Aamc 4R

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MCAT
Practice Test 4R
Physical Sciences
Time: 100 minutes
Questions: 1-77
Most questions in the Physical Sciences test are organized into groups, each containing a descriptive
passage. After studying the passage, select the one best answer to each question in the group. Some questions are
not based on a descriptive passage and are also independent of each other. If you are not certain of an answer,
eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining alternatives.
Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet. A periodic table is
provided for your use. You may consult it whenever you wish.
Periodic Table of the Elements
He
4.0
10
1.0
3
Li
Be
Ne
6.9
9.0
10.8
12.0
14.0
16.0
19.0
20.2
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
Na
Mg
Al
Si
Cl
Ar
23.0
24.3
27.0
28.1
31.0
32.1
35.5
39.9
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
Ca
Sc
Ti
Cr
Mn
Fe
Co
Ni
Cu
Zn
Ga
Ge
As
Se
Br
Kr
39.1
37
40.1
38
45.0
39
47.9
40
50.9
41
52.0
42
54.9
43
55.8
44
58.9
45
58.7
46
63.5
47
65.4
48
69.7
49
72.6
50
74.9
51
79.0
52
79.9
53
83.8
54
Rb
Sr
Zr
Nb
Mo
Tc
Ru
Rh
Pd
Ag
Cd
In
Sn
Sb
Te
Xe
85.5
55
87.6
56
88.9
57
91.2
72
92.9
73
95.9
74
(98)
75
101.1
76
102.9
77
106.4
78
107.9
79
112.4
80
114.8
81
118.7
82
121.8
83
127.6
84
126.9
85
131.3
86
Cs
Ba
La*
Hf
Ta
Re
Os
Ir
Pt
Au
Hg
Tl
Pb
Bi
Po
At
Rn
132.9
87
137.3
88
138.9
89
178.5
104
180.9
105
183.9
106
186.2
107
190.2
108
192.2
109
195.1
197.0
200.6
204.4
207.2
209.0
(209)
(210)
(222)
Fr
Ra
Ac
Unq
Unp
Unh
Uns
Uno
Une
(223)
(226)
(227)
(261)
(262)
58
(263)
59
(262)
60
(265)
61
(267)
62
63
64
65
66
67
68
69
70
71
Ce
Pr
Nd
Pm
Sm
Eu
Gd
Tb
Dy
Ho
Er
Tm
Yb
Lu
140.1
90
140.9
91
144.2
92
(145)
93
150.4
94
152.0
95
157.3
96
158.9
97
162.5
98
164.9
99
167.3
100
168.9
101
173.0
102
175.0
103
Th
Pa
Np
Pu
Am
Cm
Bk
Cf
Es
Fm
Md
No
Lr
232.0
(231)
238.0
(237)
(244)
(243)
(247)
(247)
(251)
(252)
(257)
(258)
(259)
(260)
Passage I
Student researchers conducted an experiment to study
static friction between common building materials.
They used a wooden board and three sets of blocks.
Each set included one wooden block, one stone block,
and one steel block. All of the blocks were of equal
mass. Within each set, all blocks had the same base
area.
A block was placed at rest on the flat wooden board.
One end of a lightweight string was attached to the
block, and the other end of the string was attached to a
hook. The string passed over a pulley (of negligible
mass and friction) at the edge of the board. Mass was
added to the hook until the block began to slide along
the board. Table 1 shows the threshold mass, MT,
necessary to initiate sliding of each block.
Table 1 Static Friction Data

Block
Threshold
base area Block
mass
(m2)
material
(kg)
0.001
wood
0.049
Set 1
0.001
stone
0.068
0.001
steel
0.055
0.002
wood
0.049
Set 2
0.002
stone
0.068
0.002
steel
0.055
0.003
wood
0.048
Set 3
0.003
stone
0.068
0.003
steel
0.055
1. The kinetic energy of a sliding block came from

the:
A) kinetic energy of the string.
B) kinetic energy of the board.
C) gravitational potential energy of the block.
D) gravitational potential energy of the mass on the
hook.
2. Based on Table 1, which of the following
statements describes the relationship between static
friction and base area?
A) Static friction is independent of base area.
B) Static friction is directly proportional to base area.
C) Static friction is directly proportional to the square
of base area.
D) Static friction is inversely proportional to base area.
3. Which of the following force(s) on a sliding block
did work on the block?
Figure 1 Static friction apparatus
A) String tension only

B) Kinetic friction only
C) String tension and kinetic friction
D) String tension and gravity
4. Based on Table 1, attractive molecular forces
between surfaces were weakest between:
A) metal surfaces.
B) wood surfaces.
C) wood and stone surfaces.
D) wood and steel surfaces.
Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright.
5. If the wooden board is coated with a lubricant, MT

will:
A) decrease.
B) decrease only for the wood blocks.
C) increase.
D) not change.
6. After a block began to slide, how did its speed vary
with time? (Note: Assume that the tension and
kinetic friction forces on the block were constant in
magnitude.)
A) It was constant in time.
B) It increased exponentially with time.
C) It was first constant, then increased linearly with
time.
D) It increased linearly with time.
7. The researchers devised a second procedure to
measure static friction. They removed the string
from a block, placed the block at rest on a board,
and raised one end of the board until the block
began to slide. To determine the static friction force
on the block when sliding began, which of the
following measurements did they make?
A) Time it took for the block to slide down the board
B) Distance the block slid down the board before
coming to rest
C) Mass of the board
D) Angle of the board with respect to the horizontal
Passage II
Four chemicals produced in large quantities in the
United States are H2SO4, NH3, N2, and O2. The latter
three are gases, and H2SO4 is produced by gaseous
reactions. The preparation of H2SO4 involves the
following Reactions (IIII).
S(s) + O2(g) SO2(g)
2SO3(g)
H = 197.8 kJ/mol
Reaction II
SO3(g) + H2O() H2SO4(aq)
H = 132.6 kJ/mol
Reaction III
NH3 is prepared commercially by the reaction of N2

