Bio XII Botany

ANDHERI / BORIVALI / DADAR / CHEMBUR / THANE / MULUND/ NERUL / POWAI
MH-CET 2015
ASSIGNMENT SERIES
(Strictly Based on MH-CET Pattern of Examination)
SUBJECT
: BOTANY
STANDARD : XIIth
CHAPTER
: GENETIC BASIS OF INHERITANCE
CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / KOLKATA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / GOA # 1

TOPIC: GENETIC BASIS OF INHERITANCE
1.
1.
3.
4.
5.
Genetics is the study of _____.

(a) heredity
(b) variations
(c) cells
(d) both (a) and (b)
The term genetics was first coined by

(a) Bateson
(b) Mendel
(c) Morgan
(d) Correns
_________ is regarded as the father of Genetics.

(a) Mendel
(b) Bateson
(c) Correns
(d) Hugo De Vries
The term gene was first used by

(a) Mendel
(b) Darwin
(c) Johansson
(d) Griffith
Mendels work was rediscovered by

(a) Tschermark
(b) De Vries
(c) Correns
(d) all of these
6.
______ postulated three laws that are known as Mendels laws of inheritance.
(a) Tschermark
(b) De Vries
(c) Correns
(d) all of these
7.
Mendel carried hybridization experiments using _______.

(a) Drosophila
(b) Sorghum
(c) Gram
8.
9.
10.
11.
The scientific name of garden pea is

(a) Mangifera indica
(c) Brassica campestris
(b) Pisum sativum

(d) Triticum aestivum
Garden pea is an/a _____ plant.

(a) Annual
(b) perennial
(c) biennial
(d) Pea
(d) epiphytic
Mendel studied ______ pairs of contrasting characters in the pea plant.

(a) 5
(b) 8
(c) 6
(d) 7
Mendel used term _______ to represent the hereditary unit.

(a) Gene
(b) trait
(c) Factor
(d) Allele
12.
Which one is a dominant trait out of the characters chosen by Mendel?

(a) Pod colour Yellow
(b) Seed colour White
(c) Pod shape - inflated
(d) Plant Height Dwarf
13.
Mendel did not consider _____ trait for his hybridization experiments?
(a) colour of flower (b) size of flower
(c) colour of cotyledons(d) both a and b
14.
Which of the following character did Mendel not use for this breeding experiment with Pisum
sativum?
(a) Pod colour
(b) Pod shape
(c) Leaf shape
(d) Plant height
15.
Mendel selected pea plants for his experiments, because

(a) their flowers can be easily emasculated
(b) they are naturally self pollinating
(c) short life span
(d) all of these
16.
Genes controlling seven traits in pea studied by Mendel were actually located on
(a) different chromosomes
(b) same chromosomes, but apart from each other
(c) same chromosome, closely linked
(d) either a or b
17.
Mendel was lucky, because

(a) He was born in Austria, which is a nice country
(b) He used pea plant for his experiment which is rich in protein
(c) The genes for different characters are located on different chromosomes in Pisum sativum
(d) The Pisum sativum is a short-lived plant
18.
Mendel allowed the hybrid tall of F1 to self fertilize. This process is called
(a) back crossing
(b) test crossing
(c) selfing
(d) hybridization.
19.
The success of Mendels hybridization experiments was due to the fact that
(a) he chose the right material
(b) he studies one character at a time
(c) there was no linkage in the characters he studied
(d) all of these
20.
Gregor Mendel died in___________ .

(a) 1884
(b) 1890
21.
(c) 1900
Two or more alternative forms of a gene are called _______.

(a) allelomorphs
(b) multiple alleles
(c) paramorphs
(d) 1926
(d) polygenes
22.
The traits that are transmitted from the parents to their offspring are called
(a) anatomical
(b) morphological
(c) hereditary
(d) reproductive
23.
An allele that expresses its trait even in heterozygous condition is called _______ allele.
(a) dominant
(b) recessive
(c) multiple
(d) lethal
24.
Out of the two contrasting characters of a single trait, the one which suppressed in the F1 generation
is called______.
(a) recessive
(b) dominant
(c) homozygous
(d) allele
25.
The external appearance of an individual for any trait is called the

(a) offspring
(b) phenotype
(c) genotype
26.
(d) hybrid
The genetic constitution of an organism with respect to a single character or a set of characters is
called the ______.
(a) genotype
(b) phenotype
(c) hybrid
(d) alleleomorph
27.
Pure line is a group of individuals that are

(a) homozygous for one or more traits
(b) heterozygous for one or more traits
(c) produce two types of gametes
(d) plants that are grown by Mendel in his own garden.
28.
A diagram that is used to show possibilities of combination in a particular cross is named after
_________.
(a) Mendel
(b) Punnett
(c) Bateson
(d) Morgan
29.
Punnet square is also known as

(a) checker board
(b) cross-check
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
(c) Mendelian square
(d) none of these
An individual possessing identical alleles of a particular trait is called

(A) Heterozygos
(b) homozygous
(c) dominant
(d) recessive
An individual possessing dissimilar alleles of a particular trait is called

(A) Heterozygous
(b) homozygous
(c) dominant
(d) recessive
Genotype of a tall plant is/ could be ___________.

(a) TT
(b) tt
(c) Tt
(d) both a or c
rr refers to _________ condition.

(a) homozygous recessive
(c) homozygous dominant
(b) heterozygous
(d) phenotypic
Rr refers to _________ condition.

(a) homozygous
(b) heterozygous
(c) dominant
(d) phenotypic
35.
________ genotype characterizes an organism that is heterozygous for two genes.

(a) RRRy
(b) RrYY
(c) RRYY
(d) RrYy
36.
The generation produced by from selfing or interbreeding of F1 individuals is called

(a) F1 generation
(b) F2 generation
(c) F3 generation
(d) F4 generation.
37.
The cross that is made between two parents that differ in a single pair of contrasting characters is
known as a
(a) dihybrid cross
(b) monohybrid ratio
(c) monohybrid cross
(d) trihybrid cross.
38.
The law of segregation is also called the

(a) law of purity of gametes
(c) law of independent assortment
39.
(b) law of dominance

(d) law of co-dominance
The law of dominance is often described as

(a) Mendels first law of inheritance
(b) Mendels second law of inheritance
(c) Mendels third law of inheritance
(d) Mendels fourth law of inheritance
40.
A dihybrid cross is a cross between two ______.

(a) homozygous parents differing in one pair of contrasting characters.
(b) homozygous parents differing in two pairs of contrasting characters.
heterozygous parents differing in one pair of contrasting characters.
(d) Heterozygous parents.
41.
Dihybrid forms four types of gametes due to _________.

(a) segregation
(b) independent assortment
(c) mutations
(d) none of these
42.
Identify correct statement.

(a) In human beings curly hair is dominant over straight hair.
(b) In guinea pigs, white coat colour is dominant over black.
(c) In jowar chalky grain is dominant over pearly.
(d) In human beings blue eye colour is dominant over brown.
43.
Dihybrid cross proves

(a) law of independent assortment
(c) law of dominance
(b) law of segregation

(d) law of purity of gametes.
44.
Independent assortment of genes takes place when

(a) Genes are located on different chromosomes
(b) Genes are linked and located on same chromosome
(c) Genes are located on same chromosome, but apart from each other.
(d) both a and c
45.
Gene recombination is due to

(a) Independent assortment
(c) Modifier genes
(b) Linkage
(d) Mutations
46.
Gametes are never hybrid. It is a statement of law of

(a) Dominance
(b) Segregation
(c) Independent assortment
(d) none of these
47.
Heterozygous tall plant is selfed. It produces both tall and dwarf plants. This confirms which of the
Mendels laws?
(a) Law of dominance
(b) Law of segregation
(c) Law of independent assortment
(d) Incomplete dominance
48.
Alleles of an allelic pair separate during

(a) fertilization
(b) mitosis
(c) gamete formation
(d) b or c
49.
How many different kinds of gametes a plant having the genotype AABbCC will produce?
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Nine
(d) Two
50.
During selfing YyRr plants will produce __________ types of gametes.

(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 3
51.
(d) 5.
Genotype ratio obtained in the F2 generation of a monohybrid cross is ________.

(a) 1 : 2 : 1
(b) 9: 3: 3 : 1
(c) 3 : 1
(d) 2 : 1
52.
Monohybrid phenotypic ratio obtained in the F2 generation is______.

(a) 3:1
(b) 1:1
(c) 9:3:3:1
(d) 4:1
53.
A cross between a homozygous tall pea plant and homozygous dwarf pea plant, results in ____
progeny in F1.
(a) tall
(b) dwarf
(c) neither tall nor dwarf
(d) none of these
54.
The genotypic ratio of F2 individuals in a monohybrid cross is

(a) 3 dominant and 1 recessive
(b) 1 homozygous dominant, 2 heterozygous dominant and 1 homozygous recessive
(c) all dominant
(d) 4 dominant and 2 recessive
55.
A homozygous pea plants having axillary coloured flowers is crossed with a pea plant having
terminal white flowers. What will be the result of F1 progeny?
(a) All axillary coloured
(b) All terminal coloured
(c) All axillary white
(d) All terminal white.
56.
Heterozygous tall (Tt) is crossed with homozygous tall (TT). Percentage of heterozygous tall in the
progeny would be
(a) 25%
(b) 50%
(c) 75%
(d) 100%
57.
If a cross is made between TT and tt, progeny will be

(a) Genotypically TT, phenotypically dwarf
(b) Genotypically Tt, phenotypically dwarf
(c) Genotypically Tt, phenotypically Tall
(d) Genotypically tt, phenotypically tall
58.
In monohybrid cross, the ratio of homozygous dominant and homozygous recessive individuals in
F2 -generation is _________.
(a) 1 : 2 : 1
(b) 2 : 1 / 1 : 2
(c) 3 : 1 / 1 : 3
(d) 1 : 1
59.
The proportion of YyRr in dihybrid ratio is ________.

(a) 4/16
(b) 2/16
(c) 1/16
(d) 3/16
60.
What result did Mendel get when he allowed F1 hybrid (Tt) to inbreed to raise F2 generation?
(a) 75% tall and 25% dwarf
(b) 50% tall and 50% dwarf
(c) 25% tall and 75% tall
(d) 100% tall.
61.
In garden pea plants, what will be the phenotypic yellow: green ratio when YyrR is self pollinated.
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 3 : 1
(d) 4 : 1
62.
The phenotypic dihybrid ratio in F2 generation of Mendelian experiment in pea plants is

(a) 3 : 1
(b) 1 : 2 : 1
(c) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(d) 4 : 1
63.
The proportion of ttrr in Mendels dihybrid ratio is

4
2
1
(a)
(b)
(c)
16
16
16
(d)
3
16
64.
A pure yellow wrinkled variety of pea plant is crossed with a pure green round variety What will be
the result in F1 generation?
(a) All yellow round
(b) All green wrinkled
(c) all yellow wrinkled
(d) mixed type
65.
Test cross is a cross which is made between a F1 hybrid and _______.

(a) pure dominant parent (b) pure recessive parent (c) F2 individual (d) both a and b.
66.
A cross that is made between a F1 hybrid and either of its homozygous parents is called a
(a) test cross
(b) out cross
(c) back cross
(d) monohybrid cross.
_____is a test cross.
(a) Aa aa
(b) AA aa
(c) AA Aa
(d) AA AA
67.
68.
A heterozygous tall pea plant is crossed with homozygous dwarf pea plant. What will be the
phenotypic ratio of the offspring in this cross?
(a) 3:1
(b) 4:1
(c) 1:1
(d) 9:3:3:1
69.
A test cross is performed to distinguish between

(a) Two homozygous forms
(b) Two heterozygous form
(c) A homozygous dominant and a heterozygous form
(d) A homozygous recessive and the heterozygous form
70.
Alleles of an allelic pair occupy

(a) different loci on homologous chromosomes
(b) same loci on homologous chromosomes
(c) same loci on nonhomologous chromosomes
(d) different loci on nonhomologous chromosomes.
71.
Which of the following statements is not true?

(a) Similar phenotypes show similar genotypes
(b) Similar genotypes show similar phenotypes
(c) Like begets like
(d) Gametes are pure.
72.
Individuals that look similar

(a) always have the same genotype
(c) are offspring of hybrid parents
(b) May not have the same genotype

(d) are offspring of similar parents.
73.
In a case of incomplete dominance F2 generation has

(a) Genotype ratio 3:1
(b) Phenotypic ratio 3:1
(c) Genotypic ratio equal to phenotypic ratio 1:2:1
(d) None of the above.
74.
In Mirabilis jalapa when homozygous red flowered and white flowered plants are crossed, all F1
plants have pink coloured flowers. In F2 produced by selfing of F1 Plants, red, pink, white flowered
plants would appear respectively in the ratio of
(a) 1 : 1 : 2
(b) 2 : 1 : 1
(c) 1 : 0 : 1
(d) 1 : 2 : 1
75.
Classic example of codominance is ___________.

(a) Flower colour in Mirabilis jalapa
(b) Coat colour in cattle
(c) Wing size in Drosophila
(d) Skin colour in human beings
76.
Identify the incorrect statement.

(a) In both incomplete dominance and codominance, phenotypic ratios are identical.
(b) In both incomplete dominance and codominance, genotypic ratios are identical.
(c) In codominance the phenotype of hybrid is intermediate between the phenotype of parents.
(d) In incomplete dominance both the genes of an allelic pair express themselves partially.
77.
More than two alternative forms of a gene in a population occupying same locus on a chromosome
or its homologue are called
(a) Multiple alleles
(b) Polygenes
(c) Oncogenes
(d) None of these
78.
Which of the following is controlled by multiple alleles?

(a) Colour blindness
(b) Sickle cell anaemia
(c) Phenylketonuria
(d) Blood groups
79.
ABO blood group in human beings

genotypes.
(a) 4,6
(b) 6, 4
80.
show ____ different phenotypes and
_______ alleles do not undergo crossing over.

(a) Dominant
(b) recessive
______ different
(c) 4,4
(d) 6,6
(c) multiple
(d) none of these
81.
A man with blood group A marries a women with blood group B and their first child is having blood
group B. What is the genotype of child?
(a) I B I O
(b) I O I O
(c) I A I O
(d) I B I B
82.
________ is an example of pleiotropy.

(a) Haemophilia
(b) Thalassemia
(c) Sickle-cell anemia (d) Colour blindess
83.
Pleiotropy is a condition in which a single gene

(a) Controls only one trait
(b) Controls two or more traits
(c) Does not control any trait
(d) controls any trait
84.
Examples of polygenic inheritance are _________.

(a) Human height and skin colour
(b) ABO blood group in humans and flower colour of mirabilis jalapa
(c) Hair pigment of mouse and tongue roiling in humans
(d) Human eye colour and sickle cell anaemia
85.

(a) Gene for sickle cell anaemia is lethal in heterozygous condition.
(b) Gene for sickle cell anaemia produces sickle cell trait in homozygous condition.
(c) Sickle cell anaemia is an example of multiple alleles.
(d) Carriers are said to have sickle cell trait.
86.
___________ discovered polygeneic inheritance.

(a) Mendel
(b) Punnett
(c) H. Nilsson-Ehle
(d) Watson
87.
In wheat, shade of kernel colour depends on number of ______ genes.

(a) Dominant
(b) recessive
(c) both a and b
(d) does not depend on number of genes.
88.
Skin colour inheritance in man is an example of

(a) Monogenic
(b) Polygenic
(c) Sex linked
(d) Multiple alleles
Genotype for Mulatto skin colour is ___________.

(a) Aabbcc
(b) AaBbCc
(c) AABBCC
(d) aaBbCc
89.
90.
When one gene pair hides the effect of other pair, this phenomena is referred as
(a) Mutation
(b) Epistasis
(c) Dominance
(d) Pleiotropy
91.
Red seed colour shown an F2 ratio of 1 : 4 : 6 : 4 : 1. It is due to

(a) Different number of dominant genes
(b) Different number of recessive genes
(c) Supplementary genes
(d) Two Polygenes
92.
The ratio is _______ when three polygenes determine a trait.

(a) 9:3:3:1
(b) 1:6:15:20:15:6:1
(c) 1:4:6:4:1
93.
Select the statement, which is not correct?

(a) Polygenic character is controlled multiple alleles
(b) Polygeneic characters have additive effect
(c) Height, Skin colour are polygenic
(d) Polygenic character is controlled by multiple genes
94.
Which of the following is signification of dominance

(a) Organisms with dominant genes are more vital
(b) Harmful mutations are not expressed due to dominant gene
(c) Heterosis is due to dominant gene
(d) All of the above
95.
_____ are codominant alleles.

(a) IA and IB
(b) IA and i
(c) IB and i
(d) 15:1
(d) none of these
96.

(a) Incomplete dominance favours the blending theory of inheritance.
(b) In incomplete dominance both the genes of an allelic pair are expressed equally.
(c) In incomplete dominance both the genes of an allelic pair are expressed partially.
(d) Sickle cell anaemia is an example of incomplete dominance.
97.
In Drosophila, genotype vgvg results in ________ wings.

(a) Normal
(b) nicked
(c) vestigial
(d) strap

TOPIC: GENETIC BASIS OF INHERITANCE (ANSWER KEY)
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(b)
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(d)
(b)
(a)
MH-CET 2015
ASSIGNMENT SERIES
SUBJECT
: BOTANY
STANDARD : XIIth
CHAPTER
: GENE- ITS NATURE, EXPRESSION AND

REGULATION
TOPIC: GENE- ITS NATURE, EXPRESSION AND REGULATION

1.
DNA structure was given by ___________ .

(a) Altman
(b) Watson and Crick
(c) Mendel
(d) Bateson
2.
X-ray crystallographic studies which led to discovery of DNA structure were carried by _______ .
(a) Maurice Wilkins (b) Rosalind Franklin (c) Watson, Crick
(d) Both (a) and (b)
3.
Deoxyribosc sugar is ____________ .

(a) C5H10O5
(b) C5H10O4
(c) C6H12O6
(d) None of these
In DNA, adenine pairs with __________ .

(a) Guanine
(b) Cytosine
(c) Thymine
(d) (a) or (b)
Nucleotide is ___________ .
(a) base sugar - phosphate
(c) sugar phosphate
(b) base sugar

(d) base sugar - OH
4.
5.
6.
7.
Monomer of a nucleic acid molecule is ___________ .

(a) nucleotide
(b) nucleoside
(c) Nitrogen base
(d) sugar
Chargaffs rule may be represented as ____________ .

(a) A + G = T + C
(b)
A +G
=1
T +C
(c) A + G
8.
N-base is attached to pentose sugar in a nucleoside at ___________ carbon atoms.

(a) second
(b) first
(c) third
(d) fifth
9.
Identify odd one out :(a) Thymine

(b) Cytosine
(c) Uracil
(d) Adenine
N-base absent in DNA ___________

(a) uracil
(b) adenine
(c) guanine
(d) thymine
Purines are __________ .

(a) double ring compounds
(c) C and T
(b) Single ring compounds

(d) Both (b) and (c)
Pyrimidines are _____________ .

(a) T and C
(b) A and G
(c) T, G
10.
11.
12.
(d) T and A
13.
Nucleotides are named according to their __________ .

(a) pentose sugar
(b) nitrogen base
(c) phosphate group
(d) none of these
14.
In a nucleotide nitrogen based is attached to __________ carbon of sugar molecule by ______ bond.
(a) 2 nd, glycosidic
(b) 1 st , glycosidic
(c) 5th, phosphodiester (d) 5th glycosidic
15.
The successive nucleotides of same strand of DNA are linked by _________ .

(a) 3-5 phosphodiester linkage
(b) Hydrogen bond
(c) Glycosidic bond
(d) None of these
16.
N-bases along with Hydrogen bonds are ___________ .

(a) rungs of ladder (b) transverse bars
(c) longitudinal bars
Length of one comple spiral of DNA is __________ .

(a) 3.4 nm
(b) 4.3 nm
(c) 3.4 m
(d) 4.3 m
If DNA has 10 spirals, the length of DNA will be ____________ .

(a) 34 A
(b) 340 A
(c) 640 A
(d) 64 A
Identify the pair of nucleotides joined by two hydrogen bonds in DNA.

(a) AT
(b) CG
(c) AG
(d) CA
How many nucleotides will be present in a DNA of 10,000 base pairs.

(a) 10,000
(b) 1,000
(c) 20,000
(d) 2000
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
Identify correct statements :(i) DNA strands are complementary and parallel
(ii) DNA strands are coiled around an imaginary central axis.
(iii) DNA strands are complementary and antiparallel.
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(c) (i) and (ii) are correct
22.
23.
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct

(d) Only (i) is correct
E. coli DNA has 18% C, what will be fraction of A ?

(a) 18%
(b) 32%
(c) 36%
(d) data insufficient.
t-RNA is also called ____________ .

(a) s-RNA
(b) hnRNA
(d) none of them
(c) nodoc
24.
t-RNA is also called S-RNA because ___________ .

(a) It is single stranded.
(b) It cannot be easily separated by ultracentrifugation.
(c) It carries serine.
(d) None of these.
25.
If the base sequence is 5 CAG AGG GAA UAC CCA 3 , it is a segment of ____________ .
'
(a) DNA
(b) mRNA strand
'
(c) tRNA
(d) any one of these
26.
The correct sequence in descending order according to molecular weight is ___________ .

(a) rRNA, tRNA, DNA
(b) DNA, rRNA, tRNA
(c) mRNA, DNA, rRNA
(d) rRNA, tRNA, mRNA
27.
UUU codes for _____________ .

(a) methionine
(b) phenyl alanine
(c) glycine
In RNA molecule purine:pyrimidine ratio is

(a) always 1:1
(c) never 1:1
(b) may or may not be 1:1

(d) 2:1
28.
(d) leucine
29.
RNA is produced on DNA template by the process called ____________ .

(a) translation
(b) replication
(c) transcription
(d) none of these
30.
___________ is always simple and straight without any fold.

(a) mRNA
(b) tRNA
(c) rRNA
(d) (a) and (b)
______ % of total cellular RNA is mRNA.

(a) 70-80%
(b) 3-5%
(d) 10-20%
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
(c) 50%
Sequence of three nucleotides on mRNA is called ___________ .

(a) codon
(b) anticodon
(c) codogen
(d) none of these
Identify start and stop codon.

(a) AUG, CCC
(b) UAA, UPG
(c) AUG, UAA
(d) UAA, AUG
Identify nonsense codon.

(a) UAA
(b) UAG
(c) UGA
(d) All of these
Stop codons are also called __________ .

(a) terminators
(b) non-sense
(c) codogen
36.
Molecular weight of rRNA ranges between ___________ .

(a) 23,000 -30,000 (b) 40,000-1,00,000
(c) 5,00,000-7,00,000 (d) 10,00-20,000
37.
About 80% of total cellular RNA is ____________ .

(a) mRNA
(b) tRNA
(c) rRNA
(d) hnRNA
____________ is smallest of all RNA types.

(a) mRNA
(b) tRNA
(d) Both (a) and (c)
38.
39.
40.
(c) rRNA
5 end of tRNA has ____________ nucleotide.

(a) A
(b) T
(c) G
(d) U
Acceptor end of tRNA has ____________ triplet.

(a) CCA
(b) AUG
(c) UAA
(d) UAC
41.
Identify wrong statement :(a) DHU arm of tRNA has amino acyl binding loop.
(b) Middle arm of tRNA has anticodon loop.
(c) DHU arm of tRNA has ribosomal binding loop.
(d) tRNA is also called as soluble RNA.
42.
___________ is also referred to as nodoc.

(a) codogen
(b) anticodon
(c) codon
tRNA carries amino acid at ____________ .

(a) 5 end
(c) 3 end
(b) anticodon
(d) aminoacyl synthatase binding loop.
43.
44.
In E.coli, the initiating amino acid in protein synthesis is _____________ .

(a) methionine
(b) N-formyl methionine
(c) trypsin
(d) serine
45.
A smaller subunit of ribosome has a binding site for mRNA and larger subunit has two binding sites
for ___________ molecules.
(a) DNA
(b) tRNA
(c) Restriction enzyme (d) None of these
46.
Identify the statement which is not applicable to mRNA.

(a) It is a linear molecule
(b) It has G at 5 end
(c) It is 3-5% of total cellular RNA
(d) Triplets on mRNA are called codons.
47.
During splicing, exons are joined by _________________ .

(a) RNA ligase
(b) DNA ligase
(c) RNA polymerase
(d) None of these
Transcript to TTCGCACT will be _______________ .

(a) AAGCGUGA
(b) AAGCGTGA
(c) UUGCGUGA
(d) AACCGUGU
48.
49.
All the four types of DNA nucleotides are found in nucleoplasm in the form of their __________ .
(a) triphosphates
(b) monophosphates
(c) biphosphates
(d) Both (a) or (c)
50.
Activation of nucleotides occurs in the presence of enzyme ________________ .

(a) ligase
(b) polymerase
(c) phosphorylase
(d) primase
51.
Identify the process of activation of nucleotides :(a) dAMP + ATP dATP + AMP
(b) dTMP + ATP dTTP + AMP
(c) dCMP + ATP dCTP + AMP
(d) all of these
52.
In ____________ there are several origin of replication.

(a) bacteria
(b) blue-green algae
(c) eukaryotic cells
53.
(d) none of them
The separation of DNA strands is done by DNA-unwinding protein called ___________ .

(a) helicase
(b) primase
(c) rep-protein
54.
Synthesis of RNA primer during DNA replicaion is controlled by ____________ .

(a) RNA primase
(b) RNA polymerase
(c) ligase
(d) none of these
55.
RNA primer gets attached to ____________ .

(a) 3 end of template strand
(c) middle of template strand
56.
57.
58.
59.
(b) 5 end of template strand

New strand of DNA is synthesized in _____________ direction.

(a) 5 3
(b) 3 5
(c) either a or b
(d) none of these
The strand which opens from 3 5 is called ____________ .

(a) lagging strand
(b) leading strand
(c) lagging template
(d) leading template
____________ is synthesized discontinuously at a slower rate.

(a) lagging strand
(b) leading strand
(c) lagging template
(d) leading template
Okazaki fragments are joined by enzyme _____________ .

(a) DNA polymerase (b) DNA ligase
(c) RNA ligase
(d) none of these
60.
______________ experimentally proved semi-conservative nature of DNA replication.

(a) Watson and Crick
(b) Wilkins and Franklin
(c) Bateson and Punnett
(d) Meselson and Stahl.
61.
DNA replication in prokaryotes is known as ___________ replication.

(a) alpha
(b) beta
(c) theta
(d) gamma
62.
Experimental system used in studies on DNA replication is ___________ .

(a) Neurospora crassa
(b) E. coli
(c) Drosophila
(d) Diplococci pneumoniae
63.
___________ isotope was used in an experiment which proved semiconservative way of DNA
replication.
(a) N15
(b) P32
(c) S35
(d) C12
64.
Unwinding of DNA is catalyzed by ______________________

(a) topoisomerase
(b) helicase
(c) primase
(d) ligase
65.
A DNA molecule is E. coli labeled with N15, is allowed to replicate in a medium containing N14.
After one generation of replication, two daughter molecules will _____________ .
(a) be similar in density but differ from that of parent DNA.
(b) differ in density as well as from that of parent DNA.
(c) have same density as that of parent DNA.
(d) differ in density but resemble parent DNA.
66.
On the DNA template with polarity 3 - 5, the replication is _____________ .

(a) continuous
(b) discontinuous
(c) uncertain
67.
In transcription unit promoter is located at ____________ .

(a) 5 end of coding strand
(b) 3 end of template strand
(c) 3 end of coding strand
(d) both a and b
68.
In transcription unit the terminator is located at ____________ .

(a) 3 end of coding strand
(b) 5 end of coding strand
(c) 3 end of template strand
(d) all the above.
69.
Match the column :Column I

(i) Helicase
(ii) Ligase
(iii) Phosphorylase
(iv) DNA polymerase
(p)
(q)
(r)
(s)
Column II
activation of nucleotide
synthesis of DNA strand
DNA unwinding protein
joins DNA fragments.
(a) (i)-(r), (ii)-(q), (iii)-(p), (iv)-(s)

(c) (i)-(r), (ii)-(s), (iii)-(q), (iv)-(p)
(b) (i)-(r), (ii)-(s), (iii)-(p), (iv)-(q)

(d) (i)-(q), (ii)-(s), (iii)-(q), (iv)-(r)
70.
One gene-one enzyme hypothesis was given by ___________ .

(a) Vernon Ingram
(c) Wilkins and Franklin
(d) Beadle and Tatum
71.
One gene one polypeptide hypothesis was given by ____________ .

(a) Vernon Ingram (b) Watson and Crick (c) Mendel
(d) Beadle and Tatum
72.
Spores of ____________ were exposed to _______ causing mutation in DNA, by Beadle and
Tatum.
(a) Neurospora crassa, chemical mutagens
(b) Neurospora crassa, X-rays
(c) Aspergillus, X-rays
(d) Aspergillus, chemical mutagens
73.
Central dogma of molecular biology is _______________ .

Transcription
Translation
(a) DNA
RNA
Proteins
Translation
(b) DNA
Proteins
Translation
Translation
Translation
Transcription
(c) DNA
RNA
Proteins
(d) DNA
RNA
Proteins
74.
Each codon codes for a specific amino acid was suggested by __________ .
(a) Crick
(b) Watson
(c) George Gamow
(d) HG Khorana
75.
Complete genetic code was cracked by __________ .

(a) Nirenberg
(b) H. Matthaei
(c) HG Khorana
(d) all of these
76.
Among 64 codons, ______ are termination codons and ___________ are sense codons.
(a) 4, 60
(b) 3, 61
(c) 5, 59
(d) 2, 62
77.
Wobble hypothesis was given by ____________ .
(a) Nirenberg
(b) Crick
(c) Creighton
(d) HG Khorana
78.
If more than one codon codes an amino acid, it is ________________ .

(a) degeneracy of codon
(b) overlapping of codon
(c) nonsense codons
(d) non above.
79.
In genetic code, a doublet codon system would have made ___________ types of codons possible.
(a) 64
(b) 4
(c) 16
(d) 24
80.
mRNA has methyl GTP cap and ____________ tail.

(a) poly A
(b) poly G
(c) poly T
(d) poly C
mRNA is a complementary copy of ____________ .

(a) 5-3 DNA strand (b) 3-5 DNA strand
(c) any of (a) and (b)
(d) tRNA
Enzyme involved in transcription is ____________ .

(a) DNA polymerase (b) RNA polymerase
(c) RNA carboxylase
(d) restriction enzyme
81.
82.
83.
Eukaryotic RNA polymerase III catalyse the synthesis of ___________ .

(a) mRNA
(b) tRNA
(c) snRNA
(d) both b and c
84.
___________ is not associated with termination of protein synthesis.

(a) UAA
(b) UAG
(c) UGA
(d) AUG
85.
____________ bases in mRNA would be present for a polypeptide chain of 40 amino acids.
(a) 120
(b) 160
(c) 80
(d) 40
86.
Polysomes lack _____________ .

(a) DNA
(b) mRNA
87.
(c) proteins
_____________ decides amino acid sequence in protein synthesis.

(a) rRNA
(b) tRNA
(c) CDNA
(d) rRNA
(d) mRNA
88.
Removal of introns and joining the exons in a defined order during transcription is called
__________ .
(a) transformation
(b) splicing
(c) capping
(d) tailing
89.
The Wobble effect is the ___________ .

(a) lack of precision with regard to the 3rd base of anticodon and codon.
(b) Instability of DNA molecule when unwound.
(c) Instability of pairing when a pyrimidine base pairs with other pyrimidine.
(d) lack of precision with regard to 1st base of anticodon and codon.
90.
mRNA is prokaryotes is ___________ .

(a) monocistronic
(b) polycistronic
91.
(c) replicative
(d) none of these
______________ plays important role in transcription.
(a) DNA dependent RNA polymerase

(c) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
92.
93.
Match the column :Column I

(i) One gene one enzyme
(ii) One gene one polypeptide
(iii) X-ray crystallography of DNA
(iv) DNA structure
(b) DNA dependent DNA polymerase

(d) RNA dependent RNA polymerase
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Column II
Wilkins, Franklin
Beadle and Tatum
Watson and Crick
Vernon Ingram
(a) (i)-(2), (ii)-(4), (iii)-(1), (iv)-(3)

(c) (i)-(2), (ii)-(3), (iii)-(1), (iv)-(4)
(b) (i)-(4), (ii)-(2), (iii)-(1), (iv)-(3)

(d) (i)-(1), (ii)-(4), (iii)-(2), (iv)-(3)
Find incorrect match :(a) Initiator codon AUG

(c) Terminator codon - UAC
(b) Stop codon UAA

(d) Non-sense codon - UAG
94.
Termination of transcription is controlled by ___________ factor.

(a) Sigma
(b) Rho
(c) Transcription factor
(d) None of these
95.
Enzyme that initiate, transcription is ____________ .

(a) DNA polymerase (b) RNA polymerase
(c) ligase
(d) RNA primase
96.
Initiation and termination factors for transcription process are ______ and ______ respectively.
(a) sigma, rho
(b) rho, sigma
(c) R1, R2
(d) R1,S
97.
Find incorrect match :(a) RNA polymerase I formation of rRNA, mRNA

(b) RNA polymerase II synthesis of precursor of mRNA
(c) RNA polymerase III synthesis of tRNA, snRNA
(d) RNA primase synthesis of RNA - primer
98.
hnRNA which has undergone _________ functions as mRNA.

(a) copping
(b) splicing
(c) tailing
(d) all of above.
99.
Formation of AA-tRNA complex is also called ____________ .

(a) charging of tRNA
(b) aminoacylation of tRNA
(c) translocation
100.
Initiation of polypeptide chain require ___________ as source of energy.

(a) only ATP
(b) only GTP
(c) only TTP
101.
Initiation of polypeptide synthesis starts with ____________ .

(a) binding of mRNA to 50s ribosome.
(b) binding of mRNA to 30s ribosome.
(c) binding of mRNA to 70s ribosome.
(d) binding of mRNA to tRNA.
102.
AA1-tRNA complex gets attached to ___________ .

(a) UAA
(b) UCU
(c) AUG
(d) None of these
103.
Only the AA1-tRNA complex binds at __________ site directly while all other incoming tRNA
complexes get attached first at ___________ site.
(a) P, A
(b) A, P
(c) P, E
(d) A, E
104.
Polypeptide chain is released from _____________ site.

(a) A
(b) P
(c) E
(d) none of these
105.
Elongation of polypeptide is catalyzed by __________ .

(a) aminoacyl tRNA synthatase
(b) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
(c) Peptidyl transferase
(d) ligase
106.
In every step of _____________ one amino acid is added in polypeptide chain.

(a) transcription
(b) replication
(c) translocation
(d) amplification
107.
Termination of polypeptide synthesis involves ____________ factors.

(a) rho and sigma
(b) R1R2S
(c) only rho
(d) only sigma
108.
Ribosomes are composed of approximately ___________% rRNA and _________% proteins.

(a) 65%, 35%
(b) 60%, 40%
(c) 70%, 30%
(d) 50%, 50%
109.
_____________ is not bound by membrane.

(a) mitochondria
(b) lysosome
110.
(c) ribosome
During transcription RNA polymerase binds at ______________ .

(a) regulator
(b) terminator
(c) promotor
(d) plastid
(d) none of these
111.
In an operon, repressor protein binds to the __________ region of operon.

(a) structural gene
(b) promoter
(c) operator
(d) (a) or (b)
112.
Lac operon model was proposed by ___________ .

(a) Jacob and Monad (b) Watson, Crick
(c) Beadle and Tatum (d) Grittith
113.
Lactose enters the cell because of activity of ___________ .

(a) -galactosidase (b) permease
(c) transacetylase
114.
Length of DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is approximately ___ m.

(a) 2.2
(b) 1.2
(c) 0.2
(d) none of these
115. Approximate size of a typical nucleus is ______ m.

(a) 10 -6
(b) 10 -4
(c) 10 -3
116.
(d) none of these
(d) 10 -5
Histone octamer consists two each of ______.

(a) H1, H2, H3, H4 (b) H2A, H2B, H3, H4 (c) H3A, H4B, H1, H2 (d) none of these
117.
118.
119.
120.
____ are seen as beads on strings.

(a) centromere
(b) nucleosomes
(c) chromatids
(d) none of these
Around the octamer, DNA molecule is wrapped as _____ turn.

(a) 1 and
(b) one
(c) one and th
(d) 1/2
Core DNA of nucleosome consists of _____ bp.

(a) 145
(b) 146
(c) 150
(d) 140
Length of linker DNA is ____ bp.

(a) 54
(b) 45
(d) none of these
(c) 10
121.
The beads on string structure gets condensed into ---- fibre, which is _____ nm in diameter.
(a) solenoid, 10
(b) solenoid, 30
(c) nucleosome, 10
(d) nucleosome, 30
122.
Each nucleosome contains ______ bp of DNA helix.

(a) 200
(b) 256
(c) 146
(d) 100
123.
Coiling of nucleosome fibre results in ______ fibre, which is _____ nm in diameter.

(a) chromatin, 20
(b) solenoid, 30
(c) solenoid, 20
(d) chromatid, 700
124.
Nucleosome and solenoid fibres are the characteristics of nucleus at ______.

(a) interphase
(b) metaphase
(c) anaphase
(d) telophase
125.
Identify the correct statement.

(a) Euchromatin is transcriptionally active and stains light.
(b) Heterochromatin in transcriptionally inactive and stains light.
(c) Heterochromatin is transcriptinally active and stains light.
(d) Euchromatin is transcriptionally active and stains dark.
126.
Transformation experiment was carried by ______, using ________.

(a) F. Griffith, bacteriophages
(b) F. Griffith, Diplococci pneumoniae
Hershey Chase, bacteriophages
(d) Hershey and Chase, E. coli
127.
Non-capsulated Diplococci pneumoniae were ______.

(a) virulent
(b) non-virulent
(c) rough
(d) both b and c
S-type bacteria were _____.

(a) capsulated
(b) non-capsulated
(d) both a and c
128.
(c) virulent
129.
______ proved that the transforming principle is DNA for first time using test tube assay.
(a) Avery
(b) Macleod
(c) McCarty
(d) all of these
130.

(a) RNA of S type bacteria + R type bacteria ------- R type bacteria got transformed into S-type.
(b) DNA of S type bacteria + R type bacteria ------- R type bacteria got transformed into S type
RNA of R type bacteria + Living S type bacteria ---- S type bacteria got transformed into Rtype
(d) none of these
131.
Bacteriophages are composed of _______.

(a) DNA
(b) proteins
(c) RNA
(d) both a and b
132.
Identify the correct statement.

(a) Bacteria which were infected by virus with radioactive DNA, were radioactive.
(b) Bacteria which were infected by virus with radioactive protein, were radioactive.
Bacteria which were infected by virus with radioactive protein, were not radioactive.
(d) both a and c
133.
______ introduced the term cistron.

(a) Benzer
134.
(c) Wilkins
______ participates in genetic recombination during _______.

