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2014 PRE G.S PAPER 1 SOLVED & EXPLAINED
The Partition of Bengal made by Lord Curzon in 1905 lasted until
(a) the First World War when Indian troops were needed by the British and the
partition was ended.
(b) King George V abrogated Curzons Act at the Royal Darbar in Delhi in 1911
(c) Gandhiji launched his Civil Disobedience Movement
(d) the Partition of India, in 1947 when East Bengal became East Pakistan
Answer B.
In the nineteenth century, the province of Bengal consisted of Bihar, Bengal, and Orissa. On
administrative grounds Lord Curzon divided the province into East and West Bengal. This
move was largely unpopular and resulted in the Swadeshi and Boycott Movement. The Royal
Durbar of Delhi in 1911 annulled the partition.

The 1929 Session of Indian, National Congress is of significance in the history of the
Freedom Movement because the
(a) attainment of Self-Government was declared as the objective of the Congress
(b) attainment of Poorna Swaraj Was adopted as the goal of the Congress
(c) Non-Cooperation Movement was launched
(d) decision to participate in the Round Table Conference in London was taken
Answer B.
The 1929 Lahore session under the presidency of Jawaharlal Nehru holds special significance
as in this session Purna Swaraj (complete independence) was declared as the goal of the
INC. 26 January 1930 was declared as Purna Swaraj Diwas, Independence Day, although
the British would remain in India for 17 more years. To commemorate this date the
Constitution of India was formally adopted on 26 January 1950, even though it had been
passed on 26 November 1949.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indian_National_Congress
With reference to the famous Sattriya dance, consider the following statements:
1. Sattriya is a combination of music, dance and drama.
2. It is a centuries-old living tradition of Vaishnavites of Assam.
3. It is based on classical Ragas and Talas of devotional songs composed by Tulsidas,
Kabir and Mirabai.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Aswer B.
Sattriya or Sattriya Nritya is one among the eight principal classical Indian dance traditions.
In the year 2000, the Sattriya dances of Assam received recognition as one of the eight
classical dance forms of India. It was created by the founder of Vaishnavism in Assam, the
great saint Srimanta Sankardev, in 15th century Assam. Like the other seven schools of
Indian Classical dance, Sattriya Nritya encompasses the principles required of a classical
dance form: the treatises of dance and dramaturgy, like Natyashastra, Abhinaya Darpana, and
Sangit Ratnakara; a distinct repertoire (marg) and the aspects of nritta (pure dance), nritya
(expressive dance), and natya (abhinaya).
Chaitra 1 of the national calendar based on the Saka Era corresponds to which one of
the following dates of the Gregorian calendar in a normal year of 365 days?
(a) 22 March (or 21st March)
(b) 15th May (or 16th May)
(c) 31st March (or 30th March)
(d) 21st April (or 20th April)
Answer A.
The Indian national calendar, sometimes called the Saka calendar, is the official civil
calendar in use in India.
Month (Sanskrit)

Length Start date (Gregorian)

Chaitra

30/31

March 22

Vaishkha

31

April 21

Jyshtha

31

May 22

shdha

31

June 22

Shrvana

31

July 23

Bhaadra

31

August 23

shwin

30

September 23

Krtika

30

October 23

Agrahayana

30

November 22

10

Pausha

30

December 22

11

Mgha

30

January 21

12

Phalguna

30

February 20

With reference to the Indian history of art and culture, consider the following pairs:
Famous work of sculpture
Site
1. A grand image of Buddhas Mahaparinirvana with numerous celestial musicians
above and the sorrowful figures of his followers below :Ajanta
2. A huge image of Varaha Avatar (boar incarnation) of Vishnu, as he rescues
Goddess Earth from the deep and chaotic waters, sculpted on rock :Mount Abu
2. Arjunas Penance /Descent of Ganga sculpted on the surface of huge boulders
:Mamallapuram
Which of the pairs given above is/ are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only,
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer C.
Mahaparinirvana is a grand image of Buddha in the Cave 26, Ajanta carved in the 6th
century. This is a colossal representation of the moment when the Buddha shook off the
bindings of his mortal body to attain salvation. The solemn grandeur of the moment is
highlighted by the sensitive portrayal of the many monks who grieve the passing away of
their master.
Arjunas Penance is a massive open-air bas-relief monolith, which dates back to the 7th
century. It is situated in the town of Mahabalipuram, at a distance of 58 km from Chennai, the
capital city of Tamil Nadu. Standing tall at a height of 43 feet, the Mamallapuram monolith
was carved on the face of two huge adjoining boulders, somewhere around the mid-7th
century. The length of Arjunas Penance is around 96 feet and the monolith is also known by
the name of The Descent of Ganga.

The Ghadr (Ghadar) was a

(a) revolutionary association of Indians with headquarters at San Francisco.
(b) nationalist organization operating from Singapore
(c) militant organization with headquarters at Berlin
(d) communist movement for Indias freedom with head-quarters at Tashkent.
Answer A.
The Ghadar Party was an organization founded by Punjabi Indians, in the United
States andCanada with the aim to gaining Indias independence from British rule. Key

members included lala Har Dayal, Sohan Singh Bhakna, Kartar Singh Sarabha,
and Rashbehari Bose.
After the outbreak of World War I, Ghadar party members returned to Punjab to agitate for
rebellion alongside the Babbar Akali Movement. In 1915 they conducted revolutionary
activities in central Punjab and attempted to organize uprisings, but their attempts were
crushed by the British Government. After the conclusion of the war, the party in America
split into Communist and Anti-Communist factions. The party was formally dissolved in
1948.
With reference to Indias culture and tradition, what is Kalaripayattu?
(a) It is an ancient Bhakti cult of Shaivism still prevalent in some parts of South India
(b) It is an ancient style bronze and brass work still found in southern part of
Coromandel area
(c) It is an ancient form of dance-drama and a living tradition in the northern part of
Malabar
(d) It is an ancient martial art and a living tradition in some parts of South India
Answer D.
Kalaripayattu is an Indian martial art which originated in the state of Kerala. It is considered
to be the oldest fighting system in existence. It is now practiced in Kerala, in contiguous parts
of Tamil Nadu and among the Malayali community of Malaysia. It was originally practiced
in northern and central parts of Kerala and the Tulunadu region of Karnataka.

Consider the following pairs:

1. Garba
: Gujarat
2. Mohiniattam : Odisha
3. Yakshagana : Karnataka
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer C.
Garba is a form of dance that originated in the state of Gujarat in India. The name is derived
from the Sanskrit term Garbha (womb) and Deep (a small earthenware lamp). Many
traditional garbas are performed around a centrally lit lamp or a picture or statue of the
Goddess Shakti. The circular and spiral figures of Garba have similarities to other spiritual
dances, such as those of Sufi culture. Traditionally, it is performed during the nine-day Hindu
festival Navartr. Either the lamp (the Garba Deep) or an image of the Goddess, Durga (also
called Amba) is placed in the middle of concentric rings as an object of veneration.
Mohiniyattam, also spelled Mohiniattam is a classical dance from Kerala, India. Believed to
have originated in 16th century CE,[1] it is one of the eight Indian classical dance forms
recognised by the Sangeet Natak Akademi. It is considered a very graceful form of dance
meant to be performed as solo recitals by women.