with H2 (Reaction IV). NH3 has a tendency to form
coordination compounds, such as [Co(NH3)6]Cl3, in
which NH3 forms covalent bonds with a transition
metal ion.
N2(g) + 3H2(g)
A) Addition of H2
B) A decrease in pressure
C) An increase in temperature
D) Addition of a catalyst
H = 296.8 kJ/mol
Reaction I
2SO2(g) + O2(g)
10. When Reaction IV is in a state of equilibrium,

which of the following changes will cause more
NH3 to form?
2NH3(g)
Reaction IV
H = 92 kJ/mol
11. In the fractional distillation of air, the N2 separates

before the O2 because N2:
A) is less reactive than O2.
B) is less electronegative than O2.
C) has a triple bond and O2 has a double bond.
D) has a lower boiling point than O2.
12. If 36 g of S and 32 g of O2 were used in Reaction
I, which of the following would be the limiting
reagent?
A) S
B) O2
C) SO2
D) There would not be a limiting reagent.
N2 and O2 are both prepared by the fractional

distillation of air. Air samples are first condensed to
the liquid state and then passed through a distilling
column. The N2 separates first, and then the O2 is
obtained.
8. The ability of NH3 to form coordination compounds
with transition metal ions can best be accounted for
by the fact that NH3:
A) acts as an electron pair donor.
B) is capable of hydrogen bonding.
C) is a weak base in aqueous solution.
D) contains N with a 3 oxidation number.
9. N2 has a lower boiling point than O2. Which of the
following statements best accounts for this
difference?
A) N2 is less reactive than is O2.
B) N2 is less electronegative than is O2.
C) N2 has a lower molecular weight than does O2.
D) N2 contains a triple bond, and O2 contains a double
bond.
Table 2 Constant Transmitted f and with Different

Jet Speeds Away from Receiver
Passage III
The wavelength of a radio wave measured by a
stationary receiver differs from the emitted wavelength
when the transmitter is moving. The frequency
measured by the receiver also changes when the
transmitter is moving. Three experiments were
conducted to determine relationships between the
speed of a moving radio transmitter and the changes in
wavelength and frequency measured at the receiver. In
each of the experiments, a jet flew at constant altitude
and emitted a signal that was measured by a receiver
on the ground.
Experiment 1
The jet flew directly away from the receiver at 268 m/s.
Signals with different frequencies (f) and wavelengths
() were transmitted in four trials. The transmitted
frequencies and wavelengths are listed in Table 1
along with the measured changes in frequency and
wavelength.
Table 1 Changing Transmitted f and with Constant
Jet Speed Away from Receiver
f
6
(10 Hz)
1.20
1.50
2.00
3.00
Change
in f
(Hz)
1.07
1.34
1.79
2.68
(m)
250
200
150
100
Change
in
(105m)
22
18
13
9
Experiment 2
The frequency of the transmitted radio signal was kept
constant at 2.0 x 106 Hz, and the transmitted
wavelength was kept constant at 150 m as the jet flew
directly away from the receiver at the four different
speeds listed in Table 2.
Speed
(m/s)
246
322
447
671
Change in f
(Hz)
1.64
2.15
2.98
4.47
Change in
(105m)
12
16
22
34
Experiment 3
The frequency of the radio signal was kept constant at
2.0 x 106 Hz and the wavelength was kept constant at
150 m as the jet flew directly toward the receiver with
the two speeds listed in Table 3.
Table 3 Constant Transmitted f and with Different
Jet Speeds toward Receiver
Speed
(m/s)
300
490
Change in f
(Hz)
2.00
3.27
Change in
(105m)
15
24
13. A stationary receiver detects a change in

frequency of the signal from a jet flying directly
away from it at 300 m/s. Which of the following
receivers will detect the same change in frequency
from a jet moving away at 600 m/s?
A) A receiver moving at 900 m/s in the opposite
direction as the jet
B) A receiver moving at 300 m/s in the opposite
direction as the jet
C) A stationary receiver
D) A receiver moving at 300 m/s in the same direction
as the jet
14. If the jet in Experiment 1 transmits a 2.5 x 106 Hz
radio wave, what will be the approximate change
in frequency measured at the receiver?
A) 1.2 Hz
B) 1.5 Hz
C) 2.2 Hz
D) 3.0 Hz
15. Which of the following graphs best illustrates the

relationship between speed of the transmitter away
from the receiver and the increase in wavelength
of the received signal?
17. Why are the percentages of the change in

frequency and wavelength much greater when
sound waves are used instead of radio waves in
these experiments?
A)
A) Sound waves travel more slowly.

B) Sound waves have a much higher frequency.
C) Sound waves have a much shorter wavelength.
D) Interference in the atmosphere affects sound waves
much more.
B)
18. A receiver is in a jet flying alongside another jet

that is emitting 2.0 x 106 Hz radio waves. If the
jets fly at 268 m/s, what is the change in frequency
detected at the receiver?
A) 0 Hz
B) 0.90 Hz
C) 1.79 Hz
D) 3.58 Hz
C)
19. An astronomer observes a hydrogen line in the
spectrum of a star. The wavelength of hydrogen in
the laboratory is 6.563 x 10-7m, but the wavelength
in the stars light is measured at 6.56186 x 10-7m.
Which of the following explains this discrepancy?
D)
A) The star is moving away from Earth.

B) The wavelength of light that the star is emitting
changes constantly.
C) The frequency of light that the star is emitting
changes constantly.
D) The star is approaching Earth.
16. As the speed of the jet flying away from the

receiver increases, what happens to the distance
between adjacent peaks of the transmitted waves,
as measured at the receiver?
A) It decreases.
B) It remains constant.
C) It increases.
D) It changes, but is not dependent on the speed.
Passage IV
Coulometric methods offer a means of monitoring
gases. For example, Figure 1 shows a schematic
diagram of an apparatus that can be used to determine
ultrasmall concentrations of oxygen.
O2(g) + 2H2O + 4e-
4OH-
o = +0.40 V
Equation 1
Ag+ + e-
Ag(s)
o = +0.80 V
Equation 2
Cd(s) + 2OH-
Cd(OH)2(s) + 2e-
o = +0.81 V
Equation 3
The current produced is measured by recording the

