital markets, investment-consumption
decision model 556
capital rationing 14875
benefit-cost ratios 1527
capital market borrowing 14850
divisibility assumption 157
hard 1501
LP 1608
multi-period 15868
mutually exclusive investments 157
opportunity costs 15960
single-period 1528
soft 1501, 1589
capital structure
arbitrage 4712
arbitrage proof 4504
asset betas 4478
assumptions 4556
bankruptcy costs 4735
business risk 44650
complex world 46287
corporate taxes 47982
debt capacity 4756
debt, consideration 490
DOG 496500
EPS 4936
financial risk 44650
financing dilemma 490
gearing 4445
interest cover ratio 496
judgement 4956
M and M 443, 4557, 47782
market signals 48990
optimal 4426
pecking order theory 48891
in practice 488505
principal-agent problem 4723
785
INDEX
owner-managers 580
PER 5801
suitable multiple 5801
traditional valuation model 508
see also investment and financing
interactions; investment appraisal
compound interest factors
compounding and discounting 856
table 667, 670
compounding and discounting
annual equivalent factors 88
annuities 878
compound interest factors 856
perpetuities 867
present value factors 86
sinking fund factors 89
tables 66770
constant capital structure, WACC 4223
contingent exposure, foreign exchange
hedging 635
control and ownership, decision objectives
1516
convertible debt
advantages 411
cost of capital 41013
corporate debt costs 4317
corporate taxes, capital structure 47982
corporation tax see taxation
cost of capital 379419
convertible debt 41013
cum dividend 3867
dividend growth model 3889
dividend growth rate 38992
dividend valuation model 38593
dividends 3835
ex dividend 3867
expected return 3835
financing decision 37980
graphical relationship 4667
interest valuation model 398
M and M 46676
market price 3835
plain vanilla bonds 3989
preference shares 40910
retained earnings 3923
share price-return relationship 3845
see also weighted average cost of capital
cost of debt capital 397409
vs. equity capital 3978
cost of equity capital (KE) 3802
CAPM 3937
gearing 449, 466
786
INDEX
787
INDEX
788
INDEX
789
INDEX
790
INDEX
791
INDEX
792
INDEX
793
INDEX
covariance 2279
diversification within companies 2489
dominance 233
graphical representation 2356
market portfolio 2446
market portfolio risk 248
market price of risk 2478
multi-asset portfolios 2347
practicality considerations 2367
risk and return 227
risk-free investment 23742
risk-reduction effect 22932
riskless asset plus risky portfolio 23940
risky-riskless boundary 2379
separation theorem 2434
three-asset portfolios 2345
two-asset portfolios 226, 237
PPPT see purchasing power parity
theorem
preference shares, cost of capital 40910
premiums, foreign exchange 6012
present value factors
compounding and discounting 86
tables 6678, 670
price-earnings ratio (PER)
CAPM 275
company valuation 5801
principal-agent problem, capital structure
4723
private debt costs 4317
problems, answers to 699786
profit, accounting role 910
project cash flows 12547
financing cash flows 1326
foreign direct investment 6447
inflation 12531
investment appraisal 12547
profit tax charge 1346
relevant cash flow 13641
taxation 1312
WDAs 1334
project discount rate
beta value 27881
foreign direct investment 64853
WACC 4203
project interdependence
IRR 99108
NPV 949
project investment appraisal, CAPM
27881
project risk, WACC 4279
794
INDEX
795
INDEX
assumptions 445
capital structure 4436
no-tax world 4445
traded currency options, foreign exchange
hedging 6289, 6356
traditional valuation model, investment
and financing interactions 508
transaction costs
interest rates 3723
pure expectations hypothesis 3723
transaction risk hedging
defined 615
foreign exchange hedging 61621
transfer pricing, foreign direct investment
6601
translation risk
foreign direct investment 6536
foreign exchange hedging 61516
transmission vehicle, company as 1415
TVM see time value of money
two-asset portfolios, portfolio theory 226,
237
uncertainty
investment-consumption decision
model 612
risk and return 2045
see also risk
unquoted debt 4078
unsystematic risk, CAPM 25962
upside potential, risk and return 21819
utility function
construction 2078
risk and return 20710
shape 20911
utility model, expected, risk and return
20612
V0 see total market value model
valuation, company see company
valuation
valuing synergy, acquisition decisions
5578
vega, option valuation 317
WACC see weighted average cost of
capital
WDAs (writing-down allowances) 1334
wealth
defining 8
maximization, decision objectives 1415
maximizing shareholder 78
796
INDEX