Yakshaganais a theater form that combines dance, music, dialogue, costume, make-up, and
stage techniques with a unique style and form. This theater style, resembling Western opera,
is mainly found in the coastal districts and the Malenadu region of Karnataka, India.
Yakshagana is traditionally presented from dusk to dawn.

With reference to Buddhist history, tradition and culture in India, consider the
following pairs:
Famous shrine

Location

1. Tabo monastery and temple complex : Spiti Valley

2. Lhotsava Lhakhang temple, Nako
: Zanskar Valley
3. Alchi temple complex
: Ladakh
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer C.
Tabo Monastery is located in the Tago village of Spiti Valley, Himachal Pradesh, northern
India. It was founded in 996 CE in the Tibetan year of the Fire Ape by the Tibetan Buddhist
lotswa (translator), Rinchen Zangpo (Mahauru Ramabhadra), the king of western Himalayan
Kingdom of Guge. Tabo is noted for being the oldest continuously operating Buddhist
enclave in both India and the Himalayas.
The Buddhist temples from the 12th century at Nako, in the Kinnaur region of Himachal
Pradesh Western Himalayas of India, have been identified as one of the 100 most
endangered heritage sites by the Worlds Monuments Fund.
Alchi Monastery or Alchi Gompa is a Buddhist monastery, known more as a monastic
complex (chos-khor) of temples in Alchi village in the Leh District, of the Indian state under
the Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Council of Jammu and Kashmir. The complex
comprises four separate settlements in the Alchi village in the lower Ladakh region with
monuments dated to different periods. Of these four hamlets, Alchi monastery is said to be
the oldest and most famous. It is administered by the Likir Monastery.

Consider the following statements:

1. Bijak is a composition of the teachings of Saint Dadu Dayal.
2. The Philosophy of Pushti Marg was propounded by Madhvacharya.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer D.
Bijak is the best known of the compilations of the compositions of Kabir, and as such is the
holy scripture for followers of the Kabirpanthi religion.
Pushti marg (the Path of Grace) is a Vaishnav sect of the Hinduism, founded by
Vallabhacharya (also known as Mahaprabhu) around 1500 AD

A community of people called Manganiyars is well-known for their

(a) martial arts in North-East India
(b) musical tradition in North-West India
(c) classical vocal music in South India
(d) pietra dura tradition in Central India
Answer B.
The Manganiar and related Langha caste are Muslim communities in the desert of Rajasthan,
India in the districts of Barmer and Jaisalmer, along the border with Pakistan. Significant
numbers are also found in the districts of Tharparkar and Sanghar in the province of Sindh in
Pakistan. They are famous for their classical folk music. They are the groups of hereditary

professional musicians, whose music has been supported by wealthy landlords and aristocrats
for generations.

What was/were the object/objects of Queen Victorias Proclamation (1858)?

1. To disclaim any intention to annex Indian States
2. To place the Indian administration under the British Crown
3. To regulate East India Companys trade with India
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer A.
Queens proclamation of 1858
1. The Companys territories in India were to be vested in the Queen, the Company ceasing
to exercise its power and control over these territories. India was to be governed in the
Queens name.
2. The Queens Principal Secretary of State received the powers and duties of the Companys
Court of Directors. A council of fifteen members was appointed to assist the Secretary of
State for India. The council became an advisory body in India affairs. For all the
communications between Britain and India, the Secretary of State became the real channel.
3. The Crown was empowered to appoint a Governor-General and the Governors of the
Presidencies.
4. Provision for the creation of an Indian Civil Service under the control of the Secretary of
State.
5. All the property of the East India Company was transferred to the Crown. The Crown also
assumed the responsibilities of the Company as they related to treaties, contracts, and so
forth.

Ibadat Khana at Fatehpur Sikri was

(a) the mosque for the use of Royal Family
(b) Akbars private chamber prayer
(c) the hall in which Akbar held discussions with scholars of various religions.
(d) the room in which the nobles belonging to different religions gathered to discuss
religious affairs
Answer C.

The Ibdat Khna (House of Worship) was a meeting house built in 1575 CE by the Mughal
Emperor Akbar (r. 15561605) at Fatehpur Sikri to gather spiritual leaders of different
religious grounds so as to conduct a discussion on the teachings of the respective religious
leaders.

In the context of food and nutritional security of India, enhancing the Seed
Replacement Rates of various crops helps in achieving the food production targets of
the future. But what is/are the constraint/ constraints in its wider / greater
implementation?
1. There is no National Seeds Policy in place.
2. There is no participation of private sector seed companies in the supply of quality
seeds of vegetables and planting materials of horticultural crops.
3. There is a demand-supply gap regarding quality seeds in case of low value and high
volume crops.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) None
Answer B.
Seed Replacement Rate is the percentage of area sown out of total area of crop planted in the
season by using certified/quality seeds other than the farm saved seed.

With reference to Eco-Sensitive Zones, which of the following statements is/are

correct?
1. Eco-Sensitive Zones are the areas that are declared under the Wildlife (Protection)
Act, 1972.
2. The purpose of the declaration of Eco-Sensitive Zones is to prohibit all kinds of
human activities, in those zones except agriculture.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer B.
The eco sensitive zones need to be declared in order to provide better sanctity to protected
areas; as an additional tool to strengthen the buffers and corridors around the Protected Area
network; and to check the negative impact of industrialization and unplanned development in
and around Protected Areas. In this background the Indian Board for Wildlife in its XXI
meeting held on 21st January 2002 under the Chairmanship of Honble Prime Minister had
adopted a Wildlife Conservation Strategy-2002 in which one of the action point envisaged
to notify lands falling within 10 km. of the boundaries of National Parks and Sanctuaries as
Eco-fragile zones under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

Consider the following statements:

1. Animal Welfare Board of India is established under the Environment (Protection)
Act, 1986.
2. National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body.
3. National Ganga River Basin Authority is chaired by the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer B.
The Animal Welfare Board of India was established in 1962 under Section 4 of The
Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act,1960.
The National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body under the Ministry of
Environment and Forests, constituted under enabling provisions of the Wildlife (Protection)
Act, 1972, for strengthening tiger conservation, as per powers and functions assigned to it
under the said Act. Project Tiger is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme of the Ministry of
Environment and Forests, providing funding support to tiger range States, for in-situ
conservation of tigers in designated tiger reserves.
National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA) is a financing, planning, implementing,
monitoring and coordinating authority for the Ganges River, functioning under the water
resource ministry of India. The mission of the organization is to safeguard the drainage basin
which feeds water into the Ganges by protecting it from pollution or overuse. It is transferred
from Ministry of Environments to Min. of Water resources. The Prime Minister is the
chairman of the Authority. Other members include the cabinet ministers who include the

Ganges among their direct concerns and the chief ministers of states through which the
Ganges River flows.
Consider the following pairs:
Vitamin

Deficiency disease

1. Vitamin C
2. Vitamin D
3. Vitamin E

Scurvy
Rickets
Night blindness

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Answer A.
Vitamin
generic

Overdose disease

Food sources

Hypervitaminosis A

Liver, orange,
ripe yellow
fruits, leafy
vegetables,
carrots,
pumpkin,
squash, spinach,
fish, soya milk,
milk