potential drop as it passes through a standard resistor
(R). The oxygen concentration is proportional to the
potential.
The procedure is reported to be accurate over a range
from 1 ppm up to 1% of the gas stream. The accuracy
of the procedure depends on an adequate flow rate.
20. How is the accuracy of the oxygen determination

affected by the addition of a gas into the stream
that is reduced by a reaction analogous to that of
oxygen?
A) Increased, because the smaller the amount of
oxygen in the stream, the more effective is
microanalysis
B) Increased, because the larger the sample reduced,
the less effect a small variation in measurement will
have on results
C) Decreased, because the partial pressure of oxygen
will be decreased
D) Decreased, because the method cannot distinguish
oxygen from the added gas
Figure 1 Coulometric determination of oxygen

concentration
The oxygen is bubbled over a silver electrode where it
is reduced according to the reactions represented by
Equations 1 and 2. The electrochemical reaction is
completed at the cadmium electrode. The half reaction
is given by Equation 3.
21. If 10 L oxygen at 30oC and 756 mm Hg passes

through the apparatus described in the passage,
what is the volume at STP?
A) (10)(756)(303)/(760)(273) L
B) (10)(760)(303)/(756)(273) L
C) (10)(756)(273)/(760)(303) L
D) (10)(760)(273)/(756)(303) L
10
22. In the schematic diagram shown in Figure 1, the

Cd electrode is:
A) the anode, because oxygen gas is reduced there.
B) the anode, because the silver electrode is where
reduction occurs.
C) the cathode, because the silver electrode is where
reduction occurs.
D) the cathode, because the silver electrode is where
oxidation occurs.
23. How many ppm is 1%?
A) 100
B) 1,000
C) 10,000
D) 100,000
24. Would methane gas (CH4) be a candidate for
determination by the method described in the
passage?
A) Yes, because carbon, like oxygen, is a nonmetal
B) Yes, because carbon, like oxygen, is in the 2nd
period of the periodic table
C) No, because hydrogen is already at its lowest
oxidation state in methane
D) No, because carbon is already at its lowest
oxidation state in methane
11
These questions are not based on a descriptive

passage and are independent of each other.
25. An aqueous solution of a salt made by mixing

which of the following acids and bases displays
the lowest pH?
A) Strong acid, weak base
B) Strong acid, strong base
C) Weak acid, weak base
D) Weak acid, strong base
26.
Depth (cm)
5
10
15
28. A student has a thin copper beaker containing 100

g of a pure metal in the solid state. The metal is at
215oC, its exact melting temperature. If the student
lights a Bunsen burner and holds it for a fraction
of a second under the beaker, what will happen to
the metal?
A) A small amount of the metal will turn to liquid,
with the temperature remaining the same.
B) All the metal will turn to liquid, with the
temperature remaining the same.
C) The temperature of the metal at the top of the
beaker will increase.
D) The temperature of the whole mass of the metal
will increase slightly.
Pressure (N/m2)
250
450
650
The table above gives pressure measured at

various depths below the surface of a liquid in a
container. A second liquid, whose density is twice
that of the first liquid, is poured into a second
container. Similar pressure measurements are
taken for the second liquid at various depths below
the surface of the second liquid. What is the
pressure at a depth of 10 cm for the second liquid?
A) 250 N/m2
B) 450 N/m2
C) 850 N/m2
D) 1650 N/m2
27. An object with 15 grams mass is immersed in
benzene and suffers an apparent loss of mass of 5
grams. What is the approximate specific gravity of
the object? (Data: Specific gravity of benzene =
0.7)
A) 1.4
B) 1.8
C) 2.1
D) 3.0
12
Table 2 shows some of the data collected by the

students.
Passage V
Five students (A-E) used volumetric analysis to
determine the molar mass of a weak acid of unknown
composition. Table 1 lists the acids issued by the
instructor as unknowns (unk).
Table 1 Weak Acids
Name
Acetic
Benzoic
Bromobenzoic
Chlorobenzoic
Methylbenzoic
Succinic
Formula
HC2H3O2
HC7H5O2
HC7H4BrO2
HC7H4ClO2
HC8H7O2
H2C4H4O4
The instructor prepared a solution of NaOH(aq) by

dissolving 8 g of NaOH(s) (MM = 40.00) in 2 L of
H2O, as shown in Equation 1. The temperature of the
solution rose during the mixing process.
NaOH(s) + H2O() NaOH(aq)
Equation 1
The NaOH(aq) was standardized by each student by
titration against a pure sample of KHP (potassium acid
phthalate, MM = 204.2), as shown in Equation 2.
KHP(aq) + NaOH(aq) KNaP(aq) + H2O()
Equation 2
Each unknown was dissolved in approximately 30 mL

of water or water-ethanol and titrated with the
standardized NaOH(aq), as shown for benzoic acid in
Equation 3.
HC7H5O2(aq) + NaOH(aq) NaC7H5O2(aq) + H2O()
Equation 3
Table 2 Partial Data of Students A-E

A
0.5500 g
Mass KHP
0.002752
Moles KHP
25.02
mL 25.20 mL
Vol NaOH vs
KHP
0.1022 0.1056
M NaOH
Mass unknown
Vol NaOH vs
unknown
Moles
unknown
201.0
156.1 136.2 59.1
Equivalent Wt 122.2
unknown
Succinic
Unknown
29. How many moles of KHP are present in the

sample of KHP of student A?
A) 2.752 x 10-1 mol
B) 2.693 x 10-2 mol
C) 2.693 x 10-3 mol
D) 3.712 x 102 mol
30. Which of the following changes in state functions
occurred during the dissolution shown in Equation
1?
I.
II.
III.
H < 0
G > 0
S > 0
A) I only
B) II only
C) I and III only
D) II and III only
31. What is the approximate molarity of the solution
prepared by the instructor?
A) 0.1 M
B) 0.2 M
C) 0.4 M
D) 4.0 M
13
32. At the stoichiometric (equivalence) point in a

