Professional Documents
Culture Documents
IIND-3402
JULIO VILLARREAL NAVARRO
2015-10
ASIST. GRADUADO: RAL A. ESCOBAR
Nombre
Andrs Gonzlez Pungo
Luis Camilo Daz
Jaime Alberto Ronderos
Juan Fernando Salazar
Cdigo
201124899
201124802
201124231
201126734
Grupo
11
Abstract:
Marriot Corporation is an American company founded in 1927. It started as a beer stand,
but after 60 years of continual growth, became one of the leading lodging and food service
companies in the US. In 1987 the total sales of the company reached 6,500 billion dollars.
Nowadays, the corporations operation includes nearly 361 hotels, provides food and
services management to important institutions and corporations around the world, and
owns important restaurant chains like Bobs Big Boy and Roy Rogers.
The general objective of this workshop is to determine an appropriate Cost of Capital for
Marriott Corporation. To do so, we have based our assesment on the information and
assumptions contained in the text of Dan Cohrs Marriott Corporation: The Cost of
Capital. As stated in the lecture, Marriot Corporation is composed of three different
divisions: lodging, restaurants and contract services. So, during this workshop we
calculated a different cost of capital for each one of the three divisions.
To determine the Cost of Capital for each division, we based our procedure in the Capital
Assets Pricing Model and then in the Weight Average Cost of Capital, taking the risk free
rate as the US Government Bond, the risk premium as the difference between the
and the
as a function of
e ,
information to obtain the WACC was contained in the Exhibits of the lecture. The Cost of
Debt was estimated as the risk free rate plus the Debt Rate Premium.
Finally applying the CAPM to obtain the Cost of Equity, computing the Cost of Debt, and
calculating the Wacc we obtained a Cost of Capital for the lodging division of 9,814%, for
the restaurants division of 10,548% and for the contract services division of 14,118%. At
the beginning of the workshop we obtained the estimated Cost of Capital of 11,016% for
Marriot Corporation, ignoring the three different divisions.
In conclusion, we observed during this workshop that there are many factors that have to
be considered in order to analyze the Cost of Capital because, specific factors can have
an important impact in the final result of the Wacc. In general terms, the debt in capital rate
explains the low Wacc for lodging division. Also, the difference in Ke explains the
difference in the Wacc between Restaurants and Contract Services. Finally, taking into
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account what was stated above, a higher D/E ratio in the last two divisions (restaurants
and contract services) will lower the Marriots Cost of Capital.
1. Are the four components of Marriots financial strategy consistent with its
growth objective?
Marriots business operation consists of 3 main different divisions, by which the
company generates value. However, they identify some mechanisms on their
operation that could be improved in order to fulfill their intention of continue being a
premier growth company. Specifically, the companys desire is to be the preferred
employer, the preferred provider, and the most profitable company.
The four components of Marriots financial strategy are:
2. How does Marriott use its estimate of its cost of capital? Does it make
sense?
Marriott Corporation uses the WACC (Weighted Average Cost of Capital), in order
to determine the cost of capital of its operation. In terms of investment valuation, of
projects implementation, the WACC allows the company to determine if it is
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suitable for the company to realize the project. The only way in which a project
should be done, is if could generate value for the company on the near future. The
project should be done only if its return rate is higher than the companys WACC.
The company is measuring the cost of capital for its entire corporation, but also for
its three business divisions. This makes sense because the entire companys
inputs such as the debt cost, equity cost, etc., reflects information for the whole
operation. Therefore, the process of measuring the cost of capital for each division
is consistent with the difference between them. These differences are related with
the size and importance of the division on the business as a whole, and the
difference between the projects on each division.
3. What is the WACC (Weighted Average Cost of Capital) for Marriott
Corporation?
a. Risk free rate and Risk premium
The best estimation of the risk free rate is always some riskless rate that one can
find or identify in the market. For example, US Zero-coupon treasury bonds yields
are a good estimation of risk free rates between periods equivalent to the bonds
maturity. In this particular case, we are presented (through Table B) with the
interest rates of government bonds for three different maturities: 1 year, 10 years
and 30 years:
USGOVERNMENTINTERESTRATES
Maturity
Rate
30-year
8.95%
10-year
8.72%
1-year
6.90%
Now, the risk free rate will directly reflect in the cost of equity calculation and the
cost of debt calculation. Besides, these two costs will then be used to calculate
Marriots WACC. Finally, the WACC will be used to discount projected cash flows of
Marriot operations. According to this analysis, the risk free rate cannot be taken as
the interest rate of 1-year government bonds, just because it is a very short period
of time (one year of operations).