Beriberi, WernickeKorsakoff syndrome

Drowsiness or
muscle relaxation
with large doses.[10]

Pork, oatmeal,
brown rice,
vegetables,
potatoes, liver,
eggs

Vitamin
C

Scurvy

Vitamin C
megadosage

Many fruits and

vegetables, liver

Vitamin
D

Rickets and
Osteomalacia

Hypervitaminosis D

Fish, eggs, liver,

mushrooms

Vitamin
A

Vitamin
B1

Deficiency disease

Night blindness,
Hyperkeratosis, and
Keratomalacia[8]

Vitamin
E

Vitamin
K

Deficiency is very
rare; sterility in males
and abortions in
females, mild
hemolytic anemia in
newborn infants.[17]

Increased congestive
heart failure seen in
one large
randomized
study.[18]

Many fruits and

vegetables, nuts
and seeds

Bleeding diathesis

Increases
coagulation in
patients taking
warfarin.[19]

Leafy green
vegetables such
as spinach, egg
yolks, liver

There is some concern regarding the nanoparticles of some chemical elements that are
used by the industry in the manufacture of various products. Why?
1. They can accumulate in the environment, and contaminate water and soil.
2. They can enter the food chains.
3. They can trigger the production of free radicals.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer D.

Which of the following organizations brings out the publication known as World
Economic Outlook?
(a) The International Monetary Fund
(b) The United Nations Development Programme
(c) The World Economic Forum
(d) The World Bank
Answer A.
World Economic Outlook is a survey conducted and published by the International Monetary
Fund. It is published twice and partly updated 3 times a year. It portrays the world economy
in the near and medium context (4 years). WEO forecasts include the macroeconomic
indicators, such as GDP, inflation, current account and fiscal balance of more than 180
countries around the globe. It also deals with major economic policy issues.

20. With reference to Union Budget, which of the following is/are covered under NonPlan Expenditure?
1.
2.
3.
4.

Defence -expenditure
Interest payments
Salaries and pensions
Subsidies

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) None
Answer C.
There are two components of expenditure plan and non-plan.
Non-plan revenue expenditure is accounted for by interest payments, subsidies (mainly on
food and fertilisers), wage and salary payments to government employees, grants to States
and Union Territories governments, pensions, police, economic services in various sectors,
other general services such as tax collection, social services, and grants to foreign
governments.
Non-plan capital expenditure mainly includes defence, loans to public enterprises, loans to
States, Union Territories and foreign governments.
21. Which of the following have coral reefs?
1.
2.
3.
4.

Andaman and Nicobar Islands I

Gulf of Kachchh
Gulf of Mannar
Sunderbans

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer A.
Major reefs in India

Gulf of Kutch exclusively consists of fringing reefs. The reefs are relatively less developed
due to large range of temperature and high salinity. Harbours with less biodiversity. The
entire Gulf of Kutch is also known as a marine national park.
Lakshadweep exclusively coral atolls with 36 islands of which 10 are inhabited. The islands
range from less than a kilometer to about 9 km in length and does not exceed 2 km across.[2]
Gulf of Mannar has fringing reefs with a chain of 21 islands from Rameswaram in the north
to Thoothukudi (Tuticorin) in the south. This part of the gulf forms part of the Gulf of
Mannar bisphere reserve.
Andaman and Nicobar Islands are situated in Bay of Bengal, exclusively fringing reefs of
about 500 islands, most of these islands have a healthy biodiversity.
22. In India, the problem of soil erosion is associated with which of the following?
1. Terrace cultivation
2. Deforestation
3. Tropical climate
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer B.
23. The seasonal reversal of winds is the typical characteristic of
(a) Equatorial climate
(b) Mediterranean climate
(c) Monsoon climate
(d) All of the above climates
Answer C.
Monsoon is traditionally defined as a seasonal reversing wind accompanied by corresponding
changes in precipitation, but is now used to describe seasonal changes in atmospheric
circulation and precipitation associated with the asymmetric heating of land and sea.
24. With reference to the cultural history of India, the term Panchayatan refers to
(a) an assembly of village elders
(b) a religious sect

(c) a style of temple construction

(d) an administrative functionary
Answer C.
A temple style is called Panchayatan. A Panchayatana temple has four subordinate shrines
on four corners and the main shrine in the center of the podium, which comprises their base.
25. Consider the following rivers:
1. Barak
2. Lohit
3. Subansiri
Which of the above flows / flow through Arunachal Pradesh?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer B.
Barak: It flows west through Manipur State, then southwest leaving Manipur and entering
Mizoram State.
Lohit: It flows through Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.
Subansiri: It flows through Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.

26. Consider the following pairs:

Wetlands
Confluence of rivers
1. Harike Wetlands
: Confluence of Beas and Satluj/Sutlej
2. Keoladeo Ghana National Park
: Confluence of Banas and Chambal
3. Kolleru Lake
: Confluence of Musi and Krishna
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer A.

Harike Wetlands: The wetland and the lake were formed by constructing the headworks
across the Sutlej river, in 1953. The headworks is located downstream of the confluence of
the Beas and Sutlej river
Keoladeo Ghana National Park: The bund was created at the confluence of two rivers, the
Gambhir and Banganga.
Kolleru Lake: Kolleru is located between Krishna and Godavari delta.
27. Which one of the following pairs does not form part of the six systems of Indian
Philosophy?

Mimamsa and Vedanthu=w`+

a
(b) Nyaya and Vaisheshika
(c) Lokayata and Kapalika
(d) Sankhya and Yoga
Answer C.
There are six schools of orthodox Hindu philosophy and three heterodox schools. The
orthodox are Nyaya, Vaisesika, Samkhya, Yoga, Purva mimamsa and Vedanta. The
Heterodox are Jain, Buddhist and materialist (Crvka).

28. Consider the following pairs:

1.
2.
3.
4.

Hills
Cardamom Hills
Kaimur Hills
Mahadeo Hills
Mikir Hills

Region
: Coromandel Coast
: Konkan Coast
: Central India
: North-East India

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Answer: C.
Cardamom Hills : The Cardamom Hills southern hills of India and part of the southern
Western Ghats located in southeast Kerala and southwest Tamil Nadu in South India.
Kaimur Hills: Kaimur Range is the eastern portion of the Vindhya Range, about 483
kilometres (300 mi) long, extending from around Katangi in Balaghat district of Madhya
Pradesh to around Sasaram in Rohtas district of Bihar. It passes through the Rewa and
Mirzapur divisions.
Mahadeo Hills: The Mahadeo Hills are a range of hills in Madhya Pradesh state of central
India. The hills form the central part of the Satpura Range.

Mikir Hills: Mikir Hills are a group of hills located to the south of the Kaziranga National
Park.
29. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions
regarding anti-defection?
(a) Second Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Eighth Schedule
(d) Tenth Schedule
Answer D.
The Constitution (Fifty-second Amendment) Act, 1985 popularly known as the anti-defection
law came into force w.e.f. 1 March 1985. It amended articles 101, 102, 190 and 191 of the
Constitution regarding vacation of seats and disqualification from membership of Parliament
and the State Legislatures and added a new schedule i.e. the Tenth Schedule to the
Constitution setting out certain provisions as to disqualification on ground of defection.