titration of benzoic acid with NaOH(aq) shown by
Equation 3, the pH is:
A) < 4.
B) > 4 and < 7.
C) = 7.
D) > 7.
33. What is the conjugate base of chlorobenzoic acid?
A) OHB) H2O
C) C7H4ClOD) C7H4ClO234. Student E accounted for the equivalent weight
found for succinic acid by analyzing its titration
with NaOH(aq) and concluding that it is:
A) diprotic and requires one-half the number of moles
of NaOH expected for a monoprotic acid.
B) diprotic and requires twice the number of moles of
NaOH expected for a monoprotic acid.
C) triprotic and requires one-third the number of moles
of NaOH expected for a monoprotic acid.
D) triprotic and requires three times the number of
moles of NaOH expected for a monoprotic acid.
35. If a student did NOT remove all the moisture from
the KHP before the titration with NaOH(aq), then
the molarity determined for the NaOH(aq) would
be:
A) too high because the actual number of moles of
KHP titrated would be less than the number used in
the calculations.
B) too low because the actual number of moles of
KHP titrated would be more than the number used
in the calculations.
C) too low because the actual number of moles of
KHP titrated would be less than the number used in
the calculations.
D) unaffected because the weighed KHP was
dissolved in water, making any moisture in the
sample unimportant.
14
Passage VI
Novae are faint stars that suddenly brighten
enormously and then fade to their original luminosity
days to weeks later. One type of nova repeats this
process approximately every 50 years, typically
releasing 1038 J of energy each time. Novae are
observed to be members of compact double-star
systems, and this membership forms the basis for
hypotheses about this phenomenon.
Nova systems are composed of a white dwarf star and
an ordinary star. A white dwarf star, with mass
comparable to that of the Sun but a much smaller
radius, has an intense gravitational field at its surface.
In a close pair, gas (mainly hydrogen) pulled from the
ordinary star collects in a cloud encircling the white
dwarf star and then falls onto it at tremendous speed.
Three different hypotheses for this transfer and the
ensuing reaction are proposed.
Hypothesis I
The gas transfers in huge globs that on impact achieve
temperatures high enough to initiate nuclear fusion.
Energy is released at the surface of the dwarf star and
there is a sudden brightening.
Hypothesis II
The gas transfers smoothly to the white dwarf star. The
temperature rises gradually until a runaway fusion
reaction starts on the surface.
Hypothesis III
Hydrogen pulled onto the white dwarf star drifts to its
carbon-rich core, where fusion starts again (having
ceased earlier), producing an explosion. However,
since the nova effect is recurrent, the catastrophic
nature of this mechanism argues against the hypothesis.
In each of the hypotheses, if enough new material
accumulates in the core of the white dwarf star, carbon
there must eventually begin to fuse rapidly, perhaps
explosively. This sequence is most likely for a Type I
supernova, characterized by an expanding, glowing
cloud.
36. Why would the surface temperature of the white

dwarf star immediately rise when gas from the
ordinary star impacts the white dwarf star?
A) The white dwarf star transfers heat more rapidly to
the surface from its core, where fusion is taking
place.
B) The ordinary star, because of its proximity,
continues to exert tremendous pressure on the gas.
C) The kinetic energy of the gas is randomized at
impact, becoming heat energy.
D) Momentum is not conserved in the inelastic
collision but is converted to heat energy.
37. The gravitational force at the surface of a white
dwarf star is much greater than that at the surface
of the Sun because:
A) gravitation follows an inverse-square law and the
Sun has a much larger radius.
B) the Sun continues to support fusion in its core
whereas white dwarf stars do not.
C) gravitation is a nonsaturating force and is not
diminished by the presence of a companion star.
D) the encircling gas clouds produce additional
gravitational effects on the surface of the white
dwarf star.
38. Nuclei in stellar interiors are fully ionized, and
they fuse because of the extreme temperatures and
pressures there. Hydrogen fusion proceeds more
readily than does carbon fusion in a stars core
because:
A) there is a strong tendency toward diatomic bonding
in hydrogen but not in carbon.
B) the electrostatic repulsion between two carbon
nuclei is much greater than that between two
hydrogen nuclei.
C) carbon has a tendency to take on one or more of
several crystalline forms and hydrogen does not.
D) at the same high temperature, hydrogen nuclei
move more slowly and collide more often than do
carbon nuclei.
15
39. In a Type I supernova the expanding cloud is rich

in 56Ni undergoing the radioactive decay process
56
Ni 56Co 56Fe. This two-stage process is
thought to furnish energy for the months-long
glow of this type of supernova. Which of the
following particles is emitted in both of these
radioactive decays?
A) An particle (energetic 4He nucleus)
B) A deuteron (2H nucleus)
C) A thermal neutron (slowly moving neutron)
D) A positron (a positively charged electron-like
particle)
40. In considering Hypothesis II, what evidence
suggests that the fusion reaction must nevertheless
start suddenly, in a runaway fashion?
A) The nova effect repeats periodically over great
spans of time.
B) The mass of the white dwarf star has a high density.
C) The core of the white dwarf star produces high
energy photons.
D) Novae are observed to brighten suddenly and
enormously.
16
Passage VII
A class was studying electrochemistry. The instructor
gave each student an unknown. Some of the data are
shown in Table 1.
Table 1 Student Data
Student
1
2
3
4
5
Nature of unknown
0.01 M monoprotic acid
0.001 M monoprotic acid
1.0 M cation
White solid (58.5 g/mol)
Solution of Fe2(SO4)3
Measurement
pH = 4.0
pH = 3.0
o = 1.10 V
Some students required the Nernst equation, Equation