(a) muton, mitosis
(b) recon, meiosis
(c) recon, mitois
(d) Mendel
(d) cistron, meiosis
TOPIC: GENE- ITS NATURE, EXPRESSION AND REGULATION (ANSWER KEY)

1.
6.
11.
16.
21.
26.
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131.
(b)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(b)
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(b)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(c )
(b)
(d)
2. (d)
7. (d)
12. (a)
17. (a)
22. (b)
27. (b)
32. (a)
37. (c)
42. (b)
47. (a)
52. (c)
57. (d)
62. (b)
67. (d)
72. (b)
77. (b)
82. (b)
87. (d)
92. (a)
97. (a)
102. (c)
107. (b)
112. (a)
117. (b)
122. (a)
127. (d)
132. (d)
3. (b)
8. (b)
13. (b)
18. (b)
23. (a)
28. (b)
33. (c)
38. (b)
43. (c)
48. (a)
53. (d)
58. (a)
63. (a)
68. (a)
73. (a)
78. (a)
83. (d)
88. (b)
93. (c)
98. (d)
103. (a)
108. (a)
113. (b)
118. (c)
123. (b)
128. (d)
133. (a)
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9.
14.
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(c)
(d)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(d)
(a)
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(d)
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(c)
(a)
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5.
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130.
(a)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(d)
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(a)
(b)
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(d)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(b)
MH-CET 2015
ASSIGNMENT SERIES
SUBJECT
: BOTANY
STANDARD : XIIth
CHAPTER
: BIOTECHNOLOGY PROCESS AND

APPLICATION
TOPIC: BIOTECHNOLOGY PROCESS AND APPLICATION

1.
Biotechnology is an applied science which involves

(a) microbiology
(b) molecular biology (c) genetic engineering (d) all of these
2.
The recombinant DNA technique was fast proposed by

(a) Peter Lobban
(b) A. Dale Kaiser
(c) Stanley Cohen
3.
Tool is used by Stanley Cohen and Herber Boyer in rDNA technology was / were
(a) antibiotic resistance gene
(b) plasmid of Salmonella
(c) E. coli
(d) all of these
4.
Genetically engineered insulin can be obtained by

(a) recombinant DNA technique with the help of E. coli
(b) two coded insulin genes separated and then incorporated into bacteria
(c) the extraction of cows and pigs pancreas
(d) technique not developed till now
5.
The first step in recombinant DNA technolog is

(a) isolation of DNA (b) insertion of DNA
(c) joining of DNA
(d) duplication of DNA
6.
Construction of a recombinant DNA involves

(a) cleaving DNA segments with ligase and rejoining them with endonuclease
(b) cleaving and rejoining DNA segments with ligase alone
(c) cleaving and rejoining DNA segments with endonuclease alone
(d) cleaving DNA segments with endonuclease and rejoining them withligase
7.
In which bacteria, gene of insulin was cloned?

(a) E. coli
(b) Clostridium
8.
9.
10.
11.
(c) Shigella
(d) Diplococcus
The cell or organism from which the required gene is taken is called
(a) plasmid
(b) cloning vector
(c) donor
(d) vector
Recombinant DNA is also called as

(a) chimeric DNA
(b) rDNA
(c) eDNA
(d) both (A) and (B)
The chemical knives of DNA are

(a) ligases
(b) polymerases
(c) endonucleases
(d) transcriptase
A cloning vector must have

(a) enzymes necessary for replication
(c) replication origin
(b) marker DNA

(d) none of the above
12.
13.
14.
15.
Process of insertion of a viral vector is called

(a) transformation
(b) transfection
(c) transduction
(d) conjugation
Which process is used for the insertion of vectors in eukaryotic cells?

(a) transformation
(b) transfection
(c) transduction
(d) conjugation
The sequences of DNA that can transpose themselves are known as

(a) transposons
(b) jumping genes
(c) plasminogen
The first transposons were discovered in

(a) maize
(b) tomato
(d) bacteria
(c) yeast
16.
About ___________ of the total genome of maize consists of the transposons.

(a) 10%
(b) 90%
(c) 50%
(d) 35%
17.
Alu sequence is a
(a) plasmid
18.
(b) cosmid
Reverse transcription is involved in

(a) formation of cosmid
(c) formation of DNA transposons
(c) transposon
(d) phage
(b) formation of retrotransposons

(d) formation of lambda phage
19.
Which of the following is involved in development of DNA transposons?

(a) A staggered cut is made at the target site by action of transposase and sticky end is produced
(b) Transposon is cut out.
(c) Ligation of transposon in new position.
20.
What are cosmids?

(a) plasmids with fragments of E.coli
(c) plasmids with fragments of M 13 phage
(b) plasmids with fragments of lambda phage

(d) plasmids with fragments of transposon.
pBR 322 was discovered by ___________.

(a) Bolivar and Rodriguez
(c) Bohem and Rodriguez
(b) Bolivar and Ramsey

(d) Bohem and Ramsey
21.
22.
Which of the following is related to penetration?

(a) Attachment of bacteriophage to specific receptors on the surface of bacteria.
(b) Contraction of tail fibre and injection of genetic material through the bacterial membrane.
(c) Synthesis of viral DNA.
(d) Packaging of viral DNA.
23.
In bacteriophage, genetic material is enclosed by

(a) calcium carbonate covering
(b) host cell
(c) cell wall
(d) protein capsid
24.
Ghost is nothing but

(a) host cell or bacterial cell
(b) capsid protein coat that remains outside the host cell
(c) head part of bacteriophage.
(d) tail part of bacteriophage.
25.
Restriction enzymes
(a) are endonucleases which cleaves DNA at specific sites
(b) make DNA complementary to an existing DNA or RNA
(c) cut or join DNA fragments
(d) are required in vectorless direct gene transfer
26.
Restriction enzyme belong to a larger class of enzyme called

(a) retronuclease
(b) nucleases
(c) proenzyme
(d) bioenzymes
The endonucleases used in genetic engineering are

(a) type I
(b) type II
(c) type III
(d) type IV
27.
28.
Hind III is isolated from

(a) E.coli
(c) Hindustan virus
(b) Haemophilus influenza

(d) Haryana virus
29.
In genetic engineering, restriction endonuclease cuts DNA at specific regions

(a) promoter region
(b) recognition sequence
(c) sense region
(d) cloning sites
30.
Restriction endonuclease requires which of the following ions for cleavage?

(a) Na++
(b) Mg++
(d) K+
(d) H+
31.
Fragments of DNA formed after treatment with endonucleases are separated by the technique of
(a) polymerase chain reaction
(b) southern blotting
(c) colony hybridization
(d) gel electrophoresis
32.
_________is a collection of all clones of DNA fragments representing the complete genome of an
organism.
(a) cDNA library
(b) Genomic library
(c) PCR
(d) Tissue culture
33.
cDNA is the
(a) chemical DNA
(b) copy DNA
(c) complete DNA
(d) complementary DNA
34.
The process of reverse transcription was discovered by

(a) Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer
(c) Steward Linn and Werner Arber
(d) Temin and Baltimore
35.
cDNA is produced by using

(a) m-RNA
(b) t-RNA
(c) r-RNA
(d) reverse enzyme
36.
37.
38.
The enzyme used in PCR technique is

(a) Bam I
(b) Taq polymerase
(c) Hind III
(d) Eco RI
Denaturation of DNA takes place at about

(a) 60C
(b) 91C
(c) 74C
(d) 100C
For annealing, temperature required about

(a) 55C
(b) 75C
(c) 90C
(d) 25C
39.
Thermal cycling used in PCR technique nothing but

(a) raising temperature of PCR sample
(b) decreasing temperature of PCR sample
(c) alternate heating and cooling PCR sample (d) heating PCR sample to its boiling point
40.
Which of the following is correct sequence of PCR technique?

(a) Annealing, polymerisation, heat denaturation
(b) Heat denaturation, polymerisation, annealing
(c) Polymerisation, heat denaturation, annealing
(d) Heat denaturation, annealing, polymerisation
41.
Pairing of primers to the ss DNA segment is called

(a) annealing
(b) denaturation
(c) polymerisation
(d) attaching
Each cycle of PCR takes about

(a) one hour
(b) 20 to 30 minutes
(c) 10 seconds
(d) 3 to 5 minutes
Technique used in forensic sciences is

(a) DNA fingerprinting
(c) cloning
(b) tissue culture

(d) terninism
42.
43.
44.
Important objective of biotechnology in agriculture section is

(a) to produce pest resistant varieties of plant (b) to increase the nitrogen content
(c) to decrease the seed number
(d) to increase the plant weight
45.
Bt cotton is a
(a) transgenic plant
(b) mutated plant
(c) cloned plant
(d) hybrid plant
46.
Insect resistant transgenic cotton has been developed by inserting a piece of DNA from
(a) an insect
(b) wild relative of Cotton
(c) a soil bacterium
(d) a virus
47.
The gene which was used to produce insect resistant cotton plant, was taken from
(a) Anabaena azollae
(b) Agrobacteriurn tuinefaciens
(c) Bacillus anthracis
(d) Bacillus thuringiensis
48.
Toxic content of Bacillus thuringiensis is

(a) alkaloid
(b) steroid
(c) amino acid
(d) protein
49.
50.
Bt gene which produces protein toxic to insect larvae is

(a) pry
(b) cry
(c) trp
(d) crp
Ti plasmid is found in
(a) Agrobacteriurn (b) Escherichia
(d) Rhizobium
(c) Nitrosomonas
51.
Which agriculturally important bacterial gene is isolated from Rhizobium?

(a) R gene
(b) F gene
(c) Nif gene
(d) T-DNA
52.
Delay in ripening of tomato is due to

(a) virulent gene
(c) antisense PG
(b) antibiotic resistance gene

(d) PHB
53.
The transgenic plant Flavr savr tomato carries an artificial gene for
(a) delaying ripening process
(b) insect resistance
(c) added flavours
(d) both (a) and (c)
54.
A gall producing gene in Agrobacterium tumefaciens is

(a) nif gene
(b) cry gene
(c) T DNA
(d) beta gene
55.
Two bacteria found to be very useful in genetic engineering experiments are

(a) Nitrosomonas and Kiebsiella
(b) Escherichia and Agrobacterium
(c) Nitrobacter and Azotobacter
(d) Rhizobium and Diplococcus
56.
Biopiracy is related to which of the following?

(a) Bioresearches
(c) Biomolecules and genes
(b) Traditional knowledge

(d) All of these
57.
The right granted by government to an inventor to prevent other from commercially using his
invention is
(a) patent
(b) biopiracy
(c) bioethic
(d) biowar
58.
Which of the following combinations of risk are associated with genetically modified organism?
(i) contamination of gene pools of wild varieties
(ii) allergic reaction
(iii) escape of hazardous GM microbes from lab.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i),(ii),(iii)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iii)
59.
Restriction endonucleases used widely in recombinant DNA technology are obtained from
(a) plasmids
(b) bacterial cells
(c) bacteriophages
(d) all prokaryotic cells
60.
Extracted DNA + plasmid = ____________?

(a) new plasmid
(c) recombinant DNA
(b) new DNA

(d) genetically modified plasmid
61.
YAC is a
(a) virus
(c) genetic modified organism
(b) vector
(d) host cell
62.
In rDNA technology, desired gene containing bacterial colony can be identified using
(a) vectors
(b) marker
(c) stain
(d) plasmid
63.
Sticky end produced by restriction endonuclease is GAATTC then which of the following DNA
segment will form rDNA?
(a) CTAAAG
(b) GUUAAC
(c) CTTAAG
(d) CTTAAC
64.
A technique of invitro cloning is

(a) transformation
(c) transfection
(b) polymerase chain reaction

(d) transduction
Transposons are found in

(a) eukaryotes
(b) prokaryotes
(c) both (A) and (B)
________work in copy and paste manner.

(a) Vectors
(b) Retrotransposons
(c) DNA transposons
(d) Plasmids
65.
66.
67.
During construction of gene library, large DNA molecules are inserted into host by
(a) plasmids
(b) cosmids
(c) bacteriophage
68.
Which enzyme is related to lytic cycle?

(a) Endonuclease
(b) Endolysin
69.
70.
71.
(c) Polymerase
During virion assembly, the DNA is packed within

(a) tail
(b) ghost
(c) head
(d) bacteria
The length of DNA of a lambda phage is

(a) 30.8 kb
(b) 48.5 kb
(d) 40.0 kb
(c) 45.5 kb
Nuclease enzyme which begins its attack from a free end of DNA is
(a) polymerase
(b) exonuclease
(c) endonuclease
(d) kinase
72.
Which is not true about restriction endonuclease?

(a) Restriction endonuclease cuts the DNA at specific points
(b) They are used as tools for gene cloning
(c) While naming restriction endonuclease the first word indicates name of scientist who isolated it
(d) Most restriction sites are palindromes
73.
In EcoRI, E and R stands for

(a) Europe and Russia
(c) Escherichia and strain Ry 13
(b) England and Russia

(d) Escherichia and strain Rough
74.
75.
DNA segment cleaved by EcoRI is

(a) ATTCGA
(b) GAATTC
TAAGCT
CTTAAG
(c) GCTTAA
CGAATT
The sticky ends of a fragmented DNA molecule are made up of

(a) calcium salts
(b) endonuclease
(c) unpaired bases
(d) GTTCAA
CAAGTT
(d) methyl groups
76.
Restriction endonuclease cleaves the DNA molecule by hydrolyzing

(a) H-bonds
(b) phosphodiester bonds
(c) OH bonds
(d) phosphate bonds
77.
Construction of genomic library involves

(a) isolation and fragmentation of entire genome (DNA)
(b) insertion of fragments into cloning vectors
(c) transfer of recombinant vectors into suitable host
(d) all of the above
78.
During construction of cDNA library,

(a) non-coding sequences of mRNA are transcribed
(b) coding sequences of mRNA are transcribed
(c) sequences of mRNA are not transcribed
79.
Strains of Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) are being used for designing

(a) bloinsecticidal plants
(b) biomineralisation
(c) biometallurgical techniques
(d) biofertilizers
80.
Natural genetic engineer is

(a) Pseudomonas putida
(c) Escherichia coil
(b) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

(d) Bacillus subtilis
81.
Flavr savr variety of tomato is the improved variety developed through

(a) hybridisation between old varieties
(b) hybridisation between a modern variety and a wild variety
(c) mutation variety
(d) incorporation of a transgene
82.
Genetic engineering would not have been possible if which of the following were not known?
(a) DNA polymerase (b) RNA synthetase
(c) DNA ligase
(d) Reverse transcriptase
83.
Find the odd pair.

(a) Golden rice beta carotene
(c) Bt cotton cry gene
84.
(b) Flavr savr tomato polygalactouranase

(d) None of these
Common bacteria used in genetic engineering is

(a) E. coli
(b) Diplococcus
(c) Rhizobium
(d) Spirillum
85.
Restriction endonuclease is used in

(a) genetic engineering
(c) cell fractionation
(b) tissue culture

(d) regeneration of tissues
86.
Restriction endonuclease, an enzyme used in genetic engineering is employed for

(a) probing exons
(b) cutting double stranded DNA
(c) cutting single stranded DNA
(d) join strands of DNA
87.
Polymerase chain reaction is most useful in

(a) DNA synthesis (b) DNA amplification (c) protein synthesis
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
(d) amino acid synthesis
The source of Taq polymerase used in PCR is

(a) Thermophilic fungus
(c) Thermophilic bacterium
(b) Mesophilic fungus

(d) Halophilic bacterium
Crown gall disease in plants is caused by

(a) Ti-plasmid
(b) Pi-plasmid
(c) bacteria
In recombination, vector used is

(a) protein
(c) nucleic acid
(b) Agrobacteriurn tumefaciens

(d) cellulose
Genetic engineering means

(a) manipulation of cell contents
(c) manipulation of cytochromes
(b) test tube babies

(d) manipulation of genes
(d) virus
Golden rice is a transgenic crop of the future with the following improved trait
(a) High lysine (essential amino acid) content (b) Insect resistance
(c) High protein content
(d) High vitamin-A content
TOPIC: BIOTECHNOLOGY PROCESS AND APPLICATION (ANSWER KEY)

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MH-CET 2015
ASSIGNMENT SERIES
SUBJECT
: BOTANY
STANDARD : XIIth
CHAPTER
: ENHANCEMENT IN FOOD PRODUCTION
TOPIC: ENHANCEMENT IN FOOD PRODUCTION

1.
Disease resistant varieties of plants can be obtained by ___________

(a) mutation breeding (b) colchicines
(c) heat treatment
(d) none of these
2.
Objective/s of plant breeding is/are _______________

(a) improvement of quality of crops
(b) increase in yield
(c) developing varieties resistant to environmental stress
(d) all of the above.
3.
Increased vigour of a hybrid, over the parents resulting from the crossing of genetically unlike
organisms is called _______________ .
(a) mutant
(b) heterosis
(c) polyploid
(d) none of these
4.
___________ is removal of stamens from the flowers of plant chosen as female parent.
(a) emasculation
(b) selection
(c) harvesting
(d) bagging
5.
Emasculation is carried out in ____________ flowers.

(a) bisexual
(b) unisexual
(c) sterile
(d) all of these
6.
During artificial crossing, pollen are dusted on _____________ of female flower.

(a) petal
(b) fruit
(c) leaves
(d) stigma
7.
The correct sequence of steps in hybridization is ____________ .

(a) Selection, bagging, cross pollination, Emasculation
(b) Selection, emasculation, bagging, cross pollination, rebagging
(c) Selection, emasculation, cross pollination
(d) none of these
8.
Bagging is done _____________

(a) before emasculation
(c) During emasculation
(b) after emasculation

(d) before and after emasculation
9.
During hybridization, bags are retained in female plant till _____________

(a) pollination
(b) double fertilization (c) seed formation
(d) fruit formation
10.
Emasculection is not required when plant selected as female parent bears _________ flowers.
(a) Bisexual
(b) Unisexual
(c) Neuter
(d) Regular
11.
Emasculated flowers are bagged to _____________

(a) allow development of fruit
(b) to prevent self pollination
(c) to prevent pollination by poller of unwanted source
(d) none of these
12.
The female flowers are rebagged ______________

(a) after emasculation
(b) after dusting of pollen on sigma
(c) before emasculation
(d) none of these
13.
New selected lines are evaluated for their ___________

(a) productivity
(b) disease resistance
(c) quality of crop
14.
Self pollination of plants for successive generations increase _______________ .

(a) homozygosity
(b) heterozygosity
(c) segregation of characters
(d) none of these
15.
GDP stands for ______________ .

(a) Growth Development Production
(c) Green Development Project
(b) Gross Domestic Product

(d) None of these
IARI is situated at _____________ .

(a) Mumbai
(b) Pune
(c) New Delhi
16.
(d) Chennai
17.
Testing release and commercialization of new cultivars is carried out by ______________ .

(a) ICAR
(b) IARI
(c) Variety release committee
(d) None of these
18.
___________ is most common trait that was improved in commercialized crops.

(a) insect resistance (b) drought resistance (c) productivity
(d) nutritional quality
19.
Correct sequence of evaluation and release of new cultivators is ______________ .

(i) growing plants in natural fields in different agro climatic zones.
(ii) growing plants in research fields under controlled conditions.
(iii) release of improved variety under new name.
(a) (i)-(ii)-(iii)
(b) (ii)-(iii)-(i)
(c) (ii)-(i)-(iii)
(d) (ii) and (iii) only
20.
New name of improved variety is recommended by _____________ .

(a) ICAR
(b) IARI
(c) Variety release committee
(d) None of these
21.
Remarkable increase in wheat production from ________ million tones to _________ million tones
was achieved during period of 1960-2000.
(a) 11, 75
(b) 35, 89.5
(c) 5, 55
(d) None of these
22.
During period of 1960-2000, rice production increased from ________million tones to ________
million tonnes.
(a) 11, 75
(b) 25, 75
(c) 35, 89.5
(d) None of these
23.
____________ variety of wheat is used as a donor for improving cultivated wheat.

(a) Atlass 66
(b) Kalyansona
(c) Sonalika
(d) Lerma Rai 64-A
24.
Norman Borlaug developed _____________ variety of wheat.

(a) tall
(b) dwarf
(c) semi-dwarf
(d) frost resitant
____________ are improved varietis of rice and wheat respectively.

(a) Sonalika, IR8
(b) Jaya, Sonora-64
(c) Jaya, Ratna
(d) Sonalika, Kalyansona
IR-8 variety of rice is introduced in India from _______________ .

(a) Taiwan
(b) Philippines
(c) Mexico
(d) Japan
Sugar cane breeding institute is located at _____________ .

(a) Mysore
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Mumbai
(d) Ludhiana
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
IRRI stand for

(a) Indore Rice Research Institute
(c) International Rice Research Institute
(b) Indian Rice Research Institute

(d) Italian Rice Research Institute
Sonora-64 and Jaya are varieties of _____________ .

(a) rice, wheat
(b) wheat
(c) rice
30.
High yielding semi dwarf varieties of rice are ____________ .

(a) Himgiri, Sunora
(b) Jaya, Ratna
(c) Sonora-64, Lerma rojo (d)
None of these
31.
Co.421, Co.419 are improved brands of _____________ .

(a) wheat
(b) rice
(c) sugarcane
(d) wheat , rice
(d) maize
32.
___________ species of sugarcane is high yielding and with high sugar content.
(a) S. barberi
(b) S. officinarum
(c) Sharbati sonora
(d) P. sawni
33.
Grasses yielding small seeded edible grains are ______________

(a) micropropagales (b) milletes
(c) semi-dwarf
(d) None of the above
34.
Late blight of potato and black rot of crucifers are ________ and _______ diseases respectively.
(a) fungal, bacterial (b) bacterial, fungal
(c) fungal, viral
(d) viral fungal
35.
Pusa shubhra and Pusa sadabahar are varieties of ________ and ________ respectively.
(a) Chilli, Cauliflower
(b) Cauliflower, Chilli
(c) Chilli, Bhindi
(d) Cauliflower, Bhindi
36.
__________ is a wheat variety resistant to Hill bunt, leaf rust, stripe rust.
(a) Sonora 64
(b) Kalyansona
(c) Padma
(d) Himgiri
37.
_________ variety of Cauliflower is resistant to curl blight black rot.

(a) Pusa shubhra
(b) Pusa sadabahar
(c) Co-421
(d) Himgiri
38.
39.
Varieties of cotton with hairy leaves are resistant to ____________

(a) stem borers
(b) bollworms
(c) jassids
(d) None of these
Cellular totipotency is demonstrated by _____________

(a) all plant cells
(b) only gymnosperm cells (c) all eukaryotic cells
cells
(d) only bacterial
40.
Smooth leaved and nectar less cotton varieties are not infected by _____________
(a) fruit borer
(b) boll worms
(c) aphids
(d) stem borer
41.
Pusa Gaurav is a variety of ______________

(a) wheat
(b) cotton
(c) bhindi
(d) brassica
42.
Moong bean varieties resistant to yellow mosaic virus and powdery mildew are developed by
____________ .
(a) Introduction
(b) mutation breeding (c) hybridization
(d) none of these
43.
Golden rice contains genes from ____________ .

(a) Soil bacterium Erwinia
(b) Maize of daffodil plane
(c) Agrobacterium
(d) Both (a), (b)
44.
____ are millets.

(a) jowar
(b) bajra
(c) maize
(d) all of these
45.
Maize variety which is not affected by maize stem borers has following characters.
(a) low nitrogen and sugar content, high aspartic acid.
(b) low nitrogen and sugar content, high glutamic acid.
(c) low nitrogen content and high sugar-aspartic acid.
(d) high nitrogen, less aspartic acid.
46.
Pusa Gaurav is resistant to __________ .

(a) Shoot borer
(b) Aphids
47.
(c)
Stem borer
Pusa Sawni and Pusa A-4 are varieties of ____________ .

(a) Brassica
(b) Cauliflower
(c) Chilli
(d) Mosaic virus
(d) Bhindi
48.
Biofortification methods include _______________ .

(a) selective breeding
(b) Genetic modification
(c) tissue culture
(d) Both (a), (b)
49.
____________ varieties of wheat has/have contributed to green revolution in India.

(a) Sharbati sonora (b) Sonalika
(c) Kalyan sona
(d) Both (b), (c)
50.
International centre for wheat and maize improvement is in ____________ .

(a) India
(b) Philippines
(c) Mexico
(d) None of these
51.
International Rice Research Institute is in ____________ .

(a) Philippines
(b) Mexico
(c) India
(d) Thailand
52.
Semi dwarf rice varieties were developed using ____________ .

(a) IR-8
(b) IR-7
(c) Taichung Native - I (d) Both (a), (c)
53.
Lerma Rojo 64-A and safed lerma are varieties of _____________

(a) wheat
(b) rice
(c) maize
(d) sugarcane
Padma, Kanti, Jayanti, Vijaya are improved varieties of __________ .

(a) wheat
(b) rice
(c) maize
(d) jowar
54.
55.
Identify wrong statement regarding saccharum barberi.

(a) It was commonly cultivated in South India.
(b) It had poor yield.
(c) It had low sugar content.
(d) Both (b) and (c).
56.
Saccharum officinarum did not grow successfully in north India because of ____________ .
(a) Lack of irrigation
(b) Soil infertility
(c) It was susceptible to all serious crop disease (d) Both (a), (b).
57.
CO 421 and Pusa sadabahar are varieties of _____________ .

(a) sugarcane, rice
(b) maize
(c) wheat
(d) sugarcane and chilli
58.
Improved varieties of sugarcane were developed by ___________ technique.

(a) mutation
(b) hybridization
(c) introduction
(d) none of these
59.
Pusa snowball K-I is variety of cauliflower resistant to ____________ .

(a) yellow mosaic
(b) black rot
(c) leaf curl
(d) none of these
60.
Identify wrong match :(a) hybrid maize high lysine, tryptophan

(c) Atlas 66 high vitamin C content
(b) spinach enriched with iron, Ca

(d) rice five times more iron.
61.
Golden rice is engineered with genes that produce ____________ .

(a) enzymes necessary for synthesis of protein
(b) enzymes that break down starch
(c) enzymes necessary for synthesis of beta-carotene
(d) enzymes that are required for synthesis of vitamin C.
62.
____________ was the first to demonstrate totipotency.

(a) N. Borlaug
(b) Haberlandt
(c) M.S. Swaminathan (d) Maheshwari
63.
A part or tissue excised from plant for tissue culture is called _____________ .
(a) Callus
(b) Clone
(c) Explant
(d) None of these
64.
Explants used in tissue culture are ____________ .

(a) shoot meristem (b) root meristem
(c) pollen
(d) all of these
65.
The process of development of different organs from callus is called

(a) morphogenesis (b) organogenesis
(c) micropropagation
(d) both (a), (b)
66.
pH of nutrient medium in tissue culture is adjusted between _____________ .

(a) 5-5.8
(b) 2.5-4.5
(c) 6-6.8
(d) none of these
67.
Sterilization methods used is tissue culture include (a) dry sterilization (b) alcohol sterilization (c) wet sterilization
(d) all of these
Explants are sterilized using __________% sodium hypochlorite.

(a) 1
(b) 10
(c) 70
(d) none of these
68.
69.
Identify correct statement :(a) Explants are sterilized using 70% hydrogen peroxide.
(b) Explants are sterilized using 70% ethyl alcohol.
(c) Explants are sterilized using 10% sodium hypochlorite.
(d) Both (a), (c).
70.
Generally callus is made up of _____________ cells.

(a) parenchyma
(b) collenchyma
(c) sclerenchyma
(d) both (b) and (c)
Cells of callus are produced by ___________ .

(a) mitosis
(b) meiosis
(d) none of these
71.
72.
(c) karyokinesis only
Cell culture is agitated constantly at ____________ .

(a) less than 50 rpm (b) 100-250 rpm
(c) 500 rpm
(d) greater than 500 rpm
73.
Agitation of cell culture serves following purposes

(a) aeration
(b) mixing of medium
(c) prevents aggregation of cells
(d) all of these
74.
For micropropagation ____________ is used as an explant.

(a) root apical meristem
(b) shoot apical meristem
(c) pollen
(d) none of these
75.
Identify wrong match :(a) Catharanthus roseus - Vincristin

(c) Mentha piperata - Methol
(b) Daucus carota Tropane

(d) Nicotiara tabacum - Nicotine
Polyethylene glycol is used in ____________ .

(a) micropropagation
(c) Somatic hybridization
(b) embryo rescue

(d) mutation breeding
76.
77.
To produce 1 kg of meat by animal farming about ____________ kg of grains are required.

(a) 1-2
(b) 3-10
(c) 0.5
(d) none of these
78.
___________ can be grown as waste water from potato processing unit as a source of SCP.
(a) Chara
(b) Spirogyra
(c) Spirulina
(d) both (a), (b)
79.
Bacterium involved in production of SCP is _____________ .

(a) Rhizobium
(b) Methylophilus methylotropus
(c) Lactobacillus
(d) none of these
80.
___________ are commercially produced by micropropagation.

(a) Potato
(b) Banana
(c) Orchid
(d) all of these
81.
Healthy plants can be recovered from diseased by tissue culture technique using __________ as
explants.
(a) shoot apical meristem
(b) root apical meristen
(c) collenchymas
(d) none of these
82.
____________ is a process of bringing a species under human management.

(a) domestication
(b) hybridization
(c) mutation breeding (d) somatic hybridization
83.
Germ plasm collection is ____________ .

(a) Entire collection of plants/seeds having all the diverse alleles for all genes in a particular crop.
(b) Collection of seeds having alleles of desirable genes in a particular crop.
(c) Collection of plants/seeds belonging to particular area.
(d) None of these.
84.
The first step is plant breading is ___________ .

(a) Cross hybridization
(b) Evaluation and selection of parents.
(c) Selection and selfing of superior recombinants.
(d) Testing and release of cultivars.
85.
Agriculture employes more than _________% of total population in India.

(a) 80
(b) 60
(c) 90
(d) none of these
86.
Agriculture accounts for __________% of Indias GDP.

(a) 30
(b) 40
(c) 33
(d) 43
Raphanus + Brassica = _____.

(a) Pomato
(b) Raphanobrassica
(d) none of these
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
(c) Brassoraphanus
The alkaloids vincristine and vinblastine are obtained from _______.

(a) Tobacco
(b) Hibiscus
(c) Catharanthus
In MS medium, MS stands for _______.
(a) Murashige and Skoog (b) Morgan and Skoog
(d) Mentha
(c) Martin and Skoog
(d) none of these
Agar-agar is a _______.
(a) monosaccharide (b) polysaccharide
(c) disaccharide
(d) protein
SCP is the best alternative source for _____.

(a) protein
(b) carbohydrate
(c) lipids
(d) fats
92.
25 gm of Methylophilus methylotrophus can produce ____ tonnes of protein in a day.

(a) 250
(b) 25
(c) 35
(d) 15
93.
________ is not a method of plant breeding.

(a)
Selection
(b)
hybridization
(c)
totipotency
94.
SCP production is beneficial because,

(a)
it does not cause environmental pollution
(b)
it requires small area of land
(c)
it helps to meet food demands of growing population
(d)
all of these
95.
Pomato is a ________.
(a)
mutant
(b)
96.
somatic hybrid
PEG is used in somatic hybridization as _______.

(a)
osmotic retardant
(b)
antibiotic
(c)
SCP source
(c) vitamin source
(d)
mutation breeding
(d)
none of these
(d)
fusogenic agent
TOPIC: ENHANCEMENT IN FOOD PRODUCTION (ANSWER KEY)

1.
6.
11.
16.
21.
26.
31.
36.
41.
46.
51.
56.
61.
66.
71.
76.
81.
86.
91.
96.
(a)
(d)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(d)
2.
7.
12.
17.
22.
27.
32.
37.
42.
47.
52.
57.
62.
67.
72.
77.
82.
87.
92.
(d)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(b)
3.
8.
13.
18.
23.
28.
33.
38.
43.
48.
53.
58.
63.
68.
73.
78.
83.
88.
93.
(b)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(c)
4.
9.
14.
19.
24.
29.
34.
39.
44.
49.
54.
59.
64.
69.
74.
79.
84.
89.
94.
(a)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(d)
5.
10.
15.
20.
25.
30.
35.
40.
45.
50.
55.
60.
65.
70.
75.
80.
85.
90.
95.
(a)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(b)
MH-CET 2015
ASSIGNMENT SERIES
SUBJECT
: BOTANY
STANDARD : XIIth
CHAPTER
: MICROBES IN HUMAN WELFARE
TOPIC : MICROBES IN HUMAN WELFARE
1.
Which sewage treatment is called biological treatment

(a) Primary treatment
(b) Secondary treatment
(c) Tertiory treatment
(d) None of these
2.
The gas in maximum proportion in biogas is

(a) Methane
(b) Co 2
(c) H2S
(d) Hydrogen
3.
The conversion of biogas is done with the help of

(a) Bacillus
(b) Clostridium
(c) Methanobacterium (d) Pseudomonas
4.
Which sewage treatment is called chemical treatment

(c) Tertiary treatment
(d) None of these
5.
The conversion of polymers into monomers is done with the help of

(a) Anaerobic bacteria
(b) Acidogenic bacteria
(c) Methanogenic bacteria
(d) None of these
6.
The first bioherbicide was extracted from

(a) Phytophthora crassa
(c) Fusarium Sp
(b) Phytophthora palmivora

(d) Pseudomonas Sp
7.
The conversion of monomers into organic acid during biogas production is done by
(a) Anaerobic bacteria
(b) Acidogenic bacteria
(c) Methanogenic bacteria
(d) None of these
8.
Dried spores of which bacteria are used as bicontrol agents

(a) Bacillus thuringiensis
(b) Beauveria brassiana
(c) Nosema locustae
(d) Bacllus vulgaris
9.
Which structure in blue green algae is responsible for nitrogen fixation

(a) Trichome
(b) Heterocyst
(c) Apical part of the filament
(d) Whole filament
10.
Vesicular Arbuscular mycorrhiza is specialized in

(a) Nitrogen uptake
(b) Phosphorous uptake
(c) Potassium uptake
(d) All of these
11.
Which free living bacteria act as biofertilizer

(a) Rhizobium
(b) Frankia
(c) Azotobacter
(d) Bacillus
12.
Which bacteria is responsible for the nitrogen fixation in association with the root of Alnus
(a) Azotobacter
(b) Frankia
(c) Rhizobium
(d) Bacillus
13.
What is the source of Gluconic Acid

(a) Aspergillus niger (b) Rhizopus arrhizus
(c) Acetobacter aceti
What is the source of Penicillin

(a) Penicillium chrysogenum
(c) Streptomyces griseus
(b) Streptomyces erythreus

(d) Streptomyces venezuelae
What is the source of Pectinase

(a) Saccharomyces cerenisiae
(c) Rhizopus spp
(b) Sclerotiana libertine

(d) Trichoderma konigi
What is the source of Chloromycetin

(a) Streptomyces venezuelae
(c) Penicillin chrysogenum
(b) Streptomyces esythreus

(d) Streptomyces qriseus
What is the source of vitamin C

(a) Aspergillus niger
(c) Neurospora gossypii
(b) Pseudomonas denitrificans

(d) Eremothecium ashbyi
What is the source of streptomycin

(a) Streptomyces venezualae
(c) Penicillium chrysogenum
(b) Streptomyces erythreus

(d) Streptomyces griseus
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
(d) None of these
Which of the following are water soluble vitamin

(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B
(c) Vitamin C
Cheese in prepared with the help of

(a) bacteria
(b) yeast
(d) None of these
(c) both (a) and (b)
Single cell Protein refers to dead and dried cells of

(a) Bacteria
(b) Algae
(c) Fungi
(d) All of these
Mushroom belong to which class of fungus

(a) Ascomycetes
(b) Phycomycetes
(d) Deuteromycetes
(c) Basidiomycetes
23.
What is the scientific name of Paddy straw mushroom

(a) Agaricus bisporus
(b) Volvariella volvacea
(c) Pleurotus florida
(d) None of these
24.
What is the scientific name of Oyster Mushroom

(a) Agaricus bisporous
(b) Volvariella volvacea
(c) Pleurotus florida
(d) None of these
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
Which of the following is the source of citric acid

(a) Aspergillus niger (b) Rhizopus arrhizus (c) Acetobacter aceti
(d) None of these
What is the source of vitamin B2

(a) Neurospora gossypii
(c) Pseudomonas denitrificam
(b) Eremothecium ashbyl

(d) Asperqillus niger
What is the source of vitamin B12

(a) Psendomonas denitrificans
(c) Neurospora gossypii
(b) Eremothecium ashbyi

(d) Asperqillm niger
What is the source of fumaric acid

(a) Aspergillus niger
(b) Rhizopus arrhizus

(d) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
Prozoan Nosema is used to control

(a) Caterpillar
(b) Grasshopper
(c) Cornborers
(d) All of these
Fungi Buaeuveria is used to control

(a) Aphids
(b) Mealybugs
(c) Mites
(d) All of these
Secondary treatment is done till

(a) BOD comes down
(c) BOD goes up
(b) COD goes up

(d) COD goes down
Aerobic bacteria are used during

(c) Tertiary treatment

(d) Fermentation
Vinegar is made with the help of

(a) Aspergillm niger (b) Rhizopus
Which of the following is not mycoherbicide

(a) Phytophthora palmivora
(c) Fusarium SP
(b) Alternaria crassa

(d) Pseudomonas Sp
(d) None of these
Anabaena makes symbiotic association with the root of which plant.

(a) Azolla
(b) Pinus
(c) Frankia
(d) Pea
Which of the following is a distillation product

(a) Whisky
(b) Wine
(c) Beer
(d) None of these
Gibberellin hormone is extracted from

(a) Bacteria
(b) Protozoa
(c) Fungus
(d) None of these
First antibiotic was discovered by

(a) Alexander flemming
(c) yabuta and Sumuki
(b) Waksman
(d) Fijikorai
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
Which antibiotic was used to treat the World War II victims

(a) Penicillin
(b) Streptomycin
(c) Neomycin
(d) Erythromycin
Cellulase enzyme is extracted from

(a) Saccharomyees (b) Sclerotiana
(d) Trichoderma
(c) Rhizopus sp
Curd and Butter milk are made with the help of bacteria
(a) Lactobacillus
(b) Bacillus
(c) Pseudomonas
Invertase is extracted from
(a) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(c) Rhizopus sp
(b) Sclerotiana
(d) Trichoderma konigi
Lipase is extracted from

(a) Saccharomyces cerevisial
(c) Rhizopus sp
(b) Sclerotiana libertine

(d) Trichoderms konigi
(d) Clostridium
Nucleopolyhedro virus or NPV is used to control

(a) Caterpillar
(b) Moths
(c) Aphids
Which of the following is not bacterial herbicide

(a) Pseudomonas sp (b) Xanthomonas sp
(c) Agrobacterium sp
(d) Fusarium
Frankia gets associated with the root of which plant.

(a) Alnus
(b) Soyabean
(c) Gram
(c) Pea
47.
Which is the CORRECT statement.

(a) Mycorhiza helps in the absorption of water and minerals from soil.
(b) Mucorhhiza protect the young roots.
(c) Plant is heavily dependent upon mycorhhiza for its mineral requirements.
(d) All of these
48.
Which is the free living nitrogen fixing bacteria.

(a) Rhizobium
(b) Frankia
(c) Psudomonas
(d) Azotobacter
VAM is specialized in the absorption of

(a) Nitrogen
(b) Phosphorous
(c) Potassium
(d) All of these
The first antibiotic discovered was

(a) Penicillin
(b) Streptomycin
(c) Neomycin
(d) Erythromycin
49.
50.
TOPIC: MICROBES IN HUMAN WELFARE (ANSWER KEY)

1.
6.
11.
16.
21.
26.
31.
36.
41.
46.
(b)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(a)
2.
7.
12.
17.
22.
27.
32.
37.
42.
47.
(a)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(d)
3.
8.
13.
18.
23.
28.
33.
38.
43.
48.
(c)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(d)
4.
9.
14.
19.
24.
29.
34.
39.
44.
49.
(c)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(c)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(d)
(b)
5.
10.
15.
20.
25.
30.
35.
40.
45.
50.
(a)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(d)
(d)
(a)
MH-CET 2015
ASSIGNMENT SERIES
SUBJECT
: BOTANY
STANDARD : XIIth
CHAPTER
: PHOTOSYNTHESIS
TOPIC: PHOTOSYNTHESIS
1.
Which of the following is the example of chemoautotroph

(a) Rhizobium
(b) Frankia
(c) Bacillus
(d) Nitrosomonas
2.
Who first of all suggested that photosynthesis is a light dependent process

(a) Rober Hill
(b) Van Niel
(c) Arnon
(d) Calvin
3.
Who suggested that H acceptor is NADP

(a) Rober Hill
(b) Van Niel
4.
5.
6.
7.
(c) Arnon
(d) Calvin
Who proved through radioisotopic study that O2 comes from water?