30. The most important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity together with
traditional human life is the establishment of
(a) biosphere reserves
(b) botanical gardens
(c) national parks
(d) wildlife sanctuaries
Answer: A
A biosphere reserve is an area proposed by its residents, ratified by a national committee,
and designated by UNESCOs Man and Biosphere (MAB) program, which demonstrates
innovative approaches to living and working in harmony with nature. One of the primary
objectives of MAB is to achieve a sustainable balance between the goals of conserving
biological diversity, promoting economic development, and maintaining associated cultural
values.
A botanical garden (or botanic garden) is a garden dedicated to the collection, cultivation
and display of a wide range of plants labelled with their botanical names. It may contain
specialist plant collections such as cacti and succulent plants, herb gardens, plants from
particular parts of the world, and so on; there may be greenhouses, shadehouses, again with
special collections such as tropical plants, alpine plants, or other exotic plants. Visitor
services at a botanical garden might include tours, educational displays, art exhibitions, book
rooms, open-air theatrical and musical performances, and other entertainment.
A national park is a park in use for conservation purposes. Often it is a reserve of natural,
semi-natural, or developed land that a sovereign state declares or owns. Although individual
nations designate their own national parks differently, there is a common idea: the
conservation of wild nature for posterity and as a symbol of national pride. An international
organization, the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), and its World
Commission on Protected Areas, has defined National Park as its Category II type of
protected areas.

A wildlife sanctuary provides protection for species from hunting, predation or competition,
it is a protected area, a geographic territory within which wildlife is protected.
31. Turkey is located between
(a) Black Sea and Caspian Sea
(b) Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea
(c) Gulf of Suez and Mediterranean Sea
(d) Gulf of Aqaba and Dead Sea
Answer B.
32. What is the correct sequence of occurrence of the following cities in South-East Asia
as one proceeds from south to north?
1.
2.
3.
4.

Bangkok
Hanoi
Jakarta
Singapore

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 4-2-1-3
(b) 3-2-4-1
(c) 3-4-1-2
(d) 4-3-2-1
Answer: C.
Bangkok:
Hanoi:
Jakarta:
Singapore:

1345N 10028E
2120N 1055100E
612S 10649E
1.3N 103.8E

33. The scientific view is that the increase in global temperature should not exceed 2 C
above pre-industrial level. If the global temperature increases beyond 3 C above the
pre-industrial level, what can be its possible impact/impacts on the world?
1.
2.
3.
4.

Terrestrial biosphere tends toward a net carbon source

Widespread coral mortality will occur.
All the global wetlands will permanently disappear.
Cultivation of cereals will not be possible anywhere in the world.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4,
Answer B.
34. The national motto of India, Satyameva Jayate inscribed below the Emblem of
India is taken from
(a) Katha Upanishad
(b) Chandogya Upanishad
(c) Aitareya Upanishad
(d) Mundaka Upanishad
Answer D.
35. In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is
included in the
(a) Preamble to the Constitution
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Duties
(d) Ninth Schedule
Answer B.
PART IV
DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES OF STATE POLICY
Article 51. Promotion of international peace and security.The State shall endeavour to(a) promote international peace and security;
(b) maintain just and honourable relations between nations;
(c) foster respect for international law and treaty obligations in the dealings of organised
peoples with one another; and
(d) encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration.

36. What are the benefits of implementing the Integrated Watershed Development
Programme?
1.
2.
3.
4.

Prevention of soil runoff

Linking the countrys perennial rivers with seasonal rivers
Rainwater harvesting and recharge of groundwater table
Regeneration of natural vegetation

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer C.
The main objectives of the IWMP are to restore the ecological balance by harnessing,
conserving and developing degraded natural resources such as soil, vegetative cover and
water.
The outcomes are prevention of soil run-off, regeneration of natural vegetation, rain water
harvesting and recharging of the ground water table. This enables multi-cropping and the
introduction of diverse agro-based activities, which help to provide sustainable livelihoods to
the people residing in the watershed area. In addition, there is a Scheme of Technology
Development, Extension and Training (TDET) is also being implemented to promote
development of cost effective and proven technologies to support watershed management.
37. Which of the following are associated with Planning in India?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

The Finance Commission

The National Development Council
The Union Ministry of Rural Development
The Union Ministry of Urban Development
The Parliament

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 5 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer C.
38. Which of the following is / are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?
1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings

2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees

3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer C.
Functions of Cabinet Secretariat are

Secretarial assistance to Cabinet and Cabinet Committees.

Support to Cabinet Committees
Convening of the meetings of the Cabinet on the orders of the Prime Minister.
Preparation and circulation of the agenda.
Circulating papers related to the cases on the agenda.
Preparing a record of discussions taken.
Circulation of the record after obtaining the approval of the Prime Minister.
Watching implementation of the decisions taken by the Cabinet.

Promotion of Inter-Ministerial Coordination

Removing difficulties.
Removing differences.
Overcoming delays.
Coordination in administrative action.
Coordination of policies.
39. Consider the following statements: A Constitutional Government is one which
1. places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority
2. places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual
liberty
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer B.
40. Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a
State?

1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the Presidents rule
2. Appointing the Ministers
3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the
President of India
4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 nd 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer B.
The governor can use discretionary powers:
1. a) If no party gets an absolute majority, the governor can use his discretion in the selection
of the chief minister;
2. b) During an emergency he can override the advice of the council of ministers. At such
times, he acts as an agent of the president and becomes the real ruler of the state;
3. c) He uses his discretion in submitting a report to the president regarding the affairs of the
state; and
4. d) He can withhold his assent to a bill and send it to the president for his approval.
41. In medieval India, the designations Mahattara and Pattakila were used for
(a) military officers
(b) village headmen
(c) specialists in Vedic rituals
(d) chiefs of craft guilds
Answer B.
42. Lichens, which are capable of initiating ecological succession even on a bare rock, are
actually a symbiotic association of
(a) algae and bacteria
(b) algae and fungi
(c) bacteria and fungi
(d) fungi and mosses
Answer B.
A lichen is a composite organism that emerges from algae or cyanobacteria (or both) living
among filaments of a fungus in a mutually beneficial (symbiotic) relationship.

43. If you travel through the Himalayas, you are Iikely to see which of the following
plants naturally growing there?
1. Oak
2. Rhododendron
3. Sandalwood
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer A.
44. Which of the following are some important pollutants released by steel industry in
India?
1.
2.
3.
4.

Oxides of sulphur
Oxides of nitrogen
Carbon monoxide
Carbon dioxide

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1,2, 3 and 4
Answer D.
The iron and steel industry causes significant effects on environmental media: air emissions
of SO2, NOx, CO, H2S, PAH, lead, Ni, As, Cd, Cr, Cu, Zn, Se, Hg, PM, etc.; water process
water with organic matter, oil, metals, suspended solids, benzene, phenol, acids, sulfides,
sulfates, ammonia, cyanides, thiocyanates, thiosulfates, fluorides (scrubber effluent); soil
slag, sludge, sulfur compounds, heavy metals, oil and greaseresidues, salts.
45. Which of the following Kingdoms were associated with the life of the Buddha?
1.
2.
3.
4.