1.
cell = ocell (0.0592/n)log10(Q)
Equation 1
In Equation 1, n equals the number of moles of
electrons transferred in the redox reaction, and Q is the
reaction quotient. The expression for Q in terms of
concentrations of reactants and products is written in
the same manner as is the expression for the
equilibrium constant, Keq, for a reaction. The standard
cell potential ocell (in volts) of a galvanic cell is
obtained when all the components of the cell are in
their standard (thermodynamic) states. Thus, cell
equals zero, when Q equals Keq.
All of the students studied the reaction given by
Equation 2 (unbalanced), for which ocell = 0.32 V.
MnO4-(aq) + H+(aq) + ClO3-(aq)
ClO4-(aq) + Mn2+(aq) + H2O()
Equation 2 (unbalanced)
41. If Student 3s measurement (Table 1) was obtained

from a cell made by connecting the unknown
solution to a standard zinc electrode (Table 2) by
means of a salt bridge, which of the following ions
was Student 3s unknown?
A) Ag+
B) Cu2+
C) Al3+
D) Ca2+
42. If Student 4 prepared a solution by dissolving
29.25 g of the assigned unknown in water to a
total volume of 250.0 mL, the molarity of the
solution was:
A) 0.250 M.
B) 0.500 M.
C) 1.00 M.
D) 2.00 M.
43. The name of Student 5s unknown is:
A) iron(II) sulfate.
B) iron(II) sulfite.
C) iron(III) sulfate.
D) iron(III) sulfite.
44. Which expression gives the reaction quotient for a
spontaneous reaction between standard silver and
aluminum electrodes (Table 2)?
A) [Al3+][Ag+]
B) [Al3+]/[Ag+]3
C) [Ag+]3/[Al3+]
D) [Al3+][Ag(s)]3/[Ag+]3[Al(s)]
Standard reduction potentials for certain electrodes are

given in Table 2.
Table 2 Standard Reduction Potentials
Half-reaction
Ag+(aq) + e- Ag(s)
o, Volts
+0.80
Cu2+(aq) + 2e- Cu(s)
+0.34
2H+(aq) + 2e- H2(g)
0.00
Zn2+(aq) + 2e- Zn(s)
-0.76
Al3+(aq) + 3e- Al(s)
-1.66
Ca2+(aq) + 2e- Ca(s)
-2.76
17
Passage VIII
Potassium nitrate (101.1 g/mol) is a white, crystalline
solid. It is very soluble in water, having a solubility of
34 g/100 g H2O at 20oC. The enthalpy of solution of
KNO3(s) is the algebraic sum of its lattice energy,
hydration energy, and the energy needed to separate
water molecules. The standard heat of solution (Hodiss)
at 20oC for KNO3 is 34.9 kJ/mol.
A student prepared a 20% wt/wt solution of KNO3 at
20oC. A weighed amount of KNO3 was placed in a
beaker, and enough water was added to completely
dissolve the salt. The solution was quantitatively
transferred to a 1-L volumetric flask, calibrated at 20oC,
and the volume was brought to the 1-L mark on the
flask. The student collected the data shown in Table 1
for a 20% by mass solution of KNO3 in water at 20oC.
45. Which of the following expressions gives the mole

fraction of KNO3 in the solution prepared by the
student?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Table 1 Properties of an Aqueous Solution, 20% by

Mass KNO3 at 20oC
Property
density
solute conc.
molarity
water conc.
g H2O displaced
by solute
condosity
Value
1.1326 kg/L
226.5 g/L
2.241 mol/L
906.1 g/L
92.2 g/L
2.49 mol/L
46. Crystals precipitate when each of the following

compounds is added to a saturated solution of
KNO3(aq) EXCEPT:
A) NH4NO3(s).
B) Ca(NO3)2(s).
C) NH4Cl(s).
D) KCl(s).
The condosity of a solution is defined as the molar

concentration of sodium chloride that has the same
specific conductance (electrical) as the solution.
18
47. Which point on the condosity plot shown below

represents the student-prepared solution of
KNO3(aq), if the point labeled NaCl represents
2.49 M NaCl(aq)?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
48. How many grams KNO3 are in 100 mL of the
student-prepared solution of KNO3(aq)?
A) 11.33 g
B) 22.41 g
C) 22.65 g
D) 34.00 g
49. What is the approximate number of potassium ions
in the student-prepared solution of KNO3(aq)?
A) 109
B) 1016
C) 1020
D) 1024
19

53. A square-wave voltage signal is sent into a

resistor-capacitor circuit as shown.
50. Suppose that CH4(g) reacts completely with O2(g)

to form CO2(g) and H2O(g) with a total pressure of
1.2 torr. What is the partial pressure of H2O(g)?
A) 0.4 torr
B) 0.6 torr
C) 0.8 torr
D) 1.2 torr
51. A compound was analyzed and found to contain
12.0 g carbon, 2.0 g hydrogen, and 16.0 g oxygen.
What is the empirical formula for this compound?
A) CH2O
B) C6HO8
C) C6H12O6
D) C12H2O16
52. The fundamental, resonant wavelength of a pipe
open at both ends that is 1 m long and 0.1 m in
diameter is:
A) 0.1 m.
B) 0.2 m.
C) 1.0 m.
D) 2.0 m.
Which plot gives the typical voltage response

between points A and B?
A)
B)
C)
D)
54. Mechanical waves in a medium such as water

function to transport:
A) matter only.
B) energy only.
C) both matter and energy.
D) neither matter nor energy.
20
Passage IX
Scientists hypothesize that motions of the Earths
surface brought the present-day continents of North
America and Africa into contact over 200 million years
ago. The collision was brief on the time scale of
geological events but resulted in the formation of the
Appalachian Mountains near the east coast of North
America and the Mauritanian Mountains near the west
coast of Africa. The time of the event has been
determined by an investigation of rock formations,
magnetic measurements, and radioactive dating of
rocks brought to the surface during the collision.
In radioactive dating, the age of a rock can be
determined by measuring the amount of radioactive
potassium (40K, half-life = 2.4 x 108 years) in the rock
and the amount of its decay product, argon gas (40Ar),
in the sample.
Consider a simplified model of this collision in which
the continents are circular, uniform slabs of identical
thickness free to move on a frictionless fluid mantle
surface. Using this simplified model and modern
measurements of continent drift speeds and positions,
one determines that the continents should have collided
120 million years ago, a significantly more recent time
than evidence from the scene would suggest.
57. If two continents of masses m1 and m2 and

collinear velocities v1 and v2 collide and stick
together, their common final velocity is:
A) (m1v1 + m2v2)/(m1 + m2).
B) (v12 + v22)1/2.
C) v1 + v2.
D) m1v1/m2 + m2v2/m1.
58. What kind of object is emitted in the decay
of 40K?
A) A gamma ray
B) An alpha particle
C) An electron
D) A positron
59. A continent of mass m collides with a continent of
mass m/2 that is initially at rest. During the
collision, the more massive continent is found to
exert a force F on the less massive continent,
causing the smaller continent to accelerate. At the
same time, the less massive continent exerts a
force on the larger continent of magnitude:
A) F/2.
B) F.
C) 2F.
D) 0.
55. Which of the following quantities was necessarily