(a) Van Niel
(b) Calnin
(c) Rober Hill
(d) Reuben and Kamen
Who proved that Photolysis of water take place during light reaction
(a) Robert Hill
(b) Arnon
(c) Calvin
(d) Van Niel
Dark Reaction take place in

(a) Grana
(b) Stroma
(c) Both of these
(d) None
DNA of chloroplast is called

(a) Plastid DNA
(b) Plastidome
(c) Peristromeum
(d) Plastomere
8.
The outer and inner membrane of chloroplast is collectively called

(a) Perichloroplast membrane
(b) Periplastomium
(c) Periplastid
(d) None of these
9.
ATP synthesis during Photosynthesis take place in

(a) Grana
(b) Stroma
(c) Peristromium
(d) Plastidome
10.
Photosynthetic pigments are located in the specific area of the Chloroplast which is called
(a) Grana
(b) Stroma
(c) Stromal lamella
(d) Quantosome
11.
Who proved that two pigment systems PSI and PSII are present.
(a) Arnon
(b) Hill
(c) Calvin
12.
13.
(d) Reuben and Kamen
Chlorophyll is
(a) Soluble in water
(c) Soluble in both
(b) Soluble in organic solvent

(d) Soluble in none
Which of the following is an universal pigment

(a) Chlorophyll a
(b) Chlorophyll b
(c) Chlorophyll c
(d) Chlorophyll d
14.
15.
16.
In brown algae which pigments are present

(a) Chlorophyll a and b
(c) Chlorophyll c and d
(b) Chlorophyll a and d

(d) Chlorophyll a and c
Photorespiration is
(a) Occurs in C3 plants
(c) Take place in high O2 concentration
(b) Highly wasteful process

(d) All of these.
Which cell do not have grana in chloroplast

(a) Mesophyll cell
(b) Bundle sheath cell
(c) Both
(d) None of these
17.
In CAM plants what is the source of CO2 during daytime when stomata is closed
(a) Malic Acid
(b) Aspartic Acid
(c) Pyrunic Acid
(d) Oxalo Acetic Acid
18.
What is the first stable product in C4 cycle

(a) Pyruvic Acid
(c) Oxalo Acetic Acid
(b) Malic Acid

(d) 3 Phosphoglyceric Acid
19.
In CAM plants
(a) C4 cycle occurs during night
(b) Stomata is closed during day time
(c) Acid concentration increases during night and decreases during day
(d) All of these.
20.
Kranz anatomy is absent in

(a) C3 plants
(b) C4 plants
21.
22.
23.
(c) CAM plants
(d) Both A and C
Which cycle is also known as carbon oxidation cycle

(a) C3 cycle
(b) C4 cycle
(c) Photorespiration
(d) None of these
Which enzyme is the CO2 acceptor in C4 cycle

(a) Rubisco
(b) ATP synthetase
(c) PEP carboxylase
(d) None of these
What is the first stable product of C3 cycle

(a) 3PGA
(b) Oxalo Acetic Acid
(c) Malic Acid
(d) Pyruvic Acid
24.
Malate dehydrogenase is responsible for the conversion of

(a) Malic Acid into Pyruvic Acid
(b) Malic Acid into Aspastic Acid
(c) Oxato Acetic Acid into Malic Acid
(d) None of these
25.
How much percent of CO2 is lost through photorespiration

(a) 20%
(b) 25%
(c) 30%
(d) 40%
The presence of dark reaction was first established by

(a) Calvin
(b) Blackman
(c) Mitchel
(d) Bensen
During C4 cycle Malic Acid is formed in

(a) Mesophyll Cell (b) Bundle sheath cell
(d) None of these
26.
27.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
28.
ATP synthesis during light reaction take place during passage of electron from
(a) Ferrodoxin to cytochrome b6
(b) Cytochrome b6 to cytochrome f
(c) Cytochrome f to plastocyanine
(d) Plastocyanine to pigment system I
29.
First stable product in the dark reaction in C3 plant is

(a) 3-Phosphoglyceric Acid
(b) 3-Phosphoglyceradehyde
(c) Fructose-1, 6-diphosphate
(d) Fructose-6-phosphate
30.
How many ATPs are used for the fixation of one molecule for CO2 through Calvin Cycle.
(a) 1ATP
(b) 2ATP
(c) 3ATP
(d) 4ATP
31.
Pnotorespiration take place in

(a) C3 plant
(c) CAM plants
32.
(b) C4 plant
(d) Both C3 and C4 plants
Which enzyme is present in maximum proportion in plant

(a) ATP synthetase (b) Rubisco
(c) NADP reductase
(d) Aldolase
33.
Photorespiration requires the following

(a) Ribulose diphosphate oxygenase
(b) High concentration of oxygen
(c) Chloroplast, Mitochondria and Peroxisome (d) All of these
34.
Kranz Anatomy is found in

(a) C3 plant
(b) C4 plant
35.
36.
(c) CAM Plant
Calvin cycle take palce in which cells in C4 cycle

(a) Mesophyll cell
(b) Bundle sheath cell (c) Both
The bundle sheath cells are
(a) Bigger
(c) Presence of Rubisco
(d) None of these
(d) None of these
(b) Agranal
(d) All of these
37.
Release of CO2 during photorespiration take place in

(a) Chloroplast
(b) Peroxisome
(c) Mitochondria
(d) Chloroplast and Mitochondria
38.
Dimorphic chloroplast is found in

(a) Sugar cane
(b) Maize
(c) Amaranthus
C4 cycle is also known as

(a) Calvin cycle
(c) Photosynthetic carbon oxidation cycle
(b) Hatch and slack cycle

(d) None of these
-CH3 Group is found in

(a) Chlorophyll a
(b) Chlorophyll b
(c) Chlorophyll c
(d) Chlorophyll d
Which of the following contain copper

(a) Cytochrome
(b) Plastocyanine
(c) Plastoquinone
(d) FeS protein
39.
40.
41.
(d) All of these
42.
Hydrogen Peroxide is formed in which organelle in Photorespiration

(a) Mitochondria
(b) Peroxisome
(c) Chloroplast
(d)None of these
43.
How many quantum of energy is required for the evolution of one molecule of oxygen during
photosynthesis
(a) 2 quantum
(b) 4 quantum
(c) 5 quantum
(d) 8 quantum
44.
Which of the following contain Fe

(a) Cytochrome b6 (b) Cytochrome f
(c) Ferrodoxin
(d) All of these
Which of the following contain CHO group

(a) Chlorophyll a
(b) Chlorophyll b
(c) Chlorophyll c
(d) Chlorophyll d
Fucoxanthine is present in
(a) Green Algae
(b) Brown Algae
(c) Blue Green Algae
(d) Red Algae
Phycobilins are found in

(a) Green Algae
(b) Blue Green Algae
(c) Brown Algae
(d) None of these
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
Regeneration of Ribulose diphosphate requires how many ATP

(a) 1 ATP
(b) 2 ATP
(c) 3 ATP
(d) 4 ATP
Electron carriers during non-cyclic photophosphorylation are

(a) Plastoquinone
(b) cytochrome
(c) Plastocyanine
(d) All of these
O2 is released due to
(a) Photolysis of water
(b) Reduction of CO2

(d) None of these
What are the products of light reaction

(a) ATP
(b) NADPH2
(d) None of these
Cyclic photophosphorylation lead to formation

(a) ATP
(b) NADPH
(d) None of these
Synthesis of one molecule of glucose requires

(a) 12 ATP and 12 NADPH
(c) 18 ATP and 12 NADPH
(b) 12 ATP and 18 NADPH

(d) 18 ATP and 18 NADPH
Who proposed chemiosmotic hypothesis

(a) Mitchel
(b) Arnon
(c) Hill
Which enzyme is responsible for ATP synthesis

(a) NADP reductase (b) ATP synthetase
(c) Rubisco
Phycobilins are
(a) Water soluble
(c) Soluble in both
(d) Calvin
(d) Aldolase
(b) Soluble in organic solvents

(d) None of these
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
Xanthophyll is
(a) Oxygenated carotene
(c) Accessory pigment
(b) Reduced carotenoid

Which pigment do not play a role in Photosynthesis

(a) Carotene
(b) Carotenoid
(c) Fucoxanthine
(d) Anthocyanine
What is the range of PAR

(a) 390-700 nm
(b) 390-750 nm
(c) 390-760 nm
(d) 400-700 nm
Which light is absorbed most by chlorophyll

(a) Blue and Green (b) Blue and Red
(c) Orange and Blue
(d) Blue and Yellow
Which elements are present in PSII which help in the splitting of water
(a) Fe, Mn Na
(b) Fe, Na, Mg
(c) Ca, Cl- and Mn
(d) Ca, Mn and Fe
Chlorophyll a shows maximum absorption at

(a) 680 nm
(b) 700 nm
(c) 660 nm
(d) 720 nm
Chlorophyll b absorbs maximum absorption at

(a) 680 nm
(b) 460 nm
(c) 700 nm
(d) 720 nm
Synthesis of ATP take place during

(a) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation
(b) Cyclic photophosphorylation

(d) None of these
Which phosphorylation is called Z scheme

(a) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation
(b) Cyclic photophosphorylation

(d) None of these
Which is part of reaction centre

(a) Chlorophyll a
(b) Chlorophyll b
(c) Chlorophyll a and b (d) Chlorophyll c
Who discovered photophosphorylation

(a) Hill
(b) Arnon
(c) Niel
68.
Which of the following are parts of light harvesting complexes

(a) Chlorophyll a
(b) chlorophyll b
(c) carotenoids
(d) All of these
69.
Tropical areas have higher productivity becausee they are exposed to

(a) High light intensity
(b) High temperature
(d) None of these
70.
Which of the following is an example of CAM plant

(a) Kalanchoe
(b) Sugar cane
(c) Maize
(d) Calvin
(d) Amaranthus
71.
Serine is converted into Hydroxypyruvate in which organ during photorespiration

(a) Chloroplast
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Peroxisome
(d) Both Chloroplast and Peroxisome
72.
The yield of C3 plant are less than C4 plants because

(a) CO2 saturation point is higher
(b) Photorespiration
(c) Both A and B
(d) None of these
73.
Chemiosmotic theory explains the formation of which compound due to hydrogen ion gradient
across the thylakoid membrane
(a) NADPH
(b) ATP
(d) None of these
74.
At very high light intensity

(a) Rate of photosynthesis slows down
(b) Chlorophyll gets bleached

(d) None of these
Law of limiting factor was given by

(a) Blackman
(b) Calvin
(c) Hill
75.
(d) Mitchel
76.
The present level of CO2 in the atmosphere is a limiting factor for

(a) C3 plants
(b) C4 plants
(c) CAM plants
(d) Both C3 and C4 plants
77.
Fossil fuels are the products of

(a) Plants
(c) Both Plants and Animals
78.
79.
80.
High temperature lead to

(a) Lower productivity in C3 plants
(c) Both a and b
(b) Animals
(d) None of these
(b) Higher productivity in C4 plants

(d) None of these
Which of the following acts as the antenna molecule

(a) Chlorophyll a
(b) Chlorophyll b
(c) Chlorophyll c
(d) Carotenoids
ATP synthetase is present in which part of the F0F1 particle

(a) Base
(b) Stalk
(c) Head
(d) Stalk and Head
81.
How many NADPH2 are required for the fixation of 1 molecule of Co2 during C3 Cycle
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 12
82.
How many ATPs are consumed for C4 cycle

(a) 12 ATP
(b) 18 ATP
(c) 30 ATP
(d) 20 ATP
How many NADPH2 are required for C4 cycle

(a) 12
(b) 18
(c) 30
(d) 32
83.
84.
Which are the parts of Light Harvesting Complex

(a) Carotenoids
(b) Chlorophyll a
(c) Chlorophyll b
(d) All of these
85.
Which pigment is part of reaction centre and also considered as the universal pigment?
(a) Chlorophyll a
(b) Chlorophyll b
(c) Chlorophyll c
(d) Carotenoids
86.
Photosynthesis is maximum in
(a) Red Light
(b) Green Light
(c) Blue Light
(d) Yellow Light
87.
Simultaneous application of 680nm and 700nm lead to

(a) Increase in the rate of Photosynthesis
(b) Decrease in the rate of Photosynthesis
(c) First increases and then decreases
(d) First decreases and then increases
88.
Kranz Anatomy is found in

(a) C3 Plants
(b) C4 Plants
(c) CAM Plants
(d) All Plants
Photorespiration take place in

(a) Chloroplast
(b) Peroxisome
(c) Mitochondria
(d) All of these
89.
90.
91.
Which is the most abundant enzyme in the plant

(a) PEP Carboxylase (b) Rubisco
(c) ATP Synthetase
(d) Aldolase
Plasocyanin contain which element

(a) Cu
(b) Zn
(d) Mg
(c) Mn
TOPIC: PHOTOSYNTHESIS (ANSWER KEY)

1.
6.
11.
16.
21.
26.
31.
36.
41.
46.
51.
56.
61.
66.
71.
76.
81.
86.
91.
(d)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(a)
2.
7.
12.
17.
22.
27.
32.
37.
42.
47.
52.
57.
62.
67.
72.
77.
82.
87.
(a)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(c)
(a)
3.
8.
13.
18.
23.
28.
33.
38.
43.
48.
53.
58.
63.
68.
73.
78.
83.
88.
(c)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(a)
4.
9.
14.
19.
24.
29.
34.
39.
44.
49.
54.
59.
64.
69.
74.
79.
84.
89.
(d)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(d)
(c)
(c)
(c)
(d)
(d)
(d)
5.
10.
15.
20.
25.
30.
35.
40.
45.
50.
55.
60.
65.
70.
75.
80.
85.
90.
(a)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(b)
MH-CET 2015
ASSIGNMENT SERIES
SUBJECT
: BOTANY
STANDARD : XIIth
CHAPTER
: RESPIRATION
TOPIC: RESPIRATION
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Which is the energy currency of the cell

(a) ADP
(b) ATP
(c) NADP
On hydrolysis of 1 ATP how much energy is released

(a) 6.3 k.cal
(b) 7.3 k.kal
(c) 8.3 k. cal
(d) AMP
(d) 9.3 k. cal
Synthesis of ATP in mitochondria take place n

(a) Oxysome
(c) Inner membrane of mitochondria
(b) Mitochondrial matrix

(d) In the ribosome of mitochondria
The ribosome in mitochondria is

(a) 30 S
(b) 50 S
(c) 70 S
How many Pyruvic Acid molecules are formed by glycolysis?

(a) 1 ATP
(b) 2 ATP
(c) 3 ATP
(d) 80 S
(d) 4 ATP
6.
In muscle cells of higher organisms which acid is formed during excessive exercise
(a) Pyruvic Acid
(b) Lactic Acid
(c) Acetic Acid
(d) Uric Acid
7.
Glycolysis take place in

(a) Cytoplasm
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Ribosome
(d) None of these
8.
Which compound is the connecting link between Glycolysis and Krebs cycle
(a) AcetylcoA
(b) Pyruvic Acid
(c) Oxalo Acetic Acid
(d) 3 Phosphoglyceraldehyde
9.
Which compound is the only 5-C compound in the Krebs cycle

(a) Citric Acid
(b) Oxalo Succinic Acid (c) -ketoglutaric Acid (d)Fumaric Acid
10.
How many ATPs are formed by Glycolysis

(a) 2 ATP
(b) 4 ATP
11.
(c) 6 ATP
Which lement is required in the Phosphorylation of Glucose

(a) Mg++
(b) Ca++
(c) Mn++
(d) 8 ATP
(d) Zu++
12.
How many ATPs are formed by one glucose molecule through electron transport chain?
(a) 12
(b) 20
(c) 24
(d) 34
13.
How many NADH2 are formed during Krebs cycle

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
14.
Acetyl decarboxylation lead to the formation of how many ATPs through electron transport chain.
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 12
15.
Respiration is
(a) Anabolic process (b) Catabolic process
(c) Amphibolic process (d) None of these
The value of RQ for fat is

(a) 0.7
(b) 0.9
(c) 1
(d) More than 1
The value of RQ for Carbohydrate is

(a) 0.7
(b) 0.9
(c) 1
(d) More than 1
The value of RQ for Protein is

(a) 0.7
(b) 0.9
(c) 1
(d) More than 1
Which element is part of FMN

(a) Ca
(b) Mg
(c) Fe
(d) S
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
Which is the final acceptor of electron in electron transport chain

(a) FMN
(b) Cyt b
(c) Cyt c
(d) Oxygen
Fermentation lead the formation of

(a) Lactic Acid
(b) Ethyl Alcohol
(d) None of these
(c) Acetic Acid
22.
ATP synthetase is present in which part of mitochondria

(a) Outer membrane
(b) inner membrane
(c) Mitochondrial matrix
(d) None of these
23.
How many ATPs are formed by substrate level Phosphorylasion

(a) 2ATP
(b) 4 ATP
(c) 6 ATP
(d) 8 ATP
How many NADPH2 are formed by oxidative decarboxylation

(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
How many FADH2 are formed during Krebs cycle

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
What is the net gain of ATP during Glycolysis

(a) 2 ATP
(b) 4 ATP
(d) 8 ATP
24.
25.
26.
(c) 6 ATP
27.
Decarboxylation of Pyruvic Acid to produce Acetaldehyde take place in the presence of which
element
(a) Fe
(b) Co
(c) Mn
(d) Zn
28.
How many ATPs are formed through substrate level of phosphorylation from 1 glucose molecule
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
29.
How many GTPs are formed directly through one Krebs Cycle without electron transport chain
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
30.
Which is the most preferred source of energy for most of the organisms
(a) Glucose
(b) Fructose
(c) Sucrose
(d) Amino Acid
Acetyl co A is
(a) 2C compound
(d) 5C compound
31.
(b) 3C compound
(c) 4C compound
32.
How many ATPs are formed through electron transport chain from 1NADH2?
(a) 1ATP
(b) 2ATP
(c) 3ATP
(d) 4ATP
33.
How many ATPs are formed through Electron transport chain from 1 molecule of FADH2?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
34.
First ATP during Electron transport cain is produced

(a) When electron is transferred from NADH2 and FMN.
(b) When electron is transferred from Cyt bc1 to Cyt c
(c) When electron is transferred from Cyt a to Cyt a3
(d) When electron reaches oxygen.
35.
Cytochrome contain
(a) Cu
(b) Zn
(c) Fe
(d) Mn
36.
Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of fructose 1.6 biphosphate in 3 PGAL
(a) Aldolase
(b) Phosphotriose isomerase
(c) Phosphorycral dehyde dehydrogenase
(d) Phospho gycerokinase
37.
Oxidative decarboxylation involves

(a) dehydrogenation (b) Decarboxylation
(c) Both a and b
38.
ATP generation take place during

(a) Conversion of phosphochol pyruvate into pyruvate
(b) Conversion of PGAL into 1, 3 diPGA
(c) Conversion of 3PGA nto 2 PGA
(d) Conversion of 2PGA nto PEPA
39.
2PGA is converted into PEPA by

(a) Phosphoglycromntase
(c) Phosphoglycrokinase
(d) None of these
(b) Enolase
(d) Phosphoglyceraldehyde dehydrogenase
40.
Glucose is converted into Glucose 6-Phosphate by

(a) Phosphogluco isomerase
(b) Hexokinase
(c) Phosphofructokinase
(d) Enolase
41.
How many NADH2 are formed by one molecule of Glucose by glycolysis

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
42.
Succinyl CoA is converted into succinate in the presence of

(a) Succinate dehydrogenase
(b) Thiokinase
(c) Fumarase
(d) Oxalo succinate decarboxipase
43.
The element present in cytochrome is

(a) Fe
(b) Zn
(c) Mg
(d) Mn
44.
How many ATPs are formed by one Krebss cycle through electron transport chain.
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 10
(d) 11
45.
Which enzyme take part in fermentation

(a) Maltase
(b) Amylase
46.
47.
48.
(c) Zymase
(d) Sucrase
Which microorganism is involved in Fermentation

(a) Protozon
(b) Fungi
(c) Myloplasma
(d) Algae
How many molecules of ATPs are formed through anaerobic respiration

(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
How many molecules of ATPs are formed by aerobic respiration

(a) 30 ATP
(b) 34 ATP
(c) 36 ATP
(d) 38 ATP
49.
Which is the only 4 C compound in Krebs Cycle

(a) Oxalo succinic Acid
(b) ketoglutaric Acid
(c) Isocitric Acid
(d) Fumaric Acid
50.
FADH2 is formed in which step of Krebs cycle

(a) Conversion of Isocitric Acid into Oxalosuccinic Acid
(b) Conversion of Oxalosuccinic Acid into -ketoglutaric Acid
(c) Conversion of ketoglutaric Acid into succinic acid
(d) Conversion of Succinic Acid into Fumaric Acid
51.
The value of RQ for anaerobic respiration is

(a) 0.7
(b) 0.9
(c) 1
(d)
The value of RQ for fat and protein is

(a) Less than 1
(b) 1
(c) More than 1
(d) Infinity
52.
53.
Pentose Phosphate pathway is an alternate pathway of

(a) Glycolysis
(b) Krebs cycle
(c) Electron Transport Chain
(d) Acetyl Decarboxylation
54.
How many GTP is synthesized through substrate level phosphorylation in Krebs cycle.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
55.
How many ATPs are synthesized by one molecule of FADH2

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
56.
How many ATPs are consumed in Glycolysis.

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 2
(d) 4
57.
How many NADPH2 and FADH2 are formed in Krebs cycle

(a) 1NADPH2 and 2FADH2
(b) 3NADH2 and 2 FADH2
(C) 2NADPH2 and 3 FADH2
(d) None of these
58.
How many NADPH2 are formed by Acetyl Decarboxylation from one glucose molecule.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
59.
Which cofactor is of part of Lactate Dehydrogenase.

(a) Mg
(b) Mn
(c) Zn
60.
Krebs Cycle take place in

(a) Cytoplasm
(c) Inner membrane of Mitochondria
(d) Ca
(b) Mitochondrial Matrrix

(d) None of these
TOPIC: RESPIRATION (ANSWER KEY)
Answer
1.
6.
11.
16.
21.
26.
31.
36.
41.
46.
51.
56.
(b)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(b)
2.
7.
12.
17.
22.
27.
32.
37.
42.
47.
52.
57.
(b)
(a)
(d)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(b)
3.
8.
13.
18.
23.
28.
33.
38.
43.
48.
53.
58.
(a)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(b)
4.
9.
14.
19.
24.
29.
34.
39.
44.
49.
54.
59.
(c)
(c)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(c)
5.
10.
15.
20.
25.
30.
35.
40.
45.
50.
55.
60.
(b)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(d)
(b)
(b)
MH-CET 2015
ASSIGNMENT SERIES
SUBJECT
: BOTANY
STANDARD : XIIth
CHAPTER
: REPRODUCTION IN PLANTS
TOPIC: REPRODUCTION IN PLANTS
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
Binary fission take place in

(a) Bacteria
(b) Amoeba
(c) Yeast
Budding take place in (a) Bacteria

(b) Yeast
(c) Amoeba
(d) Penicillium
Conidia is produced by
(a) Bacteria
(b) Amoeba
(c) Penicillium
(d) Phytophthora
Tuberous root is found in

(a) Solanum tuberosum
(c) Asparagus
(b) Sweet Potato

Tuber is the modification of

(a) Root
(b) Stem
(c) Leaf
Tuber is found in which plant

(a) Solanum tuberosum
(c) Sweet Potato
(b) Asparagus
(d) Dahlia
Rhizome, Bulb and Corm are modification of

(a) Root
(b) Stem
(c) Leaf
(d) None of these
Which of the following is an example of runner

(a) Cynodon
(b) Oxalis
(c) Bryophyllum
Vegetative reproduction through bud take place in

(a) Cyanadon
(b) Oxalis
(c) Bryophyllum
(d) Asparagus
10.
Micropropagation is the method adopted to produce (a) Genetically similar plants

(b) Virus free plants
(c) Many plants in short period
(d) All of these
11.
Grafting is adopted for the formation of which plant

(a) Mango
(b) Cucumber
(c) Asparagus
12.
(d) None of these
Flower is a modified
(a) Stem
(b) Leaf
(d) Solanum tuberosum
(c) Both Stem and Leaf (d) None of these
13.
14.
What is the male reproductive organ of the plant (a) Stamen

(b) Pistil
(c) Ovary
(d) Thalamus
Formation of microspores take place in the

(a) Anther
(b) Ovary
(d) Filament
(c) Stigma
15.
Which layer has the fibrous thickening which help in the dispersal of spores
(a) Epidermis
(b) Endothecium
(c) Middle layer
(d) Tapetum
16.
Which one provide nourishment to the microspores

(a) Epidermis
(b) Endothecium
(c) Middle layer
(d) Tapetum
Which layer forms sporopollenin

(a) Epidermis
(b) Endothecium
(c) Middle layer
(d) Tapetum
Tuber is a modified
(a) Root
(c) Leaf
(d) None of these
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
(b) Stem
Microspores are produced by microspore mother cell by

(a) Mitosis
(b) Meiosis
(c) Amitosis
(d) None of these
Intine is made up of
(a) Cellulose
(b) Pectin
(c) Lignin
In 60% of the angiospermic family Pollengrains are released in

(a) 1 cell stage
(b) 2 cell stage
(c) 3 cell stage
The most common ovule in angiosperms is
(a) Orthotropous ovule
(c) Camplyotropous ovule
(b) Anatropous ovule

(d) Hemitropous ovule
Which of the following is a diploid structure

(a) Antipodal cell
(b) Synergid
(c) Ova
(d) 3 cell stage
(d) Nucellus
How many antipodal cells are present in Embryosac?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Which structure form the seed coat

(a) Nucellus
(b) Integument
(c) Micropyle
(d) Chalaza
How many cells are present in egg apparatus?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Endosperm in angiosperm is
(a) Haploid
(b) Diploid
(c) Triploid
(d) None of these
28.
29.
Which one provides nutrition to the embryo.

(a) Endosperm
(c) Integument
(b) Nucellus
(d) Both Endosperm and Nucellus
Polygonum type embrosac is (a) 7 celled 7 nucleated structure

(c) 8 celled 7 nucleated structure
(b) 7 celled 8 nucleated structure

(d) None of these
30.
How many meiotic division take place during the formation of 100 seeds
(a) 25
(b) 50
(c) 75
(d) 125
31.
The development of embryo sac is

(a) Monosporic
(b) Bisporic
(c) Trisporic
(d) Terasporic
Polar cell is
(a) Uninucleated
(c) Trinucleated
(d) Tetranucleated
32.
(b) Binucleated
33.
Transfer of pollen grain from anther of one plant to the stigma of the different flower of the same
plant is called
(a) Geitonogamy
(b) Xenogamy
(c) Autogamy
(d) Allogamy
34.
Anemophilous mode of pollination requires

(a) large number of pollen grains
(c) Non sticky
(b) Light weight

(d) All of these
Pollen grain is sticky in

(a) Anemophilous plant
(c) Hydrophilous plant
(b) Entomophilous plants

(d) Malacophily
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
Pollen kit is present in the pollen grain of the plant pollinated by

(a) Air
(b) Water
(c) Insect
(d) Bird
Double fertilization lead to the formation of

(a) Diploid zygote and triploid endosperm
(c) Diploid zygote and Diploid Endosperm
(b) Triploid zygote and Diploid Endosperm

(d) Diploid zygote and Haploid Endosperm
Fasciculated roots are found in

(a) Mango
(b) Castor
(c) Dahlia
(d) Cycas
Vegetative reproduction through adventitious bud take place in

(a) Bryophyllum
(b) Kalanchoe
(c) Sedum
(d) Asparagus
Which part of the flower is meant for the receiving pollengrain

(a) Stigma
(b) Thalamus
(c) Ovary
(d) Corolla
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
Pollen tube is formed by

(a) Tube cell
(b) Generative cell
(c) Vegetative cell
(d) None of these
The movement of Pollen tube towards the embryo sac is

(a) Chemotropic
(b) Phototropic
(c) Geotropic
(d) Hydrotropic
Angiospermic ovules are

(a) Unitegmic
(b) Bitegmic
(c) Tritegmic
(d) None of these
Protogyny is found in
(a) Sunflower
(b) Michelia
(c) Castor
(d) Papaya
Which of the following is an example of self incompatible plant

(a) Orchids
(b) Castor
(c) Papaya
(d) Sunflower
Which of the following is an example of endospermic seed

(a) Castor
(b) Pea
(c) Gram
(d) Mango
Polyembryony is found in
(a) Citrus fruits
(b) Banana
(d) Rhizophora
(c) Guava
Which of the following is an example of Parthenocarpic fruit

(a) Banana
(b) Orange
(c) Mango
(d) Guava
Apomictic seeds are produced in some members of the family.

(a) Malvaceae
(b) Asteraceae
(c) Apocyanaceae
(d) Rutaceae
Helobial endosperm is found in

(a) Monocots
(b) Dicots
(d) None of these
(c) Gymnosperms
51.
In Which Ovule micropyle and Chalaza are in one line.

(a) Anatropous ovule
(b) Hemitropous ovule
(c) Camplyotropous ovule
(d) Orthotropous ovule
52.
Which structure helps in providing nutrition for the embryo sac

(a) Suspensor
(b) Endosperm
(c) Micropylar end
(d) Chalazal end
Hydrophily is found in
(a) Vallisneria
(b) Zostera
(d) All of these
53.
54.
55.
(c) Ceratophyllum
Versatile anther is found in the plants pollinated by :(a) Air

(b) Water
(c) Insect
(d) Bat
Pollination by Bat is called

(a) Anemophily
(b) Malacophily
(d) Ornithophily
(c) Chiroterophily
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
Which is the most common pollinator

(a) Air
(b) Water
(c) Insect
(d) None of these
Petalloid Bract is found in

(a) Jasmine
(b) Rose
(c) Bougainvillea
(d) None of these
Stigma is sticky in
(a) Jasmine
(c) Cestrum
(d) All of these
Bilipped corolla is found in

(a) Orchid
(b) Salvia
(c) Bougainvillea
(d) Rose
In Bignonia pollination take place through

(a) Air
(b) Water
(c) Insect
(d) Bird
(b) Rose
In Adansonia and Kigelia pollination take place through

(a) Air
(b) Water
(c) Insect
(d) Bat
When pollen tube enters through micropyle then it is called

(a) Porogamy
(b) Chalazogamy
(c) Mesogamy
(d) None of these
63.
Fertilization in which pollentube enters through the middle of the ovule is called (a) Porogamy
(b) Mesogamy
(c) Chalazogamy
(d) None of these
64.
Chalazogamy take place in

(a) Sunflower
(b) Casuarina
(c) Cucurbita
(d) None of these
Porogamy take place in

(a) Lily
(b) Cucurbita
(c) Sunflower
(d) Casuarina
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
Which of the following is an example of Nonendospermic seed

(a) Maize
(b) Rice
(c) Castor
(d) Pea
Epihydrophily take place in

(a) Vallisnaria
(b) Zostera
(c) Ceratophyllum
(d) Lotus
Polyembryony is found in
(a) Citrus
(b) Mango
(c) Opuntia
(d) All of these
Prepotency is observed in which plant.

(a) Apple
(b) Pear
(c) Maize
(d) Sunflower
Gynostegium is found in
(a) Calotropis
(b) Sunflower
(c) Salvia
(d) Primula
TOPIC: REPRODUCTION IN PLANTS (ANSWER KEY)

1.
6.
11.
16.
21.
26.
31.
36.
41.
46.
51.
56.
61.
66.
(d)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(c)
(d)
(d)
2.
7.
12.
17.
22.
27.
32.
37.
42.
47.
52.
57.
62.
67.
(b)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(a)
3.
8.
13.
18.
23.
28.
33.
38.
43.
48.
53.
58.
63.
68.
(c)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(d)
4.
9.
14.
19.
24.
29.
34.
39.
44.
49.
54.
59.
64.
69.
(a)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(b)
5.
10.
15.
20.
25.
30.
35.
40.
45.
50.
55.
60.
65.
70.
(b)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(a)
MH-CET 2015
ASSIGNMENT SERIES
SUBJECT
: BOTANY
STANDARD : XIIth
CHAPTER
: ORGANISMS AND ENVIRONMENT - I
TOPIC : ORGANISMS AND ENVIRONMENT - I
1.
___________ is a functional unit of nature, where organisms interact with each other and their
surroundings.
(a) Environment
(b) Ecosystem
(c) Zonation
(d) Stratification
2.
The place where a particular organism lives is called ___________.

(a) factors
(b) niche
(c) habitat
(d) environment
3.
The physical space occupied by the organism is called __________.

(a) spatial niche
(b) trophic niche
(c) multidimensional niche
(d) none of these
4.
Position of the organism in the environmental gradients is called __________.

(a) habitat
(b) spatial niche
(c) trophic niche
(d) hyper-volume niche
5.
Herbivores and carnivores are ______________.

(a) micro-consumers (b) macro-consumers
(c) abiotic components (d) artificial components
6.
The micro-consumers are commonly called ___________ .

(a) decomposers
(b) herbivores
(c) carnivores
(d) omnivores
7.
Zonation is _______________.
(a) a spatial pattern which occurs vertically
(b) a spatial pattern which occurs transversely
(c) a spatial pattern which occurs horizontally along the ground
(d) a spatial pattern which occurs linearly.
8.
The spatial pattern which occurs vertically, determined by height of organisms is called ________.
(a) spatial niche
(b) zonation
(c) stratification
(d) net productivity
9.
In a forest community stratification takes place when _________.

(a) density and distribution of species vary along a horizontal gradient
(b) density and distribution of species vary along a vertical gradient
(c) trees of different species grow to different heights
(d) trees of different species grow with same heights
10.
The amount of organic matter (biomass) accumulated in any unit time is called __________.
(a) structure of an ecosystem
(b) function of an ecosystem
(c) spatial pattern of an ecosystem
(d) productivity of an ecosystem
11.
The rate at which the solar energy is converted and stored by the producers is called _________.
(a) primary productivity
(b) secondary productivity
(c) tertiary productivity
(d) net productivity
12.
The total rate of photosynthesis including the organic matter used up in respiration during definite
period is known as _______________.
(a) gross primary productivity
(b) net primary productivity
(c) secondary productivity
13.
Which of the following is estimated in either chlorophyll content or photosynthetic number?

(a) Net primary productivity
(b) Gross primary productivity
(c) Secondary productivity
(d) Net productivity
14.
The balance between photosynthesis and respiration and other plant losses as death is referred
as _________.
(a) Gross primary productivity
(b) Secondary productivity
(c) Net primary productivity
(d) Net productivity
15.
The rate of storage of organic matter not used by consumers is termed as (a) Gross primary productivity
(b) Net secondary productivity
(c) Net productivity
(d) Secondary productivity
16.
Net productivity is expressed as __________.

(a) Production of Chl/g dry wt/unit area
(c) Production of C g/m2/day
(b) CO2 fixed/g chl/hour

(d) O2 fixed/ g chl/hour
Detritus food chain starts from _________.

(a) dead organic matter
(c) zooplanktons
(b) green plants

17.
18.
Water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil horizon and get precipitated as salts, this
process is called _____________.
(a) mineralization
(b) humification
(c) leaching
(d) fragmentation
19.
Formation of humus by the process of decomposition is called _________.

(a) fragmentation
(b) humification
(c) mineralization
(d) leaching
20.
In forest ecosystem, pyramid of number is ___________.

(a) upright
(b) inverted
(c) both upright and inverted
(d) either upright or inverted
21.
In a food chain, the total amount of living material is depicted by ____________.

(a) pyramid of biomass
(b) pyramid of energy
(c) pyramid of zonation
(d) trophic levels
22.
Inverted pyramid of ___________ is observed in sea.

(a) numbers
(b) biomass
(c) energy
(d) productivity
23.
In an ecological energetic, we study __________.

(a) quantity of solar energy reaching to the ecosystem
(b) quantity of energy used by green plants for photosynthesis.
(c) quantity and path of energy flow from producers to consumers.
24.
_____________ of sunlight reaches to the earths surface.

(a) 34%
(b) 56%
(c) 10%
(d) 0.02%
____________ of sunlight is used for photosynthesis.

(a) 0.02%
(b) 2%
(c) 4%
(d) 10%
25.
26.
Which of the following factors are important while understanding the process of energy flow?
(i) The efficiency of producers in absorption and conversion of solar energy
(ii) Use of converted solar energy by consumers.
(iii) The total input of energy in form of food and its efficiency of assimilation.
(iv) The loss of energy through respiration, heat and excretion.
(v) The gross net production
(a) (ii) and (iv) are important
(c) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) are important
(b) (i), (iii) and (v) are important

(d) (iv) and (v) are important
27.
Out of the total quantity of global carbon, ____________ is found dissolved in oceans.
(a) 35%
(b) 49%
(c) 71%
(d) 50%
28.
Carbon dioxide dissolves readily in water and precipitates to form __________.

(a) calcium sulphate (b) calcium phosphate (c) calcium nitrate
(d) calcium carbonate
29.
The fossil fuels can be ___________ and __________ in future for releasing CO2 in the atmosphere.
(a) mined, burned
(b) fragmented, leached
(c) leached, mineralized
(d) burned, mineralized
30.
A biogeochemical cycle without an atmospheric component is __________.

(a) carbon cycle
(b) phosphorus cycle
(c) nitrogen cycle
(d) sulphur cycle
31.
Overabundance of phosphorous in coastal areas and at the mouth of rivers causing overgrowth of
algae which results in the depletion of oxygen and killing of aquatic life is called ___________.
(a) mineralization
(b) eutrophication
(c) leaching
(d) humification
32.
The sum total of all the population in a given habitat is called ___________.
(a) community
(b) ecosystem
(c) biological interactions
(d) adaptations
33.
Secondary succession starts in an area ___________.

(a) where no living organisms ever existed
(b) which has lost all the living organisms once existed.
(c) where only one species of organism existed
(d) where human beings live
34.
Pioneers are _________.

(a) organisms of first seral stage
(c) organisms of third seral stage
(b) organisms of second seral stage

(d) organisms of fourth seral stage
35.
The amount of __________ determines the pattern of ecological succession in the given area.
(a) soil
(b) water
(c) trees
(d) minerals
36.
Xerarch succession is observed in ___________.

(a) desert areas
(b) terrestrial areas
(c) aquatic areas
37.
Ecological services include ___________.

(a) CO2 fixation, release of O2, pollination
(b) O2 fixation, release of CO2, fertilization
(c) nitrogen fixation, release of NH3, syngamy
(d) phosphorous fixation, release of phosphate, transformation.
38.
Which gaseous element takes part in ozone layer formation?

(a) Hydrogen
(b) Carbon
(c) Oxygen
(d) marshy areas
(d) Nitrogen
39.
When pesticides are applied to protect crop plants from pests and diseases, only about ________ of
the spray preparation hits the target.
(a) 20%
(b) 10%
(c) 15%
(d) 25%
40.
According to the report presented by Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of United Nations,
__________ is the chief medium for infiltration of pesticides to ground water
(a) soil
(b) water
(c) air
(d) plants
41.
Which common pesticide is found in ground water samples?

(a) Endosulfan
(b) DDT
(c) Urea
(d) BHA
Deposition of pesticides in fatty tissues of the host is called ?

