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Group 1 :

1- Tonsilolith can be seen on panoramic xray:


A.Mid of the ramus
B.Maxillary tuberosity
C.head of the condyle
D.Maxillary air sinus
2- Strict vegetarian vitamin deficient in which of the following:
A.Ascorbic acid
B. B12
C. Potassium
D. Sodium
3- Patient with infection taking minocylcine most probably will have:
A. pigmentation on the skin
4- Pediatric patient prophylaxis dose
A. 50mg amoxicillin
5- Most destructive in dental implant :
A.Axial off loading in dental implant
6- After dental surgery patient responding well to treatment and healing normally ,
but has echymosis on his neck and chest , your approach should be :
A.Assure the patient that this is normal and will heal
7- A patient returns back after restorative procedure complaining the restoration
looks gray. You should:
A. Increase value
1. Chroma + is the saturation or strength of a color (degree of
B. Increase chroma
saturation of the hue)
C. Increase hue
2. Value (or brightness) + is the relative amount of lightness or
D. Reduce hue
darkness in a color
E. Reduce chroma
3. Hue + refers to color tone (e.g., red, blue, yellow, etc.) and is
Shade A yellow red D
B yellow
C grey
D yellow grey red
8- LA best used for pregnant woman

synonymous with the term

xylocaine
9- Longest acting LA:
A.Bupivicaine
10- Lowest cariogenic meal
D.carrots , diet cola
11- At which Age all primary teeth erupted
A. 20-30 month
12- Functional appliance is not used in:
A.Retro
B.prog
13- Antibiotic prophlyaxis dose for adult
A.2g amoxicillin 30-60 min before the procedure
14- Patent file is used for :file No 8 or 10 used by endo dentist to open the foramen if
debris.
15- Best method to avoid fracture in Endo rotary system is to do :
A. Crown Down
16- Imuuno competent patient antibiotic use should be :
A. reserved for cellulites
B. Used for every dental infection
C. Use narrow spectrum
17- Dementia effect :
A. Poor oral hygiene
18- radiolucency at furcation of primary tooth treatment should be :
A. extraction
19- space maintainer used with loss of primary 1st molar canine and 2nd molar there:
A. no treatment
20- space maintainer
A. Distal shoe

21- space maintainer


A. Nance appliance
22- reason for needle breakage:
A. Bending the needle
B. Small needle gauge
C. Needle touching bone

23- pus and inflammation cause :


A.Increase in Ph increase in blood supply
B.Increase in Ph decrease in blood supply
C.Decrease in Ph increase in blood supply
D.Decrese in Ph decrease in blood supply
24- function of indirect retainer:
A.prevent the displacement of the denture away from soft tissue
25- extraction with pericoronitis is contraindicated :
A. spread of infection
B. Difficulty in achieving anesthesia
26- Zirconia Crown is used because :
A. strongest
27- 8mm oroantral fistula treatment :
A. buccal advancement flap
B. Antibiotic
C. Irrigation+ AB
28- bruxer with mal occlusion best treatment:
A. Reduce stress and use night guards
29- chemical less irritating to Soft tissue :
A.37% HF
B.20% AlCl
C. HF
D. 30% hydrogen proxide
30- Patient sip water before swallowing
A. parotid
31- calculate LA max # of catridges for a child >>
2.5

1. lntramembranous ossification is so called because it takes


place in membranes of
connective tissue. Osteoprogenitor cells in the membrane
differentiate into osteoblasts;
a collagen matrix is formed which undergoes ossification.
Note: The maxilla and mandible are formed this way.
Remember: Once bone is formed, it grows by appositional
growth (which is growth by
the addition of new layers on those previously formed).
42

32- maxillary bone development:


A.intramembraneous
B.Endochondral
33- Bolton analysis measures :
34- The most like structure to be damaged in removing a maxillary Torus
A. greater palatine artery
35- A maxillary central incisor with lingual erosion which was endodontically treated
And with minimal over bite and accentuated overjet is best restored by:
A. Veneer
B. PFM
C. Full ceramic
D. Composite E. Resin crown
36- Fastest route of administration of anesthesia :
A. nitrous Oxide
B. IM Pencilin
37- Gates gliden used for
38- Patient with thoracic kyphosis : C shape spine.
A. put a pillow behind patient on the dental chair
B. Muscle relaxant
C. Analgesic
39- mother concern about her boy with two rows of teeth and the primary row are
loose:
A. normal eruption variation
B. exaction same visit
40- Mode of Action of insulin
A. increase glucose storage(promotes cellular uptake of glucose, inhbitis gluconeogeneis,
FA breakdown, glycogenolysis)
41- Tetracycline :
A. Anti collagenase activity
42- Last bone to grow:
A. Mandible