Avanti
Gandhara
Kosala
Magadha

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Answer C.
46. Every year, a month long ecologically important campaign/festival is held during
which certain communities/ tribes plant saplings of fruit-bearing trees. Which of the
following are such communities/tribes?
(a) Bhutia and Lepcha
(b) Gond and Korku
(c) lrula and Toda
(d) Sahariya and Agariya
Answer B.
47. The sales tax you pay while purchasing a toothpaste is a
(a) tax imposed by the Central Government
(b) tax imposed by the Central Government but collected by the State Government
(c) tax imposed by the State Government but collected by the Central Government
(d) tax imposed and collected by the State Government
Answer D.
48. What does venture capital mean?
(a) A short-term capital provided to industries
(b) A long-term start-up capital provided to new entrepreneurs
(c) Funds provided to industries at times of incurring losses
(d) Funds provided for replacement and renovation of industries
Answer B.
Venture capital (VC) is financial capital provided to early-stage, high-potential, high growth
start-up companies. The venture capital fund earns money by owning equity in the companies
it invests in, which usually have a novel technology or business model in high technology
industries, such as biotechnology and IT.

49. The main objective of the 12th Five-Year Plan is

(a) inclusive growth and poverty reductions
(b) inclusive and sustainable growth

(c) sustainable and inclusive growth to reduce unemployment

(d) faster, sustainable and more inclusive growth.
Answer D.
50. With reference to Balance of Payments, which of the following constitutes/constitute
the Current Account?
1. Balance of trade
2. Foreign assets
3. Balance of invisibles
4. Special Drawing Right
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Answer C.
A countrys current account can be calculated by the following formula:
CA=(X-M)+NY+NCT
When CA is the current account, X and M the export and import of goods and services
respectively, NY the net income from abroad, and NCT the net current transfers.

51. The terms Marginal Standing Facility Rate and Net Demand and Time Liabilities,
sometimes appearing in news, are used in relation to
(a) banking operations
(b) communication networking
(c) military strategies
(d) supply and demand of agricultural products
Answer B.
Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) is a new scheme announced by the Reserve Bank of
India (RBI) in its Monetary Policy (2011-12) and refers to the penal rate at which banks can
borrow money from the central bank over and above what is available to them through the
LAF window.
Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL): Bank accounts from which you can withdraw
your money at any time are called Demand Liabilities for exemplification, Savings
accounts, Current Deposits etc.

Accounts from which you cant just withdraw money at any time but you have to wait for
certain period are called Time Liabilities for instance Fixed Deposits, cash certificates etc.

52. What is/are the facility/facilities the beneficiaries can get from the services of
Business Correspondent (Bank Saathi) in branchless areas?
53. It enables the beneficiaries to draw their subsidies and social security benefits in their
villages.
54. It enables the beneficiaries in the rural areas to make deposits and withdrawals.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer B.
Services Offered b Bank Correspondent:

Promises to bring basic banking services to unbanked villages with a population of 2000
and above.
opening of banks accounts, provide need-based credit and remittance facilities besides
helping in promoting financial literacy in rural India.
increasing the demand for credit among the millions of small and marginal farmers and
rural artisans who will benefit by having access to banking facilities.
providing branchless banking services through the use of technology.
Banks provide basic services like deposits, withdrawals and remittances using the services
of Business Correspondents (BCs) also known as Bank Saathi.
53. In the context of Indian economy; which of the following is/are the purpose/purposes
of Statutory Reserve Requirements?
1.
2.
3.
4.

To enable the Central Bank to control the amount of advances the banks can create
To make the peoples deposits with banks safe and liquid
To prevent the commercial banks from making excessive profits
To force the banks to have sufficient vault cash to meet their day-to-day
requirements

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer B.
Statutory liquidity ratio (SLR) is the Indian government term for reserve requirement that the
commercial banks in India are required to maintain in the form of gold, cash or government
approved securities before providing credit to the customers. Statutory Liquidity Ratio is
determined and maintained by Reserve Bank of India in order to control the expansion of
bank credit.

54. Recently, a series of uprisings of people referred to as Arab Spring originally

started from
(a) Egypt
(b) Lebanon
(c) Syria
(d) Tunisia
Answer D.
The Arab Spring is a revolutionary wave of demonstrations and protests (both non-violent
and violent), riots, and civil wars in the Arab world that began on 18 December 2010 in
Tunisia and spread throughout the countries of the Arab League and surroundings. While the
wave of initial revolutions and protests had expired by mid-2012, some refer to the ongoing
large-scale conflicts in the Middle East and North Africa as a continuation of the Arab
Spring, while others refer to the aftermath of revolutions and civil wars post mid-2012 as the
Arab Winter.
By January 2015, rulers had been forced from power in Tunisia, Egypt (twice), Libya, and
Yemen (twice); civil uprisings had erupted in Bahrain and Syria; major protests had broken
out in Algeria, Iraq, Jordan, Kuwait, Morocco, Israel and Sudan. Weapons and Tuareg
fighters returning from the Libyan Civil War stoked a simmering conflict in Mali which has
been described as fallout from the Arab Spring in North Africa.
55. Consider the following countries:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

Denmark
Japan
Russian Federation
United Kingdom
United States of America

Which of the above are the members of the Arctic Council ?

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 3 and 5
Answer D.
The Arctic Council consists of the eight Arctic States: Canada, Denmark (including
Greenland and the Faroe Islands), Finland, Iceland, Norway, Russia, Sweden and the United
States. Six international organisations representing Arctic Indigenous Peoples have
permanent participant status.
56. Consider the following pairs:
Region often in news

Country

1. Chechnya
: Russian Federation
2. Darfur
: Mali
3. Swat Valley
: Iraq
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer A.
Chechnya: The Chechen Republic, commonly referred to as Chechnya, also spelled
Chechnia or Chechenia, sometimes referred to as Ichkeria, is a federal subject of Russia
Darfur: Darfur is a region in western Sudan. It was firstly named Dardaju when the Daju,
who migrated from Meroe c.350 AD, were ruling
Swat Valley: Swat is a valley and an administrative district in the Khyber Pakhtunkhwa
Province of Pakistan. It is the upper valley of the Swat River, which rises in the Hindu Kush
range
57. Which reference to Agni-IV Missile, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is a surface-to-surface missile.
2. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only.
3. It can deliver one-tonne nuclear warheads about 7500 km away.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer A.

The missile is light-weight and has two stages of solid propulsion and a payload with re-entry
heat shield. It has operational range of 4000km.
58. With reference to two non-conventional energy sources called coalbed methane and
shale gas, consider the following statements:
1. Coalbed methane is the pure methane gas extracted from coal seams, while shale gas
is a mixture of propane and butane only that can be extracted from fine-grained
sedimentary rocks.
2. In India abundant coalbed methane sources exist, but so far no shale gas sources
have been found.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer D.
Coal Bed Methane is methane (natural gas) trapped in coal seams underground. To extract
the gas, after drilling into the seam, it is necessary to pump large amounts of water out of the
coal seam to lower the pressure. It is often also necessary to frack the seam to extract the gas
Shale gas refers to natural gas that is trapped within shale formations. Shales are fine-grained
sedimentary rocks that can be rich resources of petroleum and natural gas. Sedimentary rocks
are rocks formed by the accumulation of sediments at the Earths surface and within bodies
of water.
India has deposits of both shale gas and coal bed methane.
59. With reference to Changpa community of India, consider the following statements :
1. They live mainly in the State of Uttarakhand.
2. They rear the Pashmina goats that yield a fine wool.
3. They are kept in the category of Scheduled Tribes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer B.