(a) bioaccumulation (b) leaching
(c) biomagnification
(d) eutrophication
42.
43.
Increase in the concentration of pesticides in higher trophic levels is called ___________.

(a) recycling
(b) biodegradation
(c) eutrophication
(d) biomagnification
44.
The volume of the solid wastes is reduced by ___________.

(a) decomposing it in farms
(b) releasing it in water
(c) burning it on the dumping grounds
(d) throwing it in forest areas
45.
__________ were adopted as a substitute to dumping grounds.

(a) Farms
(b) Water bodies
(c) Industrial areas
46.
(d) Sanitary landfills
Polyblend is ___________.
(a) a type of rubber
(b) a type of cement
(c) a fine powder of recycled and modified plastic
(d) an artificial fibre
47.
Which gases other than CO2, can absorb infrared radiations reflected from earths surface?
(a) Methane
(b) Nitrogen oxides
(c) Chlorofluorocarbon (d) All of the above
48.
The heating-up of earths atmosphere due to trapped infrared rays reflected from earths surface by
atmospheric gases is called ___________.
(a) green house effect
(b) pollution
(c) bioconcentration
(d) respiration
49.
50% of atmospheres temperature is increased by ___________.

(a) CO2
(b) CFCs
(c) CH4
(d) NH3
50.
A/An ___________ treaty was signed in 1987 to control the emission of ozone depleting substances,
mainly CFCs.
(a) Earth summit
(b) African environment
(c) Montreal protocol
(d) Indian forest
51.
The permanent removal, decrease or deterioration of forests and woodlands is called ___________.
(a) deforestation
(b) afforestation
(c) reforestation
(d) forestation
52.
Slash and burn agriculture is commonly called as ___________.

(a) tissue culture cultivation
(b) plant breeding cultivation
(c) forest cultivation
(d) Jhum cultivation
53.
Conservation and management of forest can be done by ___________.

(i) effective control of wild fire using suitable measures
(ii) regulating grazing of animals in forest lands
(iii) adopting reforestation and afforestation programmes.
(iv) educating people about hazards of deforestation.
(a) only (i) and (ii) are applicable
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are applicable
54.
(b) only (iii) and (iv) are applicable

(d) only (iv) is applicable
Restoring a forest that once existed is called ___________.

(a) afforestation
(b) reforestation
(c) deforestation
(d) agroforestation
55.
Plantation of trees in barren and unexploited land to improve environment is known as __________.
(a) reforestation
(b) deforestation
(c) afforestation
(d) agroforestation
56.
Every year ____________ is observed as the World Environment Day.

(a) 24th December
(b) 6th June
(c) 5th June
57.
(d) 1 st January
The Government of India has introduced the concept of ___________ to work closely and effectively
with local communities for protecting forests.
(a) Group Forest Management (GFM)
(b) Joint Forest Management (JFM)
(c) Communities Forest Management (CFM) (d) People Forest Management (PFM)
58.
The trophic niche is ___________.

(a) the physical space occupied by the organism
(b) the trophic position of the organism and its functional role
(c) the position of the organism in the environmental gradients
(d) the functional role of an organism in the environment.
59.
Density and distribution of species vary along ___________.

(a) concentration gradient
(b) horizontal gradient
(c) vertical gradient
(d) none of these
60.
In an ecosystem, there is flow of energy at different trophic levels. This is as follows ___________.
(a) Primary consumers-Secondary consumers Decomposers-Producers
(b) Producers- Primary consumers- Secondary consumers- Tertiary consumers- Decomposers
(c) Producers- Decomposers- Primary consumers- Tertiary consumers- Secondary consumers
(d) Producers- Primary consumers- Tertiary consumers- Secondary consumers- Decomposers
61.
Growth of lichens on the rocks and growth of mosses followed by herbs, shrubs and trees is
considered as ___________.
(a) primary succession
(b) secondary succession
(c) hydrarch succession
(d) xerarch succession
62.
Spatial means ___________.

(a) related with space
(c) related with plants
(b) related with time

(d) related with animals
63.
The ecological niche of an organism helps to understand ___________.

(a) how it transforms energy, behaves, responds to and modifies its physical and biotic
environment.
(b) the differences between the species at same physical place.
(c) the differences between species at more than one location.
64.
Which of the following is a man made artificial ecosystem?

(a) Grassland ecosystem
(b) Agro-ecosystem
(c) Pond and river
(d) Forest ecosystem
65.
Idea of productivity of an ecosystem is based on (a) pyramid of number

(b) pyramid of biomass
(c) height of the plant
(d) development of foliage
66.
The pyramid of number and the pyramid of biomass represent ___________.

(a) the rate of energy loss
(b) the rate of food production
(c) the rate of respiration
(d) relationship among organisms
67.
The pyramid of energy is the best representation of an ecosystem because it indicates ___________.
(a) number of all plants and animals
(b) total energy present in an ecosystem
(c) the rate of energy flow through the food chain
(d) none of these
68.
The transfer of energy from one organism to another in a natural community establishes _________.
(a) food chains
(b) biological control
(c) natural barriers
(d) all the above
69.
A food chain starts with the phenomenon of ___________.

(a) nitrogen fixation (b) photosynthesis
(c) respiration
(d) decomposition
The trophic level of lion in a forest ecosystem is ___________.

(a) T3
(b) T4
(c) T3
(d) T1
Guano birds assist the cycling of ___________.

(a) nitrogen
(b) phosphorous
(c) carbon
(d) N2 and carbon both
70.
71.
72.
Ecological succession is the ___________.

(a) sudden change in the species composition of a given area.
(b) gradual change in the species composition of a given area.
(c) sudden change in the habitat of a particular species.
(d) gradual change in the habitat of a particular species.
73.
Which of the following statements are correct about ecological succession?

(i) Primary succession is very slow process.
(ii) Secondary succession is faster process than primary succession.
(iii) Primary succession is very fast process.
(iv) Secondary succession is very slow process.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(b) (iii) and (iv) are correct

(d) (ii) and (iii) are correct
74.
Bioaccumulation causes due to non-biodegradable substance called (a) organo chlorine pesticides
(b) organo phosphate insecticides
(c) plants and animals in ecosystem with abundant resources
(d) photography
75.
Which citizen role is important from the following in case of waste management ?
(a) Categorization of waste into bio-degradable, non-biodegradable and recyclable waste.
(b) Every independent house or condominium of apartments should have a pit for domestic wastes
(c) Every citizen should try to reduce garbage generation and minimize the use of nonbiodegradable products.
76.
Which of the following enhances bitumens water repellent properties?

(a) Polyblend
(b) Plastic
(c) Rayon
(d) Endosulfan
77.
What is a green house ?

(a) a glass house used for growing plants during summer
(b) a glass house used for growing plants during winter
(c) a metal house used for growing plants during winter
(d) a metal house used for growing plants during summer
78.
Find the odd statement about global warming ___________.

(a) Increased CO2 concentration has led to global warming.
(b) Industrialization and deforestation are the major factors responsible for global warming.
(c) Global warming has helped in generation of electricity.
(d) Global warming has caused melting of glaciers and flooding of low lying coastal areas.
79.
The following statements about deforestation are true except ___________.

(a) deforestation has caused extinction of species and soil erosion.
(b) deforestation has led to the development of suitable environment
(c) deforestation has caused shrinking of fuel wood and shortage of timber
(d) deforestation has increased the incidents of landslides.
80.
Which of the following process helps in nutrient conservation?

(a) Mineralization
(b) Immobilization
(c) Leaching
(d) Nitrification
81.
What is the fate of carbon present in plants and animals?

(a) Carbon can be liberated to the atmosphere through respiration
(b) When an animal or a plant dies, carbon can be released to the atmosphere through action of
decomposers.
(c) When dead animals or plants get buried, the carbon present in them ultimately transforms to
fossil fuels.
(d) All of the above.
82.
The term niche of a species refers to ___________.

(a) specific and habitual function
(b) specific place where an organism lives and its functional role in the community
(c) competitive power of an organism
(d) specific function of an organism
83.
Humus is important for plant growth because ___________.

(a) it is partially decomposed
(b) it is derived from leaves
(c) it is rich in nutrients and increases the water holding capacity of soil.
(d) it is made up of dead organic matter
84.
The pyramid of number is based on ___________.

(a) unit per area
(b) food per individual
(c) individuals in trophic level
(d) none of these
85.
Driving force of an ecosystem is ___________.

(a) producer
(b) carbohydrates in plants
(c) biomass
(d) solar energy
86.
Food levels in an ecosystem are called ___________.

(a) trophic levels
(b) consumer levels
(c) producer levels
(d) herbivore levels
87.
The branch of biology that deals with the study of interaction between organisms and environment is
called _________ .
(a) physiology
(b) morphology
(c) ecology
(d) ecosystem
88.
Humus is an example of __________.

(a) inorganic matter (b) organic matter
(c) soil structure
(d) crystalloids
89.
The role of an organism in the ecological system is known as ___________ .

(a) habitat
(b) niche
(c) biome
(d) interaction
90.
Which of the following is an abiotic component of an ecosystem?

(a) Water
(b) Algae
(c) Bacteria
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
(d) Fungi
Biotic components include __________ .

(a) only producers
(c) only producers and consumers
(b) only consumers

(d) producers, consumers and decomposers
The term niche was first used by _______ .

(a) Krebs
(b) Tansley
(c) Grinnel
The term niche means __________ .

(a) habitat of an organism
(c) interaction among organisms
(b) functional role of an organism

(d) habitat and functional role of an organism
Which of the following utilizes inorganic materials?

(a) Autotrophs
(b) Decomposers
(c) Saprophytes
Climax community is _________ .
(a) unstable community
(c) intermediate community
(d) Clements
(d) Heterotrophs
(b) stable community

(d) initial community
Primary succession on rocks starts with ___________ .

(a) herbs
(b) shrubs
(c) trees
(d) lichens
97.
In hydrosere, the submerged stage is followed by ________ .

(a) free floating plants
(b) rooted hydrophytes
(c) trees
(d) sedges and grasses
98.
A community that starts the process of succession in a habitat is called __________ .

(a) abiotic community
(b) biotic community
(c) pioneer community
(d) climax community
99.
Which of the following are pioneers of primary succession?

(a) Mosses
(b) Trees
(c) Shrubs
100.
(d) Lichens
Which of the following are plant decomposers?

(a) Monera and Fungi
(b) Fungi and Plantae
(c) Protista and Animalia
(d) Monera and Animalia
101.
Primary source of energy in an ecosystem is _________ .

(a) glucose stored in plants
(b) solar energy
(c) energy from respiration
(d) energy from fermentation
102.
The most stable ecosystem is ______________.

(a) desert
(b) occan
(c) mountain
(d) forest
Pyramid of energy in a pond ecosystem is always _____________.

(a) upright
(b) inverted
(c) linear
(d) none of these
103.
104.
In an upright pyramid of biomass, the herbivores occupy the ___________ position.

(a) 1 st
(b) 2 nd
(c) 3rd
(d) 4th
105.
Total amount of living material at the various trophic levels of a food chain is depicted by pyramids
of __________ .
(a) number
(b) energy
(c) biomass
(d) all of these
106.
Green house effect is due to ________ .

(a) CFCs
(b) O3
(c) gases that check reflected infra-red radiations to pass through
(d) all of these
107.
The food chain in which microorganisms break down the energy rich compounds is called _______.
(a) parasitic food chain
(b) detritus food chain
(c) humification
(d) mineralization
108.
The niche of the population is the ___________ .

(a) place where it lives
(b) geographical area that it covers
(c) set of conditions that interacts
(d) geographical area and resources it uses
109.
An ecological pyramid of biomass represents _____________ .

(a) population in each food web
(b) tissue organization at each trophic level
(c) energy flow through each trophic level
(d) all of these
110.
In an ecosystem, bacteria are considered as ___________ .

(a) microconsumers (b) macroconsumers
(c) primary consumers (d) secondary consumers
111.
Inverted pyramid of biomass can be traced in one of the following ecosystems _________.
(a) rain forest
(b) desert
(c) ocean
(d) tundra
112.
Phytoplanktons of a pond ecosystem act as ___________ .

(a) producers
(b) primary consumers (c) decomposers
113.
This is an inverted pyramid __________ .

(a) pyramid of number in a grass land
(c) pyramid of biomass in a grass land
(d) secondary consumers
(b) pyramid of energy in pond system

(d) pyramid of biomass in pond system
114.
115.
116.
Green plants constitute ______________ .

(a) 1 st trophic level (b) 2 nd trophic level
(c) 3rd trophic level
(d) 4th trophic level
A lake ecosystem is ___________ .

(a) artificial
(b) abiotic
(c) natural
(d) hydrological
Ecological pyramids are of ____________ .

(a) two types
(b) three types
(c) four types
(d) five types
117.
If there was no CO2 in the earths atmosphere, the temperature of earths surface would be ______ .
(a) same as present (b) less than present
(c) more as present
(d) none of these
118.
If we completely remove decomposers from an ecosystem its functioning will be adversely affected
because ________ .
(a) energy flow will be blocked
(b) herbivores will not receive solar energy
(c) mineral movement will be blocked
(d) the rate of decomposition will be high
119.
Which of the following ecosystems has the highest gross primary productivity?
(a) Grassland
(b) Coral reef
(c) Mangrooves
(d) Tropical rain forest
120.
In any food chain, the largest population is that of _____________ .

(a) primary consumers
(b) tertiary consumers
(c) producers
(d) decomposers
121.
Deforestation has an alarming effect on ____________ .

(a) soil erosion
(b) weed control
(c) sunlight
(d) increase in grazing area
122.
Which one of the following is not a functional unit of an ecosystem?

(a) Productivity
(b) Stratification
(c) Energy flow
(d) Decomposition
123.
Which one of the following is not a gaseous biogeochemical cycle in ecosystem?

(a) Nitrogen cycle
(b) Sulphur cycle
(c) Carbon cycle
(d) Phosphorous cycle
124.
Identfy the possible link A in the following food chain :

Plant Insect Frog A Eagle
(a) Cobra
(b) Parrot
(c) Rabbit
(d) Wolf
125.
The type of ecosystem with the highest mean plant productivity is ________ .
(a) temperate grassland
(b) tropical rain forest
(c) desert
(d) tundra
126.
The final stable community in ecological succession is __________ .

(a) climax
(b) sere
(c) pioneers
(d) carnivores
127.
Trophic levels in ecosystem are formed by ___________ .

(a) only herbivores
(b) only plants
(c) only bacteria
(d) organisms linked in food chain
128.
Which of the following is not a producer?

(a) Spirogyra
(b) Agaricus
(c) Volvox
(d) Nostoc
129.
During the process of ecological succession, the changes that take place in communities are ______.
(a) orderly and sequential
(b) random
(c) very quick
(d) not influenced by environment
130.
Edaphic factor refers to _________ .

(a) water
(b) soil
131.
(c) relative humidity
(d) altitude
Which of the following is an ecosystem service provided by a natural ecosystem?

(a) Cycling of nutrients
(b) Prevention of soil erosion
(c) Pollutant absorption and reduction of the threat of global warming
TOPIC: ORGANISMS AND ENVIRONMENT I (ANSWER KEY)

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MH-CET 2015
ASSIGNMENT SERIES
SUBJECT
: Zoology
STANDARD : XIIth
CHAPTER
: ORIGIN AND EVOLUTION OF LIFE
TOPIC: ORIGIN AND EVOLUTION OF LIFE
1.
According to scientists, the Big Bang occurred approximately ___________ years ago.
(a) 100 million
(b) 100 thousand
(c) 1 billion
(d) 15 billion
2.
The earth is presumed to have originated about __________ ago.

(a) 4.0 billion years (b) 4.6 billion years
(c) 3.0 billion years
(d) 3.5 billion years
The origin of life on the earth is also called

(a) biogenesis
(b) abiogenesis
(c) protobiogenesis
(d) autobiogenesis
Panspermia theory was given by

(a) Von - Helmont (b) Richter
(c) Louis Pasteur
(d) Aristotle
The theory of panspermia is also called

(a) cosmozoic theory
(c) theory of biogenesis
(b) theory of catastrophism

(d) naturalistic theory
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
Demonstration of self assembly was provided by

(a) Redi
(b) Schmitt
(c) Miller
(d) M. Calvin
Reed demonstrated a intermacromolecular molecules.

(a) protein
(b) lipids
(c) carbohydrate
(d) nucleic acid
8.
The accepted model of protobiogenesis suggests that the information in the first organism flowed
from
(a) amino acid to protein
(b) protein to amino acid
(c) nucleic acid to protein
(d) vitamin to protein
9.
Molecular evolution was formulated by

(a) Haeckel
(c) Fox and Mccauley
10.
(b) Oparin and Haldane

(d) Lehninger
When earth got broken from the sun, it appeared as

(a) a glowing fire and rotating cloud of hot gases
(b) vapours of various elements
(c) pieces of rocks and metals
11.
What led to the formation of rivers, lakes, seas and oceans?

(a) Decrease in earths temperature
(b) Condensatin of stam into water and formation of rain
(c) Accumulation of water
(d) All of the above.
12.
Proteins which showed enzymatic reaction were called as

(a) protoproteins
(b) nucleosides
(c) coacervates
(d) polymer
13.
What lead to the formation of chromophores?

(a) Depletion of food due to growth and multiplication of heterotrophs
(b) Increase in CO2 due to fermentation
(c) Mutation
14.
Which event helped in transformation of heterotrophs to autotrophs ?

(a) Ability of chromophores to trap light and convert it to chemical energy.
(b) Ability of chromophores to cause mutation
(c) Ability of chromophores to cause fermentation
(d) Ability of chromophore to convert chemical energy to light energy.
15.
The nucleic acid along with inorganic and organic molecules formed the first form of life called
(a) prokaryotes
(b) protenoids
(c) protobionts
(d) chemoautotrophs
16.
Sydney Fox heated the amino acids which polymerized into protein like droplets called
(a) microspheres
(b) protenoids
(c) coacervates
(d) amino acids
17.
According to Oparin and Fox, which biomolecules are said to be the fore runners of the first form of
life on earth?
(a) Coacervates
(b) Microspheres
(d) Eubionts
18.
Urey and Millers spark discharge apparatus is a closed system of glass except
(a) water boiling flask
(b) tungsten electrodes
(c) vaccum pump
(d) cooling jacket
19.
What inference was made based on Urey-Millers experiment?

(a) Nucleotides and amino acids were building blocks of first living organism.
(b) Synthesis of first protein was on-enzymatic.
(d) Synthesis of sugar was non-enzymatic.
20.
The book Theory of Origin of Species by natural selection was postulated by

(a) Charles Darwin
(b) Chevalier de Lamarck
(c) Hugo de Vries
(d) Alfred Russel Wallace
21.
Population tends to increase in

(a) arithmetic proportion
(c) biological proportion
(b) geometrical proportion

(d) statistical proportion
22.
Variations are the differences between individuals of the

(a) different species (b) same species
(c) different genus
(d) same genus
23.
The objection in mutation theory of Hugo de Vries was

(a) Organic evolution is a result of mutation
(b) Observations, regarding variation made by Hugo de Vries were actually due to chromosomal
aberration
(c) Favourable condition leads to variation
24.
The basic concept of Modern synthetic theory is based on

(a) Charles Darwins book Origin of Species
(b) Haldanes book Chemical evolution of life
(c) Dobzhanskys book Genetics and the Origin of Species
(d) Hugo de Vries book Mutation theory
25.
A group of similar individuals interbreeding among themselves occupying a geographical area is

called
(a) genetic population
(b) Mendelian population
(c) gene pool
26.
The proportion of an allele in the gene pool as compared with other alleles at the same locus is called
(a) gene frequency (b) genetic population (c) gene pool
(d) gene variation
27.
The change in gene and gene frequencies is called

(a) genetic population
(b) gene pool
(c) genetic constitution
(d) genetic variation
28.
Transfer of genes between population that differ genetically from one another is called
(a) gene frequency (b) gene flow
(c) gene pool
(d) gene mutation
29.
Genetic drift is a change of

(a) gene frequency in same generation
(b) appearance of recessive genes
(c) gene frequency from one generation to another
(d) appearance of only dominant genes
30.
The genetic drift is also called as

(a) Sewall Wright effect
(c) Julian Huxley effect
(b) G.G. Simpson effect

(d) Hardy Weinberg effect
Isolation results in
(a) migration of species
(c) reproductive isolation
(b) change in gene pool

31.
32.
When an original population is separated into two or more groups by environmental factors such as
river, mountain, ocean, forest is called
(a) geographical isolation
(b) reproductive isolation
(c) habitat isolation
(d) ethological isolation
33.
Organisms living in the same region but occupy different habitat is called
(a) seasonal isolation
(b) habitat isolation
(c) ethological isolation
(d) mechanical isolation
34.
In seasonal isolation
(a) members of a population attain sexual maturity at different times
(b) members of a population occupy different habitat
(c) members of two population have different mating behaviours
(d) members of two population have differences in the structure of their reproductive organs.
35.
Members of two population having differences in the structure of their reproductive organs is called
(a) mechanical isolation
(b) reproductive isolation
(c) geographical isolation
(d) ethological isolation
36.
The mechanism of post-mating in which, sperm transfer takes place but egg is not fertilized is
referred as
(a) hybrid sterility
(b) hybrid mortality
(c) gamete mortality (d) zygote mortality
37.
A post-mating mechanism, in which the hybrids formed are sterile is called

(a) gamete mortality (b) zygote mortality
(c) hybrid mortality
(d) hybrid sterility
38.
Actual remains are

(a) generally formed in the deep oceans
(b) the hard parts of body or entire body of dead organisms surrounded by minerals forming the part
of stones.
(c) the entire body or part of the body of dead organism which get incorporated in the ice
39.
A form of fossil in which, an impression of the body parts left on the soft mud of the oceanic floor is
called
(a) actual remains
(b) moulds
(c) casts
(d) mud fossil
40.
Which concept is supported by the palaeontological evidence?

(a) Spontaneous creation
(b) Darwinism
(c) Organic evolution
(d) Natural creation
41.
Seymouria is a connecting link between

(a) amphibians and reptiles
(c) birds and reptiles
(b) fishes and amphibians

(d) reptiles and fishes
A missing link between fish and amphibian is

(a) Seymouria
(b) Ichthyostegia
(c) Archaeopteryx
42.
(d) Anthropoidea
43.
____________ called birds as glorified reptiles.

(a) Andreas Wagner (b) Sewall Wright
(c) Huxley
(d) Kettlewell
44.
Reptilian characters of Archaeopteryx are

(a) jaws with homodont teeth
(b) forearms modified into wings and three digits ending in distinct claws
(c) completely fused skull bones
45.
Avian characters of Archaeoptryx are

(a) feathery skeleton and completely fused skull
(b) rounded cranium with large orbits and single condyle
(c) jaws modified into beaks and forelimbs modified into wings
46.
Organs which are structurally similar but functionally dissimilar are called
(a) homologous organs
(b) analogous organs
(c) vestigial organs
(d) non-homologous organs
47.
Which of the following are analogous organs?

(a) Forelimbs of frog and lizard
(c) Wings of birds and insects
(b) Tail of scorpion and tail of humans

(d) Vermiform appendix of birds and humans
48.
Which stage of development provides concrete embryological evidence?

(a) Late embryos
(b) Completely developed embryo
(c) Early embryos
(d) Phylogenic
49.
Whichamong the following is a molecular evidence?

(a) Forelimbs of terrestrial vertebrates
(b) Remnant of a tail in human
(c) Formation of zygote (single dploid cell)
(d) ATP as energy currency
50.
Mutation is also called as

(a) saltation
(b) genetic drift
(c) recombination
(d) gene frequency
51.
Arrangement of eras, periods and epochs on the time scale in an order of evolution of organism is
called
(a) geology
(b) geological times
(c) geological time scale
52.
The period which does not belong to Cenozoic era is

(a) triassic
(b) palaeocene
(c) miocene
(d) pliocene
In the geological time period of earth, the longest one is

(a) precambrian
(b) archeozoic
(c) mesozoic
(d) palaeozoic
53.
54.
Hardy Weinberg Law fails if ____________ occurs in a population.

(a) non-random mating
(b) genetic drift
(c) mutations
(d) all of these
55.
There are two alleles A and a with frequencies p and q respectively. According to the HardyWeinbergs principle, the frequency of Aa allele will be
(a) p 2
(b) q 2
(c) 2pq
(d) 2 p 2 q2
56.
Primates include
(a) apes and man
(b) monkeys, apes and man
(c) lorises, lemurs and tarsiers
(d) lorises, lemurs, tarsiers, monkeys, apes and man
57.
The prosimii include

(a) tarsiers
58.
59.
60.
(b) gibbons
(c) orangutan
(d) old world monkeys
Cercopithecoide includes
(a) old world monkeys
(c) apes and man
(b) new world monkeys

(d) gorilla and chimpanzee
Hominoides are further divided into

(a) Hyalobatidae, Pongidae and Hominidae
(c) different types of Hominidae
(b) Cercopithecoidea and ceboidea

(d) Prosimii and Anthropoides
Chimpanzee, organgutan and gorilla are

(a) ancestors of man
(c) ancestors of monkey
(b) anthropoid apes

(d) ancestors of primates
61.
The characteristics of lemurs are

(a) grasping hands and feet
(b) flat snouts, large eyes facing infront and long bushy tail
(c) arboreal found in East India
62.
Major differences between New world and old world monkeys are in
(a) type of nose
(b) length of tail
(c) distribution in the world
(d) all of these
63.
Which of the following includes both the apes and the humans but not the monkey?
(a) Cercopithecoidea (b) Hominoids
(c) Anthropoids
(d) Prosimians
64.
A diastema in upper jaw between incisor and canines which accommodates elongated canies of the
lower jaw is a characteristic feature of
(a) man
(b) lemurs
(c) apes
(d) tarsiers
65.
The cranial capacity of apes is

(a) 100 to 300 c.c.
(b) 400 to 600 c.c.
66.
(c) 600 to 800 c.c.
(d) 900 to 1000 c.c.
Which of the following characters show phylogenetic relationship between apes and man?
(a) Broad chest due to flattening of sternum
(b) Ability of sound production
(c) Absence of tail
67.
68.
Propliopithecus lived in
(a) Oligocene epoch
(c) early Pliocene epoch
(b) Miocene epoch

(d) Pleistocene epoch
Which is the alternative name to Dryopithecus?

(a) Java man
(b) Southern ape
(c) Sinanthropus
(d) Proconsul
69.
From which part of the world first fossils of Dryopithecus are discovered?
(a) Lake Victoria of Africa
(b) Fayam deposits of Egypt
(c) Siwalik Hills
(d) Tanzania
70.
Ramapithecus lived in
(a) late Miocene and early Pliocene epoch
(c) early holocene and late pleistocene
71.
72.
(b) late Oligocene and early Miocene

(d) early Eocene and late palaeocene
Fossils of Ramapithecus shows similarity with fossils of

(a) Propliopithecus (b) Dryopithecus
(c) Kenyapithecus
Australopithecus africans was discovered in
(a) Siwalik Hills in India
(c) Java in Africa
(d) Australopithecus
(b) Taung in South Africa

(d) Heidelberg in Germany
73.
The ape-like character/s of Australopithecus is/are

(a) larger jaws and teeth
(b) prognathus face with no chin
(c) eye-brow ridges projected over the eyes with cranial capacity between 450-600 c.c.
(d) all of these
74.
Which one is called a man with ape brain?

(a) Dryopithecus
(b) Parapithecus
(c) Sinanthropus
Which feature is not true for Homo habilis?

(a) He has lightly built lower jaws
(c) His cranial capacity was about 1400 cc
(b) He had smaller molars

(d) He could make and use stone tools
__________ was the first true man.

(a) Homo erectus
(c) Homo heidelbergensis
(b) Homo habilis

(d) Homo sapiens
75.
76.
77.
78.
Which of the following used fire for the first time?

(a) Java man
(b) Ape man
(c) Modern man
Peking man is known as
(a) Homo erectus
(c) Australopithecus africanus
(d) Australopithecus
(d) Cro-Magnon man
(b) Pithecanthropus pekinensis

(d) Pithecanthropus
79.
80.
Neanderthal man evolved from

(a) Homo erectus
(c) Homo sapiens fossilis
(b) Homo heidelbergensis

(d) Homo sapiens sapiens
Narrow nose, thin eyebrow ridges and broad face appeared in

(a) Cro-Magnon man (b) Neanderthal
(c) Solo man
(d) Homo erectus
81.
Which of the fossil man given below, was expert in making tool, weapons, paintings etc.?
(a) Java ape man
(b) Peking man
(c) Rhodesian man
(d) Cro-Magnon man
82.
Which of the following statement is not applicable to Cro-Magnon man?

(a) He was not erect and bipedal
(b) He made ornaments from ivory and decorated their bodies
(c) He used fire and buried dead bodies according to customs
(d) He used hides of animals to protect his body
83.
Comparative anatomy is the study of

(a) structures of different groups of organisms in a comparative manner
(b) study of fossils
84.
Tail bone is an example of

(a) homology
(b) analogy
(c) atavism
Which of the following statement/s is correct?

(a) Man evolved from monkeys
(c) Man and apes have a common ancestry
(b) Apes are ancestors of humans

(d) Monkeys evolved from apes
85.
86.
The first chemicals formed on the earth were

(a) nitric oxide, hydrogen sulphide, sulphur dioxide
(b) nitric acid, amino acids, citric acid
(c) water, ammonia, methane
(d) enzymes, nucleic acid, amino acids
87.
According to Darwin organic evolution is

(a) descent with modification
(c) cosmic evolution
(d) vestigial organ
(b) special creation

(d) spontaneous generation
88.
Struggle for existence results when there is an

(a) explosive increase of population
(b) explosive increase in the means of subsistence
(c) explosive increase in population and limited increase in the means of subsistence
(d) explosive increase both in population and means of subsistence
89.
According to Darwin, the variations are produced by

(a) genetic recombination
(b) mutations
(c) changes in gene pool
(d) adaptations
90.
Chief agent of evolution is

(a) natural selection (b) mutations
(c) acquired characters (d) sexual reproduction
91.
Gene pool is the sum total of genes present in

(a) the single member of species
(b) the interbreeding population of a species
(c) the community of organisms
(d) the parents of a member
92.
In the study of organic evolution, homology means structures with

(a) common origin and common function.
(b) common origin and different functions.
(c) common function but different origins.
(d) different origins and different functions.
93.
What does adaptive radiation indicate?

(a) Use of radiation for adaptation
(b) Migration from unsuitable to suitable place
(c) Transformation of original species to many different varieties
(d) Transformation of different varieties into common species.
94.
Prosimian primate is called Tarsier because of

(a) flat nails on digits
(b) long non prehensile tail
(c) large eyes in front on face
(d) hind limbs which are longer with elongated tarsals
95.
The most significant character of a man from the evolution point of view is
(a) foramen magnum shifted forward
(b) larger cranial capacity
(c) face is orthognathous
(d) all of these
96.
The man who does not belong to the Genus Homo is

(a) Neanderthal man (b) Heidelberg man
(c) Ape man
(d) Peking man
97.
Which of the following characters satisfy the conditions of Homo sapiens?

(a) Body shape and erect posture
(b) Bipedal locomotion and free hands
(c) Large cranial capacity and opposable thumb used for manipulating skillful work
(d) None of these
98.
Formation of which complex molecules was noticed by Urey and Miller when they subjected
substances like NH3, CH4 and H2O to electric discharge?
(a) H2SO4
(b) Amino acids
(c) NH2
(d) HCl
99.
Reproductive isolation leads to the formation of

(a) a new population (b) a new community (c) a new species
(d) a new individual
100.
Which statement is correct regarding genetic recombination?

(i) Genetic recombination occurs in sexually reproducing organisms.
(ii) During recombination, homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material by the process of
crossing over
(iii) Occurs during gametogenesis
(iv) Produces new combinations and variations.
(b) (iii) and (iv) correct, (i) incorrect
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) and (iii) are incorrect
101.
Natural selection is a process in which, it

(a) is a link between changes in the environment and genetic variations of the species attempting to
survive and reproduce
(b) brings about evolutionary changes by favouring differential reproduction of genes
(c) encourages those genes that assure highest degree of adaptive efficiency between population and
its environment
TOPIC: ORIGIN AND EVOLUTION OF LIFE (ANSWER KEY)

1.
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(d)
(a)
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(d)
(a)
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(a)
(a)
(b)
(c)
3.
8.
13.
18.
23.
28.
33.
38.
43.
48.
53.
58.
63.
68.
73.
78.
83.
88.
93.
98.
(c)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(b)
4.
9.
14.
19.
24.
29.
34.
39.
44.
49.
54.
59.
64.
69.
74.
79.
84.
89.
94.
99.
(b)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(d)
(c)
5.
10.
15.
20.
25.
30.
35.
40.
45.
50.
55.
60.
65.
70.
75.
80.
85.
90.
95.
100.
(a)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(c)
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MH-CET 2015
ASSIGNMENT SERIES
SUBJECT
: Zoology
STANDARD : XIIth
CHAPTER
: CHROMOSOMAL BASIS OF INHERITANCE
TOPIC: CHROMOSOMAL BASIS OF INHERITANCE

1.
In prokaryotes _________ .
(a) chromosomes can be circular as well as linear within the same cell.
(b) are always linear and made up of DNA
(c) chromosome is single and made up of circular DNA
(d) chromosomes can be either circular or linear but never both within the same organism.
2.
Chromosomal theory of inheritance was proposed by _________ .

(a) Nirenberg and Mathai
(c) Sutton and Boveri
(d) Mendel
3.
Diploid sets of chromosomes are present in _________ .

(a) reproductive cells
(b) gametes
(c) somatic cells
4.
4n represents _________ .
(a) one set of chromosome
(c) three sets of chromosome
5.
6.
7.
8.
(b) two sets of chromosome

(d) four sets of chromosome
3n set of chromosomes is considered as _________ .

(a) haploid
(b) diploid
(c) triploid
(d) tetraploid
The length of chromosome during metaphase is _________ .

(a) 0.2 to 2 m
(b) 0.1 to 33 m
(c) 0.4 to 4 m
(d) 0.3 to 30 m
The thickness of chromosome varies from _________ .

(a) 0.2 to 2 m
(b) 0.1 to 15 m
(c) 0.1 to 33 m
(d) 1 to 3 m
A chromatid represents _________ .

(a) complete chromosomes
(c) haploid number
(b) one half of a metaphasic chromosome

(d) a gene
9.
Secondary constrictions present in chromosome are _________ .

(a) nucleolar organizers
(b) satellite
(c) telomere
(d) chromomeres
10.
Telomere _________ .
(a) helds the chromatids together
(b) forms nucleolus
(c) prevents the sticking of chromosomal ends (d) helps during division
11.
Sub-metacentric chromosome is _________ .

(a) L-shaped
(b) J-shaped
(c) V-shaped
(d) none of these
12.
13.
14.
X-chromosome contains _________ .

(a) large amount of euchromatin
(c) small amount of heterochromatin
(b) large amount of heterochromatin

Non-homologous region of X-chromosome contains _________ .

(a) X-linked genes (b) Y-linked genes
How many linkage groups are present in man?

(a) 23 linkage groups (b) 46 linkage groups
(d) 44 linkage groups
(c) 22 linkage groups
15.
The phenomenon of inheritance in which chromosomes separate by crossing over is called _______ .
(a) complete linkage (b) incomplete linkage (c) autosomal linkage (d) partial linkage
16.
__________ are located on homologous region of X and Y chromosomes.

(a) Completely linked genes
(b) Incompletely linked genes
(c) Completely sex linked genes
(d) Incompletey sex linked genes
17.
The gene for white eye colour in Drosophila is ______ .

(a) located on the X-chromosome.
(b) located on the Y-chromosome.
(c) located on an autosome.
(d) sex linked.
18.
Crossing over occurs in ________ stage.

(a) zygotene
(b) pachytene
(c) diplotene
(d) leptotene
19.
The genes present on non-homologous part of Y-chromosome are called _________ .

(a) X- linked genes (b) Y- linked genes
(c) recessive genes
(d) dominant genes
20.
Sex linked characters are mostly _________ .

(a) dominant
(c) X-linked
(b) recessive
(d) incompletely dominant
21.
Holandric genes are found only in _________ .

(a) females
(b) males
(d) such genes do not exist
22.
Colourblindness is caused by a single _________ .

(a) dominant gene in woman
(b) dominant gene in man
(c) recessive gene in man
(d) recessive gene in woman
23.
Hereditary disease condition in which blood fails to coagulate is _________ .

(a) haemophilia
(b) leukemia
(c) sickle cell anaemia (d) none of these
24.
Which of the following is not an example of sex-linked inheritance?

(a) Eye colour in Drosophilia
(b) Downs syndrome
(c) Colour blindness
(d) Haemophilia
25.
Normal human egg and sperm contain _________ .

(a) 11 pairs of sex-chromosomes and 2 autosomes.
(b) 11 pairs of autosomes and 2 sex-chromosomes.
(c) 22 pairs of autosomes and one pair of sex-chromosome
(d) 22 pairs of sex-chromosomes and one pair of autosome.
26.
Human sperm is _________ .

(a) monploid
(b) diploid
27.
(c) polyploid
Haemoglobin consists of ___________ chains.

(a) A and B
(b) B and C
(c) C and D
(d) haploid
(d) B and D
28.
Person suffering from thalassemia suffers from _________ .

(a) anaemia
(b) jaundice
(c) variation in the size and shape of RBCs
(d) all the above
29.
The disease caused due to the quantitative abnormality of polypeptide chain of globin
chain synthesis is _________ .
(a) Downs syndrome
(b) Thalassemia
(c) Turners syndrome
(d) Klinefelters syndrome
30.
Downs syndrome is due to _________ .

(a) non-disjunction
(b) trisomy of 21 st chromosome
(c) presence of two X-chromosomes in a male (d) both (a) and (b)
31.
___________ is fatal in early pregnancy.

(a) Klinefelter syndrome
(c) Down syndrome
(b) Turners syndrome

(d) Haemophilia
Which are sex-linked disorders?

(a) Turners syndrome
(c) Downs syndrome
(b) Klinefelters syndrome

Euploidy means _________ .

(a) two sets of chromosomes
(c) four sets of chromosomes
(b) three sets of chromosomes

(d) whole sets of chromosomes
32.
33.
34.
The recombination is caused due to _________ .

(a) linkage
(b) non-parental gene combination
(d) none of the above.
35.
In ZW-ZZ type of sex determination, _________ .

(a) male is heterogametic, female is homogametic
(b) female is heterogametic, male is homogametic
(c) both male and female are heterogametic
(d) both male and female are homogametic
36.
Each gamete contains only one chromosome of a pair because _________ .

(a) homologous chromosomes pair and segregate or separate independently during meiosis
(b) homologous chromosomes pair and remain together during meiosis
(c) homologous chromosomes pair and segregate or separate independently during mitosis
(d) homologous chromosomes pair and remain together during mitosis.
37.
Telocentric chromosome differs from acrocentric chromosome in that _________ .

(a) the former has a subterminal centromere whereas the later has a centrally located centromere.
(b) the centromere in the former is terminal and in the later is sub-terminal.
(c) the former has a terminal centromere and the later has a medially located centromere.
38.
Genes which are located on the same chromosome are _________ .

(a) allelic to each other
(b) codominant
(c) linked to each other
(d) mutant genes
39.
When two genes are situated very close together in a chromosome _________ .
(a) the percentage of crossing over between them is very high
(b) hardly any cross overs are detected.
(c) no crossing over can ever take place between them
(d) only double cross overs can take place between them.
40.
Incompletely sex-linked genes _________ .

(a) do not inherit together
(b) show incomplete sex-linked inheritance
(c) located on homologous region of sex-chromosome
(d) all the above
41.
Genes located on non-homologous regions of sex-chromosome _________ .