43- Effect of liner


Protection of pulp
1- A patient on warfarin needs extraction. His INR value is 2.5. You
should:
Double the dosage of warfarin
B. Proceed with the extraction
C. Give vitamin K
D. Consult the patients physician and reschedule the procedure

A.

44- Size of connector in Temporary rpd and permenant :


A. larger
B. smaller
C.SAME
45- A 55 year old started a course of tetracycline for an infection. Two weeks later the
patient returns with painful red smooth tongue and mucosal lesions. You should:
A. Perform test for Candida Hyphae
B. Perform hypersensitivity of tetracycline
C. Algae test
D. Bacterial test
46- Red lesion between soft and hard palate what to do :
A. wait 7-14 days
B. Biopsy
Rough or chalky stone cast Inadequate cleaning of impression
47- white appearance on cast result from:
A.Saliva on impression

Excess water left in impression


Premature removal of cast
Leaving cast in impression too long
Improper manipulation of stone

48- patient wearing denture, nonsmoker,


which of the following has the most chances of malignancy:
A. White lesion on alveolar ridge
B. Whilte lesion on ventral of the tongue
49- TCA + Epin causes
A. Hypertension
50- history of asthma and nasal obstruction:
A. no NSAID
51- apositional growth site of mandible
A. posterior to ramus
52- specificity is ...
A.True positiveCsensitivity)
B.True negative

1. lntramembranous ossification is so called


because it takes place in membranes of
connective tissue. Osteoprogenitor cells in the
membrane differentiate into osteoblasts;
a collagen matrix is formed which undergoes
ossification.
Note: The maxilla and mandible are formed this
way Remember: Once bone is formed, it grows by
appositional growth (which is growth by
the addition of new layers on those previously
formed).
42

C.False positive
D.False negative
53- cheek biting
A.buccal overlap
54- Patient develops convulsions on a chair during an extraction, first thing to do?
A. Remove all instruments around the patient
B. Put a plastic bite in the patient mouth
55- Oral inhaler Candida why:
A. Inhibit normal flora
B. Local immune suppressant
56- Post bite plane :
A.Increase overbite and increase overjet
B.Increase overbite and reduce overjet
C.Decrease overbite and increase overjet
D.Decrease overbite and decrease overjet
57- first brachial arch derivatives :
A. Mandible and Maxilla
B. Mandible
C. Maxilla
58- mandibular condylar fracture
A. deviation to the fractured side
59- modified flap technique what do u do after incision
A. debride
plus excision of pocket epithelium.
60- side effect of leukemia
A.thrombocytopenia
61- A young hockey player comes to your office following assault attack. You notice
bleeding from the nose and mouth. The individual states that overall he feels okay
but he feels is bite is off. The likely cause is:
A. Lefort II fracture
B. Dento alveolar fracture
C. Psychogenic stress
D. Fracture of nose
62- Diagnosis for a patient with parotid swelling and erosion of maxillary teeth:

A.Bulimia
63- Condition that result in total deficient in bone marrow output,
A. Aplastic anemia ..
64- which of the following malignancies has the best prognosis initially
A. basalcell carcinoma
B.Muco epidemoid
65- most common cancer to metastatsize :
A. breast
B. kidney
C. Brain
66- treatment of trigeminal neurolagia :
A. carbamezapine
67- diagnosis of trigeminal case was given sign and symptoms of Trigeminal
neurolagia
68- Pen G other name
A. benzylepencillin
69- Mitral stenosis can result from:
A. rheumatic fever
B. Pulomonary
70- impression can be pour many times :
A. polyether
B. Polusulfide
C. Irreversible Hydrocolloid