The Changpa or Champa are a semi-nomadic Tibetan people found mainly in the Changtang
in Ladakh and in Jammu and Kashmir. A smaller number resided in the western regions of
the Tibet Autonomous Region until they suffered forced relocation by China.
The Changpa of Ladakh are high altitude pastoralists, raising mainly yaks and goats. Among
the Lasakh Changpa, those who are still nomadic are known as Phalpa, and they take their
herds from in the Hanley Valley to the village of Lato. The Changpa speak Changskhat, a
dialect of Tibetan, and practice Tibetan Buddhism.
Only a small part of Changthang crosses the border into Ladakh, in the Indian state of Jammu
and Kashmir. It is, however, on a historically important route for travellers journeying from
Ladakh to Lhasa, and now has many different characteristics due to being part of India.
Historically, the Changpa of the Lasakh would migrate with their herds into Tibet, but with
Chinese occupation of Tibet, this route has been closed.
As of 2001, the Changpa were classified as a Scheduled Tribe under the Indian governments
reservation program of affirmative action.

60. In India, cluster bean (Guar) is traditionally used as a vegetable or animal feed, but
recently the cultivation of this has assumed significance. Which one of the following
statements is correct in this context?
(a) The oil extracted from seeds is used in the manufacture of biodegradable plastics
(b) The gum made from its seeds is used in the extraction of shale gas
(c) The leaf extract of this plant has the properties of anti-histamines
(d) It is a source of high quality biodiesel
Answer B.
61. If the interest rate is decreased in an economy, it will
(a) decrease the consumption expenditure in the economy
(b) increase the tax collection of the Government
(c) increase the investment expenditure in the economy
(d) increase the total savings in the economy
Answer C.
62. Consider the following statements:
1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of
the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the
name of the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer A.
63. Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India:
1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer C.
No confidence Motion: The Lok Sabha can remove the ministry from office by passing no
confidence motion. It needs the support of 50 members to be admitted. If passed, it leads to
the resigning of the council of ministers.
Constitution states that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok
Sabha. However, there is no mention of the term No Confidence in the Constitution.

64. With reference to Neem tree, consider the following statements:

1. Neem oil can be used as a pesticide to control the proliferation of some species of
insects and mites.
2. Neem seeds are used in the manufacture of biofuels and hospital detergents.
3. Neem oil has applications in pharmaceutical industry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer D.
65. Which one of the following is the process involved in photosynthesis?
(a) Potential energy is released to form free energy
(b) Free energy is converted into potential energy and stored
(c) Food is oxidized to release carbon dioxide and water
(d) Oxygen is taken, and carbon dioxide and water vapour are given out
Answer B.
Photosynthesis is the process by which green plants and some other organisms use sunlight to
synthesize nutrients from carbon dioxide and water. Photosynthesis in plants generally
involves the green pigment chlorophyll and generates oxygen as a by-product. In this process
carbon dioxide is absorbed and oxygen is released. Free energy is converted into potential
energy.
66. In addition to fingerprint scanning, which of the following can be used in the
biometric identification of a person?
1. Iris scanning
2. Retinal scanning
3. Voice recognition
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer D.
67. Which of the following statements is / are correct regarding vegetative propagation of
plants?
1. Vegetative propagation produces clonal population.
2. Vegetative propagation helps in eliminating the virus.
3. Vegetative propagation can be practiced most of the year.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer C.
Vegetative reproduction (vegetative propagation, vegetative multiplication, vegetative
cloning) is a form of asexual reproduction in plants. It is a process by which new organisms
arise without production of seeds or spores. It can occur naturally or be induced by
horticulturists all round the year.
68. Which of the following pair is/are correctly matched?
Spacecraft

Purpose

1. Cassini-Huygens
2. Messenger
3. Voyager 1 and 2

: Orbiting the Venus and transmitting data to the Earth

: Mapping and investigating the Mercury
: Exploring the outer solar system

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer B.
CassiniHuygens is an unmanned spacecraft sent to the planet Saturn. It is a flagship-class
NASAESAASI robotic spacecraft sent to the Saturn system. It has studied the planet and
its many natural satellites since arriving there on June 30, 2004, also observing Jupiter and
the heliosphere, and testing the theory of relativity.
MESSENGER (an acronym of MErcury Surface, Space ENvironment, GEochemistry,
and Ranging, and a reference to Mercury being the messenger of the gods) is a robotic
NASA spacecraft orbiting the planet Mercury, the first spacecraft ever to do so.
The Voyager program is an American scientific program that sent two robotic probes,
Voyager 1 and Voyager 2, to study the outer solar system. They were launched in 1977 to
take advantage of a favorable alignment of Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune. Although
they were designated officially to study just the planetary systems of Jupiter and Saturn, the
space probes were able to continue on their mission. Voyager 2 is still the only probe that has
visited Uranus and Neptune.
69. Consider the following pairs:
Region

Well-known for the production of

1. Kinnaur
: Areca nut
2. Mewat
: Mango
3. Coromandel : Soya bean

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Answer D.
70. Which of the following is/are the example/examples of chemical change?
1. Crystallization of sodium chloride
2. Melting of ice
3. Souring of milk
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Answer B.
Crystallization of Sodium Chloride and melting of ice are physical change.
Souring of milk is chemical change.

71. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and
the States falls under its
(a) advisory jurisdiction
(b) appellate jurisdiction.
(c) original jurisdiction
(d) writ jurisdiction
Answer C.
The Supreme Court has original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction.
Its exclusive original jurisdiction extends to any dispute between the Government of India
and one or more States or between the Government of India and any State or States on one
side and one or more States on the other or between two or more States.
The appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court can be invoked by a certificate granted by the
High Court concerned.

The Supreme Court has also a very wide appellate jurisdiction over all Courts and Tribunals
in India in as much as it may, in its discretion, grant special leave to appeal under Article 136
of the Constitution from any judgment, decree, determination, sentence or order in any cause
or matter passed or made by any Court or Tribunal in the territory of India.

72. Consider the following techniques/phenomena:

1. Budding and grafting in fruit plants
2. Cytoplasmic male sterility
3. Gene silencing
Which of the above is/are used to create transgenic crops?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer B.
Budding and grafting are methods of vegetative reproduction. They produce clones; not
transgenic crops.
Cytoplasmic male sterility is total or partial male sterility in plants as the result of specific
nuclear and mitochondrial interactions. Male sterility is the failure of plants to produce
functional anthers, pollen, or male gametes.
Gene Silencing is a modern technique to produce transgenic crops.
73. Consider the following statements:
1. Maize can be used for the production of starch.
2. Oil extracted from maize can be a feedstock for biodiesel.
3. Alcoholic beverages can be produced by using maize.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer D.
74. Among the following organisms, which one does not belong to the class of other
three?