(a) show complete sex linkage.
(b) inherit together during crossing over
(c) causes haemophilia and myopia
(d) all the above
42.
Crossing over causes _________ .

(a) expression of recessive genes
(c) recombination between linked genes
(b) synapsis between homologous chromosomes

(d) linkage between dominant genes
43.
When Morgan hybridzed yellow bodied white eyed female to brown bodied red eyed males and
intercrossed their progeny, what was his observation?
(a) The two genes segregated independently
(b) The two genes did not segregate independently
(c) F2 ratio deviated from 9:3:3:1
44.
Usually the recessive character is expressed only when present in a double recessive condition.
However, single recessive gene can express itself in human beings when the gene is present on
_________ .
(a) the X-chromosome of the female
(b) the X-chromosome of the male
(c) any autosome
(d) the Y-chromosome of the male
45.
A holandric gene is known for hypertrichosis (long hairs on ears). When a man with hairy ears
marries a normal woman, what percentage of their daughters would be expected to have hairy ears?
(a) 100%
(b) 0%
(c) 50%
(d) 25%
46.
A colour blind man, whose both the parents had normal vision and whose paternal and maternal
grandparents had normal vision, probably inherited the gene for colour blindness from his
_________ .
(a) maternal or paternal grandmother
(b) maternal or paternal father
(c) father
(d) mother
47.
Colour blindness is a disease usually affecting man, but the factor for it is always transmitted to the
children by woman. This is because particular factor is located on a/an _________ .
(a) X chromosome (b) Y chromosome
(c) autosome
48.
A marriage between normal visioned man and colour-blind woman will produce offspring as
_________ .
(a) normal males and carrier daughters
(b) colour blind sons and carrier daughters
(c) colour blind sons and 50% carrier daughters
(d) 50% of sons colour blind and 50% of daughters carrier
49.
A colourblind man (XcY) has a colourblind sister (XcXc) and a normal brother (XY). What is
genotype of father and mother?
(a) XcY, XcXc
(b) XY, XcXc
(c) XcY, XcX
(d) XY, XcX
50.
The gene for haemophila is located on the X chromosome. It is impossible for a _________ .
(a) haemophilic father to pass the gene to his daughter
(b) haemophilic father to pass the gene to his son
(c) carrier mother to pass the gene to her daughter
(d) carrier mother to pass the gene to her son
51.
A woman has her haemophilic brother and normal parents. She marries a man who has no history of
haemophilia in his family. What is the possibility of her children having his disease?
(a) 50% of the sons may be haemophilic
(b) 50% of the total generation is haemophilic
(c) 50% of the daughters may be haemophilic (d) All the progeny will be haemophilic.
52.
In human beings, sex is determined by _________ .

(a) nucleic acids
(b) egg
(c) zygote
(d) chromosomes
53.
In sexual reproduction, a parent contributes to each of its offsprings _________ .

(a) one fourth of its genes
(b) one half of its genes
(c) three fourth of its genes
(d) all of its genes
54.
There are 5 daughters and no son in a family. It is because _________ .

(a) father produced no sperm at all
(b) X-sperm fertilized the egg.
(c) Y-sperm are weaker and not effective
(d) father produced only X containing sperm.
55.
PNDT act has been made _________ .

(a) to ban the medical techniques for sex determination.
(b) to punish the doctors and their patients who violate the law
(c) to stop discrimination against girl child
(d) all the above.
56.
XO chromosome abnormality causes _________ .

(a) Downs syndrome
(b) Turners syndrome
(c) Criminal syndrome
(d) Klinefelters syndrome
57.
The percentage of crossing over will be more if _________ .

(a) linked genes are located far apart from each other
(b) linked genes are located close to each other
(c) genes are not linked
(d) genes are located in a different cell
58.
If a lady who is a carrier for haemophilia marries a normal man, their children will include
_________ .
(a) 100% normal sons.
(b) 50% of sons normal and 50% of daughters carrier.
(c) 100% haemophilic sons and 50% carrier daughters.
(d) all haemophilic sons and all haemophilic daughters.
59.
Two sister chromatids are attached with _________ .

(a) spindle fibre
(b) centromere
(c) chromocentre
(d) chromatid
60.
Drosophila melanogastor has 8 chromosomes in somatic cell. How many linkage groups will be
there?
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 2
(d) 5
61.
A normal woman, who has a colour blind father married a normal man. The son would be _______ .
(a) 75% colour blind (b) 50% colour blind
(c) All normal
(d) All colour blind
62.
One of the parents of a cross has mutations in mitochondrion. In this cross, that parent is taken as
male. During segregation of F2 progenies, that mutation is found in ___________ .
(a) one third of the progenies
(b) none of the progenies
(c) all the progenies
(d) 50% of the progenies
63.
The recessive genes located on X chromosome of humans are always _________ .

(a) lethal
(b) sub lethal
(c) expressed in males (d) expressed in females
64.
The most common type of haemophilia results from the congenital absence of _________ .
(a) factor II
(b) factor V
(c) factor VIII
(d) factor X
65.
A sudden or spontaneous change in the structure and action of a particular gene is called _________ .
(a) mutation
(b) allelomorph
(c) linkage
(d) variation
66.
During cell division there is sometimes failure of separation of sister chromatids. This event is called
_______ .
(a) interference
(b) non disjunction
(c) segregation
(d) fusion
67.
Persons who are colour blind cannot distinguish between ___________ .

(a) red, green
(b) black, white
(c) red, black
(d) green, yellow
68.
Turners syndrome is an example of __________ .

(a) polyploidy
(b) inversion
(c) trisomy
(d) monosomy
The globin chain is coded by chromosome number __________ .

(a) 24
(b) 21
(c) 16
(d) 11
Thalassemia is a disorder of _________ .

(a) blood
(b) nervous tissue
(d) clotting
69.
70.
71.
(c) chromosome
Non disjunction of chromosomes occurs during __________ .

(a) metaphase I
(b) anaphase I
(c) telophase I
(d) cytokinesis
72.
Downs syndrome is caused due to trisomy of __________ chromosome.

(a) X
(b) Y
(c) 21
(d) 16
73.
One of the following is NOT a sex linked disease ____________ .

(a) haemophilia
(b) colour blindness
(c) myopia
(d) thalassemia
74.
A normal man has a colour blind brother and a colour blind sister. Therefore, the genotype of parent
is __________ .
(a) XcXC crossed with XcY
(b) XcXc crossed with XCY
(c) XcXC crossed with XCY
(d) XCXC crossed with XCY
75.
When a normal male marries a carrier female, in the offsprings, what will be the percentage of colour
blind carrier daughters?
(a) 100%
(b) 75%
(c) 50%
(d) 25%
76.
Females are heterogametic in ___________ .

(a) man
(b) honey bees
(c) Drosophila
(d) birds
77.
A recessive mutant is one which is ____________ .

(a) not expressed
(b) rarely expressed
(c) expressed only in homozygous and hemizygous state
(d) expressed only in heterozygous condition
78.
A person with XO sex chromosome is diagnosed as suffering from ________ .

(a) Downs syndrome
(b) Addisons disease
(c) Klinefelters syndrome
(d) Turners syndrome
79.
Hemophilia is more commonly seen in human males than in human females because __________ .
(a) a greater proportion of girls die in infancy
(b) this disease is due to Y-linked recessive mutation
(c) this disease is due to X-linked recessive mutant
(d) this disease is due to X-linked dominant gene
80.
A woman with 47 chromosomes due to three copies of chromosome 21 is characterized by _______.

(a) super female
(b) triploidy
(c) Turners syndrome (d) Downs syndrome
81.
A man and a woman who do not show any apparent sign of certain disease have children among
which some of the sons suffer from the given disease but the daughters remain unaffected. Which of
the following mode of inheritance can be expected?
(a) Sex linked dominant
(b) Sex linked recessive
(c) Sex limited recessive
(d) Autosomal dominant
82.
Epicanthus skin fold above eyes and transverse palmar crease are typical symptoms of __________.
(a) Cri-du-chat syndrome
(c) Downs syndrome
(d) Turners syndrome
83.
Sex linkage was discovered by ____________ .

(a) Morgan
(b) Mendel
(c) Beadle
(d) Crick
84.
Which one of the following symbols are used for representing chromosomes of birds?
(a) ZZ-ZW
(b) XX-XY
(c) XO-XX
(d) ZZ-WW
85.
Gametes are ____________ .

(a) link between parents
(c) link between offsprings
(b) link between parents and offsprings

(d) having no link
86.
Chromosomes are called carrier of genetic material as they _______ .

(a) occur in nucleus
(b) have DNA
(c) determine sex
(d) occur in all organisms
87.
Union of sperm and ovum forms a ________ cell.

(a) haploid
(b) diploid
(c) triploid
(d) tetraploid
88.
A normal zygote of human being has 46 chromosomes. Therefore, the number of chromosomes in a
tetraploid zygote will be __________ .
(a) 23
(b) 46
(c) 69
(d) 92
89.
Nucleolar organizer is also called __________.

(a) primary constriction
(b) secondary constriction
(c) chromomere
(d) centromere
90.
Tip of the chromosome is also called ___________ .

(a) secondary constriction
(b) telomere
(c) chromonemata
(d) chromomere
91.
Downs syndrome is due to _________ .

(a) aneuploidy
(b) polyploidy
(c) diploidy
(d) euploidy
92.
Individual suffering from Klinefelters syndrome will produce ___________ .

(a) gametes with 23 chromosomes
(b) gametes with 24 chromosomes
(c) gametes with 47 chromosomes
(d) no gametes
93.
One of the following is not an example of aneuploidy ________ .

(a) Sickle cell anaemia
(d) Downs syndrome
94.
Gynaecomastia results due to __________ .

(a) Sickle cell anaemia

(d) Downs syndrome
95.
Person suffering from Turners syndrome has ____________ .

(a) well developed ovaries
(b) rudimentary ovaries
(c) well developed testes
(d) rudimentary testes
96.
Phenylketonuria is detected by the formation of ___________ .

(a) sickle shaped red blood cells
(b) rudimentary ovaries
(c) black coloured urine
(d) gynaecomastia
97.
It is essential that the anaphase I of meiosis I forms the gamete that is __________ .
(a) aneuploid
(b) polyploid
(c) diploid
(d) haploid
98.
One of the following does not have XX-XY sex chromosomes ____________ .
(a) cock
(b) man
(c) fruit fly
(d) plants
99.
In human, males have less number of genes in the genome because __________ .
(a) autosomes are less
(b) sex chromosomes are X and Y
(c) Y chromosome is shorter than X chromosome
(d) non disjunction occurs during segregation
100.
Pedigree analysis does NOT help in the study of __________ .

(a) family history
(b) inherited disorders
(c) inherited diseases
(d) effect of mutagenic agents
101.
When a Klinefelters syndrome develops, one of the gametes contributing in its formation has
________ number of chromosomes.
(a) 23
(b) 24
(c) 25
(d) 46
102.
The number of chromosomes in somatic cell of a person suffering with Turners syndrome is
___________ .
(a) 47
(b) 46
(c) 45
(d) 44
103.
The number of sex chromosomes in a person suffering from Downs syndrome is ________ .
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1
104.
The number of sex chromosomes in a somatic cell of female suffering from Downs and Turners
syndromes is ____________ .
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1
105.
The number of chromosomes in somatic cell of an individual suffering from Downs and
Klinefelters syndromes is __________ .
(a) 49
(b) 48
(c) 47
(d) 46
TOPIC: CHROMOSOMAL BASIS OF INHERITANCE (ANSWER KEY)

1.
6.
11.
16.
21.
26.
31.
36.
41.
46.
51.
56.
61.
66.
71.
76.
81.
86.
91.
96.
101.
(c)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(b)
2.
7.
12.
17.
22.
27.
32.
37.
42.
47.
52.
57.
62.
67.
72.
77.
82.
87.
92.
97.
102.
(c)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(c)
3.
8.
13.
18.
23.
28.
33.
38.
43.
48.
53.
58.
63.
68.
73.
78.
83.
88.
93.
98.
103.
(c)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(c)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(c)
4.
9.
14.
19.
24.
29.
34.
39.
44.
49.
54.
59.
64.
69.
74.
79.
84.
89.
94.
99.
104.
(d)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(d)
5.
10.
15.
20.
25.
30.
35.
40.
45.
50.
55.
60.
65.
70.
75.
80.
85.
90.
95.
100.
105.
(c)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(b)
MH-CET 2015
ASSIGNMENT SERIES
SUBJECT
: Zoology
STANDARD : XIIth
CHAPTER
: GENETIC ENGINEERING AND GENOMICS
TOPIC: GENETIC ENGINEERING AND GENOMICS
1.
Chromosomes are made up of __________ .

(a) DNA
(b) RNA
(c) DNA and RNA
(d) ribosome
2.
The technique developed to identify a person with the help of DNA restriction analysis is known as
__________ .
(a) DNA profiling
(b) DNA fingerprinting (c) Tissue culture
3.
VNTR is __________ .
(a) Variable Number of Thymine Repeats
(c) Variable Number of Tandem Repeats
(b) Variable Number of Transcription Repeats

(d) Variable Nucleotide of Tandem Repeats
4.
Transfer of DNA bands from agarose gel to nitrocellulose or nylon membrane is __________ .
(a) Southern blotting (b) Western blotting
(c) Northern blotting (d) Eastern blotting
5.
What is the full form of RFLP?

(a) Restriction Fragment Length Polymerase
(b) Restricted Fragment Length Polymorphism
(c) Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism (d) Regular Fragment Length Polymerase
6.
Human genome project was launched in __________ .

(a) 1986
(b) 1990
(c) 1996
(d) 1998
The human genome project involved sequence of __________ .

(a) 30,000 base pairs (b) 3 billion base pairs (c) 2000 base pairs
(d) 450 base pairs
7.
8.
Physical maps specify __________ .

(a) distance between genes and markers on the chromosomes
(b) the physical location of genes
(c) distance between genes or DNA fragments
9.
The genome size of Yeast is __________ .

(a) 1830 kb
(b) 1660 kb
10.
(c) 12500 kb
(d) 569 kb
A vaccine is an __________ used to induce immunity against several diseases.

(a) antibody preparation
(b) antigenic preparation
(c) adjuvant preparation
(d) chemical preparation
11.
Adjuvant is added to a dilute mixture during production of vaccine to __________ .

(a) improve the immune response to the toxoid
(b) improve the penetration of vaccine in the cells
(c) help the vaccine to react specifically with diseased cells
(d) improve the immunity
12.
Mice are the approximate choice for transgenesis because __________ .

(a) they have short generation time
(b) a superovulated mouse can yield upto 40 eggs.
(c) reimplantation is relatively easier
13.
Which property of transgenic animals is used in chemical safety testing?

(a) Insensitivity to toxic substance
(b) Sensitivity to toxic substance
(c) Resistance to toxic substance
14.
HGP explored a new field in biology called __________ .

(a) Genome
(b) Genomics
(c) Genetics
(d) all of these
15.
People who do not produce the necessary amount of insulin suffer from a disease called _________ .
(a) diabetes insipidus (b) diabetes mellitus
(c) juvenile diabetes (d) none of the above
16.
VNTRs is the key factor in DNA profiling because __________ .

(a) the length of the regions having VNTRs is different in each individual.
(b) the length of the regions having VNTRs is same in each individual.
(c) they have nucleotide
(d) short pieces of nucleotides are same in all persons.
17.
DNA probes used in finger printing are __________ .

(a) highly sensitive electron microscope
(b) UV beams
(c) DNA segments having radioactive isotopes (d) X-ray scanners
18.
DNA sample hybridized with DNA probe when kept in contact with X-ray film results into
__________ .
(a) photographic image of radioactive probe
(b) photographic image of DNA bands due to radioactive probe
(c) photographic image of nylon membrane
19.
An immediate impact of HGP was __________ .

(a) identification of genes associated with human diseases
(b) development of new strategies for disease detection.
(c) development of innovative therapies for treatment of disease
20.
Which of the following statements regarding HGP is incorrect?

(a) HGP is involved in maping and sequencing of model organisms E. coli and Mus musculus.
(b) HGP is involved in finding the genes related to human disease in Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(c) HGP is involved in study of gene function of model organisms
(d) HGP is involved in greater understanding of human evolution by studying the genes in flies,
roundworms and mice.
21.
Which statement about insulin is correct?

(i) Raised blood glucose level triggers cells of islet of Langerhans to release insulin.
(ii) Decreased blood glucose level triggers cells of islet of Langerhans to release insulin.
(iii) Binding of insulin to receptors on the cells membrane activates the transport of glucose and
protein.
(iv) Without insulin, the glucose builds up in the blood and the cells are starved of their energy
source.
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(b) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct

(d) (ii) and (iv) are correct
22.
Insulin extracted and purified from the pancreas of cattle and pigs functions well in the human body
because __________ .
(a) the chemical structure of insulin in these animals is slightly different from human insulin.
(b) the structure of cells of pancreas of these animals and human are same.
(d) none of these
23.
Vaccine production involves __________ .

(a) growth of organisms on culture medium.
(b) extraction of the toxin from cultured organism and altering it to develop into toxoid.
(c) mixing the toxoid with adjuvant.
24.
Gene therapy involves __________ .

(a) deletion or replacement of defective gene
(b) introduction of desired gene which is not found in an organism.
(c) modification of germ-line cells to correct a genetic defect.
25.
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) Tissue plasminogen activator prevents or reverses blood clots.
(b) DNAse treats cystic fibrosis.
(c) Bovine growth hormone treats hepatitis B
(d) Human Insulin (HUMULIN) treats diabetes mellitus
26.
Which of the following is specifically used in genetic engineering?

(a) Ligase
(b) Gyrase
(c) Restriction endonuclease
(d) DNA polymerase
27.
Polymerase Chain Reaction is most useful in _________ .

(a) DNA synthesis (b) DNA amplification (c) protein synthesis
(d) amino acid synthesis
28.
Variable Number Tandem Repeats in the DNA molecule are highly useful in _________.
(a) monoclonal antibody production
(b) stem cell culture
(c) recombinant DNA technology
(d) DNA fngerprinting
29.
The key factor in DNA profiling is length of __________ .

(a) cistron
(b) mutons
(c) polypeptide
(d) VNTRs
Paper used for southern blotting in DNA fingerprinting is __________ .

(a) litmus
(b) Whatman
(c) nitrocellulose
(d) cellulose
30.
31.
In India, the radioactive DNA probe is obtained form banded krait. In krait, the sex chromosome is
_______ .
(a) XX-XY
(b) ZZ-ZW
(c) XY-YY
(d) ZW-WW
32.
Which genetic map is most detailed?

(a) Cytogenetic
(b) Linkage
33.
(c) Physical
The best animal for gentic engineering experiments is __________ .

(a) pig
(b) sheep
(c) mouse
(d) Sequence
(d) fish
34.
Differences between parents and offsprings occur due to __________ .

(a) replication of DNA
(b) protein synthesis
(c) recombination of DNA
(d) mitosis
35.
Technique developed to identify a person with the help of DNA is called ________ .
(a) genomics
(b) fingerprinting
(c) genetics
(d) HGP
36.
What percentage of nucleotides sequence is same in all persons?

(a) 100
(b) 99
(c) 98
(d) 97
37.
In a population, number of unusual sequences in every person is from __________ .

(a) 20-100 base pairs
(b) more than 100 base pairs
(c) less than 100 base pairs
(d) no such occurrence
38.
The unusual sequences that are repeated several times are called __________ .
(a) VNTRs
(b) RFLP
(c) PCR
(d) HGP
39.
Another term describing DNA fingerprinting is ___________ .

(a) DNA profiling
(b) HGP
(c) VNTR
(d) PCR
DNA fingerprinting process begins with ___________ .

(a) isolation of DNA (b) amplification
(c) fragmentation
(d) electrophoresis
Cry gene produces a protein that functions as ___________ .

(a) pesticide
(b) fungicide
(c) weedicide
(d) bactericide
40.
41.
42.
43.
In the mature insulin, ___________ does not occur.

(a) A peptide
(b) B peptide
(c) C peptide
(d) D peptide
On which chromosome is the gene for Huntingtons disease located?

(a) 2
(b) 11
(c) 4
(d) 22
44.
In early treatment of diabetes, insulin was extracted from pancreas of slaughtered _________ .
(a) cattle
(b) dog
(c) horse
(d) chick
45.
Chitinase is used in the treatment of ____________ .

(a) bacteria
(b) virus
(c) plant
(d) fungus
During genetic engineering, bacterial cell is treated by _____________ .

(a) lysozyme
(b) cellulase
(c) chitinase
(d) gyrase
The two chains of insulin are linked by __________ .

(a) phosphorous
(b) disulphide
(c) hydrolase
(d) nitrogenous base
46.
47.
48.
Southern blotting of DNA strands during DNA fingerprinting is on _________ .

(a) Whatman paper (b) cellulose paper
(c) nylon
(d) graph paper
49.
In DNA fingerprinting, the DNA probe is __________ .

(a) heavy isotope
(b) radioactive
(c) ordinary
(d) with higher density
50.
In Southern blotting technique, __________ remains on nylon sheet.

(a) single stranded DNA
(b) single stranded probe DNA
(c) double stranded hybridized DNA
(d) double stranded probe DNA
51.
The nylon membrane of Southern blotting is kept in contact with __________ .

(a) X-ray film
(b) agarose gel
(c) nitrocellulose paper (d) cellulose paper
52.
In India, Dr. Lalji Singh obtained the radioactive DNA probe from __________ .
(a) mouse
(b) guinea pig
(c) snake
(d) bacteria
53.
One of the following does NOT indicate the genome of an organis

(a) sperm
(b) ovum
(c) microspore
(d) zygote
HGP was initiated and completed in __________ .

(a) 1990, 2003
(b) 1995, 2000
(c) 2000, 2006
(d) 2005, 2009
54.
55.
Molecular scissors or chemical scalpels used in genetic engineering is _________ .

(a) ligase
(b) endonuclease
(c) polymerase
(d) gyrase
56.
The number of types of maps generated in HGP are _________ .

(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1
57.
Genetic linkage map determines __________ .

(a) physical location of base pair
(b) distance between genes with unknown function
(c) distance between DNA fragments
(d) relative arrangement and approximate distances between genes
58.
Physical map of Human Genome Project specifies ________ .

(a) distance between genes with unknown function
(b) determines relative arrangement and approximate distances between genes
(c) distance between DNA fragments
(d) markers on the chromosomes
59.
The organism Arabidopsis thaliana used in mapping and sequencing of genome is ________ .
(a) angiosperm
(b) gymnosperm
(c) algae
(d) fungi
60.
Insulin is a hormone that regulates ___________ in human blood.

(a) fructose
(b) galactose
(c) mannose
(d) glucose
61.
Raised blood sugar triggers the cell of __________ to release insulin.

(a) Kupffer cells
(b) Sertoli cells
(c) islets of Langerhans (d) osteocytes
62.
When glucose molecule builds up in the blood, the cell is deprived of ___________ .
(a) proteins
(b) amino acid
(c) energy
(d) enzyme
63.
Most current gene therapy trials target ____________ .

(a) SCID deficiency (b) HIV
(c) cancer
(d) cystic fibrosis
64.
Genetic engineering manipulates gene products at the level of ____________ .

(a) DNA
(b) RNA
(c) amino acid
(d) protein
65.
The first transgenic cow is __________ .

(a) Dolly
(b) Molly
(c) Rosie
(d) Sandy
TOPIC: GENETIC ENGINEERING AND GENOMICS (ANSWER KEY)

1.
6.
11.
16.
21.
26.
31.
36.
41.
46.
51.
56.
61.
(a)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(c)
2.
7.
12.
17.
22.
27.
32.
37.
42.
47.
52.
57.
62.
(d)
(b)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(c)
3.
8.
13.
18.
23.
28.
33.
38.
43.
48.
53.
58.
63.
(c)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(d)
(d)
(c)
4.
9.
14.
19.
24.
29.
34.
39.
44.
49.
54.
59.
64.
(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(a)
5.
10.
15.
20.
25.
30.
35.
40.
45.
50.
55.
60.
65.
(c)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(c)
MH-CET 2015
ASSIGNMENT SERIES
SUBJECT
: Zoology
STANDARD : XIth
CHAPTER
: HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASES
TOPIC: HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASES
1.
The study of structure and function of immune system is called

(a) clinical immunology
(b) laboratory immunology
(c) basic immunology
(d) serology
2.
Clinical immunology involves

(a) immunisation
(b) organ grafting
(c) immunopathology (d) all of the above
3.
The protective chemicals produced by immune cells in response to antigens are called
(a) antibody
(b) immunogen
(c) infectious agent
4.
The term immunology is derived from latin word immunis which means _______
(a) fright
(b) flight
(c) fight
(d) freedom
5.
Among the following which is the anatomical barrier?

(a) Skin
(b) Mucous membrane (c) Liver
6.
Which of the following are physiological barriers?

(a) Elevated body temperature
(b) pH
(c) Body secretions
7.
A cellular barrier which engulf microbes and cellular debris is

(a) mast cells
(b) macrophages
(c) natural killer cells
8.
Swelling due to the infection or injury of tissues is an example of

(a) anatomical barrier (b) physiological barrier (c) phagocytic barrier (d) inflammatory barrier
9.
Which cells release histamines and prostaglandins during inflammatory response?

(a) Macrophages
(b) Kupffers cells
(c) Mast cells
(d) Leucocytes
10.
The unique feature of acquired immunity is

(a) specificity
(c) memory
(b) discrimination between self and non-self

(d) all the above
11.
The immunity acquired by antigenic stimulus of vaccine or pathogens is

(a) innate immunity
(b) acquired active immunity
(c) acquired passive immunity
(d) nonspecific immunity
12.
Immunity developed by vaccination

(a) natural acquired passive immunity
(c) artificial acquired active immunity
(b) natural acquired active immunity

(d) artificial acquired passive immunity
13.
Short-lived immunity acquired from mother to foetus across placenta or through mother milk to
infant is called
(a) Artificial acquired passive immunity
(b) Natural acquired passive immunity
(c) Natural acquired active immunity
(d) Artificial acquired active immunity
14.
A healthy person possesses a ___________ lymphocytes.

(a) million
(b) billion
(c) trillion
15.
16.
17.
18.
(d) lacs
T lymphocytes generate
(a) cell medIated immunity
(c) cellular immunity
(b) antibody mediated immunity

The immune system is made up of

(a) humoral system
(c) humoral and fibrous systems
(b) humoral and cell mediated systems

(d) antigen induced antibodies
Lymphokines are responsible for

(a) proliferation of T cells
(c) attraction of macrophages
(b) stimulation of B lymphocytes

(d) all the above
Killer T - cells bind to infected cell and secrete

(a) lysozyme
(b) lymphokines
(c) performs
(d) histamines
19.
The cells which suppress the entire immune system from its attack in the same body are known as
(a) helper T-cells
(b) killer B-cells
(c) suppressor cells
(d) suppressor T-cells
20.
The functions of antibody are

(a) agglutination of bacteria and viruses
(c) neutralisation of bacterial toxins
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
(b) opsonisation of bacteria

(d) all the above
Co-stimulatory signals for helper T-cells are delivered by

(a) lymphocytes
(b) macrophages
(c) APC cells
(d) mast cells
Antibodies are also called ________

(a) agglutinins
(b) agglutinogens
(c) immunoglobulins
(d) gamaglobulins
The plasma cell produces

(a) about 2000 antibodies / sec
(c) about 1500 antibodies / sec
(b) about 1000 antibodies / sec

(d) about 500 antibodies / sec
The regions holding the arm and stem of antibody is called

(a) isotopes
(b) paratopes
(c) mesotopes
Paratope is a
(a) antibody binding site on variable regions
(c) antigen binding site on variable regions
(d) hinge
(b) antibody binding site on heavy regions

(d) antigen binding site on heavy regions
26.
27.
Antibodies are
(a) multivalent
(b) bivalent
(c) univalent
The study of antigen antibody interaction is called

(a) immunology
(b) Oncology
(c) Hematology
(d) trivalent
(d) Serology
28.
Antigenic determinants of an antigen that are recognized by antibody are

(a) paratopes
(b) epitopes
(c) isotopes
(d) nondeterminants
29.
Blood groups were discovered by

(a) Karl Landsteiner (b) Weiner
(c) Emil von Behring
The blood group AB was discovered by

(a) Decastallo and Struli
(c) Landsteiner and Wiener
(b) Karl Landsteiner

(d) Kitasato
30.
(d) Kitasato
31.
Individual with blood group A has

(a) A antigen on the surface of their RBCs and b antibodies in their plasma
(b) B antigen on the surface of their RBCs and a antibodies in their plasma
(c) Both antigen A and B on the surface of their RBCs and no antibodies in their plasma
(d) Lack A and B antigens on the surface of their RBCs and show presence of both a and b
antibodies in their plasma
32.
A person with O blood group is

(a) Both A and B antigen
(c) No antibodies
(b) Both a and b antibodies

(d) No Rh factor
Rh factor was discovered by

(a) Landsteiner
(b) Weiner
33.
34.
35.
(d) Emil von Behring
Ability of an organism to cause disease is called

(a) pathogenicity
(b) immunity
(c) infection
(d) Autoimmunity
The term which means eating at the side of or at the same table is
(a) Host
(b) Parasite
(c) Organism
(d) Infection
36.
Which form of amoebae die after leaving the body?

(a) Cysted trophozites
(b) Rhombocytes
(c) Filariae
(d) Non encysted trophozoites
37.
Severe malaria is caused by

(a) Plasmodium falciparum
(c) Plasmodium ovale
38.
(b) Plasmodium vivax

(d) Plasmodium malariae
Ookinete which penetrates the gut lining produces

(a) oocyst
(b) heptocyst
(c) gametocytes
(d) none of these
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
Rupture of oocyst of malarial parasite releases

(a) ookinete
(b) sporozoites
(c) hepatocyst
The pre-erythrocytic phase involves

(a) infection of RBCs
(c) infection of erythrocytes
(b) infection of liver

(d) infection of digestive tract
Merozoites infect RBCs and develop into

(a) trophozoites
(c) trophozoites and schizonts
(b) schizonts
(d) sporozoites
Parasites of malaria multiplies asexually in

(a) erythrocytes of man
(c) platelets of man
(b) leucocytes of man

(d) mosquito gut
(d) gametocytes
Fever and sweating occurs every two days during infection of

(a) P. vivax
(b) P. ovale
(c) P. malariae
Severe malaria may cause

(a) splenomegaly
(b) cerebral ischemia
(c) hepatomegaly
How many types of filarial nematodes are known ?

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 6
Lymphatic filariasis is caused by the worm
(a) Wuchereria bancrofti
(c) Ascaris lumbricoides
(d) 9
(b) Brugia malayi

47.
Life cycle of human filarial nematode worms consists of____________ stages.

(a) five
(b) seven
(c) three
(d) two
48.
After mating of male and female filarial worm, the female gives birth to
(a) merozoites
(b) microfilariae
(c) nymph
(d) caterpillar
In filariasis, the vector insect injects infectious larvae into

(a) dermis of skin
(b) blood stream
(c) liver
(d) tongue
49.
50.
The most spectacular symptom of elephantiasis is

(a) edema only
(b) edema with thickening of the skin and underlying tissue
(c) gastrointestinal discomfort
(d) rose colored spot may appear
51.
Diethylcarbamazine is used in treatment of which disease?

(a) Malaria
(b) Ascariasis
(c) Filariasis
(d) Typhoid
52.
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Ascaris parasite?

(a) They are long, slender tapered at both ends
(b) The body is covered with thick extracellular cuticle
(c) It is leaf like flat worm
53.
Adult worms of Ascaris live in the

(a) lumen of large intestine
(c) lumen of stomach
54.
55.
(b) lumen of small intestine

(d) lumen of liver
After infective eggs of Ascaris are swallowed they enter into

(a) lymphatic system (b) lungs
(c) intestine
The larvae of Ascaris mature in the

(a) stomach
(b) lungs
(d) gall bladder
(c) intestine
56.
In ascariasis following pharmaceutical drugs are used to kill round worms

(a) Mebendazole
(b) Albendazole
(c) diethylcarbamazine (d) Both (a) and (b)
57.
Salmonella typhi possess ________ antigen on its flagella.

(a) O
(b) H
(c) Ach
58.
59.
The lipopolysaccharides (LPS) is made up of

(a) an O antigen
(c) lipid A
(d) V
(b) a polysaccharide core

(d) all of these
Lipid-A present on an outer membrane is made of two phosphorylated

(a) glycoprotein
(b) glucosamine
(c) mucin
(d) cellulose
60.
Gastric fever, abdominal typhus, infantile intermittent fever, slow fever, nervous fever are the names
of
(a) malaria
(b) dengue
(c) typhoid
(d) Ascariasis
61.
High fever, appearance of rose spots, intestinal perforation or hemorrhage and delusions are typical
symptoms of
(a) influenza
(b) typhoid
(c) AIDS
(d) tuberculosis
62.
In the 1 st week of typhoid

(a) Temperature is more in the afternoon than in the morning
(b) There is bradycardia
(c) There is tachycardia
63.
Vaccine Ty 21 a is for which disease?

(a) Amoebiasis
(b) Ascariasis
(c) Typhoid
(d) Filariasis
64.
Consodilation and exudation of lung is a clinical condition observed in.

(a) common cold
(b) pneumonia
(c) ascariasis
(d) malaria
65.
Which of the following disease is a leading cause of death of young, old and chronically ill?
(a) Polio
(b) Pneumonia
(c) Malaria
(d) Typhoid
66.
Amantadine, zanamivir, rimantadine and oseltamivir are used in the treatment of

(a) common cold
(b) elephantiasis
(c) pneumonia
(d) ringworm
67.
Dermatophytosis is caused by __________ infection.

(a) fungal
(b) bacterial
(c) viral
(d) protozoal
Trichophyton and Microsporum are the causative agent of

(a) Ringworm
(b) Ascariasis
(c) Filariasis
(d) Malaria
68.
69.
70.
Ring worm causes

(a) athletes foot
(c) thickening, discolouring of nail
(b) groin jock itch

(d) all of these
Benign is a type of tumor

(a) which stay in one spot
(c) which demonstrate limited growth
(b) which spread from one cell to another

71.
When cell manages to divide and grow making new blood vessels to feed itself in a process called
(a) invasion
(b) angiogenesis
(c) metastasis
(d) benign
72.
Cancer of breast, lung & colon is called

(a) Sarcomas
(b) Carcinomas
73.
(c) lymphomas
Cancers that begin in the bone marrow is called

(a) Carcinomas
(b) Sarcomas
(c) Lymphomas
74.
In melanoma there is
(a) rapid increasing in number of WBCs
(b) a change in a wart or mole on the skin
(c) white patches inside the mouth or white patch on the tongue
(d) a lump on the breast
75.
Which body system fails in AIDS?

(a) Circulatory
(b) Respiratory
76.
77.
(c) Defence
A disease transferred from mother to child through placenta is

(a) AIDS
(b) Downs syndrome (c) Poliomyelitis
(d) Adenomas
(d) Leukemias
(d) sensory
(d) Mumps
A small group of patients which develop AIDS very slowly or never at all are called
(a) non-progressors (b) opportunistic
(c) HIV positive
(d) none of these
78.
What is of the following statement is not correct about adolescence?

(a) It is a transitional stage of physical and mental development
(b) It occurs between puberty and legal adulthood.
(c) It is present between the age 02 to 13 years.
(d) It is present between the age 13 and 19 years.
79.
Chemically Heroin is called

(a) diethylamides
(b) dopamine
80.
(c) diacetylmorphine
Bhang, charas , marijuana and hashish are obtained from

(a) Nicotiana plant (b) Papaver somniferum (c) Cannabis sativa
(d) ethylamide
(d) Datura stramonium
81.
Coca interferes with the transport of the neuro-transmitter

(a) acetylcholine
(b) nor-adrenalin
(c) dopamine
(d) gamma amino butyric acid
82.
Which of the following plant has hallucination effect?

(a) Erythroxylum coca
(b) Atropa belladonna
(c) Datura
(d) All the above
83.
LSD is derived from

(a) Cannabis
84.
(b) Claviceps
Interferons are
(a) released by cells against viruses
(c) antibodies
(c) Fusarium
(d) Nostoc
(b) hormones substances

(d) viral proteins
85.
Which component of LPS complex of Salmonella typhi is responsible for the host immune response?
(a) Lipid A
(b) O - antigen
(c) A - antigen
(d) Polysaccharide core
86.
Pneumonia is
(a) bacterial
87.
88.
(b) viral
(c) fungal
Which stage of Plasmodium vivax infects the liver cells?

(a) Sporozoites
(b) Trophozoites
(c) Schizonts
Sarcoma is related to the cancer of
(a) connective and muscular tissue
(c) bones
(d) all of these
(d) Merozoites
(b) lymphoid tissue

(d) gland
89.
Immunotherapy, hormone therapy or gene therapy used to for the treatment of

(a) AIDS
(b) Cancer
(c) Pneumonia
(d) Typhoid
90.
The term smash is applicable to

(a) Heroin
(b) Cocaine
(c) Opioid
(d) Brown sugar
91.
Interferon is a protein that

(a) inactivates a virus
(b) protects unattacked cells from virus
(c) prevents viruses from taking over the cellular machinery
(d) all the above
92.
Injecting antibodies against rabies pathogens obtained from hyperimmunised horses will generate
(a) artificial acquired active immunity
(b) artificial acquired passive immunity
(c) natural acquired active immunity
(d) natural- acquired passive immunity
93.
Antigen presenting cell (APC) includes

(a) macrophages
(b) dendritic cells
(c) histocytes
Erythroblastosis foetalis occurs when

(a) Rh +ve mother bears Rh +ve foetus
(c) Rh +ve mother bears Rh - ve feotus
(b) Rh- ve mother bears Rh +ve foetus

(d) Rh - ve mother bears Rh - ve foetus
In lungs, larvae of Ascaris

(a) penetrate the alveolar walls
(c) get swallowed
(b) ascend the respiratory tract to the throat

(d) all of these
Epistaxis means
(a) bleeding nose
(c) decrease in circulating WBC
(b) abdominal pain

(d) profuse sweating
Onychomycosis, is the infection of

(a) foot
(b) nail
(c) hair
_______ is a symptom of cancer.

(a) A lump or hard area in the breast
(b) White patches inside the mouth or tongue

(d) Persistent cough for more than a month
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
(d) all the above
(d) skin
99.
A person has lost weight rapidly, he has prolonged fever and enlargement of lymph, glands. Which
disease is he suffering from?
(a) AIDS
(b) Hepatitis
(c) Leprosy
(d) Tuberculosis
100.
Ability of the body to defend itself against microbial pathogens, toxins and transplanted tissues is
called
(a) acquired immunity
(b) innate immunity
(c) specific immunity
TOPIC: HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASES (ANSWER KEY)

1.
6.
11.
16.
21.
26.
31.
36.
41.
46.
51.
56.
61.
66.
71.
76.
81.
86.
91.
96.
(c)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(b)
(a)
2.
7.
12.
17.
22.
27.
32.
37.
42.
47.
52.
57.
62.
67.
72.
77.
82.
87.
92.
97.
(d)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(d)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(b)
3.
8.
13.
18.
23.
28.
33.
38.
43.
48.
53.
58.
63.
68.
73.
78.
83.
88.
93.
98.
(a)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(c)
4.
9.
14.
19.
24.
29.
34.
39.
44.
49.
54.
59.
64.
69.
74.
79.
84.
89.
94.
99.
(d)
(c)
(c)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(a)
5.
10.
15.
20.
25.
30.
35.
40.
45.
50.
55.
60.
65.
70.
75.
80.
85.
90.
95.
100.
(d)
(d)
(d)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(d)
MH-CET 2015
ASSIGNMENT SERIES
SUBJECT
: Zoology
STANDARD : XIIth
CHAPTER
: ANIMAL HUSBANDRY
TOPIC: ANIMAL HUSBANDRY

1.
About __________ manpower in rural India is dependent on agriculture.

(a) 30%
(b) 50%
(c) 60%
(d) 80%
2.
India and China have ___________ of the world livestock population.