FEaxscte lsleen~t dnimge nsional stability when dry Dificult to remove


(most rigid or shfl
Dimensionally stable if more than one cast is poured Tears easily
Stable even if poured 24 hours after making May adhere to teeth

impression
High water absorption
Very accurate & easy to pour with gypsum products Fine margins may
break
Unpleasant

71- A developmental defect in Hertwigs epithelial could result in:


A. Lack of cementum
B. Dentin defects
C. No eruption
D. Multiple root formation
72- Patient couldn't close eye after injection, where was it injected into:
A. Parotid
73- Infraorbital nerve injection, where does it numb? Aanterior superior dental,
nasal ,labial lacrimal skin.
74- And a blow to the zygoma, what nerve would be affected?
A. infraorbital

B. B supraorbital
C. Occular N
75- Number cartridges again for adult haas
article
76- 18 months old boy weighing 10 kg is
reported to have swallowed a bottle of
fluoride drops that was the equivalence
of 128mg of fluoride ion. The most
appropriate management is:
A. Observe the child for signs of toxicity
B. Call emergency and induce vomiting immediately
C. Bring the toddler to the dental clinic
D. Make the boy drink many cups of water
77- first movement of tmj >> rotation
78- DMFS limitation ( limitation because the missing teeth could be for ortho
treatmen
79- Min intervention dentistry, you do minimal operative procedure on the teeth and
do the basic, with least amount of hand instruments..so the option of filling a
cavity as soon as its seen was wrong
80- In giving Inferior alveolar nerve block, the needle is:
A. Lateral to the pterygopalatine raphe and lateral to the medial pterygoid
muscle...
81- acetaminophen acute toxicity :
A. hepatotoxicity
82- Treatment for maxillary 1st premolar with grade III furcation involvement:
A.extraction
83- for patient with history of GI bleeding

CoX2

84- And what to do to prevent post op edema afer exo of bilat mand 3rd molars:
A. bite on wet gauze
B. ice pack
85- a smoker, 25yrs old, for 8yrs now, that had teeth with pockets btw 5-8mm,
periodontitis >> LAP
86- Old age problem >> reduce bone mass
87- dilaceration caused by trauma

because of reduction of estrogen.

88- anb angle -6 sna normal- prognathic mandible


89- SNB 84 means RETRO PROG

90- which type of suture material is used for resorbable purpose 10-14 days:
A. catgut
B. chrome catgut
C. polyacryl
D. polysth
91- Vertical incision on the lingual mucosa on mandibular molar may injure: lingual
N.
92- A patient with porphyria and open glaucoma should be sedated by
A. Thiopental I.V.
B. Pentobarbital I.V.
C. Diazepam I.V.
D. Nitrous oxide inhalation
93- Gingival fibromatosis is
a. Degenerative
b. Hyperplastic
c. Inflammatory
d. Hypotrophic
94- the first developement of the mandible coincide with.
A) development of tooth germ
95- polyether cant be used in deep pocket areas:
A-high modulus of elasticity
96- which of the following impression materials is most likely to tear during removal
from mouth with deep
embrasures?
a. Irreversible hydrocolloid
b. Polysulfide
c. Polyether
d. Polyvinyle siloxane
97- contraindication of implant >>> uncontrolled diabetes

98- Codein side effect constipation, over dose CNS depression.


99- which bacterial not found in caries- streptococcus salivaris
100arrested lesions: can remineralize,
101radiolucency between lat and canine mandible : sublingual salivary gland
fassa.
A. lat perio cyst and may be lateral fossa
B. peri apical cemental dysplasia
102-

bacteria found predominantly in dentinal caries:


A. Mutans
B. lactobacillus

103-

What cells in the pulp most likely to regenerate? Mesenchyme?

104-

Use of ultrasonic instruments is contraindicated in :

A. Asthmatic patients
B. COPD patients
C. Patients with upper respiratory infection
D. Other
105HBV , HBeS and HBEs >>> infections and carrier HBeAg, HBV sAg
106artifical pacemaker in patient what shud be done: avoid electrosurgery
107Organisms predominant in periapical infections, mixed aerobicanaerobic? Mixed anaerobic &aerobic
108Patient is hepatitis B carrier what shoud be done:
A.use double gloves
B. use n52 mask,
C.avoid aerosol producing procedures
D. treat patient as usual
109-

vit D affetcs :
A.bone
B. bone and cementum vit C
C. all collagen containing tissues
D.all mineralized tissues
bone, teeth

110-

Which of the following has the most potent analgesic effect?