conserved in the collision of the model continents?
A) Momentum
B) Kinetic energy
C) Potential energy
D) Impulse
56. Which of the following is a necessary condition
for providing an accurate estimate of the age of a
rock through radioactive dating?
A) The rock must contain traces of organic material.
B) Any gases present before the rock formed must
have remained trapped in the rock.
C) Gases must have remained trapped in the rock only
since its formation.
D) The rock must have been excavated from far
beneath the Earths surface.
21
Passage X
A vacuum photodiode detector utilizes the
photoelectric effect to detect light. The photoelectric
effect causes electrons to be ejected from a metal plate
when photons of light are absorbed by the metal. The
energy of a photon is given by the equation E = hf,
where h = 6.6 x 10-34 Js (Plancks constant), and f is
the frequency of the photon. To free an electron, the
energy of a photon must be greater than a quantity
called the work function of the metal. The ejected
electron will have a kinetic energy equal to the
photons energy minus the work function.
A vacuum photodiode is constructed by sealing two
electrodes, a cathode and an anode, in a vacuum tube.
The electrodes are separated by a distance, L = 0.01 m,
and connected to a battery and a resistor, R = 100 , as
shown in Figure 1. The cathode is made of a
photoelectric metal and is connected to the negative
terminal of the battery. The potential difference
between the cathode and anode is approximately equal
to the battery voltage, V = 50 V. The electric field at all
points between the electrodes is equal to the electrode
voltage difference divided by L. The potential energy
of an electron immediately after it is released from the
cathode is equal to qV, where q = -1.6 x 10-19 C is the
charge of an electron. The work function for the
vacuum photodiode is 2 x 10-19 J.
60. Which of the following changes to the circuit will

decrease the electric field between the electrodes
by the greatest amount?
A) Increasing L by a factor of 2
B) Decreasing L by a factor of 2
C) Increasing R by a factor of 2
D) Decreasing R by a factor of 2
61. An electron is ejected from the cathode by a
photon with an energy slightly greater than the
work function of the cathode. How will the final
kinetic energy of the electron upon reaching the
anode compare to its initial potential energy
immediately after it has been ejected?
A) It will be 2 times as large.
B) It will be approximately equal.
C) It will be 1/4 as large.
D) It will be 0.
62. When the number of photons incident on the
cathode with energies above the value of the work
function increases, which of the following
quantities also increases?
A) Number of electrons ejected
B) Potential energy of each ejected electron
C) Magnitude of the electric field between the
electrodes
D) Speed of electrons at the anode
63. Which of the following best describes the
movement of an electron after it is ejected from
the cathode?
A) It is stationary until collisions propel it toward the
anode.
B) It moves with constant speed toward the anode.
C) It accelerates toward the anode.
D) It exits through a side of the vacuum photodiode.
64. When the current in the circuit described in the
passage is 1 x 10-3 A, what power is dissipated as
heat in the resistor?
Figure 1 Vacuum photodiode detector
A) 1 x 10-6 W
B) 1 x 10-4 W
C) 1 x 10-2 W
D) 1 x 10-1 W
22
65. Which of the following occurs when electrons are

ejected from the cathode?
A) The voltage across the electrodes reverses polarity.
B) The voltage difference between the electrodes
increases.
C) Current flows through the circuit.
D) The total resistance of the circuit increases.
66. Increasing the frequency of each photon that is
directed at the cathode will:
A) decrease the number of photons ejected.
B) increase the number of photons ejected.
C) decrease the speed of the ejected electrons.
D) increase the speed of the ejected electrons.
23
Passage XI
A chemist measured some physical properties of an
unknown element (X) and its oxide. The results are
summarized in Table 1.
Table 1 Physical Properties of Element X and Its
Oxide
Density (g/cm3)
Melting point (oC)
Boiling point (oC)
Solubility (g/100 g H2O at 25oC)
Element X
1.54
839
1484
not measured
Oxide
of X
3.30
2614
2850
0.12
The chemist concluded that the oxide was an ionic

compound because of its high melting and boiling
points. When the solubility experiment was conducted,
the element reacted with water at room temperature
and liberated a flammable gas. Dissolution of the oxide
in water produced a pH greater than 7. The boiling
point of the oxide solution was slightly higher than
100oC.
The emission spectrum of element X displayed a
number of lines in the visible region; the red emissions
were particularly intense. The chemist compared
certain properties of the unknown with those of oxygen.
The data are shown in Table 2.
Table 2 Properties of Element X and Oxygen
Electronegativity
First ionization energy (kJ/mol)
Second ionization energy (kJ/mol)
Third ionization energy (kJ/mol)
Element X
1.0
590
1100
4912
Oxygen
3.5
1300
3400
5300
67. What is the physical state of the unknown element

X at 1200oC?
A) Solid
B) Liquid
C) Gas
D) Plasma
68. If the molar mass of the oxide is known, what
other characteristic of the solution is required to
calculate the molarity of its saturated solution?
A) Its density
B) Its mass
C) Its volume
D) Its pH
69. According to data presented in the passage, which
of the following charge distributions best describes
the oxide of element X?
A) Element X positive, oxygen positive
B) Element X positive, oxygen negative
C) Element X negative, oxygen positive
D) Element X negative, oxygen negative
70. The gas that evolved when the chemist tried to
dissolve element X was most likely:
A) water vapor produced from the heat of reaction.
B) oxygen produced by chemical reaction.
C) hydrogen produced by chemical reaction.
D) nitrogen that had been dissolved in the water from
air.
71. According to the ionization energies shown in
Table 2, element X is:
A) an alkali metal.
B) an alkaline earth metal.
C) a transition metal.
D) a nonmetal.
24