(a) Crab
(b) Mite
(c) Scorpion
(d) Spider
Answer A.
Mite, scorpion and Spider are arthropod whereas crab are not.

75. The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested
in
(a) the President of India
(b) the Parliament
(c) the Chief Justice of India
(d) the Law Commission
Answer B.
76. Consider the following towns of India:
1. Bhadrachalam
2. Chanderi
3. Kancheepuram
4. Karnal
Which of the above are famous for the production of traditional sarees / fabric?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Answer C.
77. Consider the following pairs:
National Highway Cities connected
1. NH 4
2. NH 6
3. NH 15

: Chennai and Hyderabad

: Mumbai and Kolkata
: Ahmadabad and Jodhpur

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Answer D.
National Highway 4 is a major National Highway in Western and Southern India. NH 4 links
four of the 10 most populous Indian cities Mumbai, Pune, Bangalore, and Chennai.
National Highway 6, commonly referred to as NH 6, is a busy National Highway in India that
runs through Gujarat, Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Jharkhand and West Bengal state in
India.
National Highway 15 is a major National Highway in Western and Northwestern India. NH
15 connects Samakhiali in Gujarat with Pathankot in Punjab
78. Consider the following international agreements:
1. The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture
2. The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification
3. The World Heritage Convention
Which of the above has / have a bearing on the biodiversity?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer D.
The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (IT
PGRFA),[1] popularly known as the International Seed Treaty, is a comprehensive
international agreement in harmony with the Convention on Biological Diversity, which aims
at guaranteeing food security through the conservation, exchange and sustainable use of the
worlds plant genetic resources for food and agriculture (PGRFA), as well as the fair and
equitable benefit sharing arising from its use. It also recognises Farmers Rights: to freely
access genetic resources, unrestricted by intellectual property rights; to be involved in
relevant policy discussions and decision making; and to use, save, sell and exchange seeds,
subject to national laws.
The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification in Those Countries Experiencing
Serious Drought and/or Desertification, Particularly in Africa (UNCCD) is a Convention to
combat desertification and mitigate the effects of drought through national action programs
that incorporate long-term strategies supported by international cooperation and partnership
arrangements.

A UNESCO World Heritage Site is a place (such as a forest, mountain, lake, island, desert,
monument, building, complex, or city) that is listed by the United Nations Educational,
Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) as of special cultural or physical
significance (see list of World Heritage Sites). The list is maintained by the international
World Heritage Programme administered by the UNESCO World Heritage Committee,
composed of 21 UNESCO member states which are elected by the General Assembly. The
programme catalogues, names, and conserves sites of outstanding cultural or natural
importance to the common heritage of humanity.
79. Consider the following statements regarding Earth Hour :
1. It is an initiative of UNEP and UNESCO.
2. It is a movement in which the participants switch off the lights for one hour on a
certain day every year.
3. It is a movement to raise the awareness about the climate change and the need to save
the planet.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer C.
Earth Hour is a worldwide movement for the planet organized by the World Wide Fund for
Nature (WWF). The event is held worldwide annually encouraging individuals, communities,
households and businesses to turn off their non-essential lights for one hour, from 8:30 to
9:30 p.m. on the last Saturday in March, as a symbol for their commitment to the planet.[1] It
was famously started as a lights-off event in Sydney, Australia in 2007. Since then it has
grown to engage more than 7000 cities and towns worldwide. Today, Earth Hour engages a
massive mainstream community on a broad range of environmental issues. The one-hour
event continues to remain the key driver of the now larger movement.
80. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of a food chain?
(a) Diatoms-Crustaceans-Herrings
(b) Crustaceans-Diatoms-Herrings
(c) Diatoms-Herrings-Crustaceans
(d) Crustaceans-Herrings-Diatoms
Answer A.
81. What are the significances of a practical approach to sugarcane production known as
Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative?

1.
2.
3.
4.

Seed cost is very low in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation.
Drip irrigation can be practiced very effectively in this.
There is no application of chemical/ inorganic fertilizers at all in this.
The scope for intercropping is more in this compared to the conventional method of
cultivation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer B.
Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative (SSI) aims to: provide practical options to farmers for
improving the productivity of land, water, and labour reduce crop duration, providing
factories a longer crushing season and increased employment opportunities for workers
reduce the overall pressure on water resources and ecosystems. It stresses a practical
approach that originates from farmers and civil society to improve productivity while
reducing pressures on natural resources. Its estimated that by adopting SSI, a farmer will be
able to produce at least 20% more sugarcane while reducing water inputs by 30% and
chemical inputs by 25%.

82. If a wetland of international importance is brought under the Montreux Record,

what does it imply?
(a) Changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring or are likely to occur
in the wetland as a result of human interference.
(b) The country in which the wetland is located should enact a law to prohibit any
human activity within five kilo meters from the edge of the wetland
(c) The survival of the wetland depends on the cultural practices and traditions of
certain communities living in its vicinity and therefore the cultural diversity therein
should not be destroyed
(d) It is given the status of World Heritage Site
Answer A.
The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of International
Importance where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely
to occur as a result of technological developments, pollution or other human interference. It is
maintained as part of the Ramsar List.

83. Which one of the following pairs of islands is separated from each other by the Ten
Degree Channel?

(a) Andaman and Nicobar

(b) Nicobar and Sumatra
(c) Maldives and Lakshadweep
(d) Sumatra and Java
Answer A.
The Ten Degree Channel is a channel that separates the South Andaman and Car Nicobar in
the Bay of Bengal. The two sets of islands together form the Indian Union Territory of
Andaman and Nicobar Islands

84. Consider the following pairs:

Programme / Project

Ministry

1. Drought-Prone Area Programme : Ministry of Agriculture

2. Desert Development Programme : Ministry of Environment and Forests
3. National Watershed Development Project for Rainfed Areas : Ministry of Rural
Development
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Answer D.
Drought-Prone Area Programme (Ministry of Rural Development ): The basic objective
of the programme is to minimise the adverse effects of drought on production of crops and
livestock and productivity of land, water and human resources ultimately leading to drought
proofing of the affected areas. The programme also aims to promote overall economic
development and improving the socio-economic conditions of the resource poor and
disadvantaged sections inhabiting the programme areas.
Desert Development Programme(Ministry of Rural Development ): The basic object of
the programme is to minimise the adverse effect of drought and control desertification
through rejuvenation of natural resource base of the identified desert areas. The programme
strives to achieve ecological balance in the long run. The programme also aims at promoting
overall economic development and improving the socio-economic conditions of the resource
poor and disadvantaged sections inhabiting the programme areas.
National Watershed Development Project for Rainfed Areas : has been initiated by the
ministry of Agriculture.
85. With reference to Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS), consider the following
statements:

1. It is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Environment and Forests.

2. It strives to conserve nature through action-based research, education and public
awareness.
3. It organizes and conducts nature trails and camps for the general public.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer C.
The Bombay Natural History Society, founded on 15 September 1883, is one of the largest
non-governmental organizations in India engaged in conservation and biodiversity research.
It supports many research efforts through grants, and publishes the Journal of the Bombay
Natural History Society. Many prominent naturalists, including the ornithologists Slim Ali
and S. Dillon Ripley have been associated with it
86. With reference to Global Environment Facility, which of the following statements
is/are correct?
(a) It serves as financial mechanism for Convention on Biological Diversity and
United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
(b) It undertakes scientific research on environmental issues at global level
(c) It is an agency under OECD to facilitate the transfer of technology and funds to
underdeveloped countries with specific aim to protect their environment.
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer D.
The Global Environment Facility (GEF) unites 183 countries in partnership with international
institutions, civil society organizations (CSOs), and the private sector to address global
environmental issues while supporting national sustainable development initiatives. Today
the GEF is the largest public funder of projects to improve the global environment. An
independently operating financial organization, the GEF provides grants for projects related
to biodiversity, climate change, international waters, land degradation, the ozone layer, and
persistent organic pollutants.