A. Aspirin 650mg
B. Codeine 60mg
C. Aspirin 300mg + Codeine 30mg
D. Paracetamol 250mg + Codeine 30mg

111-

primary support area of the mandible :


A.Buccla shelf
B.Alveolar ridge

112how to avoid fluorosis in child less thn 8 year old living in community
with fluoridated water:
A.prevent from swallowing fluoridated toothpaste
B. prevent from drinking fluoridated water
113on Buccolingual 2/3rd width in a molar? place matrix band/use GIC to
strengthen cusps/reduce the cusp and then replace wth Amalgam?
114-

lesion on outer1/3 enamel - topical fluoride

115A 1 year old baby who live in a fluoridated area and with the habit of
sleeping with bottle should be:
A. Stopped from the use of the bottle and have him salivary bacterial culture
performed
B. Prescribe fluoride supplements
C. Scheduled to have bitewing radiographs every 24 months
D. Bacteria slaiva count
116-

117-

Non rigid connector in a fpd shud be used:


A. in periodontally compromised teeth as abutment
B. long span fpd with pear abutment.
C.non parallel
bleeding in pulpotomy : ?????
A. gauze of epinephrine
B. removal of apical pulpal tags

118-

dry socket >> put sedative dressing in socket

119-

bone and you put plate there is 2mm space whats the type of healing:
A. primary interntion
B. Secondary intention
C. osteoinductive
D.osteoconductive
E. osteogenisis

120121-

1mm and less primary healing.

cellulitis in kid , drainage through tooth, antibiotics thn extraction


plaque dosent include :
A. lipid
B.carbohydrates
C.DNA

D. collagen
122-

chronic perio treatment >>> CHX

123124125126-

epi increase the oxygen demand and decrease or increase oxygen need ?!
willivrend hemophilia A factor 8. B factor 9
Scheduled pat for extraction has attack of epitaxis.
Choice of shade for composite restoration should be done:

A. Before L.A. administration


B. Under the light of the operatory bulb
C. After application of rubber dam
D. After etching and bonding
127Difference of bonding bw enamel and dentin enamel high surface
tension.dentin low surface tension thats why leave dentin moist for bonding.
128EPT can not be deceptive in presence of all except :
A.recent trauma
B. too fast current from ept device
C. ept device not close enough
D.contaminated with saliva
E.calcified canals
129-

Irreversible pulpits..symptom

130-

What is relieved by cold..again pulpits (acute suppurative pulpitis)

131Extraction of retained deciduous tooth should be planned when:


A. of root of the permanent tooth is formed
B. 2/3 of root of permanent tooth is formed root it means tooth in gum
C. of root is formed
132-

patient having severe pain on biting with normal surrounding soft tissues :
A.acute apical abscess
B. acute periradicular periodontitis
C.chronic periapical abscess
D. chronic periradicular periodontitis

133a question about hiv infection :


A.it cant spread through saliva:
B.it gets attached to biofilm in saliva
C. it gets attached to tooth structure
D. it can only be infected through blood
134A 1cm lesion on the mandibular posterior area without tooth should be
suspectedfor:

A. Odontogenic adenomatoid tumor


B. Odontogenic myxoma
C. Keratocyst
135-

Sterile water for Surgical extraction

136Bacteria for marginal gingivitis stay in :


A.free gingiva
B.gingival sulcus
137Measurement of attached gingiva
138Which of the following conditions associated with decease alveolar bone
mass? A. Hyperparathyroidism disappear of lamina dura, brown tumor ,giant cell
, renal stone.
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. low Estrogen
D. Other
141-The most important consideration in the cavity preparation of proximal caries is:
A. The width of contact area
B. The depth dentin involvement
C. The choice of restoration material
D. None of the above
142-Max radiation produced by :
A.
B.
C.
D.