So, we are left with the 10-year and 30-year interest rates. Both of these rates
could be used as an estimate of the market risk-free rate. Nevertheless, we will be
using the 30-year government bonds interest rates for two reasons: First, Marriot
has lodging as one of its main divisions; and it has a very long useful life, which we
could say is way higher than 10 years and leaning towards a 30 year period.
Second, it is always recommended to use the higher cost of debt possible during
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the calculations and (as it will be shown later), the higher the risk free rate, the
higher the cost of debt. So in conclusion:
r f =8.95
In order to obtain the market risk premium we can take two equivalent approaches:
Taking it directly from the 1926-1987 arithmetic average of the Spread between
S&P 500 composite returns and long term U.S. government bond returns in
Exhibit 5, or subtracting the 1926-1987 arithmetic average of Long-term U.S.
Government bond returns from the 1926-1987 arithmetic average S&P 500
composite stock index returns, both presented in Exhibit 4.
r p=7.43
r p=12.01 4.58 =7.43
It is very important to note that we used the arithmetic average because it is the
main recommendation when analyzing historical returns and volatilities. The
reason behind this is that it reflects the investor expectations better than the
geometric one as well as it is an un-biased estimator. Finally, the reason why we
took such a long period average (1926-1987) is because the exhibits show that
returns are very volatile throughout the years, and so an average of all the periods
could intake the effects of these volatilities.
b. Cost of debt
In order to calculate the cost of debt, the following formula should be used:
K d =r f + Premium above risk free rate
To find the premium above risk free rate, the information in Table A is used.
Basically, this table shows the Debt rate premium above government, and since we
use the government bonds rates to estimate the risk free rate, this premium above
government is equivalent to the premium risk free rate:
K d =8.95 +1.30
K d =10.25
c. Cost of equity
The CAPM is used to calculate the cost of equity as follows:
K e =r f + e ( r p)
It can be seen that we are missing the equity beta (
Marriots equity beta is given in Exhibit 3, but this data corresponds to a Marriots
market leverage (percentage of debt in capital) of 41%. That is why we should find
u
the unlevered asset beta
that corresponds to this information and lever it up
again with the targeted capital structure (60% of debt to capital ratio according to
, e , u , e ,
D D
,
E E be the corporate tax rate, current equity
beta, current unlevered asset beta, target equity beta, current debt to equity ratio
and target debt to equity ratio, respectively, then the next holds:
u=
e
1+(1)
D
E
e =u 1+ ( 1 )
D
E
So, before anything, we should find the corporate tax rate. Exhibit 1 shows the
financial History of Marriot from 1978 to 1987. In the summary of operations
section, we can see the data corresponding to income before income taxes and
Income taxes. So, dividing the second by the first, we get the tax rate of that
particular year:
Year
Income before income taxes
Inome taxes
Taxrate
1978
83.5
35.4
42.40%
1979
105.6
43.8
41.48%
1980
103.5
40.6
39.23%
1981
121.3
45.2
37.26%
1982
133.7
50.2
37.55%
1983
185.1
76.7
41.44%
1984
236.1
100.8
42.69%
1985
295.7
128.3
43.39%
1986
360.2
168.5
46.78%
1987
398.9
175.9
44.10%
Now, we take the arithmetic average of this tax rates in order to find the corporate
tax rate we are seeking:
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=41.63
Having all the information required, we proceed to the calculation of the betas:
u=
0.97
0.41
1+ (10.4163 )
0.59
( )
=0.6901
e =0.6901 1+ ( 10.4163 )
0.60
=1.2943
0.40
D
E
K d ( 1 )+
K
D+ E
D+ E e
Taking into account that we have to use the target structure of capital (debt to
capital ratio of 60%), we just replace the variables in the formula above:
WACC=(60 )(10.25 ) ( 141.63 ) +(40 )(18.567 )
WACC=11.016
When it is planned to value a project that is unrelated to the industry, the use of
Marriots WACC, as the discount instrument of the cash flow, wont be a wise
move. This is due to the erroneous information present value of cash flows- it may
bring that can be translated into significant monetary losses for the company.
Having this in mind, it is recommended to valuate projects depending on their
characteristics and specific divisions to obtain more accurate results and,
therefore, mitigate risks.
http://www.iese.edu/research/pdfs/DI-0914.pdf
5. If Marriott used a single corporative rate for evaluate investment
opportunities in each of its line of business, what would happen to the
company over time?