87. With reference to technologies for solar power production, consider the following
statements:

1.Photovoltaics is a technology that generates electricity by direct conversion of light

into electricity, while Solar Thermal is a technology that utilizes the Suns rays to
generate heat which is further used in electricity generation process.
2. Photovoltaics generates Alternating Current (AC), while Solar Thermal generates
Direct Current (DC).
3. India has manufacturing base for Solar Thermal technology, but not for
Photovoltaics.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Answer A.
Photovoltaics (PV) is a method of converting solar energy into direct current electricity using
semiconducting materials that exhibit the photovoltaic effect. A photovoltaic system employs
solar panels composed of a number of solar cells to supply usable solar power. The electricity
PV panels generate is direct current (DC). Before it can be used in homes and businesses, it
has to be changed into alternating current (AC) electricity using an inverter.
Solar thermal energy (STE) is a form of energy and a technology for harnessing solar energy
to generate thermal energy or electrical energy for use in industry, and in the residential and
commercial sectors.
88. Consider the following languages:
1. Gujatati
2. Kannada
3. Telugu
Which of the above has/have been declared as Classical Language / Languages by the
Government?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer C.
In 2004, the Government of India declared that languages that met certain requirements could
be accorded the status of a Classical Language in India. Languages thus far declared to be
Classical are Tamil (in 2004), Sanskrit (in 2005), Telugu (in 2008), Kannada (in 2008),
Malayalam (in 2013) and Oriya (in 2014)

89. Consider the following pairs

1. Dampa Tiger Reserve : Mizoram
2. Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary : Sikkim
3. Saramati Peak
: Nagaland
Which of the above pairs is /are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer C.
Dampa Tiger Reserve, the largest wildlife sanctuary in Mizoram, was notified in 1985 and
declared a Tiger Reserve in 1994. It is situated in the western part of Mizoram state, at the
international border with Bangladesh about 127 km from Aizawl.
Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary is a Wildlife Sanctuary in Tripura, India. It covers an area of about
389.54 square kilometres.
Saramati is a peak rising above the surrounding peaks at the mountainous border of Nagaland
state, India and the Sagaing Region, Burma.
90. With reference to a conservation organization called Wetlands International, which
of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is an intergovernmental organization formed by the countries which are
signatories to Ramsar Convention.
2. It works at the field level to develop and mobilize knowledge, and use the practical
experience to advocate for better policies.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer B.
Wetlands International is a global organisation that works to sustain and restore wetlands and
their resources for people and biodiversity. It is an independent, not-for-profit, global
organisation, supported by government and NGO membership from around the world. Based

mostly in the developing world, it has 20 regional, national or project offices in all continents
and a head office in Ede, the Netherlands.
Wetlands Internationals work ranges from research and community-based field projects to
advocacy and engagement with governments, corporate and international policy fora and
conventions. Wetlands International works through partnerships and is supported by
contributions from an extensive specialist expert network and tens of thousands of volunteers.
91. With reference to a grouping of countries known as BRICS, consider the following
statements:
1. The First Summit of BRICS was held in Rio de Janeiro in 2009.
2. South Africa was the last to join the BRICS grouping.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer B.
BRICS is the acronym for an association of five major emerging national economies: Brazil,
Russia, India, China and South Africa. The grouping was originally known as BRIC before
the inclusion of South Africa in 2010. The BRICS members are all developing or newly
industrialised countries, but they are distinguished by their large, fast-growing economies and
significant influence on regional and global affairs; all five are G-20 members.
The BRIC groupings first formal summit, also held in Yekaterinburg, commenced on 16
June 2009, with Luiz Incio Lula da Silva, Dmitry Medvedev, Manmohan Singh, and Hu
Jintao, the respective leaders of Brazil, Russia, India and China, all attending.
92. Consider the following diseases
1. Diphtheria
2. Chickenpox
3. Smallpox
Which of the above diseases has/have been eradicated in India?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None

Answer B.
93. Which of the following phenomena might have influenced the evolution of
organisms?
1. Continental drift
2. Glacial cycles
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer C.

94. Other than poaching, what are the possible reasons for the decline in the population
of Ganges River Dolphins?
1.
2.
3.
4.

Construction of dams and barrages on rivers

Increase in the population of crocodiles in rivers
Getting trapped in fishing nets accidentally
Use of synthetic fertilizers and other agricultural chemicals in crop-fields in the
vicinity of rivers

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer C.
95. The Radcliffe Committee was appointed to
(a) solve the problem of minorities in India
(b) give effect to the Independence Bill
(c) delimit the boundaries between India and Pakistan
(d) enquire into the riots in East Bengal
Answer C.

The Radcliffe Line was published on 17 August 1947 as a boundary demarcation line
between India and Pakistan upon the Partition of India. The Radcliffe Line was named after
its architect, Sir Cyril Radcliffe, who as chairman of the Border Commissions was charged
with equitably dividing 175,000 square miles (450,000 km2) of territory with 88 million
people.
96. Brominated flame retardants are used in many household products like mattresses
and upholstery. Why is there some concern about their use?
1. They are highly resistant to degradation in the environment.
2. They are able to accumulate in humans and animals.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer C.
Many brominated chemicals are under increasing criticism in their use in household
furnishings and where children would come into contact with them. Some believe PBDEs
could have harmful effects on humans and animals. Some PBDEs are lipophilic and
bioaccumulative. PBDEs have been found in people all over the world.
97. Consider the following:
1. Bats
2. Bears
3. Rodents
The phenomenon of hibernation can be observed in which of the above kinds of
animals?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Hibernation cannot be observed in any of the above
Answer C.
98. Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?
(a) The Committee on Public Accounts
(b) The Committee on Estimates
(c) The Committee on Public Undertakings
(d) The Committee on Petitions.

Answer B.

Committee

Members from Lok

Sabha

Members from RS

Committee on Public
Accounts

15

Committee on Estimates

30

Committee on Public
Undertakings

15

99. Which of the following adds/add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on the planet
Earth?
1.
2.
3.
4.

Volcanic action
Respiration
Photosynthesis
Decay of organic matter

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer C.
100.
If you walk through countryside, you are likely to see some birds stalking
alongside the cattle to seize the insects, disturbed by their movement through grasses.
Which of the following is/are such bird/birds?
1. Painted Stork
2. Common Myna
3. Black-necked Crane
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only.