CT SCAN
MRI
the least radiation
Computer tomography PAN
18 Intra oral film

from most to least A,D,C, cephalo,B

143- To check for IAN effect :


A.Buccal of 3.6
B.Linugal of 3.6
C.Buccal of 3.3
D.Bucall of 1.1
144- Maxillary first molar drains into:
A. Buccal space
145-Mechanical Indicator on Autoclave is used to indicate:
A. Pressure
B. Spores level biological.
C.Sterilization

146-A symmetrical open bite is caused by


A. Infantile deglutition habit
tongue thrust result of open bite.
B. Mouth breathing habit
C. Finger sucking habit
D. Thumb sucking habit
147-Serial extractions of premolars are indicated in:
A. Class II molar relationship
B. Normal overjet and deep overbite
C. Arch tooth relationship discrepancy
D. Normal overjet and deep overbite
148-Depression of right Zygoma due to trauma will cause:
A. Epistaxis from the contralateral nostril
B. Deviation of mandible to the right up on opening
C. Deviation of mandible to the left side
D. Not significantly changes in the masticatory function some limitation in opening
but no deviation inopening.
149-attached gingiva is more resistant to abrasion because it is more keratinized
collagen type 1 , cementum 1&3.
150-A patient comes with intensive pain due to periodontal abscess. The tooth is
tender to percussion, but the pulp vitality test is positive. The most appropriate
management is:
A. Scaling and root planning
B. Perform pulpectomy and establish drainage through the root canal
C. Reduce the occlusion
D. None of the above
150-L.A. associated with lip numbness two weeks later?
A.Articaine irritation in IANB because 4% and ester and amid.
151-Bisphosphonates are associated with ostearadionecrosis due to:
A. Inhibits proliferation of mioepithelial cells in the formation of vessels in the bone
B. High level pf alkaline phosphatase
C. Inhibits recruitment of immune cells
D. None
152-habit breaker when u insert?
A.Primary

B.early mixed
153- to reduce pain analgesic should be given :
A. pre emptive

during anesthesia.

154-76 old patient with 170/100 mmhg


A.Treat normall
B.Consult physician
155-most common location of SCC in oral cavity?
A.Floor of the mouth
156-failure of autoclave
A. overfilling with dental instruments
157-early sign of periodontal abcess on xray
A. Widening of PDL
158- Contact on the balancing side of the palatal cusp on which inclination:
A.Buccal

, B. Palatal C.Mesial

D. Distal

159- Mesiobuccal cusp of max first molar


A. Bucall groove of mand 1st molar
160- MOD in primary tooth treamtnet
A. GIC

B. Amalgam C.Stainless steel crown

161- Epinephrine for a patient who need extraction can cause :


A. Hypertension crisis
B . Increase Bleeding
162-Acetaminphen max dose
A.4000 MG
163-Flushing dental unit help to :
A. Reduce number of microorganism

B. remove biofilm
164-initial toxic symptom of l.a?
A.Convulsions
B. Talkative and tachycardia
Excitment of CNS
165-Muscle relaxanat
A.Succylcholine
166- Nifidipine
Gingival hyperplasia
167- fracture in proximal area cause by insufficient :
A.occlusal depth
B. Proximal box width
168- 5*3 lesion there for 2 months became ulcerated recently most approperate treatment
is :
A.Incisional biopsy less than 1cm excisional if more incisional,
169- retromolar pad surgery damage probably to :
A.Lingual Nerve
170- hematoma what to do
A.Firm pressure and ice B. hot pack
Group 2 :
1. The most potent Glucocorticoids:
a) Cortisol
B dexamethasone see potency of steroid.
2. Propranolol, Aspirin, Ampiral (ampicillin) >> these drugs are given to a patient with:
a) Ischemic heart disease
b) Congestive heart disease
c) Heart failure
d) Hypertension
e) Arrythmia
3. A cyst associated with a congenitally missing tooth:
primordial cyst.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Keratocyst
Dentigerous cyst
Radicular cyst
Residual cyst