As mentioned in the previous point, using a single corporative rate for evaluate
investment opportunities in each of Marriotts lines of business isnt a wise move
because every division has different characteristics and variables that may affect
future results in different scales. Also, each division contemplates a specific risk,
which directly determines that every rate is different from the others. So, if Marriott
used a single corporative rate, what would happen to the company over time is that
decisions may bring results different from what was expected, for example, an
investment opportunity that seemed not to be very risky and will generate big value
could appear less profitable and vice versa. This is the effect that the cost of
opportunity has in the net present value of a project, which can bring an
inconsistent support for decision making.
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r f (restaurant) =8,72
On the other hand, to estimate the risk premium of the marked we used the
following formula:
r p=r mr f
where the
rm
rf
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Then, the resulting cost of debt for the two divisions is shown in the following table:
e
1+(1)
D
E
Now, we need to lever up the betas again in order to find the equity beta for each
division. We do that using the target percentage debt in capital showed in table A
for each division:
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elodging = ulodging 1+ ( 1 )
D
=1.2519
E
erestaurants = urestaurants 1+ ( 1 )
D
=0.9126
E
Finally, the cost of equity was calculated as follows according to the CAPM:
K e(divisionX) =r f (divisionX) + e(divisionX)(r p (Mkt ) )
So,
K e(Lodging )=8,95 +1.2519(7,43 )
K e(Restaurants )=8,72 + 0.9126(7,43 )
Ke
Lodging
Restaurants
18.251%
15.501%
As is shown, the cost of equity for the lodging division is higher than the one for the
restaurant division. The reason is that lodging division has a higher beta than the
other division, what means that it represents a higher risk compared to the
restaurant division, so it requires a higher return to offset this risk.
Finally, it is possible to determine the Weighed average cost of capital. To do so,
we apply the following formula according to the parameters of each division and
assuming a debt to capital for each division as presented in table A:
WACC DivisionX =
D
E
K D (divisionX) ( 1 ) +
K
D+ E divisionX
D+ E (DivisionX ) e(divisionX )
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Wacc
Lodging
Restaurants
9.086%
11.569%
As a result, we obtain that the cost of capital of the lodging division is lower than
the cost of capital of the restaurants division. The reason for this result is the target
capital structure that each division has (Lodging has a high 74% of debt to capital
ratio, and its cost of debt is way lower than its cost of equity).
7. What is the cost of capital for Marriotts contract service division? How
can you estimate its equity costs without public traded comparable
companies?
Given that we already have the unlevered asset beta of Marriott as a whole, and in
the previous point we were able to find the unlevered asset betas of the lodging
and restaurant division, then we can easily calculate the unlevered asset beta of
the contract service division if we consider Marriot as a portfolio of this three
divisions. So, according to this, we can express Marriotts beta as a weighted
average of the betas of the other divisions:
umarriott =ulodging W 1+ U restaurant W 2+ ucontract W 3
Each
Wi
There are basically three approaches on how to calculate this weight: Through
sales, through identifiable assets or through operating profit. First, the sales are
very raw information because they dont take into consideration any kind of costs
that each division encounters during operation. Second, identifiable assets could
be a good approximation since many of the investments that we wish to evaluate
through the WACC (discount their cash flows) are of expanding some division
through the acquisition of assets. The problem is that not all the value on a project
is represented in identifiable assets (there are expectations on future profits). So, it
would be better to use Marriotts operating profits generated from the divisions
(which already incorporates sales and costs) to find the weights:
Division
Marriott
Lodging
Restaurants
Contract service
Operatingprofit
516.9
263.9
82.4
170.6
W
100%
51.05%
15.94%
33.00%
Bu
0.690
0.470
0.641
?
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0.40
=1.4632
0.60
Finally, we use the CAPM to find the cost of equity, taking into account that we use
the same risk free rate as in the calculation of the cost of equity of the restaurants
division. This is because they both have short useful lives:
K econtract =8.72 +1.4632(7.43 )
K econtract =19.592
Now, to calculate the cost of debt we use 1.4% as the debt premium over the
government rates as can be seen in Table A:
K d contract=8.72 +1.40 =10.12
Having all the variables, the calculation of the WACC for this division is
straightforward:
WAC C contract =( 40 )( 10.12 )(141.63 )+(60 )(19.592 )
WAC C contract =14.118
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