72. In the Bohr model of the atom, radiation is emitted

whenever electrons:
A) change orbits.
B) undergo acceleration.
C) move to orbits of lower energy.
D) move to orbits of larger radius.
73. Which of the following phase changes is used to
determine the heat of fusion for a pure substance?
A) Melting of a solid
B) Sublimation of a solid
C) Boiling of a liquid
D) Condensation of a gas
74.
75. Suppose that a stream of fluid flows steadily

through a horizontal pipe of varying crosssectional diameter. Neglecting viscosity, where is
the fluid pressure greatest?
A) At the intake point
B) At the point of maximum diameter
C) At the point of minimum diameter
D) At the point of maximum change in diameter
76. Suppose a certain far-sighted person can see
objects clearly no closer than 300 cm away. What
is the minimum distance from a plane mirror such
a person must be to see his reflection clearly?
A) 75 cm
B) 150 cm
C) 300 cm
D) 600 cm
77. A solution of H2SO4(aq) has a pH of 6.0. What is
the H3O+(aq) concentration?
A) 1 x 106
B) 5 x 10-7
C) 2 x 10-6
D) 1 x10-6
In the circuit shown above, the current in the 2ohm resistance is 2 A. What is the current in the 3ohm resistance?
A) 2 A
B) 3 A
C) 4 A
D) 6 A
25
Verbal Reasoning
Time: 85 minutes
Questions: 78-137
There are nine passages in the complete Verbal Reasoning test. Each passage is followed by several
questions. After reading a passage, select the one best answer to each question. If you are not certain of an answer,
eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining
alternatives. Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet.
Passage I
Human rights as an idea, as an issue in religious,
political, and moral philosophy, has an ancient and
illustrious pedigree. The English Bill of Rights, and
more emphatically the U.S. Declaration of
Independence and the French Declaration of the Rights
of Man and Citizen, were all based on the idea of
inalienable, universal, and absolute rights. Nor is it true
that the idea of human rights is an invention alien to
most non-Western cultures and that it has been foisted
on a more or less unwilling world. Even if there were
no explicit covenants to that effect in traditional
societies in Asia, Africa, and Latin America, the idea
of freedom was hardly alien to those civilizations.
Throughout the last century, it was commonly argued
that international law concerned states alone, but this
interpretation is no longer widely held. A new
approach manifested itself in the Atlantic Charter of
1941, in the Declaration of the United Nations the year
after, and in countless speeches of wartime leaders.
This new approach found expression in the United
Nations Charter and, more specifically, in the
Universal Declaration of Human Rights, approved
without a dissenting voice in December 1948. The
president of the General Assembly, Dr. H. V. Evatt of
Australia, said at the time that this was the first
occasion on which the organized world community had
recognized the existence of human rights and
fundamental freedoms transcending the laws of
sovereign states.
But although millions of men and women have indeed
turned to the Universal Declaration of Human Rights,
they have received very little guidance and no help
from the organization that propagated it. The failure of
the United Nations to live up to early expectations and
to become an effective instrument for the promotion of
human rights has induced individual governments and
nongovernmental bodies to take fresh initiatives in this
area. In 1947, the Organization of American States
passed a declaration on the rights and duties of
humankind; in 1950, the Council of Europe agreed on
a covenant for the protection of human rights and
fundamental freedoms and established the European
Commission for Human Rights as well as a European
court in Strasbourg that has heard many cases since it
first met in 1960. Various private bodies, such as the
International League for Human Rights, Freedom
House, and Amnesty International, have published

reports about conditions of oppression in various parts
of the world, drawing attention to particularly flagrant
violations, and on occasion mobilizing public support
to bring pressure on the governments concerned.
It was clear from the very beginning that the walls of
oppression would not crumble at the first clarion call.
The cultural and social context, the level of
development of each country, are factors that have to
be taken into account. What has especially to be
considered is the general trend in a country: Has there
been a movement toward greater human rights or away
from them? However underdeveloped a country, there
is no convincing argument in favor of torture, of
arbitrary execution, of keeping sections of a population
or a whole people in a state of slavery. The case for
human rights is unassailable.
Material used in this test passage has been adapted from the
following source:
C. Ozick, Art & Ardor: Essays. 1983 by C. Ozick.
78. According to the passage, when judging the

human rights record of a country, one must take
into account:
I.
II.
III.
the countrys level of development.

the countrys social and cultural
circumstances.
whether the country is moving toward or
away from greater human rights.
A) II only
B) III only
C) I and II only
D) I, II, and III
79. Regarding the concept of human rights, the author
asserts that non-Western cultures:
A) originated the concept of human rights.
B) understood human rights before being exposed to
Western cultures.
C) initially resisted the concept of human rights
introduced by Western cultures.
D) developed explicit covenants about human rights
before Western cultures did so.
27
80. The U.S. Declaration of Independence and the

French Declaration of the Rights of Man and
Citizen are cited in the passage as evidence that:
84. Which of the following statements most strongly

challenges one of the assertions made in the
passage?
A) the concept of human rights was not alien to early

non-Western cultures.
B) the English Bill of Rights was not the only early
document that promoted human rights.
C) throughout the last century, it was commonly held
that international law applied only to states.
D) the issue of human rights has been prominent in
world thinking for centuries.
A) The citizens of any country have the right to

disobey unjust laws.
B) Countries have the right to manage their own
internal affairs without outside interference.
C) Some governments may move more slowly than
others toward implementing human rights laws.
D) Even the passage of universal human rights laws
will not immediately stop all oppression.
81. The passage implies that an underdeveloped