KOT if missing tooth =

4. Insulin:
a) Improve glucose storage
b) Reduces the glucagon
5. Chlorhexidine plays a role in:
a) The cell wall !
b) Non selective flora
c) Absorption
6. A cyst around an impacted canine, radiolucent, solid tissue:
a) Ameloblastoma
b) Dentigrous cyst
c) Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor(AOT)
d) Myxoma
7. Insurance: works on all of these
a) Malpractice
b) General liability
c) Employment
8. Bisphosphonates: inhibit osteo and bone remodel.
a) Blocks resorption
9. Maximum dose of acetaminophen >> 4000
10. The anatomical guide for the Gowgates technique >> the condyle neck
11. Sign of lidocaine toxicity >> talkativeness ??
12. Safe anesthesia for a pregnant woman: 2% lidocaine with 1:100000 epinephrine
13. Pt. with normal vitality test and isolated defect of more than 4 mm: vertical defect
14. Furcation involvement, no response to therapy:

all of them.

a) Enamel pearl
b) Vertical fracture
c) Bacterial resistance
15. To extract tooth # 46, while the 45 and 47 have deep MOD caries, the least
appropriate sequence is:
a) Section with a bur, periosteal elevator, forceps
b) Scalpel, periosteal elevator, forceps
c) Only forceps
d) Periosteal elevator, root tip elevator, forceps
16. An intrusion is least likely to cause its permanent successor:
a) Dilaceration

b) Ectopic eruption
c) Hypoplasia
d) Delayed eruption
17. An anterior tooth that needs a crown lengthening, this should be done by:
a) Gingivectomy
b) Ortho treatment
c) Perio flap + osteoplasty
d) Widman flap
18. A patient with facial cellulitis is allergic to amoxicillin, which of the following
should be used with caution:
a) Clindamycin
b) Erythromycin
c) Cephalexin
19. Which letter determines the location of the incisal edge of anterior teeth:
a) F
b) S
c) J
d) M
e) P
20. A 10 year old patient had a normal exfoliation of his primary 2nd molar, what will
happen?
a) Mesial movement of the permanent 1st molar
remember leeway
space.
b) Distal movement of the mandibular 1st premolar
c) No change
21. In a long, narrow PFM bridge, a fracture of a porcelain piece is due to :
a) Low fracture toughness
lenghter span less fracture toughness.
b) Low modulus of elasticity
22. The location of the apical end of the junctional epithelium is:
a) Cervical part of the crown
b) Cervical part of the root
c) 1.5 mm apical to the CEJ
23. An avulsed tooth should be immediately:
a) Washed with saline
b) Treated with pulp extirpation
24. Niti file:
a) The More the taper the less fracture
b) Fracture at apical end usually occurs

c) More fracture in less diameter

. if more diameter more #

25. Gates glidden used for:


a) Apical segment
b) Merge the coronal pulp with access
c) More ideally used before files
26. Rotary instrument technique:
a) Crown down
b) Step back
c) Oscillating
d) Balanced force
27. The most stable supporting area for the mandibular denture:
a) Mylohyoid ridge
b) Buccal shelf
c) Alveolar ridge
28. A maxillary complete denture is dislodged on incising action, because:
a) Overextended labial flange ?????
b) Under-extended labial flange
c) Lingual position on anterior teeth
d) No palatal seal
29. Deep caries:
a) Must remove all caries
b) Must remove all caries, if that leads to an exposure, end the treatment
c) You may leave some caries if sealed
30. Ca(OH)2 in old filling is gone because:
a) Microleakage
b) Dissolution with the filling
c) Incorporation with bonding
31. Caries under the fissure sealant:
a) Arrested if sealed
b) Grow slowly if sealed
32. A patient wants a gold crown, while the dentist recommends all porcelain for an
anterior tooth, the dentist should:
a) Insist on his opinion
b) Place a composite restoration
c) Place a provisional crown until the patient changes his mind
d) Place a gold crown as the patient wish

33. Deep erosion in central incisor should be treated with:


a) Composite
b) Full porcelain
c) PFM
34. A crown fits on the master cast but not intraoral because of :
impression
a) Thick die spacer
b) Incorrect melting temperature of the metal
c) A void in the cast