(a) 70%
(b) 25%
(c) 60%
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
Milk yield depends on

(a) good breeds with high yielding potential
(c) quality of milk
(b) disease resistant breeds

__________ are Indian breeds

(a) Sahiwal, Sindhi, Gir
(c) Jaffarabadi, Mehsana
(b) Jersy, Brown swiss, Holstein

(d) Nagpuri, Nili
__________ are exotic breeds.

(a) Sahiwal, Jersy
(c) Sindhi, Brown Swiss
(b) Jersy, Holstein

(d) Sindhi, Gir
Murrah, Mehsana, Jaffrabadi are breeds of

(a) buffalo
(b) cow
(c) cattle
Silage is prepared from

(a) legumes, grasses, maize and jowar
(c) grasses and sugar cane
(b) rice, grasses and wheat

(d) nuts, coconut, mango and jowar
The chicken reared for eggs are

(a) broilers
(b) layers
(c) cocks
9.
Plymouth rock, Rhode Island Red, New Hampshire are

(a) American varieties
(b) Asiatic varieties
(c) Mediterranean varieties
(d) British varieties
10.
Which of the following are Asiatic breeds?

(a) Plymouth Rock, New Hampshire
(c) Leghorn, Minorea
11.
(d) 90%
(d) horse
(d) plymouths
(b) Brahma, Cochin and Langshan

(d) Austra lorp
Which of the following are Mediterranean breeds?

(c) Leg horn, Minorea
(d) Austra lorp
12.
13.
English breeds include

(c) Leghorn, Minorea

(d) Austra lorp
Indian breeds are

(c) Leg horn, Minorea

(d) Chitong, Aseel, Brahma and Kedarnath
14.
Which of the following poultry breeds are preferred as broilers?

(a) Langshan and cochin
(b) Plymouth Rock and Kedarnath
(c) Austra lorp and Chitong
(d) Leg horn and Minorea
15.
Which of the following is a bacterial poultry disease?

(a) Pullorum and Cholera
(b) Typhoid and TB
(c) Chronic Renal Disease and Enteritis
16.
Which is a fungal disease of poultry?

(a) Aspergillosis, thrush
(c) Ranikhet, birdflu
(b) TB, CRD

(d) Pullorum, Bronchitis
Coccidiosis in poultry is caused by

(a) protozoan parasite
(c) virus
(b) helminth parasite

(d) fungi
17.
18.
A group of animals having common ancestors and showing similar characters like general
appearance, features, size, configuration is termed as
(a) breed
(b) kingdom
(c) family
(d) genus
19.
The process of mating two closely related individuals within the same breed for 4 to 6 generations is
called
(a) heterosis
(b) self breeding
(c) inbreeding
(d) hybridization
20.
Inbreeding helps in
(a) accumulation of superior genes.
(b) elimination of harmful or less desirable genes by selection
(c) increasing heterozygosity
21.
The process of mating of unrelated animals of the same breeds but having no common ancestor for 4
to 6 generation is called
(a) inbreeding
(b) out-breeding
(c) selfbreeding
(d) heterosis
22.
The process of mating of animals within the same breed, but having no common ancestors on either
side of mating partners upto 4 to 6 generation is called.
(a) out-crossing
(b) inbreeding
(c) out-breedng
(d) cross breeding
23.
The process of mating of superior male of one breed with superior female of another breed is called
___________ .
(a) out-crossing
(b) inbreeding
(c) out breeding
(d) cross breeding
24.
The process of mating between male and female animals of two different related species is called
____________ .
(a) cross-breeding
(b) interspecific hybridization
(c) out-crossing
(d) out breeding
25.
In MOET technology, cow is administered with

(a) Progesteron hormone
(b) Gonadotropic hormone
(c) FSH
26.
In MOET technology, in each reproductive cycle of cow ___________ eggs mature simultaneously
(a) 1 to 2
(b) 2 to 4
(c) 6 to 8
(d) 8 to 10
27.
In MOET technology, which cell stage is transferred to surrogate mothers?

(a) 2-4 cell stage
(b) 4-8 cell stage
(c) 8-16 cell stage
(d) 8-32 cell stage
28.
The most suitable species of honey bees for bee keeping

(a) Apis indica
(b) Apis mellifera
(c) Apis florea
29.
Bee keeping requires

(a) bee hive boxes with comb foundation sheets, bee veil, smoker
(b) bee brush, gloves, gumshoes
(c) uncapping knife, swarm net, queen excluder
(d) all of these
30.
Bee keeping in the crop fields of ______________ helps in increasing the productivity tremendously.
(a) sunflower, mustard, safflower
(b) chilly, cabbage, cucumber
(c) gourds, legumes, fruits
31.
Inland aquatic area of our country covers about __________ lakh acres
(a) 10-20
(b) 20-35
(c) 40-50
(d) 60-80
India has a very long sea coastline of about ____________ km.

(a) 2500
(b) 5000
(c) 6500
(d) 7500
Fish farms may be seeded with

(a) monoculture
(b) biculture
32.
33.
(c) polyculture
34.
Fish can be preserved for longer duration by which of the following methods?
(a) Chilling, freezing, freeze drying
(b) Sun drying, smoke drying
(c) Salting, canning
35.
____________ is a byproduct of fish.

(a) Fish oil, fish meal, fertlizer
(b) Fish guano, fish glue, isinglass

(d) Wax-jellies, anti-venom
36.
_____________ and _____________ have market value all over the world.
(a) Prawns, lobsters
(b) Bombay duck, sardine
(c) Rohu, catla
(d) Mirgala, pomphret
37.
Silkworm larvae may be infected by

(a) bacterial and fungal diseases only
(c) only viral diseases
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
(b) protozoan, viral and fungal diseases

(d) protozoan and fungal diseases only
The commercial lac is produced in large quantities by

(a) male insect
(b) female insect
(c) (a) and (b) both
Tacchardia lacca feed on _______________ .

(a) mango, orange, lemon
(c) wheat, maize and jower
(b) ber, people, palas, kusum, babool

(d) babool, mango and ber
Natural lac is always

(a) impure
(c) viscous
(b) pure
(d) dense
Lac is used in
(a) bangles, toys, woodwork
(c) wax, isinglass, glue
(b) polish, ink, silvering mirrors

Tassar silk is extracted from

(a) Apis indica
(b) Bombyx mori
(c) Apis dorsata
(d) Anthrera paphia
43.
Management of layer requries

(a) purchase of high yielding chicken
(b) well ventilated farms
(c) proper feed, debeaking sanitation and vaccination
(d) all of these
44.
Which method of animal breeding was used to develop Hisardale?

(a) Out-crossing
(b) Cross-breeding
(c) Out-breeding
(d) Inter-specific hybridization
45.
Which statement regarding artificial insemination is true?

(i) Selection of superior males and collection of their semen
(ii) Injection of semen into the genital tract of female
(iii) Selection of superior females
(iv) It helps to overcome problems of normal mating
(a) (i) and (iii) are true
(b) (i) , (ii) and (iv) are true
(c) (iii) and (iv) are true
(d) (ii) and (iii) are true
46.
The aim of fish farming is

(a) to provide employment
(b) to obtain maximum yield of fish and their byproducts
(c) to increase fertility of soil
47.
About sericulture, all statements are true except

(a) Silk works are of different species
(b) All shows metamorphic development
(c) All types of silk produced is of the same texture and quality
(d) The larvae of different species of silkworms are voracious eaters and subsist on the leaves of
different plants.
48.
Lac is produced by ____________ glands of the female insect.

(a) dermal
(b) salivary
(c) coxal
(d) green
49.
_____________ is native insect of India and produces 85% of total lac in the world.
(a) Apis dorsata
(b) Tacchardia lacca
(c) cockroach
(d) ant
50.
To overcome inbreeding depression, ____________ can be followed

(a) mating between superior males and superior females of different breeds
(b) mating between unrelated superior males and superior females of same breeds
(c) mating between superior males and unrelated females of same breeds
(d) mating between superior males and superior females of different breeds.
TOPIC: ANIMAL HUSBANDRY (ANSWER KEY)

1.
6.
11.
16.
21.
26.
31.
36.
41.
46.
(d)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(d)
2.
7.
12.
17.
22.
27.
32.
37.
42.
47.
(a)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(c)
3.
8.
13.
18.
23.
28.
33.
38.
43.
48.
(d)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(a)
4.
9.
14.
19.
24.
29.
34.
39.
44.
49.
(a)
(a)
(d)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(b)
5.
10.
15.
20.
25.
30.
35.
40.
45.
50.
(b)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(b)
MH-CET 2015
ASSIGNMENT SERIES
SUBJECT
: Zoology
STANDARD : XIIth
CHAPTER
: CIRCULATION
TOPIC: CIRCULATION
1.
Blood contains
(a) 45% plasma and 55% corpuscles
(b) 55% plasma and 45% corpuscles
(c) 60% corpuscles and 40% plasma
(d) 40% corpuscles and 60% plasma
2.
Human RBCs are

(a) nucleated and biconvex
(b) rounded and nucleated
(c) oval and nucleated
(d) circular, biconcave and non-nucleated
3.
The number of RBCs present in adult female

(a) 3.5 to 4.5 million/cu.mm
(b) 4.3 to 5.2 million/cu.mm
(c) 5 to 9 million/ cu.mm
(d) 5.1 to 5.8 million /cu.mm
4.
After birth, _____ is the main site of erythropoiesis

(a) lymph node
(b) bone marrow
(c) spleen
(d) liver
Increase in number of RBCs is called

(a) haematuria
(b) polycythemia
(d) anaemia
5.
(c) leucopenia
6.
The normal haemoglobin count in adult male is

(a) 11.5-16.5 gm/ 100 ml of blood
(b) 13-18 gm/ 100 ml of blood
(c) 10-12 gm/ 100 ml of blood
(d) 14-16 gm/ 100 ml of blood
7.
_________ are freely wandering amoeboid and nucleated blood cells.

(a) Leucocytes (WBCs)
(b) Erythrocytes (RBCs)
(c) Thrombocytes
(d) Hemocytes
8.
Leucocytes are wandering cells capable of coming out of blood capillaries by amoeboid movement
called
(a) cyclosis
(b) diapedesis
(c) phagocytosis
(d) mitosis
9.
The size of leucocytes is

(a) 7 m to 25 m
(b) 8 to 15 m
(c) 10 to 12 m
(d) 15 to 20 m
10.
Maximum life span of human WBCs in blood stream is approximately

(a) less than 10 days
(b) between 20-30 days
(c) between 2-3 months
(d) more than 4 months
11.
Formation of WBCs called

(a) erythropoiesis
(b) leucocytosis
(c) leucopoiesis
(d) polycythemia
12.
Granulocyte contains
(a) granular cytoplasm with lobed nucleus
(b) granular cytoplasm with kidney shaped nucleus.
(c) cytoplasm without granules with lobed nucleus.
(d) cytoplasm without granules with unlobed nucleus.
13.
A polymorphonuclear granulocyte are

(a) eosinophils
(b) neutrophils
(c) basophils
(d) acidophils
Increase in number of eosinophils is called

(a) eosinophilia
(b) haemophilia
(c) polycythemia
(d) erythrocythemia
Lymphocyte produces
(a) heparin
(b) antibodies
(c) histamine
_________ are the largest WBCs.

(a) Monocytes
(b) Lymphocytes
(c) Basophils
(d) Neutrophils
_________ are smallest size blood corpuscles.

(a) Platelets
(b) RBCs
(c) Monocytes
(d) Lymphocytes
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
Conversion of fibrinogen into fibrin is catalysed by

(a) thrombin
(b) prothrombin
(c) thromboplastin
(d) histamine
19.
Thromboplastin changes inactive prothrombin into active thrombin in presence of

(a) Fe ++
(b) Na ++
(c) Ca ++
(d) Mg ++
20.
Human heart is ___________ in origin.

(a) ectodermal
(b) endodermal
(c) mesodermal
Outer layer of pericardium is called

(a) serous pericardium
(c) parietal pericardium
(b) fibrous pericardium

(d) visceral pericardium
Epicardium is composed of
(a) endothelium
(b) exothelium
(c) mesothelium
Endothelium are flat epithelial cells present in

(a) pericardium
(b) epicardium
(c) myocardium
(d) endocardium
21.
22.
23.
(d) ectomesodermal
24.
25.
26.
27.
Coronary sulcus is called

(a) atrio-ventricular groove
(c) auriculo-ventricular septum
(b) interventricular groove

(d) interventricular septum
Opening of coronary sinus is guarded by _____ valve.

(a) thebesian
(b) eustachian
(c) tricuspid
(d) bicuspid
How many caval veins open into the right auricle in man?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Fossa ovalis is a remnant of an oval aperture

(a) foramen ovale
(b) thebesian valve
(d) sinus venosus
(c) Eustachian valve
28.
The opening of the upper chamber of the heart into the lower chamber is known as
(a) sino-auricular aperture
(b) atrio-ventricular aperture
(c) artio-ventricular septum
(d) atrio-ventricular node
29.
The left atrioventricular aperture in man is guarded by

(a) tricuspid valve
(b) semilunar valve
(c) bicuspid valve
(d) thebasian valve
30.
Papillary muscles are found in

(a) pylorus in vertebrate stomach
(b) dermis mammalian skin
(c) ventricles in mammalian heart.
(d) eye orbit of human.
31.
The inner surface of the ventricle is thrown into a series of irregular muscular ridges called.
(a) columnae carnae (b) trabeculae carnae
(c) chordae tendinae (d) Both (a) and (b)
32.
Heart beat is defined as

(a) only contraction of heart
(b) only relaxation of heart
(c) rhythmic contraction and relaxation of heart.
33.
Contraction of heart is initiated by

(a) AVN
(b) SAN
34.
(c) MAP
Conduction of impulse from S.A. node moves to

(a) A.V. node
(b) Bundle of His
(c) Purkinje fibres
(d) Node of Ranvier
(d) Cardiac muscles
35.
A rhythmic contraction and relaxation of heart during one heart beat is called.
(a) heart rate
(b) cardiac cycle
(c) pulse rate
(d) stroke volume
36.
Duration of one heart beat in man is

(a) 0.8 sec
(b) 0.6 sec
(c) 0.2 sec
(d) 0.5 sec
37.
38.
Ventricular systole lasts for

(a) 0.1 seconds
(b) 0.3 seconds
(c) 0.4 seconds
(d) 0.6 seconds
One systole and diastole is known as one

(a) Pulse rate
(b) Heart beat
(c) Cardiac cycle
(d) Heart rate
39.
The cardiovascular centre lies in the ________ of the brain.

(a) medulla oblongata
(b) spinal cord
(c) corpora quadrigemina
(d) pons varolii
40.
During inspiration, heart rate increase and during expiration it falls. This phenomenon is known as
(a) tachycardia
(b) bradycardia
(c) murmur
(d) sinus arrhythmias
41.
Both pulmonary and renal arteries

(a) contain oxygenated blood
(b) have internal valves
(c) have thick walls and narrow lumen
(d) deliver carbon dioxide to the organs they supply
42.
Hisologocally, the wall of artery is made up of

(a) tunica externa
(b) tunica media
(c) tunica interna
43.
Blood capillaries are made up of

(a) endothelium and thin coat of muscle fibres and connective tissue.
(b) endothelium and thin coat of muscle fibres and connective tissue.
(c) endothelium and thin coat of muscle fibres
(d) endothelium only.
44.
Which of the following statement is/ are correct about capillaries?

(a) They are thickest of all blood vessels
(b) They are permeable to water and dissolved substances.
(c) They exchange respiratory gases, nutrients and excretory products between blood and tissues.
45.
The circuit in which the cardiac cycle results in the movement of blood out of the ventricles.
(a) pulmonary circuit (b) systemic circuit
(d) cardiac circuit
46.
During each heart beat ventricles pump about 70 ml of blood. This is called
(a) heart rate
(b) stroke volume
(c) cardiac output
(d) pulse rate
47.
A condition in which rate of heart beat is increased is called

(a) angina pectoris (b) bradycardia
(c) tachycardia
(d) ischemia
The __________ at the wrist is most commonly used to feel the pulse.
(a) coronary artery (b) radial artery
(c) pulmonary artery
(d) systemic artery
48.
49.
Pulse rate is higher in

(a) children and females
(b) person in standing position
(c) during emotional state

50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
Autorhythmicity is a special property of muscles of

(a) heart
(b) kidney
(c) liver
(d) intestine
Cardiac muscle fibres become autorhythmic

(a) after birth
(b) during embryonic development

Blood pressure is pressure on the wall of

(a) heart
(b) veins
(c) arteries
Blood pressure is lowest

(a) after muscle exercise
(c) after the age of 60 years
(b) during ventricular diastole

(d) during ventricular systole
Hypertension is caused by
(a) alcohol
(b) smoking
(c) obesity
(d) lungs
(d) all of these
55.
People suffering from hypertension are susceptible to

(a) heart attack
(b) stroke
(c) kidney malfunctioning
(d) all of these
56.
Hypertension is a result of increase in systolic arterial blood pressure more than ________ and
diastolic pressure more than _________
(a) 150 mm Hg, 80 mm Hg
(b) 140 mm Hg, 90 mm Hg
(c) 100 mm Hg, 70 mm Hg
(d) 120 mm Hg, 100 mm Hg
57.
Anginal pain usually starts in the centre of the chest and spreads
(a) towards lower abdomen
(b) down the left hind limb
(c) down the left arm
(d) down the right arm
58.
Heart failure is a result of

(a) inability of heart to pump blood effectively.
(b) weakening of heart muscles.
(c) severe anaemia and hyperthyroidism.
59.
A graphic record of electrical variation produced by the heart during one heart beat or cardiac cycle
is called
(a) electrocardiogram
(b) cardiogram
(c) pulse graph
60.
Father of Electrocardiography is
61.
62.
63.
64.
(a) William Harvey

(c) Louis Wash Kansky
(b) Martin Black

(d) Einthoven
In electrocardiograph, X and Y-axis represent

(a) time, voltage displacement
(c) voltage displacement, distance
(b) pulse, heart beat

(d) time, impulse
T- wave is a
(a) broad upward wave
(c) small upward wave
(b) large upright triangular wave

(d) straight wave
T-wave represents
(a) ventricular contraction
(c) ventricular relaxation
(b) atrial contraction

(d) atrial relaxation
Artificial pacemaker is powered by

(a) Pb battery
(b) Cd battery
(c) Ni battery
(d) Ni-Cd battery
65.
In case of ___________, artificial pacemaker can be surgically fitted.

(a) hypertension
(b) angina pectoris
(c) arteriosclerosis
(d) arhythmic impulse production
66.
Artificial pacemaker has a life of

(a) 1-2 years
(b) 2-5 years
(c) 3-7 years
(d) 8-10 years
67.
Lymphatic system consists of

(a) lymph, lymphatic capillaries, blood vessels.
(b) lymph, lymphatic capillaries, lymphatic vessels and lymph nodes.
(c) lymphatic capillaries, lymph vessels
(d) lymph, lymphatic vessels and lymph nodes.
68.
Lymph is present in the

(a) lymph vessels
(c) tissue
(b) lymphatic capillaries

(d) all of these
Lymph differs from plasma in having

(a) RBCs
(b) less protein
(c) WBCs
69.
70.
Which of the following is not correct about lymphatic capillaries?

(a) They are thin walled vessels in all the tissue spaces.
(b) They are interwoven with blood capillaries.
(c) They are narrower than blood capillaries.
(d) They are lined by endothelium of thin and flat cells.
71.
Lymphatic capillaries unite to form larger tubes called.

(a) lymph node
(b) lymphatic vessels
(c) lymphatic duct
(d) platelets
(d) lymphatic system
72.
The lymphatic vessels coming from the ______________ are milky in appearance.
(a) stomach
(b) heart
(c) intestine
(d) liver
73.
The lymphatic vessels coming from intestine are milky in appearance due to absorbed
(a) glucose
(b) amino acids
(c) fats
(d) vitamins
74.
The right lymphatic duct

(a) receives lymph from left upper extremity
(b) stores digestive food
(c) is the main collecting duct
(d) drains lymph from the upper right side of the body.
75.
Lymph nodes are maximum in

(a) neck
(b) armpit
(c) groin
(d) all of these
76.
Which of the following statement is not correct about lymph nodes?

(a) They act as filters
(b) They also produce lymphocytes and antibodies.
(c) They destroy the invading micro-organisms.
(d) They play an important role in clotting of the blood.
77.
The sample of a healthy human blood is

(a) alkaline
(b) acidic
(c) neutral
(d) none of these
Which of the following are plasma proteins?

(a) Haemoglobin
(b) Serum albumin
(c) Fibrinogen
78.
79.
80.
Which granulocyte shows anti-histamine property?

(a) Neutrophils
(b) Eosinophils
(c) Basophils
(d) None of these
Which part of the circulatory system is related with the heart?

(a) Coronary
(b) Portal
(c) Rental
(d) Hepatic
81.
__________ lies in the wall of right auricle below the opening of superior vena cava.
(a) Sinoatrial node
(b) Atrio-Ventricular node
(c) Bundle of His
(d) Purkinje fibres
82.
In atherosclerosis, what basically happens is

(a) deposition of hard, stony material in the arterial wall
(b) hardening and loss of elasticity of arterial wall
(c) accumulation of cholesterol in the arterial wall.
(d) thinning of the arterial wall.
83.
In blood, ____________ maintains pH of internal environment by balancing acidity and alkalinity.

(a) haemoglobin
(b) leucocytets
(c) platelets
(d) plasma
84.
______________ differentiate into macrophages or scavenger cells which remove the damages and
dead cells to clean the body.
(a) Monocytes
(b) Lymphocytes
(c) Neutrophils
(d) Basophils
85.
Blood platelets are produced in the red bone marrow from a type of giant myeloid cells called
(a) megakaryocytes (b) erythrocytes
(c) leucocytes
(d) monoblasts
86.
Which one of the statement is incorrect with reference to pericardial fluid?

(a) It is secreted by the serous pericardium.
(b) It is present between the two layers of pericardium.
(c) It restricts the free movement of the heart.
(d) It reduces the friction between the heart wall and the surrounding tissues during the heart beats.
87.
When mitral valve closes, the blood does not flow back into the
(a) right auricle
(b) left auricle
(c) right ventricle
(d) aorta
88.
While fibrous threads which extend from the papillary muscles and prevent the back flow of blood is
called
(a) columnae carneae (b) chordae tendinae
(c) papillary muscles (d) smooth muscles
89.
The specialized tissue concerned with the stimulation and the regulation of heart beat is
(a) connective tissue (b) epithelial tissue
(c) nodal tissue
(d) none of these
90.
When the S.A. node is stimulated, the chambers of the heart which contract are the
(a) right auricle and right ventricle
(b) left auricle and left ventricle
(c) left ventricle and right ventricle
(d) right and left auricles
91.
If the pace maker is absent in the heart,

(a) only auricles will contract
(b) only ventricles will contract
(c) cardiac muscles will contract in a co-ordinate manner.
(d) cardiac muscles will not contract in a co-ordinate manner.
92.
Adrenaline directly affects

(a) Islets of langerhans
(c) epithelial cells of stomach
(b) sinoatrial node

(d) dorsal root ganglia of spinal cord
The velocity of blood flow is minimum in

(a) capillaries
(b) arterioles
(c) small arteries
93.
(d) aorta
94.
Valves are found in veins to check the backflow of the blood flowing under
(a) low pressure
(b) high pressure
(c) no pressure
(d) very high pressure
95.
When the blood flows from heart to rest of the organs and back to heart, it is referred as
(a) systemic circulation
(b) pulmonary circulation
(c) open circulation
(d) single circulation
96.
Cardiac output signifies

(a) The amount of blood entering the heart per unit time
(b) The amount of blood entering the lung per unit time
(c) The amount of blood leaving the heart per unit time
(d) The amount of blood leaving the lung per unit time.
97.
Pulse wave is caused by

(a) systole of the auricles
(c) systole of the left ventricle
(b) diastole of the auricles

(d) systole of the right ventricle
98.
The pressure which the blood exerts on the wall of the arteries when the ventricles are maximally
relaxed is called
(a) systolic blood pressure
(b) diastolic blood pressure
(c) pulse pressure
(d) none of these
99.
Angina pectoris occurs when

(a) coronary arteries become narrow and hard
(b) during exertion, when heart demands more oxygen.
(d) deposition of fatty substance in arteries.
100.
QRS complex represents

(a) spreading of impulse from AV mode to Purkinje fibres
(b) spreading of impulse from SA node to Purkinje fibres
(c) spreading of impulse from SA node to AV node and then to Purkinje fibres through bundle of
His,
(d) spreading of impulse from AV node to bundle of His.
TOPIC: CIRCULATION (ANSWER KEY)

1.
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(d)
(a)
(a)
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(a)
(c)
MH-CET 2015
ASSIGNMENT SERIES
SUBJECT
: Zoology
STANDARD : XIIth
CHAPTER
: EXCRETION AND OSMOREGULATION
TOPIC : EXCRETION AND OSMOREGULATION
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
Which one of the following is not the excretory organ?

(a) Kidneys
(b) Liver
(c) Lungs
(d) Spleen
For removal of 1 gm of ammonia needs _____________ water.

(a) 10 ml
(b) 300 to 500 ml
(c) 100 ml
(d) 50 ml
Fresh water invertebrate or amphibian larvae are

(a) ammonotelic
(b) ureotelic
(c) uricotelic
(d) guanotelic
Urea is
(a) very toxic
(d) none of these
(b) less toxic
(c) least toxic
For removal of 1 gm of urea needs _____________ water.

(a) 50 ml water
(b) 300 to 500 ml
(c) 10 ml
(d) 100 ml
Ureotelism occurs in _______________ animals.

(a) aquatic
(b) land
(d) none of these
Uricotelism uses _____________ energy in forming uric acid.

(a) very little
(b) more
(c) less
(d) no
Ionosinic acid pathway is responsible for

(a) synthesis of uric acid from ammonia
(c) synthesis of urea from ammonia
(b) synthesis of ammonia from uric acid

(d) synthesis of ammonia from urea
For removal of 1 gm of uric acid needs _____________ .

(a) 50 ml water
(b) 300 to 500 ml
(c) 10 ml
(d) 100 ml
10.
Which one of the following contains uric acid as the chief nitrogenous waste?
(a) Frog
(b) Pigeon
(c) Cockroach
11.
The uricotelic animals are normally found in

(a) aquatic habitat
(b) dry habitat
12.
13.
(c) aerial habitat
Excessive formation of uric acid may result in

(a) gout
(b) rheumatoid arthritis (c) osteoarthritis
Guanotelism is seen in
(a) spiders and scorpions
(c) fishes and amphibians
(b) birds and reptiles

(d) all of these
(d) terrestrial habitat
(d) osteoporosis
14.
In man kidneys are present on either side of vertebral column at the level of
(a) 10th thoracic to 3rd lumbar vertebrae
(b) 12th thoracic to 5th lumbar vertebrae
th
rd
(c) 12 thoracic 3 lumbar vertebrae
(d) 10th thoracic to 5th lumbar vertebrae
15.
Kidneys of man
(a) have both side concave
(b) have outer side convex and inner side concave
(c) have outer side concave and inner side convex
(d) have both side convex
16.
Which one is not the function of kidney?

(a) Acid-base balance
(c) Urea synthesis
(b) Osmoregulation
(d) Salt balance
17.
The kidneys are covered by fibrous connective tissue called

(a) Glissons Capsule
(b) tunica albugenia
(c) renal capsule/renal fascia
(d) serous layer
18.
Renal medulla is
(a) below the cortex (b) light red coloured
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
(c) striated
(d) all of these
In each kidney the medulla is divided into ___________ pyramids.

(a) 2 to 3
(b) 5 to 6
(c) 20 to 30
(d) 6 o 20
The narrow apex of pyramid is known as

(a) pelvis
(b) column of Bertini
(d) renal papillae
(c) calyx
The length of ureter is about _____________ long.

(a) 40 cm
(b) 50 cm
(c) 30 cm
(d) 20 cm
The interior of urinary bladder is lined by

(a) columnar epithelium
(c) transitional epithelium
(b) squamous epithelium

(d) podocytes
Urethral opening at its base is controlled by

(a) smooth muscles (b) connective tissue
(c) sphincter muscles
(d) sphincter valves
The Malpighian corpuscle lies in the

(a) medulla
(b) liver
(c) cortex
(d) pelvis
The outer wall of the Bowmans capsule is made up of

(a) many layers of squamous epithelial cells.
(b) many layers of simple squamous epithelial cells.
(c) many layers of flat cuboidal epithelium.
(d) single layer of cuboidal epithelium.
26.
Malpighian corpuscle or Pygmalion corpuscle consists of

(a) afferent and efferent arteriole
(b) glomerulus and renal artery
(c) glomerulus and podocyte
(d) glomerulus and Bowmans capsule
27.
Tubular part of nephron without opening is

(a) proximal convoluted tubule
(c) distal convoluted toubule
(b) loop of Henle

(d) all of these
The collecting tubules of a nephron open into

(a) pelvis
(c) renal column of Bertini
(b) renal pyramids

(d) collecting duct
28.
29.
Which of the two structures of nephron are present in the cortex of kidney?
(a) Collecting duct and glomerulus
(b) Henles loops and convoluted tubules
(c) Malpighian body and convoluted tubules
(d) Henles loop and duct of Belini
30.
Which enzyme in the JG cells help to raise blood pressure if it drops suddenly?
(a) Gastrin
(b) Renin
(c) Pepsin
(d) Amylase
31.
Juxtaglomerular apparatus responds to

(a) salt fluctuation
(c) electrolyte fluctuation
(b) amount of water fluctuation

(d) blood pressure fluctuation
32.
Which of the following substances are unable to filter through glomerular capillaries?
(a) Glucose
(b) Blood cells
(c) Large fat molecules (d) both (b) and (c)
33.
The feet processes of podocytes rest upon

(a) visceral layer of Bowmans capsule
(b) parietal layer of Bowmans capsule
(c) basement membrane of glomerular capillaries
(d) the internal walls of the proximal convoluted tubule
34.
The hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capillaries is about

(a) 55 mm Hg
(b) 15 mm Hg
(c) 10 mm Hg
(d) 30 mm Hg
Filtration pressure in the kidney of man is

(a) 45 mm Hg
(b) 55 mm Hg
(c) 70 Hg
(d) 10 mm Hg
Glomerular filtrate is called

(a) renal filtrate
(c) isotonic filtrate
(b) deproteinized plasma

(d) plasma with waste
35.
36.
37.
High threshold substances are the substances which can be

(a) ultrafiltered in the glomerulus
(b) excreted by the nephrons
(c) secreted actively
(d) completely reabsorbed
38.
Which of the following substances are considered as low threshold substances ?

(a) Glucose and amino acids
(b) Uric acid and Urea
39.
Water is not reabsorbed in

(a) proximal convoluted tubule
(c) ascending limb of loop of Henle
(b) descending limb of loop of Henle

(d) distal convoluted tubule
40.
Which one of the following substance is actively secreted into the glomerular filtrate of the kidney
tubule?
(a) Potassium ions (b) Amino acids
(c) Sodium ions
(d) Chloride ions
41.
Iodine containing compound such as iodopyracet is

(a) reabsorbed
(b) secreted out into urine
(c) enters blood stream
(d) unable to filter
42.
Reabsorption of substances according to the needs of body is called

(a) obligatory reabsorption
(b) facultative reabsorption
(c) glomerular reabsorption
43.
Rapidly progressive loss of renal function occurs in

(a) Acute kidney injury (AKI)
(b) Acute renal failure (ARF)
(c) Chronic kidney disease (CKD)
44.
Acute kidney injury (AKI) is characterized by

(a) anuria
(b) polyuria
45.
46.
47.
(c) oliguria
(d) proteinuria
The kidney produces _____________ for the production of RBCs.

(a) erythropoietin
(b) calcitriol
(c) calculus
(d) urea
____________ plays a role in bone formation.

(a) Erythropoietin
(b) Sodium
(d) Potassium
(c) Calcitriol
Condition of having kidney stones is referred as

(a) Nephritis
(b) Proteinuria
(c) Brights disease
(d) Nephrolithiasis
48.
Urea splitting bacteria produce ____________ in people suffering with urinary tract infections.
(a) calcium stones
(b) struvite stones
(c) phosphate stones (d) oxalate stones
49.
Uric acid stones are formed due to

(a) formation of amino acid
(c) high levels of phosphorus in blood
(b) certain metabolic abnormalities

(d) high levels of calcium in blood
Kidney transplantation is classified as

(a) deceased-donor (b) living-donor
(d) adolescent donor
Normal level of urea in blood is

(a) 0.01 0.03%
(b) 0.04 0.05%
(c) 0.06 0.08%
(d) 0.05 0.07%
50.
51.
52.
Osmoreceptors for renal control mechanism are situated in

(a) columns of Bertini
(b) loop of Henle
(c) medulla oblongata
(d) hypothalamus
53.
The enzyme responsible for converting angiotensin I to angiotensin II is secreted by

(a) lungs
(b) heart
(c) intestine
(d) liver
54.
In mammals, ____________ monitors blood pressure.

(a) JGA
(b) GFR
(c) BCP
(d) BCOP
55.
The condition in which water excretion increases due to the ncreased excretion of Na+ in urine is
called
(a) urolithiasis
(b) nephrolithiasis
(c) natriuresis
(d) antinatriuresis
56.
What accumulates in dangerous proportion in the blood of person whose kidney is not working
properly?
(a) Ammonia
(b) Sodium chloride
(c) Urea
(d) Lysine
57.
The sweat contains large amount of water and

(a) urea
(b) lactic acid
(c) sodium chloride
(d) all of these
58.
The lungs are considered as excretory organs because of their ablity to eliminate
(a) CO2
(b) volatile substances such as chloroform
(c) CO2 and moisture during expiration
(d) CO2 and fumes of hot food
59.
The space between the parietal and visceral layer of Bowmans capsule is
(a) urinary space
(b) proximal end
(c) distal end
60.
The amount of urine passing through the kidneys daily is

(a) 1.5 litres
(b) 1.8 litres
(c) 3 litres
(d) 2 litres
In absence of ADH, the disease caused is

(a) Diabetes mellitus (b) Diabetes insipidus
(d) Acromegaly
61.
62.
(c) Oliguria
Renal failure is detected by an increased serum

(a) glucose
(b) creatinine
(c) uric acid
(d) vitamin B12
63.
The term excretion correctly applies only to those substances which

(a) must cross cell membrane to leave the body (b) must not cross cell membrane
(c) must be volatile
(d) must be non volatile waste
64.
Urea is the combination of NH3 and

(a) CO2
(b) CO
(c) uric acid
(d) creatinine
Animals which produce semisolid urine are

(a) ammonotelic
(b) aminotelic
(c) uricotelic
(d) ureotelic
65.
66.
What is associated with the uricotelic condition of animals?

(a) Diet intake
(b) Energy needs
(c) Conservation of water
(d) Food habits
67.
Waste products of adenine and guanine metabolism are excreted by man as

(a) urea
(b) uric acid
(c) ammonia
(d) guanine
68.
Uric acid and guanine are the excretory products and are members of
(a) purine
(b) pyrmidine
69.
The kidneys are said to be retroperitoneal because

(a) they are covered completely by peritoneal membrane
(b) they are covered completely by pericardial membrane
(c) they are covered only on one surface by peritoneal membrane
(d) they are covered only on on surface by pleural membrane
70.
A space present on the median side of kidney is known as

(a) Ureter
(b) Calyx
(c) Pelvis
71.
Columns of Bertini are

(a) projections of conical tissues in medullary region
(b) projection of medulla into cortex
(c) space between major calices
(d) space joining two adjacent renal pyramids
72.
How many glomeruli are present in each kidney of human body?

(a) 102
(b) 104
(c) 10 12
73.
Each nephron begins with

(a) Bowmans capsule
(c) Malphigian corpusele
(d) none of these
(d) Column of Bertini
(d) 106
(b) Glomerulus
(d) None of these
74.
With a longer Henles loop, what happens to the urine?

(a) Urine becomes more concentrated by reabsorption of water.
(b) Urine becomes more concentrated by addition of excretory products.
(c) Urine becomes more dilute by preventing water reabsorption.
(d) Urine becomes concentrated by reabsorption of vital substances.
75.
Which of the following is correct?

(a) Afferent arteriole is narrower than efferent arteriole
(b) Efferent arteriole is as wide as afferent venule
(c) Efferent arteriole is narrower than afferent arteriole
(d) Afferent arteriole is narrower than efferent venule
76.
What happens when blood enters the glomerulus at a faster rate?

(a) Dilation of capillaries
(b) Development of hydrostatic pressure within the glomerulus
(c) Vasoconstriction of glomerulus capillaries
(d) No effect is seen
77.
Podocytes are cells which form

(a) neck of nephron
(c) wall of Bowmans capsule
(b) wall of glomerular capillaries

(d) wall of Henles loop
78.
Filtration rate at glomerular level increases with

(a) increase in blood pressure
(b) vasoconstriction of afferent arteriole
(c) vasodilation of efferent renal arteriole
(d) increase in colloid osmotic pressure of blood
79.
Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is

(a) amout of filtrate formed per day by both kidneys
(b) amount of filtrate formed by both kidneys per minute
(c) amont of filtrate formed per minute by one kidney
(d) amount of filtrate formed per hour by both kidneys
80.
Which is not reabsorbed from the filtrate to send back to the blood at the proximal tubule?
(a) Glucose
(b) Na+
(c) Plasma proteins
(d) Water
81.
In the constituents of normal urine, the abnormal substance is

(a) urea
(b) glucose
(c) uric acid
(d) creatinine
82.
Urine can be the correct name given to the fluid present in

(a) Bowmans capsule
(b) collecting tubule
(c) Henles loop
83.
Reabsorption of useful substances from glomerular filtrate occurs manly in

(a) collecting tube
(b) loop of Henle
(c) proximal convoluted tubule
84.
Which statement is the regarding homeostatic regulation of acidity of blood?

(a) Hydrogen ion secretion takes place in DCT and collecting tubule
(b) Active transport of H-ions by the tubular cells to bring down its concentration in the blood
(c) To maintain the NaCl concentration
85.
Yellow colour of urine is due to urochrome. It is

(a) a bile pigment
(b) a plasma protein
(c) a steroid hormone
86.
The effect of antidiuretic hormone is to

(a) reduce water loss by lungs
(c) decrease reabsorption of water by kidneys
(d) a product of platelets
(b) increase perspiration

(d) increase reabsorption of water by kidneys
87.
Urine of a person suffering from diabetes insipidus is

(a) sugary and concentrated
(b) non-sugary and dilute
(c) non-sugary and concentrated
(d) sugary and dilute
88.
Deficient urine excretion is

(a) anuria
(b) oligouria
(c) polyuria
89.
Which statement is correct about chronic kidney disease?

(a) It may develop suddenly.
(b) It may develop slowly and initially show few symptoms
(c) It lead to high fever followed by death
(d) It cannot be cured.
90.
Chronic kidney disease stage 5 is a state of

(a) chronic renal failure
(c) acute renal failure
(d) pyuria
(b) end-stage kidney disease

91.
Dialysis is a treatment of kidney which replace the functions of kidney except

(a) diffusion
(b) ultrafiltration
(c) endocrine function (d) none of the above
92.
Which of the following is not a component of kidney stones?