improper

35. How to manage a crown that fits on the die but not the tooth:
a) Remove from the occlusal surface of the crown
b) Remove from the internal of the crown
c) Remove from the interproximal surface of the crown
d) Remove from the occlusal surface of the tooth
36. The teeth with the lowest potential of success as an abutment for a bridge:
a) Molars and canines
b) 1st premolars and molars
c) 1st incisors and 1st premolars
37. Microcytic/ hypochromatic:
a) Vitamin B12 difficiency
b) Chronic bleeding
38. ( Acetaminophen + codeine ) is used with caution:
a) In combination with alcohol
39. An advantage of codeine as compared to morphine:
a) Better bioavailability
b) More potent
c) No respiratory depression
codeine less Respiratory depression
,l ees addiction.
40. Inconsistent EPT is due to all the following EXCEPT:
a) Calcified canals
b) Multiple canals with different stages of pathosis
c) Inadequate contact

d) Too rapid current


41. A patient with stroke, 2 months history of endocarditis, needs EXO:
a) Give an antibiotic to prevent infection + EXO
, should not work.
b) EXO
c) EXO with epinephrine
D) symptomatic Tx.
42. A patient with AIDS:
a) Refuse
b) Delay till the end of the day
c) Treat normally
43. A patient with a history of myocardial infarction 8 years ago:
a) Treat him in the hospital
b) Treat him in the dental office using sedation and no vasoconstrictor in
anesthesia
c) Treat him in the dental office normally
44. The most specific test for anemia:
a) CBC
b) Hemoglobin
c) Hematocrit and WBC
d) Hematocrit, RBC, hemoglobin
45. Pale patient, gingival swelling, how to manage:
a) Do a full blood count
b) Check the blood glucose
c) Take a smear !
46. An insulin dependent patient comes in a hurry 1 hour late for his appointment, you
must make sure that:
a) The patient took his breakfast
b) The patient took his insulin dose
c) You have a source of sugar
d) You have insulin
47. To block division II of the trigeminal nerve, anesthesia must be given in proximity of:
a) Foramen Ovale
b) Foramen Spinosum
c) Pterygoid plexus

d) Sphenopalatine foramen
e) Infraorbital foramen

???????

48. The lip is formed between:


a) The maxilla and medial nasal process
b) The maxilla and lateral nasal process
c) The medial and lateral nasal process

= palate
= lip

49. Palatal shelves ????


a) Males
b) Backward of primary palate
c) Horizontal projection
Treatment of Fluoride Toxicity

50. Pt weight is 15 kg, swallows 50 mg ! Syrup of ipecac to induce vomiting


! Calcium-binding products (i.e., milk/milk of magnesia) will lower the
of toothpaste, what to do ?
acidity
a) Drink milk
of the stomach !insoluble complexes with fluoride and " absorption
b) Lavage
! Call 911 if necessary
c) Ipecac
51. During crown cementation, the crown is lost in the patients throat, the patient is
asymptomatic, this 1st management is :
a) Induce vomiting
b) Chest x-ray
c) Heimlich maneuver
d) Advise the patient to cough
52. The antibiotic with the widest spectrum: mitronidazole + amoxicillin
53. TCA + epinephrine : be aware of hypersensitivity to epinephrine ( hypertension )
54. Elderly dose ( healthy ) : unchanged, duration unchanged
55. In elderly:

the same.

a) Reduced drug absorption


b) Increased drug clearance

metabolism &excretion decrease in elders??????

56. A patient who received Hemodialysis:


a) Must be treated the same day of the hemodialysis only

b) Has a risk of infection


c) Has a risk of bleeding
57. The Penicillin that is least resistant to stomach acid:
a) Benzyl penicillin pen G
b) Phenoxy penicillin pencillin V
c) Amoxicillin
d) Ampicillin
58. A patient complains of his crown because it is too grey
A. increase chroma.
INCREASED VALUE
59. Least heat production:
a)
b)
c)
d)

Urethane
Methylmethacrylate
Diethylmethacrylate
Bis GMA
?????????? composite matrix.

60. Prostaglandin : gastric protection


61. Celecoxib: no gastric irritation
62. The treatment of dermatological manifestations of allergy : chlorpheniramine
63. Abcess of which tooth can cause cavernous sinus thrombosis:
a) Central
b) 2nd premolar
c) 3rd molar
d) 2nd molar
64. The most accurate way to locate the apical foramen:
a) Apex locator
b) X-ray + file
c) Tactile sensation
d) Bleeding on paper point
65. What might cause a loss of sensation in the IAN:
a) Extraction of the 3rd molar
b) Extraction of the 2nd molar
c) Wedge periodontal surgery at the retromolar area
66. Vertical incision on the medial side of the mandible is contraindicated because:
a) It might cause an injury to the lingual nerve

b) It might cause an injury to the IAN


67. An injury to the lingual nerve can cause all of the following except:
Hypoglossal=motor
- Deviation of the tongue
68. Infraorbital anesthesia includes: premolars + canines + incisors
69. Centric relation records should be done:
a) In maximum intercuspation
b) While applying Pressure on the mentalis muscle with thumb
c) While the occlusal rim slightly anterior to contact
70. The centric relation record is used because : it is the most reliable position
71. A 9 year old patient, has a crown fracture of the permanent central incisor, how to
manage?
a) Apexogenesis
to vital teeth
b) RCT
c) Apexification for non vital
72. Free gingival graft, mostly cause damage to:
a) The greater palatine artery
b) Incisive artery
c) Facial artery
73. Syphilis on tongue: chancre
74. Blue lesion on lower lip, history of swelling and then rapid shrinkage, the diagnosis
is:
a) Mucocele
75. Mucocele treatment is: excision of the involved salivary glands
76. The management of angioedema-allergic reaction is: epinephrine
77. For a patient who is allergic to sulfate, which local anesthetic is to be used:
a) Lidocaine with epinephrine
b) Articaine with epinephrine
c) Bupivacaine with livonordefrine
d) Plane LA
(any anasth with vasoconstrictor comes with sulfit.)
78. Rubber dam leakage is due to:
a) Holes are too close
b) Holes are too far

c) Stretching of frame !!
79. A patient taking lithium can take which of the following drug/s safely: NSAIDS
increase lithium in body. Lithium for bipolar, cold face.
a) Naproxen
b) Ibuprofen
c) Indomethacin
d) Acetaminophen
80. The presence of fluoride on the surface of the tooth after crown completion is due to:
a) Exchanging of hydroxyl groups
b) Readily contact saliva
c) Incorporation of . ?
81. Plaque:
a)
b)
c)
d)

Has Insoluble glucans


Becomes more anaerobic as it matures
Has food particles
Has ve bacteria

82. Which root has only 1 canal:


a) The mesiobuccal root of the maxillary 1st molar
b) Mesial root of the mandibular 1st molar
c) Lower 1st premolar
d) Upper canine
83. Single visit RCT is contraindicated in which case:
a) Necrosis with sinus tract
b) Symptomatic necrosis
c) Vital elective RCT
d) Irreversible pulpitis
84. Open bite best prognosis:
a) Intrusion of posterior teeth
b) Stopping the finger sucking habit
c) EXO
85. On lateral excursion, balancing side interference of palatal cusp of which inclines???
a) Buccal
b) Palatal

c) Mesial
d) Lateral
86. Serial extraction results in :
a) Loss of 4 permanent premolars
b) Maintenance of leeway space
87. Cervical headgear is used for: deep bite
88. Atypical pain:
a) Diazepam
b) Ibuprofen
c) ..
TCA amitryptiline,Carbamazepine (tegretol)
d) ..
89. Chlorpromazine cause all of the following except: antimuscarinic like atropine.
a) Photosensitivity
b) Increased salivation
c) Anticholinergic effects
90. A patient closes his jaw with his hands, he has:
a) Muscle dystrophy
b) Multiple sclerosis
c) Myasthenia gravis all of them.
91. In case if Gloves puncture:
a) Wash your hands and continue
b) Change the gloves immediately
c) Continue working
92. Needles:
a) Can be bent
b) To avoid a needle injury, leave it uncapped
c) Recap, scoop technique or mechanical
93. The vibrating line:
a) Is between the immovable and movable soft palate
b) Is between soft and hard palate
94. Using a panoramic x-ray:

a) You can see the space between the disc and condyle
b) You can calculate crowding
c) You can predict the potential impaction of canine
95. Gingival fibromatosis is:
a) Inflammatory
b) Hyperplastic
96. Which of the following is not associated with gingival swelling?
a) Internal resorption
b) Vertical root fracture
c) Periapical abscess
d) Periodontal abscess
97. An abscess is not associated with:
a) Elongated tooth feeling
b) Pain on heat
c) Pain on cold
d) Percussion and palpation tenderness

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