(a) Calcium oxalate (b) Uric acid
(c) Phosphate
93.
94.
In Brights disease (Nephritis)

(a) presence of protein in the urine
(c) less amount of urine is excreted
(b) blood comes out along with urine

(d) all of these
Atrial Natriuretic Factor (ANF)

(a) stimulates natriuresis
(c) causes rise in blood volume
(b) promotes Na+ and water excretion in the urine

95.
Sebaceous glands are beneficial because they

(a) pour their secretion on the surface of the skin
(b) pour their secretion in the hair follicle
(c) keep the skin soft
96.
About sweat glands all are true except

(a) sweat glands are placed in the dermis.
(c) they have wavy ducts in the epidermis.
97.
(d) Creatinine
(b) they are linked with hair follicles.

(d) their role is also excretory to some extent.
It Henles loop were absent from mammalian nephron, which of the following statement is correct?
(a) There will be no urine formation.
(b) There will be hardly any change in the quality and quantity of urine formed.
(c) The urine will be more concentrated.
(d) The urine will be more dilute.
98.
Least concentration of urea in blood is present in

(a) renal artery
(b) renal vein
(c) post caval
(d) dorsal aorta
99.
Which three structures contribute to the formation of juxtaglomerular apparatus?

(a) DCT + Henles loop + collecting dust
(b) PCT + Afferent arteriole + efferent arteriole
(c) DCT + Afferent arteriole + efferent arteriole
(d) Henles loop + collecting duct + renal pelvic
100.
Which of the following is also called Duct f Bellini?

(a) Proximal tubule
(b) Collecting duct
(c) Distal tubule
(d) Ascending limb of Henles loop
TOPIC: EXCRETION AND OSMOREGULATION (ANSWER KEY)

1.
6.
11.
16.
21.
26.
31.
36.
41.
46.
51.
56.
61.
66.
71.
76.
81.
86.
91.
96.
(d)
(c)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(c)
(b)
2.
7.
12.
17.
22.
27.
32.
37.
42.
47.
52.
57.
62.
67.
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MH-CET 2015
ASSIGNMENT SERIES
SUBJECT
: Zoology
STANDARD : XIIth
CHAPTER
: CONTROL AND CO-ORDINATION
TOPIC: COTROL AND CO-ORDINATION
1.
Which one of the following is true about human CNS?

(a) It is endodermal in origin.
(b) It consists of only grey mater.
(c) It is covered by two meninges and protected within bony coverings.
(d) It is ectodermal in origin.
2.
The web shaped covering of the brain is

(a) dura matter
(c) arachnoid membrane
(b) pia matter

(d) none of these
Subdural space is present between

(a) pia mater and arachnoid
(c) pia mater and grey mater
(b) arachnoid and dura mater

(d) grey mater and white mater
Sub-dura1 space is filled with

(a) serous fluid
(b) visceral fluid
(c) synovial fluid
3.
4.
(d) cerebrospinal fluid
5.
The function of choroid plexus and ependymal cells is

(a) to produce lymph
(b) to produce blood.
(c) to produce cerebrospinal fluid
(d) to produce endolymph
6.
The cerebrospinal fluid is _____________ in nature.

(a) acidic
(b) neutral
(c) alkaline
(d) none of these
7.
The amount of cerebrospinal fluid in an adult healthy human being is about

(a) 200 ml
(b) 120 ml
(c) 60 ml
(d) 300 ml
8.
The main function of the cerebrospinal fluid in the ventricles of the brain and central canal of spinal
cord is
(a) to maintain constant temperature inside.
(b) to absorb any mechanical shocks.
(c) to supply O2 to brain.
9.
The brain develops to its full size at the age of __________ years.
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 3
The brain contains about _____________ neurons.

(a) 30,000 million
(b) 20,000 million
(c) 40,000 million
(d) 50,000 million
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
Which of the following is also known as Rhinencephalon?

(a) Cerebellum
(b) Optic lobes
(c) Cerebrum
Diencephalon is also called
(a) Thalamencephalon
(c) Rhombencephalon
(b) Telencephalon
(d) Metencephalon
In man, the olfactory lobes are

(a) hollow and well developed.
(c) fully solid and well developed.
(b) paired, solid bodies and poorly developed.

(d) half hollow, half solid and reduced.
Cerebrum constitutes
(a) 15 % of entire weight of the brain.
(c) 85 % of entire weight of the brain.
(b) 20 % of entire weight of the brain.

(d) 50 % of entire weight of the brain.
15.
The telencephalon is divided by a longitudinal fissure into

(a) cerebral hemispheres
(b) cerebral cortex
(c) crura cerebri
(d) cerebellum
16.
Pallium is
(a) lateral wall of diencephalon
(c) floorwall of paracoel.
17.
(d) Olfactory lobe
(b) lateral wall of cerebrum.

(d) roof of lateral ventricle.
Elevations seen on surface of cerebral hemispheres are called

(a) corpus striatum (b) sulci
(c) gyri
(d) corpus callosum
18.
In cerebral hemisphere, masses of grey matter located in white matter are called
(a) basal nuclei
(b) thalami
(c) corpora striata
(d) optic chiasma
19.
Each cerebral hemisphere is divided into

(a) 4 lobes by 4 sulci (b) 4 lobes by 3 sulci
(c) 3 lobes by 4 sulci
The frontal and parietal lobes are separated by

(a) parieto occipital sulcus
(c) lateral sulcus
(b) central sulcus

(d) dorsal fissure
Brocas motor speech area occurs in

(a) temporal lobe
(b) medulla oblongata
(c) frontal lobe
20.
21.
(d) 3 lobes by 3 sulci
(d) diencephalons
22.
The diencephalon lies below the ________ and above the _________ respectively.
(a) corpus callosum; mid brain
(b) pons varolii; mid brain
(c) cerebellum; mid brain
(d) mid brain; hind brain
23.
Third ventricle of brain is called

(a) myelocoel
(b) diocoel
(c) lateral ventricle
(d) metacoel
24.
The roof of diencephalon which gives an upward projection of pineal body is called
(a) thalamus
(b) epithalamus
(c) hypothalamus
(d) none of these
25.
_______ and _______ function as an endocrine gland in diencephalon.

(a) Pineal body, epithalamus
(b) Foramen of monro, hypothalamus
(c) Epithalamus, hypothalamus
(d) Pineal body, thalami
26.
Lateral thick walls of diencephalon are called

(a) thalami
(b) epithalamus
(c) hypothalamus
The Habencular commissure joins

(a) two lobes of cerebrum.
(c) the diencephalon and optic lobe.
(b) two thalami.

(d) mid brain and hind brain
27.
(d) none of these
28.
Thalamus has connection with various parts of the brain called

(a) limbic system
(b) reticular activating system
(c) portal system
(d) all of these
29.
All sensory impulses except olfactory, entering the cerebrum must pass through
(a) spinal cord
(b) medulla oblongata (c) hypothalamus
(d) thalamus
30.
________ is the relay centre for motor and sensory impulses between spinal cord, brain stem and
various areas of cerebral cortex.
(a) Rhinencephalon
(b) Telencephalon
(c) Diencephalon
(d) Metencephalon change option
31.
Mid brain is the middle part of the brain and situated between
(a) diencephalon and pons varolii.
(b) pons varolii and medulla oblongata.
(c) cerebral hemisphere.
(d) hypothalamus and epithalamus.
32.
Two pairs of lobes present in the dorsal wall of midbrain is called

(a) crura cerebri
(b) corpora quadrigemina
(c) optic chiasma
(d) epithalamus
33.
If the cerebellum is injured,

(a) movement is steady and speech becomes defective.
(b) movement becomes unbalanced and speech defective.
(c) there is effect on learning ability.
(d) there is no effect as the action are under the control of will.
34.
In daily routine, standing and walking is controlled by which part of the brain?
(a) Frontal lobe
(b) Temporal lobe
(c) Cerebellum
(d) Cerebrum
35.
In hind brain, _______ is made up of pons and medulla.

(a) arbor vitae
(b) vermis
(c) brain stem
(d) pallium
36.
The medulla oblongata and pons enclose the

(a) optic capsule
(b) optic lobe
(c) third ventricle
(d) fourth ventricle
37.
A highly vascular body called posterior choroid plexus is found

(a) on the diencephalon.
(b) on cerebellum
(c) on the roof of medulla oblongata.
(d) below medulla oblongata.
38.
Spinal cord is enclosed in ________ of vertebral column.

(a) central canal
(b) neural canal
(c) dorsal canal
(d) ventral canal
Spinal cord has tapering cone shaped end called

(a) conus terminalis (b) conus medullaris
(c) filum terminale
(d) both (B) and (C)
White matter of spinal cord is divided into three columns called

(a) funiculi
(b) sulcus
(c) gyri
(d) none of these
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
In spinal cord, funiculi have

(a) adipose tissue
(c) cartilage
(b) bundles of nerve fibres

(d) white fibres
In spinal cord, ascending tracts present in dorsal funiculi are

(a) motor
(b) sensory
(c) sensitive
(d) mixed
Nerves that arise or end into brain are called

(a) spinal nerves
(b) cranial nerves
(c) peripheral nerves
(d) all of these
Occulomotor nerve innervates

(a) ear drum
(b) ear canals
(c) tongue
(d) eye muscles
_________ is called dentist nerve.

(a) Trochlear
(b) Trigeminal
(c) Vagus
(d) Occulomotor
Lateral rectus muscle of eye ball is supplied by

(a) pathetic
(b) abducens
(c) occulomotor
(d) trigeminal
Glossopharyngeal nerve innervates

(a) stomach
(b) intestine
(c) trachea
(d) tongue
48.
Movement of shoulder muscle and neck is controlled by which of the following nerve?
(a) Vagus
(b) Hypoglossal
(c) Spinal accessory
(d) Glossopharyngeal
49.
The last two cranial nerves in humans are functionally

(a) mixed
(b) motor
(c) mixed and motor respectively
(d) motor and mixed respectively
50.
Which of the following cranial nerves are mixed type?

(a) I, II, VII
(b) III, IV, VI, XII
(c) V, VII, IX, X
(d) All are mixed type like spinal nerves.
51.
Coccygeal spinal nerves in humans is

(a) 7 pairs
(b) 8 pairs
(c) 12 pairs
52.
Each spinal nerve is formed by

(a) union of dorsal and ventral horn of spinal cord.
(b) union of dorsal and ventral root of spinal cord.
(c) union of efferent nerve fibres of dorsal root.
(d) union of efferent nerve fibres of ventral root.
53.
The ramus communicans connects

(a) the dorsal root ganglion and the spinal nerve.
(b) the spinal cord and the sympathetic ganglion.
(c) the dorsal root ganglion and the sympathetic ganglion.
(d) one sympathetic ganglion with the other.
54.
The chemical substance released by para sympathetic nervous system is

(a) GABA
(b) nor adrenaline
(c) acetylcholine
55.
Neuron is surrounded by
(a) intracellular fluid (b) extracellular fluid
(d) 1 pair
(d) endorphin
(c) cerebrospinal fluid (d) pericardial fluid
56.
When a nerve fibre is stimulated, the inside of the membrane becomes

(a) negatively charged
(b) positively charged
(c) repolarised
(d) filled with acetylcholine
57.
The space between pre-synaptic and post synaptic neuron is called

(a) synaptic vesicle (b) synapse
(c) synaptic cleft
(d) terminal button
58.
Transmission of impulse across

(a) electrical synapse is slower than chemical synapse.
(b) electrical synapse is faster than chemical synapse.
(c) electrical and chemical synapse is same.
59.
After transmission of impulse, neurotransmitter is removed from synaptic cleft by

(a) receptors
(b) hormones
(c) enzymes
(d) glucagon
60.
In reflex action, the reflex arch is formed by

(a) brain spinal cord muscles
(c) muscles receptor brain
(b) receptor spinal cord muscles

(d) neuroglia spinal cord receptor
61.
Somatic reflexes are generated through

(a) skeletal muscles (b) glands
(c) smooth muscles
62.
When more than two neurons are involved, the reflexes are termed as
(a) simple reflexes
(b) monosynaptic reflexes
(c) polysynaptic reflexes
(d) neuron reflexes
63.
A part of the body which receives the stimulus and converts it into impulse is called
(a) afferent neuron (b) receptor organ
(c) effector organ
(d) effector organ
64.
In reflex action, sensory neuron is placed in

(a) dorsal root ganglion
(c) ventral horn of grey matter of spinal cord.
(b) dorsal horn of grey matter of spinal cord.

(d) ventral root of spinal nerve.
Receptors receiving internal stimuli are known

(a) visceral receptors (b) interoreceptors
(c) exteroreceptors
Which of the following is/are exteroceptors?

(a) Mechanoreceptors
(c) Proprioreceptors
(b) Thermoreceptors
Find the odd one.

(a) Proprioreceptors (b) Chemoreceptors
(c) Enteroreceptors
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
(d) organoreceptors
(d) Baroreceptors
The phrase Windows for the brain is used to describe

(a) sense organs
(b) spinal organs
(c) brain
(d) nerve impulse
The receptors for touch and pressure are

(a) Photo-receptors (b) Chemoreceptors
(c) Thermoreceptors
(d) Mechanoreceptors
Tangoreceptors are sensitive to

(a) touch
(b) pressure
(d) smell
Frigido receptors are sensitive to

(a) touch
(b) pressure
(c) cold
(d) warmth
Equilibrium receptors are situated in

(a) hind limb
(b) brain
(c) internal ear
(d) lumbar region
The receptors located in the tendons, muscles and joints are called
(a) exteroceptors
(b) proprioceptors
(c) interoceptors
Enteroreceptors are sensitive to
(a) hunger, thirst
(c) pH, osmotic changes
(d) statoreceptors
(b) pain, temperature

75.
A pair of broad bean-sized organ of nose which is an extension of the brain limbic system is called
(a) optic bulb
(b) tango bulb
(c) tactile bulb
(d) olfactory bulb
76.
________ is present in muscles and joints and gives information about the position of parts of the
body in space and the forces acting on them.
(a) fimell sensor
(b) Thirst sensor
(c) Stretch sensor
(d) Hunger sensor
77.
The photoreceptor cells are of ____________ types.

(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 5
78.
How many types of cones are present which are responsible for colour differentiation?
(a) Only one
(b) 7 types for seven fundamental colours
(c) 3 types
(d) 4 types
79.
Aqueous humor is
(a) a transparent gelatinous fluid present in aqueous chamber.
(b) a thin watery fluid present in aqueous chamber.
(c) a thick opaque gelatinous fluid present in aqueous chamber.
(d) a thin colourful fluid present in aqueous chamber.
80.
The larger space between the lens and the retina is termed as
(a) aqueous chamber (b) optic chamber
(c) vitreous chamber
81.
82.
The shape of the eyeball is maintained by

(a) only aqueous humor.
(c) both aqueous and vitreous humor.
(d) fluid chamber
(b) only vitreous humor.

(d) either aqueous or vitreous humor.
The light rays from the object pass through _______ and _______ .
(a) cornea, lens
(b) rods, cones
(c) orbits, sctera
(d) choroid, pupil
83.
In the auditory canal, which one of the following gland is present?

(a) Ceruminous gland
(b) Meibomian gland
(c) Perineal gland
(d) Sebaceous gland
84.
The tympanic membrane or ear drum is formed of connective tissues having

(a) outer skin cover.
(b) inner mucus membrane.
(c) inner skin cover.
(d) both (A) and (B)
85.
The internal ear is fluid filled structure called

(a) ossicles
(b) labyrinth
(c) incus
The membranous labyrinth consists of

(a) coiled cochlea
(c) the basilar membrane
(b) the Reissners membrane

86.
(d) stapes
87.
The bony labyrinth is divided into

(a) upper scala vestibuli and lower scala tympani.
(b) lower scala vestibuli and upper scala tympani.
(c) upper scala media and lower scala vestibuli.
(d) lower scala media and upper scala vestibuli.
88.
Auditory sense organ in man is

(a) organ of corti
(b) Webrian ossicles
(c) lateral line system (d) utriculus
89.
The vestibular apparatus of internal ear consists of

(a) pinna and auditory meatus
(b) malleus and incus
(c) eustachian tube and stapes
(d) semicircular canals and otolith organ
90.
The otolith organ is formed of

(a) sacculus and utriculus
(c) crista and macula.
91.
92.
93.
(b) perilymph and endolymph.

(d) scala tympani and scala vestibuli.
The swollen base of semicircular canals present in internal ear is called

(a) ampullae
(b) sacculus
(c) utriculus
(d) tectorial membrane
The projecting ridge of sacculus and utriculus is called

(a) ampullae
(b) macula
(c) otolith organ
(d) tectorial membrane
The projecting ridge of ampullae is known as

(a) crista vestibuli
(b) crista tympani
(d) crista sacculus
(c) crista ampullaris
94.
The ciliary body in human eye is formed by

(a) thin two third posterior region and thick anterior region of middle layer.
(b) thick two third posterior region and thin anterior region of middle layer.
(c) thin one third posterior region and thick two third anterior region of middle layer.
(d) thick one third posterior region and thin two third anterior region of middle layer.
95.
Which element of simple reflex arc is involved in interpretation of sensory impulse?

(a) Sensory neuron (b) intermediate neuron (c) motor neuron
(d) effector neuron
96.
Which effect would be produced, if the corpus callosum of the mammalian brain is removed?
(a) Loss of sensory input to the cerebral hemispheres.
(b) Failure to co-ordinate right and left sides of the body.
(c) Overactivity of the posterior pituitary.
(d) Loss of control of the motor responses of the body.
97.
Corpora striata are found in

(a) roof of lateral ventricle.
(c) lateral walls of lateral ventricle.
(b) ventrolateral walls of cerebrum.

(d) none of these
98.
The central sulcus of the cerebral hemisphere has motor area and sensory area
(a) in its front and behind respectively.
(b) behind and in front respectively.
(c) in the front.
(d) both behind the central sulcus.
99.
The sensation from skin is perceived in the cerebrum by

(a) frontal lobe
(b) parietal lobe
(c) temporal lobe
(d) occipital lobe
100.
The part of the hind brain that is responsible for hand-eye co-ordination is the
(a) pons varolii
(b) hippocampus
(c) cerebellum
(d) medulla oblongata
101.
Which is not a function of cerebellum?

(a) Maintaining posture and equilibrium.
(b) Maintaining the muscle tone.
(c) Each cerebellar hemisphere influencing muscle activity of opposite side of body.
(d) Causing smooth and precise movement of muscle initiated by cerebral cortex.
102.
In pons varolii, arrangement of grey mater and white mater is

(a) similar to cerebrum
(b) similar to cerebellum
(c) opposite to cerebrum and cerebellum and similar to medulla oblongata
103.
Most of the cranial nerves originate from

(a) medulla
(b) cerebellum
(c) cerebrum
Cerebrum differs from the spinal cord in that

(a) it is ectodermal in origin.
(c) it is covered by meninges.
(b) it is hollow.
(d) its grey matter is outside.
Whistling is affected with the cranial nerve

(a) trochlear
(b) facial
(c) vagus
(d) trigeminal
Which cranial nerve is connected to taste buds?

(a) Occulomotor
(b) Facial
(c) Vagus
(d) Trochlear
Swallowing of food is done by the cranial nerve number

(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 10
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
(d) diencephalon
What is not true about the sympathetic nervous system (SNS)?

(a) In action, SNS is antagonistic to PNS.
(b) It includes two sympathetic chains of ganglia on either side of the vertebral column.
(c) Ramus communicans form interconnecting bridges between the sympathetic ganglia and spinal
nerves.
(d) It is formed by 11 pairs of sympathetic nerve fibres.
109.
110.
Heart beats are accelerated by

(a) cranial nerves and adrenaline.
(c) sympathetic nerves and adrenaline.
(b) cranial nerves and acetylcholine.

(d) sympathetic nerves and acetylcholine.
Parasympathetic nervous system is also termed as

(a) visceral
(b) thoracicolumbar (c) craniosacral
(d) mesenteric
111.
Pituitary gland is called leader of endocrine orchestra because

(a) it controls growth of the body.
(b) it controls activities of all other endocrine glands.
(c) it is responsible for gigantism.
(d) it is the largest endocrine gland in the body.
112.
The part of brain which has control over the endocrine system is
(a) Cerebrum
(b) Hypothalamus
(c) Thalamus
(d) Epithalamus
Pituitary gland is attached to the hypothalamus by

(a) sphenoid bone
(b) infundibulum
(c) hypophyseal stalk
The gland situated behind the optic chiasma is

(a) hypothalamus
(b) pineal gland
(c) pituitary
(d) sella tursica
Pituitary gland is
(a) ectodermal
(c) mesodermal
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
(b) endodermal
Adenohypophysis forms _______% of the pituitary gland.

(a) 25
(b) 50
(c) 75
Adenohypophysis is derived from
(a) floor of hypothalamus
(c) roof of the buccal chamber
(d) 100
(b) floor of the buccal chamber

(d) roof of thalamus
________ forms collar around the infundibulum.

(a) Pars tuberalis
(b) pars distalis
(c) pars intermedia
(d) pars nervosa
Which is the largest anterior region of pituitary gland?

(a) Pars intermedia (b) Pars tuberalis
(c) Pars distalis
(d) Pars nervosa
Pars distalis is connected to the hypothalamus by

(a) infundibulum
(b) stalk
(c) sphenoid bone
(d) blood sinusoids
Neurohypophysis is divided into

(a) median eminence, infundibulum, pars nervosa.
(b) median eminence, infundibulum, pars tuberalis.
(c) median eminence, infundibulum, pars distalis.
(d) median eminence, infundibulum, pars intermedia.
122.
_______ is the swollen median part of the hypothalamus where infundibulum gets attached
(a) Median eminence (b) Infundibulum
(c) Pars nervosa
(d) Pars intermedia
123.
Herring bodies are present in

(a) thyroid
(c) posterior pituitary gland
(b) anterior pituitary gland

(d) adrenal
Growth hormone is also called

(a) ACTH
(b) FSH
(c) ICSH
124.
(d) STH
125.
A short individual, fairly well proportionate, who is mentally normal and shows under secretion of
growth hormone. This stage is called
(a) Lorain type
(b) Frohlic type
(c) Acromegaly
(d) Gigantism
126.
Hyposecretion of GH in adults causes

(a) Acromegaly
(b) Gigantism
(c) Lorain dwarfism
(d) Simmonds disease
TSH is regulated by
(a) TRF
(c) LTH
(d) FSH
127.
(b) ACTH
128.
Function of ACTH is to
(a) stimulate pituitary
(b) stimulate the adrenal cortex to produce hormones
(c) suppress the activity of adrenal cortex
(d) stimulate thyroid
129.
The regulation of ACTH is under control of

(a) hypothalamic GHRF.
(c) hypothalamic CRF.
(b) hypothalamic TRF.

(d) hypothalamic GTH.
Hyposecretion of ACTH leads to

(a) Addisons disease (b) Cushings disease
(c) Graves disease
130.
(d) Diabetes insipidus
131.
Symptoms of Addisons disease include

(a) feeble heart action, low BP.
(b) acidosis, excessive loss of Na and Cl in urine.
(c) alkalosis, polydipsia
132.
The hypersecretion of ACTH leads to excessive growth of adrenal cortex causing

(a) Addisons disease (b) Cushings disease (c) Graves disease
(d) Diabetes insipidus
133.
Which of these hormones from pituitary is responsible for development of mammary glands,
secretion of milk after birth and functioning of corpus luteum during pregancy?
(a) Prolactin
(b) Oxytocin
(c) LH
(d) FSH
134.
Which hormone initiates and regulates lactation in female after child birth?
(a) Progesterone
(b) Oxytocin
(c) Prolactin
135.
Which hormone in the blood reduces the chances of pregnancy?

(a) Luteinizing hormone
(b) CRH
(c) ICSH
(d) Prolactin
136.
Oestrogen is secreted by
(a) germinal epithelium of ovary
(c) corpus albicans
(b) follicular cells

(d) all of these
Spermatogenesis is stimulated by
(a) STH
(b) TSH
(c) FSH
137.
138.
Luteinising hormone (LH) in female

(a) helps in the appearance of secondary sexual characters.
(b) stimulates ovary to secrete oestradiol.
(c) helps in the release of the ovum from the ovary.
(d) control the blood pressure.
139.
Male hormone testosterone is secreted by

(a) sperms
(c) prostate gland
(d) MSH
(b) seminiferous tubules

(d) interstitial cells of testes
140.
High level of progesterone in female signals negative feedback to pituitary and stops secretion of
(a) LH
(b) Oestrogens
(c) LTH
(d) ACTH
141.
In males, high level of testosterone in blood gives negative feedback signal to pituitary and stops the
secretion of
(a) Steroids
(b) LTH
(c) ICSH
(d) FSH
142.
Names of which set are used for a single hormone.

(a) Vasopressin, ADH, Pitressin
(b) Thyroxine, Triiodothyroxine
(c) Secretin, Gastrin, Enterokinin
(d) Prolactin, GTH, LTH
143.
Hypersecretion of ADH causes

(a) polyuria
(b) diuresis
144.
145.
146.
(c) polydipsia
(d) antidiuresis
Which hormone is responsible for the initiation of labour pain?

(a) Oxytocin
(b) Estrogen
(c) LTH
(d) Progesterone
Largest endocrine gland is

(a) liver
(b) thyroid gland
(d) adrenal
(c) pituitary
The average weight of the human thyroid gland is

(a) 8110gm
(b) 2530gm
(c) 3040gm
(d) Below 5 gm
147.
148.
149.
150.
151.
152.
153.
154.
155.
Thyroid gland is present

(a) dorsal to trachea
(c) infront of trachea
(b) ventrolateral to trachea

(d) near bronchi
Thyroid is derived from the _____________ of the embryo.

(a) mesoderm
(b) ectoderm
(c) endoderm
(d) none of these
Two lateral lobes of thyroid gland are connected by

(a) capsule
(b) hilus
(c) trachea
(d) isthmus
In thyroid gland, lobules contain thyroid follicles.

(a) 5 million
(b) 2 million
(c) 3 million
(d) > 3 million
Storage gland is
(a) pancreas
(b) testis
(c) thyroid
(d) adrenal
T4 stands for
(a) thyroid
(b) tetrad
(c) thyroxine
(d) thyrocalcitonin
T3 and T4 are the iodinated derivative of

(a) glycine
(b) phenyl alanine
(c) tyrosine
(d) tryptophan
T3 and T4 secretion is primarily controlled by

(a) basal metabolic rate
(c) thyroid stimulating hormone
(b) body temperature

(d) iodine content in the blood
Select the CORRECT one.

(a) T3 is more active and T4 is more potent.
(c) T3 is inactive and T4 is impotent.
(b) T3 is less active and T4 is less potent.

(d) T3 and T4 becomes active at the same time.
156.
Calorigenic effect means

(a) increase in glucose oxidation and energy production.
(b) increase in protein oxidation and energy production.
(c) increase in amino acid oxidation and energy production.
(d) increase in vitamin oxidation and energy production.
157.
A patient with myxoedema would be expected to have a

(a) high body temperature
(b) low BMR
(c) high rate of oxygen consumption
(d) exopthalmic goiter
158.
Hypothyroidism leads to
(a) mental retardation
(c) sluggishness
(b) loss of memory

(d) all of these
Mental retardation occurs in

(a) myxoedema
(b) cretinism
(c) gigantism
159.
(d) goitre
160.
When blood calcium level becomes very high, the hormone that is secreted would be
(a) thyrocalcitonin (b) parathormone
(d) adrenaline
161.
Thymus gland produces _________ hormone.

(a) thyroxine
(b) leuteotropin
(c) somatostastin
(d) thymosins
162.
Which of the following is not produced by adrenal cortex?

(a) Glucocorticoid
(b) Mineralocorticoid (c) Androgenic steroids (d) Adrenalin
163.
The reabsorption of Na, K and water is regulated by

(a) aldosterone
(b) testosterone
(c) adrenaline
(d) vasopressin
164.
Which hormone of the adrenal gland plays an important role in the growth of axial hair, pubic hair
and facial hair during puberty?
(a) Adrenaline
(b) Mineralocorticoids (c) Glucocorticoids
(d) Androgenic steroids
165.
___________ stimulates gluconeogenesis, lipolysis and proteolysis.

(a) Aldosterone
(b) Cortisol
(c) Adrenaline
(d) Noradrenaline
166.
Which of the following statement about cortisol is true?

(a) It inhibits cellular uptake and utilization of amino acids.
(b) It plays an important role in maintaining cardiovascular system and kidney functions.
(c) It stimulates RBC production.
167.
Which pair of hormones are responsible for papillary dilation, piloerection, sweating, increased heart
beat?
(a) Aldosterone and cortisol
(b) Thyroxin and calcitonin
(c) Adrenaline and noradrenaline
(d) Oxytocin and coherin
168.
Glucagon stimulates
(a) glycogenolysis
169.
170.
171.
172.
173.
(b) gluconeogenesis
(c) glycogenesis
Insulin is secreted by ________ of Islets of Langerhans.

(a) -cells
(b) -cells
(c) -cells
(d) -cells
Prolonged hyperglycemia leads to

(a) diabetes insipidus (b) diabetes mellitus
(d) myxoedema
(c) cretinism
Somatostatin is secreted by ________ cells of langerhans.

(a)
(b)
(c)
Somatostatin
(a) inhibits the secretion of growth hormone
(c) decrease glucagon and insulin.
(d)
(b) stimulate body growth

(d) increase growth of thyroid gland.
Androgens are secreted by
(a) ovaries
(b) testes
(c) uterus
(d) vas deferens
174.
The two steroid hormones secreted by ovaries are

(a) LH and FSH
(b) androgen and testosterone
(c) oestrogen and progesterone
(d) ADH and oxytocin
175.
All hormones produced by the ovary are

(a) proteins and steroids
(c) steroids only
(b) proteins only

(d) biogenic amines
Secretion of HC1 and pepsinogen is related to

(a) secretin
(b) gastrin
(c) cholecystokinin
176.
177.
_______ acts on pancreas and gall bladder and stimulates secretion of pancreatic enzymes and bile
juice respectively.
(a) CCK
(b) GID
(c) ANF
(d) ACTH
178.
A peptide hormone secreted by an atrial wall of the heart when blood pressure increases is
(a) vassopressin
(b) pepsinogen
(c) atrial natriuretic factor
(d) erythropoietin
179.
Which of the following statements about hypothalamus are true?

(a) Hypothalamic nuclei includes supra optic, paraventricular, dorsomedian and ventromedian and
some other cell group.
(b) Hypothalamus regulates ACTH releasing factor, TSH RF factor and FSH RF factor.
(c) Hypothalamus regulates GHRF factor, TRIF factor etc.
180.
An organ where a hormone shows its effect, is known as

(a) Inhibitor
(b) Receptor
(c) Target organ
181.
The target cells of a hormone always posses

(a) special channels for hormone movement.
(c) special receptors to which hormone binds.
(d) Effector
(b) storage sacs for hormones.

(d) all of these
182.
Secretion of STH or GH of pituitary is stimulated by

(a) hormone of thyroid gland.
(b) a release factor from hypothalamus.
(c) hormone of adrenals.
(d) infundibulum
183.
Inhibition of STH of pituitary is done by

(a) hormones of thyroid.
(c) hormones of pancreas.
184.
(b) a factor from hypothalamus.

(d) hormones of adrenal gland.
The hormone, which is responsible for proper growth of a body is secreted by

(a) adrenal gland
(b) posterior pituitary (c) anterior pituitary (d) thyroid gland
185.
Target organ of LTH is

(a) mammary gland (b) bones
(c) pancreas
(d) liver
186.
Due to an increase in the amount of ADH in blood, micturition would _________ .

(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unaffected (d) remain constant
187.
Vasopressin is related to
(a) quick digestion
(c) concentration of urine
(b) slowing of heart rate

(d) dilution of urine
188.
If one of the hormone of posterior pituitary is deficient, then

(a) more water is reabsorbed to produce concentrated urine.
(b) less water is reabsorbed to produce large amount of dilute urine.
(c) more salt is absorbed.
(d) less salt is reabsorbed.
189.
Hormone secreted by posterior lobe of pituitary is concerned with

(a) metabolism of carbohydrates.
(b) stimulation of thyroid.
(c) secondary sexual character.
(d) contraction of uterus.
190.
Oxytocin is released during

(a) pregnancy
(b) parturition
(c) menstruation
(d) menopause
191.
Just after conclusion of parturition and baby, what is useful and needed for motherly role is
(a) prolactin and oxytocin
(b) oxytocin and relaxin
(c) prolactin and relaxin
(d) vasopressin and oxytocin
192.
Energy releasing process in the body cells is initiated by

(a) pituitary
(b) thyroid
(c) parathyroid
193.
Cretinism and pituitary dwarfism differ from each other with respect to
(a) mental retardation
(b) physical retardation
(c) sexual retardation
194.
Which of the following pair of hormones is synergistic in their action?

(a) ADH : oxytocin
(b) FSH : oestrogen
(c) Thyrocalcitonin : parathormone
(d) STH : thyroxine
195.
Of the 4 statements made about myxoedema, namely

(i) Myxoedema is the result of hyperthyroidism.
(ii) It appears in young children.
(iii) The affected individual becomes thin.
(iv) He has a higher BMR than normal BMR (Basal Metabolic Rate).
Which is not a true statement?
(a) 1 and 2
statements
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) adrenal
(d) All of the 4
196.
Which of the following is not applicable to thyroid gland?

(a) Hypersecretion of thyroxine results in acromegaly.
(b) It secretes thyroxine and calcitonin.
(c) For synthesis of T4, iodine and tyrosine are necessary.
(d) It regulates basal metabolic rate.
197.
Which endocrine gland is essential for metamorphosis of tadpole?

(a) Adrenals
(b) Thyroid
(c) Thymus
(d) Pituitary
Proper development of the bones depends on

(a) epinephrin
(b) thyroxin
(d) vasopressin
198.
199.
(c) parathormone
Which one of the following controls blood pressure?

(a) Adrenal gland
(b) Corpus luteum
(c) Thymus gland
(d) LH
200.
Which of the following hormones maintain proper ratio of sodium and potassium in blood?
(a) Aldosterone
(b) Progesterone
(c) Testosterone
(d) ADH
201.
Insulin promotes
(a) glycogenesis
(b) glycolysis
(c) glyconeogenesis
(d) glycogenolysis
202.
Urine in the condition of diabetes insipidus, compared with that in diabetes mellitus, is
(a) more dilute with less sugar.
(b) more concentrated with more sugar
(c) more concentrated with no sugar.
(d) more dilute without sugar.
203.
The same gland, producing two hormones belonging to the same chemical group acting on the same
proximate principle of food but producing opposite effects, is
(a) thyroid
(b) pancreas
(c) adrenal cortex
(d) none of these
204.
Similarity between the secretion of thyroid and adrenal is that both

(a) are proteins.
(b) are pre-stored.
(c) increase glucose metabolism.
(d) control mineral metabolism.
205.
Which of the following is not under direct control of pituitary?

(a) Thyroid
(b) Adrenal medulla
(c) Pancreas
Oogenesis is controlled by
(a) LH
(b) FSH
(c) TSH
(d) none of these
Hormone receptors have

(a) low affinities.
(c) specific binding sites
(b) moderate affinities

(d) no attractions to hormones
206.
207.
TOPIC: COTROL AND CO-ORDINATION (ANSWER KEY)
1.
6.
11.
16.
21.
26.
31.
36.
41.
46.
51.
56.
61.
66.
71.
76.
81.
86.
91.
96.
101.
106.
111.
116.
121.
126.
131.
136.
141.
146.
151.
156.
161.
166.
171.
176.
181.
186.
191.
196.
201.
206.
(d)
(c)
(d)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(c)
(c)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(b)
2.
7.
12.
17.
22.
27.
32.
37.
42.
47.
52.
57.
62.
67.
72.
77.
82.
87.
92.
97.
102.
107.
112.
117.
122.
127.
132.
137.
142.
147.
152.
157.
162.
167.
172.
177.
182.
187.
192.
197.
202.
207.
(c)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(c)
3.
8.
13.
18.
23.
28.
33.
38.
43.
48.
53.
58.
63.
68.
73.
78.
83.
88.
93.
98.
103.
108.
113.
118.
123.
128.
133.
138.
143.
148.
153.
158.
163.
168.
173.
178.
183.
188.
193.
198.
203.
(b)
(d)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(c)
(b)
4.
9.
14.
19.
24.
29.
34.
39.
44.
49.
54.
59.
64.
69.
74.
79.
84.
89.
94.
99.
104.
109.
114.
119.
124.
129.
134.
139.
144.
149.
154.
159.
164.
169.
174.
179.
184.
189.
194.
199.
204.
(a)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(d)
(c)
(c)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(d)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(c)
5.
10.
15.
20.
25.
30.
35.
40.
45.
50.
55.
60.
65.
70.
75.
80.
85.
90.
95.
100.
105.
110.
115.
120.
125.
130.
135.
140.
145.
150.
155.
160.
165.
170.
175.
180.
185.
190.
195.
200.
205.
(c)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(d)
MH-CET 2015
ASSIGNMENT SERIES
SUBJECT
: Zoology
STANDARD : XIIth
CHAPTER
: HUMAN REPRODUCTION
TOPIC:
HUMAN REPRODUCTION
1.
Production of offsprings by a single parent without fusion of gametes is called

(a) asexual production
(b) sexual production
(c) amphimixis
2.
Asexual reproduction involves

(a) only meiosis
(c) both mitosis and meiosis
3.
Embryology is the study of

(a) development of female gamete
(c) development of embryo
4.
5.
6.
(b) only mitosis

(d) either mitosis or meiosis
(b) development of male gamete

(d) development of child after birth
External genital organs of male reproductive system includes

(a) scrotum
(b) penis
(c) testes
(d) all of these
The primary sexual organs of males are the

(a) penis
(b) ovaries
(c) testes
(d) vasa deferens
In man testes are present

(a) in the abdominal cavity
(c) inside the pelvic cavity
(b) in the pelvis

(d) outside the abdomen in the scrotal sac
7.
Dartos tunic muscles which lies in the subcutaneous tissue of scrotum is a layer of
(a) skeletal muscles
(b) smooth muscles
(c) cardiac muscles
(d) both skeletal and smooth muscles
8.
Scrotum acts as
(a) electroregulator
9.
10.
11.
(b) hydroregulator
(c) thermoregulator
(d) regulator
Testis measures about _________________ (1 b t)

(a) 2 3 1cm
(b) 0.5 0.2 0.1 cm (c) 2 2 0.5cm
(d) 4.5 2.5 3 cm
Human testes are ______ in origin

(a) ectodermal
(b) mesodermal
(d) ectomesodermal
(c) endodermal
Testes are attached to scrotum by a muscular cord of connective tissue called

(a) gubernaclum
(b) spermatic cord
(c) spinal cord
(d) trabeculum
12.
13.
During early foetal life, the testes develop in

(a) scrotum
(c) cervical region of the abdominal cavity
(b) lumbar region of the abdominal cavity

(d) pelvic cavity
__________ is an indication of abdominal origin of testes.

(a) Tunica vaginalis (b) Tunica albugina
(c) Tunica vascularis
(d) Tunica folliculi
14.
Failure of testis to descend from abdomen into scrotum leads to sterility called
(a) castration
(b) cryptorchidism
(c) mesorchium
(d) hypothyroidism
15.
Fibrous testicular septa divides each testis into

(a) 10-20 lobules
(b) 200-300 lobules
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
(c) 100-200 lobules
(d) 500-800 lobules
In testes each lobules contains about ______ seminiferous tubules.

(a) 5-7
(b) 13-17
(c) 1-2
(d) 1-4
Rete testis are the network of slender ducts in the testes of

(a) frog
(b) lizard
(c) man
(d) bird
An incomplete peritoneal covering of testes is called

(a) tunica vaginalis (b) tunica albuginea
(c) tunica vascularis
(d) tunica reticulosa
Seminiferous tubules are lined by

(a) squamous germinal epithelial cells
(c) ciliated germinal epithelial cells
(b) cuboidal germinal epithelial cells

(d) non-ciliated germinal epithelial cells
Germs cells present in the seminiferous tubules undergo

(a) oogenesis
(b) spermatogenesis
(c) parthenogenesis
Secondary sexual characters in male are controlled by

(a) oxytocin
(b) estrogen
(c) testosterone
(d) progesterone
Vasa efferentia carry sperms from testes to

(a) vasa deferens
(b) head of epididymis (c) ejaculatory duct
(d) seminal vesicle
The narrow middle part of epididymis is called

(a) caput epididymis (b) cauda epididymis
(c) corpus epididymis (d) all of the these
The lower part of epididymis is called

(a) caput epididymis (b) cauda epididymis
(c) corpus epididymis (d) all of the these
Epididymis
(a) receives sperms from testis
(c) helps maturation of sperms
(b) store sperms till ejaculation

(d) all of these
Ejaculatory duct is formed by the

(a) terminal part of the vasa deferens after winding round the ureter
(b) duct that start from the seminal vesicle
(c) union of vasa deferens and seminal vesicular duct

(d) union of vas deferens and vas efferens.
27.
Ejaculatory duct opens into

(a) seminal vesicle (b) urethra
(c) ureters
(d) vas deferens
28.
In male reproductive system, part of urethra present in penis is called

(a) membranous urethra
(b) prostatic urethra
(c) penile urethra
(d) urethral sphincter
29.
The penis contains two postero-lateral tissues called

(a) corpora cavernosa
(b) corpora quadrigemina
(c) corpus spongiosm
30.
Glans penis is covered by

(a) corpus spongiosum
(c) foreskin/ prepuce
(b) corpus cavernosa

(d) epididymis
In semen ________ provide energy to sperms.

(a) glucose
(b) lipid
(c) fructose
31.
(d) glycoprotein
32.
Seminal fluid coagulates on ejaculation due to

(a) acid phosphate
(b) sugar fructose
(c) fibrinogen content from seminal vesicle secretion
(d) secretion of epididymis
33.
Which accessory sex gland consists of 20-30 separate lobes and secrete about 30% of semen?
(a) Seminal vesicles (b) Prostate gland
(c) Cowpers gland
(d) Bulbo-urethral gland
34.
Cowpers glands secrete a substance to

(a) nourish sperms
(c) kill pathogen
(b) neutralize acidity in urethra

(d) all of these
Bulbourethral gland is also known as

(a) Prostate gland
(b) Cowpers gland
(c) Perineal gland
35.
36.
37.
At the time of ejaculation, semen contains ____ sperms.

(a) 300 10 6
(b) 300 10 5
(c) 300 10 4
(d) Ejaculatory duct
(d) 300 10 3
Labia majora are

(a) composed of fibrous tissue and fat
(b) longitudinal folds on right and left sides of vestibule
(c) smaller and thinner folds
38.
39.
40.
Scrotum is homologous to _________________ of female.

(a) labia minora
(b) clitoris
(c) labia majora
(d) vagina
Posteriorly, the labia minora are fused together to form

(a) mons pubis
(b) fourchette
(c) clitoris
(d) hymen
A fleshy elevation above the labia majora is

(a) mons pubis
(b) clitoris
(d) hymen
(c) labia minora
41.
Vestibule is
(a) right and left longitudinal folds of labia minora
(b) fleshy elevation above the labia majora
(c) median vertical depression of vulva enclosing vagina and urethral opening
(d) a thin layer of mucous membrane
42.
Which of following is similar in function to Cowpers gland?

(a) Bartholins gland (b) Prereneal gland
(c) Prostate gland
43.
The ducts which carry milk from mammary glands to nipple are called
(a) lactiferous sinuses
(b) lactiferous ducts
(c) areola
(d) ejaculatory duct
44.
The base of the nipple shows dark brown rounded area called
(a) clitoris
(b) areola
(c) hymen
(d) Mammary gland
(d) vestibule
45.
Release of milk from breast is under the control of

(a) estrogen and progesterone
(b) prolactin and oxytocin
(c) FSH and LH
(d) androgen and HCG
46.
The primary sexual organ of female reproductive system is

(a) vagina
(b) uterus
(c) ovary
(d) fallopian tubes
47.
Oogonia arise from _________ of the yolk sac and migrate to ovaries during embryonic
development.
(a) mesoderm
(b) ectoderm
(c) endoderm
(d) coelom
48.
By the time of puberty, how many primordial follicles remain active?

(a) 40,000
(b) 30,000
(c) 50,000
(d) 1 million
A white capsule located inside the germinal epithelium

(a) tunica albuginea (b) tunica vaginalis
(c) tunica recti
(d) tunica folliculi
49.
50.
Corpus luteum are

(a) found in human ovaries
(c) contributory in maintaining pregnancy
(b) characterized by yellow colour

51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
How long is the human female fallopian tube?

(a) 10 12 cms
(b) 15 20 cms
(c) 5 18 cms
(d) 18 20 cms
Oviducts are suspended in the body cavity by

(a) Infundibulum
(b) Fimbriae
(c) Mesosalpinx
(d) Perimetrium
Funnel shaped part of oviduct is called

(a) isthmus
(b) infundibulum
(c) ampulla
(d) uterine portion
Fertilization occurs in
(a) cervix
(b) infundibulum
(c) uterus
(d) ampulla of oviduct
_________ is short, slender, narrow structure opens into the uterus.

(a) Isthmus/ Cornua (b) Uterine segment
(c) Ampulla
56.
In normal condition human uterus is about

(a) 5 cm long 3 cm wide 2 cm thick
(b) 8 cm long 5 cm wide 2 cm thick
(c) 5 cm long 5 cm wide 3 cm thick
(d) 8 cm long 2 cm wide 5 cm thick
57.
Uterus is attached to the body wall by double fold of peritoneum called

(a) mesometrium
(b) perimetrium
(c) myometrium
(d) Infundibulum
(d) endometrium
58.
In human, broader end of uterus which is connected to the fallopian tube is called
(a) fundus
(b) body
(c) cervix
(d) fornix
59.
Perimetrium is
(a) the outer wall of uterus derived from peritoneum
(b) middle thick muscular layer of smooth muscles of uterus
(c) inner layer of uterus
60.
In human adult female vagina is about

(a) 5 7 cm long
(b) 8 10 cm long
(c) 12 15 cm long
Menstruation cycle occurs

(a) in all mammals
(c) in metatherian animals
(b) in eutherian animals

(d) in all primates
61.
62.
(d) 3 5 cm long
The human female shows menstruation at regular intervals right from

(a) infancy to puberty
(b) puberty to pregnancy
(c) menopause to puberty
(d) puberty to menopause
63.
64.
65.
66.
Menstrual phase is also called

(a) bleeding phase
(b) follicular phase
(c) ovulatory phase
(d) luteal phase
Menstrual phase lasts for about

(a) 3 days
(b) 4 days
(c) 5 days
(d) 6 days
The phrase weeping of uterus for lost ovum is used to describe

(a) corpus luteum
(b) menstrual flow
(c) graafian follicle
Onset of menstruation is due to
(a) decrease in level of progesterone
(c) increase in FSH level
(d) corpus albicans
(b) increase in estrogen level

(d) decrease in oxytocin level
67.
Decreased level of progesterone

(a) stimulates anterior pituitary to secrete FSH (b) stimulates posterior pituitary to secrete FSH
(c) stimulates anterior pituitary to secrete HCG (d) stimulates posterior pituitary to secrete HCG
68.
During proliferative phase level of

(a) LH increase
(b) LTH increases
69.
70.
(c) GTH increase
(d) FSH increases
During proliferative phase, eccentric ovum is connected by

(a) cumulus oophorus (b) discus proligerous (c) both (a) and (b)
(d) primary follicles
The granulosa cells lining the antrum form

(a) corona radiata
(b) membrana granulosa (c) zona pellucida
(d) theca folliculi
71.
Secretion of oestrogen by follicular cells

(a) causes repair of endometrium
(b) increases the thickness of endometrium to about 3 mm to 5 mm
(c) stimulates the secretion of FSH
72.
The ovum must be fertilized within ____ hours after ovulation

(a) 48 - 72
(b) 24 - 48
(c) 60 - 72
(d) 72 - 80
The fertilized egg reaches the uterus on _____ after ovulation

(a) 1 st day
(b) 2 nd day
(c) 3rd day
(d) 4th day
73.
74.
If pregnancy has taken place, corpus luteum is maintained by receiving message in the form of
hormone
(a) gonadotropin
(b) chorionic gonadotropin
(c) FSH
(d) LH
75.
The germinal cells form _____ by mitosis and meiosis

(a) body cells
(b) gamete cells
(c) somatic cells
76.
The term embryo is used in human beings for about _____ weeks after fertilization
(a) 6 - 8
(b) 4 - 5
(c) 1 - 4
(d) 8 - 10
77.
Spermatogonia undergo a growth phase to become

(a) primary spermatocyte
(b) secondary spermatocyte
(c) spermatid
(d) supermatozoa
78.
Head of human sperm is ______ on surface view.

(a) rounded
(b) oval
(c) triangular
(d) conical
human sperm measures about ____ in length

(a) 2
(b) 60
(d) 1
79.
(c) 10
80.
Head of a mature sperm is composed of

(a) large nucleus covered by acrosomal material/ cap
(b) two centrioles and axial filament
(c) acrosome without nucleus
(d) mitochondrial sheath and cytoplasm
81.
The acrosomal cap of the sperm contains

(a) enzyme hyaluronidase
(c) GRF
(b) steroid testosterone

(d) testosterone concentrating protein
Neck of sperm contains

(a) mitochondria
(b) centrioles
(c) lysosomes
Nebenkern represents
(a) mitochondrial spiral of sperm
(c) centriole of sperm
(b) acrosome of sperm

(d) tail of sperm
Which of the following is haploid?

(a) Oogonia
(c) Secondary oocyte
(b) Primary oocyte

(d) Primary spermatocyte
human ovum measures about

(a) 50 microns
(b) 100 microns
(c) 2000 microns
(d) 1000 microns
Human egg is
(a) microlecithal
(c) alecithal
(d) centrolecithal
(c) centriole
(d) corona radiata
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
(b) mesolecithal
There is no _____ in ovum.

(a) nucleus
(b) germinal vesicle
The side of ovum with nucleus and polar body is called

(a) animal pole
(b) vegetal pole
(c) north pole
(d) nucleus
(d) south pole
The ovum of a mammal is enclosed in thin, transparent and non-cellular layer called
(a) germinal epithelium
(b) vitelline membrane
(c) zona pellucida
(d) zona radiata
90.
91.
Corona radiata is made up of

(a) vitelline membrane
(c) follicular cells around the oocyte
(b) zona pellucida around the oocyte

(d) membrane granulosa
On fusion of egg nucleus with sperm nucleus

(a) second maturation is completed
(c) first polar body is formed
(b) zygote is formed

(d) first maturation is completed
92.
The diploid number of chromosomes is restored by the process of

(a) maturation division
(b) reduction division
(c) fertilization
(d) oogenesis
93.
Surface of sperm head produces

(a) fertilizin
(b) anti-fertilizin
(c) hyaluronidase
94.
The function of hyaluronidase is

(a) to form cone of reception in egg
(b) to hydrolyse the hyaluronic acid of follicular cells
(c) that it is not produced in human sperm
(d) none of these
95.
Amphimixis means
(a) fusion of ovum and sperm
(c) formation of II polar body
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
(d) hyaluronic acid
(b) fusion of male and female pronuclei

(d) movement of sperm towards ovum
cleavage coverts zygote into a mass of cells called

(a) blastomere
(b) blastula
(c) gastrula
(d) morula
1st cleavage takes place about ______ hours after fertilization.

(a) 15
(b) 30
(c) 60
(d) 72
Second cleavage takes place about ______ hours after fertilization .

(a) 15
(b) 30
(c) 60
(d) 72
16 celled stage is called

(a) Morula
(b) Late morula
(d) Gastrula
(c) Blastula
Morula reaches uterus ____ days after fertilization

(a) 1 -2
(b) 3 - 4
(c) 4 - 6
(d) 7 - 8
101.
Which is the incorrect statement ?

(a) The trophoblast forms the embryo proper
(b) Trophoplast produces extra embryonic membrane
(c) The trophoplast cell of animal pole have the power to stick to the uterine wall
(d) Trophoblast cells are separated from inner mass cells except at one side
102.
Inner layer of blastocysts is called

(a) trophoblast
(b) cytotrophoblast
(c) syncytiotrophoblast (d) endometrium
103.
104.
105.
Outer layer of blastocyst is called

(a) trophoblast
(b) cytotrophoblast
(c) syncytiotrophoblast (d) endometrium
The endodermal tube formed during gastrulation is

(a) primitive gut
(b) archenteron
(c) trophoblast
The endoderm alongwith trophoblast form the

(a) yolk sac-amnion (b) yolk sac-allantosis
(d) yolk sac chorion
(c) primary yolk sac
106.
After the formation of endoderm, the embryonic knob becomes columnar to form
(a) amniotic cavity (b) embryonic disc
(c) embryonic coelom (d) chorion
107.
The space between embryonic disc and the trophoblast is called

(a) gastrocoel
(b) amniotic cavity
(c) blastocyst
(d) yolk sac
108.
The proliferated cells which detach from the embryonic cells and spread between trophoblast and
endoderm forms
(a) mesoderm
(b) ectoderm
(c) embryonic coelom (d) amnion
109.
A large cavity formed in extra embryonic mesoderm is

(a) amniotic cavity
(b) blastocoe
(c) extra embryonic coelom
(d) embryonic cavity
110.
Inner mesoderm covering the primary yolk sac and wall of amniotic cavity is termed as
(a) parietal extra embryonic mesoderm
(b) visceral extra embryonic mesoderm
(c) external mesoderm
111.
Chorion consists of
(a) trophoblast lined by parietal extra embryonic mesoderm
(b) trophoblast lined by visceral extra embryonic mesoderm
(c) amniogenic cells covered by visceral extra embryonic mesoderm
(d) amniogenic cells covered by parietal extra embryonic mesoderm
112.
Amnion consists of
(a) amniogenic cells covered by parietal extra embryonic mesoderm
(b) amniogenic cells covered by visceral extra embryonic mesoderm
(c) trophoblast lined by visceral extra embryonic mesoderm
113.
Formation of different tissues and organs from germinal layers is called

(a) oogenesis
(b) spermatogenesis
(c) histogenesis
114.
(d) gametogenesis
Monozygotic twins or identical twins are

(a) derived from single zygote
(b) have same genetic makeup and are of same sex
(c) genetically dissimilar
115.
Human pregnancy lasts for _____ days from the start of the last menstrual cycle
(a) 266
(b) 300
(c) 280
(d) 255
116.
The first trimester involves,

(a) development of body organs of foetus
(b) growth of maternal placenta
(c) enlargement of uterus
117.
The part of placenta contributed by chorionic villi is

(a) foetal placenta
(b) maternal placenta
(c) chorionic placenta (d) allantoic placenta
118.
A fully formed human placenta is __________ shaped.

(a) oval
(b) rectangular
(c) conical
(d) disc
119.
The chorionic villi receive blood from the embryo by _____ and return it by _______.
(a) umbilical vein, umbilical artery
(b) renal vein, renal artery
(c) umibilical artery, umbilical vein
(d) coronary artery, coronary vein
120.
The placenta is fully formed by the end of the _____ month and lasts throughout pregnancy.
(a) 1 st
(b) 2 nd
(c) 3rd
(d) 4th
121.
Foetus is matured by secreting ______ hormone.

(a) LH
(b) ACTH
(c) FSH
(d) GH
122.
ACTH causes the release of corticosteroid hormone from ______ of foetus.

(a) adrenlal glands (b) ovary
(c) kidney
(d) thyroid
123.
The foetal hormone accumulate in the mothers blood till they cause
(a) increase in progesterone and prostaglandins
(b) a decrease in progesterone and increase in prostaglandins
(c) an increase in progesterone and decrease in prostaglandins
(d) decrease in progesterone and prostaglandins
124.
Reduced progesterone allows the secretion of _______ hormone.

(a) ACTH
(b) FSH
(c) STH
(d) oxytocin
The baby ready for birth weights about

(a) 2.7 to 4.5 kg
(b) 1.2 to 2.5 kg
(c) 4 to 6 kg
(d) 3.5 to 5 kg
The first stage of parturition lasts for about

(a) 12 hours
(b) 20 min
(c) 45 min
(d) 60 min
125.
126.
127.
The second stage (expulsion) of parturition lasts for about

(a) 60 mins 120mins
(b) 45 mins 180 mins
(c) 20 mins 60 mins
(d) 10 mins 200 mins
128.
During second stage of parturition

(a) amnion and chorion rupture
(b) placenta, umbilical cord and foetal membrane are expelled
(c) the umbilical cord is ligatured at two places close to the body
(d) the fotal placenta is pulled out from the uterine wall
129.
Parturition may be divided into __________ stages.

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
130.
Which of the following structures are referred as after birth structures?

(a) Placenta
(b) Umbilical cord
(c) Foetal membrane (d) All of the above
131.
Which important component is present in colostrum which helps in developing resistance for new
born baby?
(a) Carbohydrate
(b) Antibodies
(c) Proteins
(d) Minerals
132.
What is the main objective of Reproductive and Child Health Care (RCH) Programmes?
(a) To create awareness among people about various reproduction related aspects
(b) To provide facilities and support for building a reproductively healthy society
(c) To improve the health of women
133.
The temporary method safe period is based on which of the following aspect?
(a) Ovulation occurs on the 14 th day of menstrual cycle
(b) Ovum survives for about 2 days
(c) Sperms remain alive for about 3 days
134.
The temporary method of birth control which involves withdrawal of the penis by the male before
ejaculation is
(a) rhythm method (b) coitus interruptus
(c) spermicides
(d) ICD
135.
Action of jelly and cream

(a) spermicidal
(b) entangles the sperms
(c) prevents the release of ova
(d) enable the sperms to reach towards ovum rapidly
136.
A birth control method which is fitted on the cerix in the females vagina is
(a) IUCD
(b) diaphragm and cervical cap
(c) condom
(d) oral contraceptive pills
137.
Action of vaginal diaphragm is

(a) to prevent the ova to come in the uterus
(b) to prevent the sperm to come in contact with ova
(c) spermicidal
(d) anti implantational

138.
IUCD stands for

(a) Intra uterus contractive device
(b) Intra uterine contraceptive device
(c) Inter uterine contractile device
(d) Inter ureter contraceptive device
139.
The drawback of IUCD include

(a) spontaneous expulsion of IUCD without womans knowledge
(b) occasional haemorrhage
(c) chance of infection
140.
A permanent method of birth control is

(a) vasectomy
(b) tubectomy
The major venereal diseases are

(a) AIDS and syphilis
(c) Syphilis and Gonorrhoea
(b) Gonorrhoea and AIDS

(d) Syphilis
Syphillis is caused by
(a) Streptococcus gonorrhoeae
(c) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
(b) Treponema pallidum

(d) Candida utilis
141.
142.
143.
Spirochaete bacterium affects the

(a) mucous membrane in digestive tract
(b) mucous membrane in genital, rectal and oral region
(c) mucous membrane in nasal passage and lungs
(d) all of these
144.
In syphilis, incubation period is about _______ weeks.

(a) 1 2
(b) 3 - 4
(c) 5 - 6
145.
146.
147.
148.
Gonorrhoea is caused by a
(a) Treponema pallidum
(c) Candida utilis
(d) none of these
(d) 2 - 6
(b) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

(d) Streptococcus genorrhoeae
In gonorrhea, incubation period is about ____ days in males.

(a) 1 - 5
(b) 6 - 9
(c) 2 - 14
(d) 10 - 20
In gonorrhea, incubation period is about ______ days is females

(a) 1 - 5
(b) 2 - 14
(c) 12 - 20
(d) 7 - 21
The children born to gonorrhea affected mothers often suffer from

(a) ears infection
(b) nasal infection
(c) lungs infection
(d) eye infection
149.
The gonorrhea infection caused to girls before puberty is

(a) gonococcal ophthalmia
(b) gonococcal urethritis
(c) gonococcal vulvovaginitis
(d) gonococcal arthritis
150.
Intentional or voluntary termination of pregnancy before full term is called

(a) MTP
(b) ZIFT
(c) GIFT
(d) IUCD
151.
MTP is safe till

(a) seventh month of pregnancy
(c) eight month of pregnancy
(b) fourth month of pregnancy

(d) sixth month of pregnancy
ZIFT stands for

(a) Zygote inter fallopian tube
(c) Zygote inter fallopian transfer
(b) Zygote intra fallopian tube

(d) Zygote intra fallopian transfer
152.
153.
Which of the following statement about GIFT is incorrect?

(a) GIFT has been developed for the cases in which only entrance of the oviduct is blocked.
(b) In GIFT, ova and sperm are directly injected in oviduct
(c) GIFT involves transfer of ovum from donor to another female who can provide suitable
environment for fertilization and development
(d) The success rate of GIFT is 100 percent
154.
Which of the following are unpaired?

(a) Seminal vesicle (b) Prostate gland
(c) Cowpers gland
Mammary glands are modified

(a) sweat glands
(b) mucous glands
(c) sebaceous glands
(d) salivary glands
155.
TOPIC: HUMAN REPRODUCTION (ANSWER KEY)
Answer
1.
6.
11.
16.
21.
26.
31.
36.
41.
46.
51.
56.
61.
66.
71.
76.
81.
86.
91.
96.
101.
106.
111.
116.
121.
126.
131.
136.
141.
146.
151.
(a)
(d)
(a)
(d)
(c)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(b)
2.
7.
12.
17.
22.
27.
32.
37.
42.
47.
52.
57.
62.
67.
72.
77.
82.
87.
92.
97.
102.
107.
112.
117.
122.
127.
132.
137.
142.
147.
152.
(b)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(d)
3.
8.
13.
18.
23.
28.
33.
38.
43.
48.
53.
58.
63.
68.
73.
78.
83.
88.
93.
98.
103.
108.
113.
118.
123.
128.
133.
138.
143.
148.
153.
(c)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(c)
4.
9.
14.
19.
24.
29.
34.
39.
44.
49.
54.
59.
64.
69.
74.
79.
84.
89.
94.
99.
104.
109.
114.
119.
124.
129.
134.
139.
144.
149.
154.
(b)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(b)
5.
10.
15.
20.
25.
30.
35.
40.
45.
50.
55.
60.
65.
70.
75.
80.
85.
90.
95.
100.
105.
110.
115.
120.
125.
130.
135.
140.
145.
150.
155.
(c)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(a)
MH-CET 2015
ASSIGNMENT SERIES
SUBJECT
: Zoology
STANDARD : XIIth
CHAPTER
: ORGANISMS AND ENVIRONMENT - II
TOPIC: ORGANISMS AND ENVIRONMENT - II

1.
An interaction between organisms or species in which the fitness of one overpowers the presence of
another is called ____________ .
(a) mutualism
(b) commensalism
(c) competition
(d) parasitism
2.
Two closely related species competing for the same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely and the
competitively inferior will be eliminated eventually. This statement is ____________ .
(a) Charles Darwins Survival of the Fittest theory
(b) Theory of organic evolution
(c) Gauses competitive exclusion principle
(d) Mutation theory
3.
The interference competition occurs directly between individuals where ____________ .

(a) organism compete for space
(b) one individual prevents the survival and reproduction of others
(c) two species have a common prey
(d) two separate species share the same resource in the same area
4.
The apparent competition occurs indirectly between two species which ____________ .
(a) compete for space
(b) have a common prey
(c) fight for the same resources
(d) share the same resources in the same area
5.
Competition between the individuals of two separate species for sharing the same resources in the
same area is called ____________ .
(a) interference competition
(b) apparent competition
(c) intra specific competition
(d) inter specific competition
6.
Symbiosis is an interaction between two species in which ____________ .

(a) both live together in direct contact
(b) both benefit
(c) one benefits and the other is neither helped nor harmed
(d) one benefits and the other is harmed
7.
Ectoparasites are the parasites which live ____________ .

(a) in the intercellular spaces of host
(b) on the surface of the host
(c) within the cells in the hosts body
(d) in the endodermis of the host
8.
A protozoan living in digestive tract of a flea living on a dog is example of ____________ .

(a) hyperparasitism (b) kleptoparasitism
(c) ectoparasitism
(d) endoparasitism
9.
The citrus blackfly parasitoid, Encarsia perplexa, unmated female of which lay haploid eggs which
result in the development of male offsprings. Here Encarsia perplexa is ____________ .
(a) kleptoparasite
(b) endoparasite
(c) adelphoparasite
(d) ectoparasite
10.
The carnivores population will increase when ____________ .

(a) there is availability of grass
(b) there is increase in the population of herbivores
(c) there is increase in het population of omnivores
11.
Group of individuals belonging to the same species is called ____________ .

(a) population
(b) community
(c) family
(d) order
12.
Growth rate of population is given by ____________ .

(a) Growth rate =
(b) Growth rate =

(c) Growth rate =
(d) Growth rate =
1000
13.
Population density means ____________ .

(a) the number of human per unit area
(b) the number of individuals in a unit area at a specific time
(c) the concentration of human population at a place
14.
Population having large number of individuals of the pre-productive age group is called
____________ .
(a) growing population
(b) steady population
(c) declining population
(d) reproductive isolation
15.
Population having large number of post reproductive and small number of pre-reproductive age
group is called ____________ .
(a) growing population
(b) steady population
(c) declining population
(d) reproductive isolation
16.
IUCN stands for ____________ .

(a) International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources
(b) International Union for Conservation of Natural Resources
(c) International Union for Conservation of Nature
(d) International Union for Conservation of Natural habitat
17.
Species whose members are few and live in small geographical areas are called ____ species.
(a) endangered
(b) vulnerable
(c) rare
(d) indeterminate
18.
Urbanization and increase in population affects biodiversity by ____________ .

(a) making land unreproductive
(b) making permanent loss of flora and fauna
(c) reducing dependence on nature
(d) maintaining land capability
19.
In situ conservation includes ____________ .

(a) prohibition of grazing, cultivation and collection of products from forests
(b) maintenance of national parks, wild-life sanctuaries and biosphere reserves
(d) none of these
20.
MIC gas was leaked from the ____________ .

(a) Union carbide pesticide plant
(c) Narora Nuclear reactor
(b) Canning factory

(d) Kilplay pesticide factory
21.
Burning of coal from electric power plants release gases containing ____________ .
(a) two-third of SO2 (b) two-third of CO2
(c) two-third of CO
(d) two-third of NO2
22.
The word smog was coined by ____________ .

(a) Dr. H.A. Des Voeux
(b) Guillard
(c) William Bateson
(d) Peter Lobban
23.
NEERI is ____________ .
(a) National Ethological and Ecological Research Institute
(b) National Eugenics and Ecological Research Institute
(c) National Ecological and Environment Research Institute
(d) National Environmental Engineering Research Institute
24.
Kolkata has the highest _______ pollution during peak traffic hours.
(a) sulphur dioxide
(b) carbon monoxide
(c) O3
(d) suspended particulate matter
25.
H2S causes ____________ .

(a) leaf lesion, defoliation and reduced growth
(b) headache, nausea, conjunctivitis
(c) bronchial pneumonia, coma
(d) all of these
26.
Which of the following is called laughing gas?

(a) Nitrous oxide
(b) Nitric oxide
(c) Nitrogen dioxide
(d) Sulphur dioxide
27.
Which of the following devices are used to control pollution?

(a) Positive crankcase ventilation valve, catalytic converter, electrostatic precipitators
(b) generator, refrigerator
(c) AC, centrifuger
(d) Geissure
28.
__________ empowers to suspend the registration of vehicles which are emitting pollutant beyond a
certain specified limit
(a) Bombay Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 1984
(b) Maharashtra Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 1984
(c) Bombay Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 1990
(d) Maharashtra Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 1990
29.
Addition of an excess material or heat to water which is harmful to humans, animals or desirable
aquatic life is called ____________ .
(a) water pollution (b) air pollution
(c) soil pollution
(d) noise pollution
30.
Shipping water pollution includes ____________ .

(a) human sewage waste
(b) oil spills and offshore drilling rigs
(c) waste water from cleaning operations
31.
The total gas generation from Okhla is ____________ .

(a) 0.5 million cubic feet/day
(b) 0.6 million cubic feet/day
(c) 0.8 million cubic feet/day
(d) 0.9 million cubic feet/day
32.
Physicochemical technique used for removal of chemical pollutant is/are ____________ .

(a) absorption
(b) electrodialysis
(c) ion-exchange
33.
In integrated organic farming ____________ .

(a) waste of one process is used as nutrient for other process
(b) waste of one process which is less harmful is disposed off
(c) waste are disposed directly in ecosystem
(d) waste is not generated
34.
Which one of the following is a matching pair of certain organism(s) and the kind of association?
(a) Shark and sucker fish mutualism
(b) Sea anemone and snail-commensalism
(c) Algae and fungi parasitism
(d) Leguminous plant and Rhizobium amensalism
35.
Which is the following example tells that the prey population has evolved various defences to
survive?
(a) Monarch butterfly is not preyed upon by birds due to its bad taste resulting from poisonous
secretion
(b) Tigers feeding on deer
(c) Encarsia perplexa lay haploid eggs which develop into male offsprings.
(d) Plasmodium living in the salivary glands of female Anopheles mosquito
36.
Which of the following is the natural cause of extinction of species?

(a) Pollution of soil, water and air
(b) Earthquakes, floods, landslides
(c) Cutting of forest trees, overgrazing
(d) Uprooting of orchids and medicinal plants
37.
In air pollution, dust refers to ____________ .

(a) liquid dispersion aerosols
(c) gaseous dispersion aerosols
(b) solid dispersion aerosols

(d) viscous dispersion aerosols
38.
Domestic water pollution is due to ____________ .

(a) release of waste water from homes and commercial establishments
(b) release of industrial effluent
(c) release of waste water from hospitals
(d) release of waste water from sewage plants
39.
Which of the following statement is incorrect about camel?

(a) Maximum water in camel is lost through urine
(b) Water is stored in the muscles and water cells of stomach of camel
(c) Water is stored in the connective tissue of hump of camel
(d) It has longer loop of Henle for more reabsorption of water
40.
Which statement is not correct about competition?

(a) The organism fight with other member of same species for mate
(b) The competition plays a critical role in natural selection
(c) Unlimited supply of resources is one of the primary reason for competition
(d) The organism compete for resources such as food, water and territory
41.
In demography, we study ____________ .

(a) decrease or increase in population
(b) ratio of different age groups of males and females
(c) distribution of population in different countries
42.
The population of a place can be increased when ____________ .

(a) emigration increases
(b) predation increases
(c) reproductivity decreases
(d) immigration increases
43.
The taxa which are likely to move into the endangered category if causative factors continue to
operate is called ____________ .
(a) endangered
(b) intermediate
(c) vulnerable
(d) rare
44.
Which of the following adverse affects are caused by SO2?

(a) SO2 causes discolouration and physical deterioration of building material and sculpture
(b) SO2 affects vegetation at concentration below 0.03 ppm
(c) SO2 affects the respiratory system of animals and human beings
45.
Automobiles and industries are the chief source of pollutants such as ____________ .
(a) oxides of carbon (b) oxides of sulphur
(c) oxides of nitrogen (d) all of these
46.
Electrostatic precipitator is used to control ____________ .

(a) air pollution
(b) noise pollution
(c) water pollution
(d) waste pollution
47.
Ramesh Chandra Dagar, a farmer in Sonipat, Haryana has adopted ____________ .

(a) alternate organic farming
(b) integrated organic farming
(c) chemical farming
(d) modern farming
48.
Which of the following statements about inter specific competition are true?
(i) It is a competition between same species for same resources in an ecosystem
(ii) It alters populations, communities and the evolution of interacting species
(iii) The competition between leopards and lions for the same feed or prey is an example of
interspecific competition
(iv) It is a competition between same species for space
(a) (i) and (ii) are true
(c) (iii) and (iv) are true
(b) (ii) and (iii) are true

(d) (i) and (iv) are true
49.
What measures should be taken to save endangered species?

(i) Safe-guarding the natural habitat of species
(ii) Eco-friendly resources should be allowed for use
(iii) Domestication of endangered species in protected areas and then introducing to their natural
resources
(iv) Man should be educated about the importance and protection of wild life
(a) Only (i)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(d) Only (v)
50.
First population count in India was started in ____________ .

(a) 1852
(b) 1891
(c) 1901
(d) 1951
51.
Which of the following adaptations help the animal to escape easily from its enemy?
(a) Fossorial
(b) Cursorial
(c) Arboreal
(d) Desert
52.
Volant adaptation means ____________ .

(a) Adaptation for digging
(c) Adaptation for climbing
(b) Adaptation for running

(d) Adaptation for flying
53.
Lichen is an example of ____________ .

(a) mutualism
(b) commensalism
(c) parasitism
(d) competition
54.
Which of the following competitions has the potential to alter populations?

(a) Intraspecific competition
(b) Interspecific competition
(c) Interference competition
(d) Exploitation competition
55.
Mutualism means ____________ .

(a) eating the other (b) taking help
(c) helping each other (d) harming the other
56.
The orchid growing as epiphyte on tree is a good example of ____________ .

(a) commensalism
(b) mutualism
(c) parasitism
(d) predation
57.
The Greek word parasite means ____________ .

(a) sharing of food
(b) one who eats at the table of other
(c) one who shares the table
(d) sharing of habitat
58.
A mutually beneficial association which is necessary for the survival of both the partners is called
____________ .
(a) symbiosis
(b) commensalism
(c) parasitism
(d) mutualism
59.
A parasite living in the tissues of a host is ____________ .

(a) ectophyte
(b) endophyte
(c) epiphyte
(d) none of these
60.
In which of the following associations, one of the species gets benefit and the other is unaffected?
(a) Commensalism (b) Mutualism
(c) Symbiosis
(d) Parasitism
61.
Food derived by killing organism is known as ____________ .

(a) commensalism
(b) symbiosis
(c) parasitism
(d) predation
Mycorrhiza show ____________ .

(a) amensalism
(b) parasitism
(c) commensalism
(d) mutualism
Lichen is an association of ____________ .

(a) alga and alga
(c) alga and roots of higher plants
(b) alga and fungus

(d) fungus and fungus
62.
63.
64.
Relationship between sea anemone and hermit crab is called ____________ .

(a) symbiosis
(b) mutualism
(c) commensalism
(d) none of them
65.
Individuals of one species occupying a particular geographic area at a given time form
____________ .
(a) community
(b) population
(c) species
(d) biome
66.
Scientific study of human population is called ____________ .

(a) ecology
(b) biology
(c) biogeography
(d) demography
67.
Growth of a population of area depends upon ____________ .

(a) natality
(b) immigration
(c) environmental resistance
(d) all of these
68.
The population growth is increased by ____________ .

(a) emigration
(b) environmental resistance
(c) mortality
(d) natality
69.
If natality and mortality of a population are nearly same, it will be termed as ____________ .
(a) declining population
(b) expanding population
(c) stable population
(d) none of these
70.
Rate of production of new individuals per 1,000 per year is ____________ .

(a) natality rate
(b) mortality rate
(c) growth rate
(d) density rate
71.
Which of the following is a protective device?

(a) commensalism
(b) Mutualism
(c) Camouflage
(d) Competition
72.
A direct food relation between two species of animals in which one animal kills and feeds on another
is referred to as ____________ .
(a) scavenging
(b) predation
(c) parasitism
(d) symbiosis
73.
In the year 1984, the Bhopal gas tragedy was caused by the leakage of ____________ .
(a) CO
(b) SO2
(c) NO2
(d) Methyl isocyanate
74.
Which of the following will not be found in polluted waste?

(a) Blue green algae (b) Larvae of stone fly (c) Water hyacinth
(d) Sewage fungi
75.
Major cause of air pollution in big cities is due to ____________ .

(a) domestic exhaust
(b) burning of fossil fuel
(c) thermal power plants
(d) suspended particles
76.
Smog is a combination of
(a) fire and water
(b) smoke and fog
(c) water and smoke
Red Data Book deals with ____________ .

(a) endemic plant
(c) animals on verge of extinction
(b) plants that are extinct

(d) plants showing photoperiodism
77.
(d) air and water
78.
Now a days, biological reserves are commonly destroyed by ____________ .

(a) pollution
(b) population
(c) rains
(d) none of these
79.
Animals and plants are best protected in ____________ .

(a) zoos
(b) botanical gardens
(c) sanctuaries
(d) national parks
Which animal is the symbol of World Wildlife Fund?

(a) Tiger
(b) Red panda
(c) Horn bill
(d) White bear
80.
TOPIC: ORGANISMS AND ENVIRONMENT - II

(ANSWER KEY)
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(a)
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(a)
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(b)

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ANDHERI / BORIVALI / DADAR / CHEMBUR / THANE / MULUND/ NERUL / POWAI

: GENETIC BASIS OF INHERITANCE

CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / KOLKATA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / GOA # 1

ANDHERI / BORIVALI / DADAR / CHEMBUR / THANE / MULUND/ NERUL / POWAI

Genetics is the study of _____.

(d) both (a) and (b)

The term genetics was first coined by

_________ is regarded as the father of Genetics.

(d) Hugo De Vries

The term gene was first used by

Mendels work was rediscovered by

(d) all of these

Mendel carried hybridization experiments using _______.

The scientific name of garden pea is

(b) Pisum sativum

Garden pea is an/a _____ plant.

Mendel studied ______ pairs of contrasting characters in the pea plant.

Mendel used term _______ to represent the hereditary unit.

Which one is a dominant trait out of the characters chosen by Mendel?

CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / KOLKATA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / GOA # 2

Mendel selected pea plants for his experiments, because

Mendel was lucky, because

Gregor Mendel died in___________ .

Two or more alternative forms of a gene are called _______.

The external appearance of an individual for any trait is called the

CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / KOLKATA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / GOA # 3

Pure line is a group of individuals that are

Punnet square is also known as

(c) Mendelian square

(d) none of these

An individual possessing identical alleles of a particular trait is called

An individual possessing dissimilar alleles of a particular trait is called

Genotype of a tall plant is/ could be ___________.

rr refers to _________ condition.

Rr refers to _________ condition.

________ genotype characterizes an organism that is heterozygous for two genes.

The generation produced by from selfing or interbreeding of F1 individuals is called

The law of segregation is also called the

(b) law of dominance

The law of dominance is often described as

CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / KOLKATA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / GOA # 4

A dihybrid cross is a cross between two ______.

Dihybrid forms four types of gametes due to _________.

Identify correct statement.

Dihybrid cross proves

(b) law of segregation

Independent assortment of genes takes place when

Gene recombination is due to

Gametes are never hybrid. It is a statement of law of

Alleles of an allelic pair separate during

(c) gamete formation

During selfing YyRr plants will produce __________ types of gametes.

Genotype ratio obtained in the F2 generation of a monohybrid cross is ________.

CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / KOLKATA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / GOA # 5

Monohybrid phenotypic ratio obtained in the F2 generation is______.

The genotypic ratio of F2 individuals in a monohybrid cross is

If a cross is made between TT and tt, progeny will be

The proportion of YyRr in dihybrid ratio is ________.

The phenotypic dihybrid ratio in F2 generation of Mendelian experiment in pea plants is

The proportion of ttrr in Mendels dihybrid ratio is

CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / KOLKATA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / GOA # 6

Test cross is a cross which is made between a F1 hybrid and _______.

A test cross is performed to distinguish between

Alleles of an allelic pair occupy