country that replaces a repressive dictator with a
democratic leader sworn to oppose the persecution
of the countrys citizens should be:
A) praised cautiously for its first steps at moving away
from human rights abuses.
B) monitored intensely for possible human rights
abuses.
C) forgiven its past persecutions due to the poor
condition of its economy.
D) criticized harshly for not having instituted
democratic reforms sooner.
82. On the sole basis of the passage, determine which
of the following acts the author would most want
to see forbidden by international law, regardless of
the level of development of the country in which it
takes place.
A) Using private property for state purposes
B) Placing certain conditions on the right to vote
C) Suspending certain freedoms in times of national
emergency
D) Torturing political dissidents
83. Passage information indicates that if a people were
suffering persecution by their government, they
would probably most benefit by bringing their
case to the attention of:
A) the United Nations.
B) the Organization of American States.
C) Amnesty International.
D) the elected leader of their country.
28
Passage II
Women who write with an overriding consciousness
that they write as women are engaged not in aspiration
toward writing but chiefly in a politics of sex. A new
political term makes its appearance: woman writer, not
used descriptively as one would say a lanky, brownhaired writer but as part of the language of politics.
Now a politics of sex can be very much to the point.
No one would deny that the movement for female
suffrage was a politics of sex, and obviously any
agitation for equality in employment, in the
professions, and in government is a politics of sex. But
the language of politics is not writers language.
Politics begins with premises; imagination goes in
search of them. The political term woman writer
signals in advance a whole set of premises: that, for
instance, there are male and female states of
intellect and feeling, hence of prose; that individuality
of condition and temperament do not apply, or at least
not much, and that all writing women possess not by
virtue of being writers but by virtue of being women
an instantly perceived common ground; that writers
who are women can best nourish other writers who are
women.
I deny this. There is a human component to literature
that does not separate writers by sex but that on the
contrary engenders sympathies from sex to sex, from
condition to condition, from experience to experience,
from like to like, and from unlike to unlike. Literature
universalizes. Without disparaging particularity or
identity, it universalizes; it does not divide.
Does a woman writer have a body of separate
experience by virtue of being a woman? It was this
myth-fed condition of segregation that classical
feminism was created to bring to an end. Insofar as
some women, and some writers who are women, have
separate bodies of experience or separate psychologies,
to that degree has the feminism of these women not yet
asserted itself. In art, feminism is that idea which
opposes segregation; which means to abolish
mythological divisions; which declares that the
imagination cannot be set free, because it is already
free.
historian, nor a literary critic, nor a journalist, nor a

politician. The newspeak term woman writer has the
following sociological or political message: Of course
we believe in humanity-as-a-whole. Of course we
believe that a writer is a writer, period. But let us for a
little while gather together, as women, to become
politically strong, strong in morale, a visible, viable
social factor; as such, we will separate ourselves only
temporarily, during this strengthening period, and then,
when we can rejoin the world with power and dignity
in our hands, we will rejoin it and declare ourselves for
the unity of the human species. This temporary status
will be our strategy in our struggle with Society.
That is the voice of the woman writer. But it is a
mistaken voice. Only consider: In intellectual life, a
new generation comes of age every four or five years.
For those who were not present at the inception of this
strategy, it will not seem a strategy at all; it will be the
only reality. Writers will very soon find themselves
born into one of two categories, woman writer or
writer, and all the writers will be expected to be male
an uninspiring social and literary atmosphere the world
has known before.
following source:
W. Laqueur and B. Rubin, eds., The Human Rights
Reader. 1989 by W. Laqueur and B. Rubin.
85. According to the passage, women writers say they

will end their voluntary segregation when:
A) women writers gain sufficient political power.
B) literature recognizes humanity-as-a-whole.
C) women writers imaginations are set free.
D) a new generation of women writers appears.
86. The author of the passage states that in the arts,
feminism is a force that:
A) gives women writers an instantly perceived
common ground.
B) opposes segregation and mythological divisions.
C) groups writers into two categories.
D) helps women writers to accept humanity-as-awhole.
A writer I mean now a fiction writer or a poet, an

imagining writer is not a sociologist, nor a social
29
87. The passage indicates that its author would NOT

agree with which of the following statements?
A) Because women have different life experiences
than do men, each sex must develop its own values.
B) Women who write should feel free to express their
political viewpoints.
C) Literature can help men and women to become
more sympathetic toward one another.
D) Women should earn the same wages as men.
88. According to the passage, if women who write are
labeled women writers, then eventually:
A) these women will become classical feminists.
B) these women will become political.
C) the human component of literature will disappear.
D) only male writers will be called writers.
89. If the author of the passage admired the fiction or
poetry of one of the self-labeled women writers,
this admiration would be most discrepant with the
passage assertion that:
A) classical feminism was created to bring an end to
intellectual segregation.
B) women writers believe that they can be nourished
only by other women writers.
C) a world in which all writers are men would be
uninspiring.
D) an imagining writer should not use the language of
politics.
90. Which of the following works would the author of
the passage be most likely to describe as
literature?
A) A play in which mens and womens lives are
treated sympathetically
B) An essay about the womens liberation movement
of the 1970s
C) A novel that attacks men for their ignorance of
feminism
D) A tract arguing that the next president of the U.S.
should be a woman
30
Passage III
A predetermined covenant of confidentiality
characterizes the physician-patient relationship.
Possession of contraband in prison is illegal, but
suppose that during a routine medical examination, a
prison physician notices that Prisoner A has drugs and
paraphernalia. Should the physician report a crime or
should confidentiality prevail?
Professional communications between physicians and
patients are statutorily protected as confidential. A
routine physical examination is part of the confidential
communication, like information obtained by taking a
medical history and data entered in the patients health
record. Health professionals have an interest in
maintaining confidentiality so that patients will feel
comfortable in revealing personal but necessary
information. Prisoners do not possess full
Constitutional rights to privacy, but they generally
retain rights to privacy when there is a special
relationship between communicants, such as the
physician-patient relationship. In fact, respect for
confidentiality is particularly important in a prison
hospital setting, in which patients feel distrust because
physicians are often employed by the incarcerating
institution.
Clinical autonomy for health professionals in the
prison setting is essential for good medical practice.
Physicians working in prisons also retain the privilege
of confidential interactions with patients, although the
prison authorities may try to pressure doctors to supply
information. Even if physicians are employed by the
prison, their first responsibility is to their patients. The
circumstances in which to give privileged information
to prison authorities remains the physicians decision.
The finding that contraband detected during an
examination has the appearance of drugs and
paraphernalia, like all results of the examination, is
privileged information to be treated confidentially. The
right to privacy supersedes a duty to report the
discovery because there is no imminent threat to others.
In contrast, a weapon harbored by a prisoner represents
an imminent threat to other prisoners and to prison
staff. Thus, upon discovering a sequestered weapon
during the course of a routine examination, the
physician has a duty to warn. According to case law,
when the physician believes that a significant threat of
harm exists, the duty to warn takes precedence over the

patients right to privacy.
The case of Prisoner A raises the issue of the point at
which to draw the line between the duty to protect the
public and the duty to protect patients privacy.
Although legal guidelines can assist the physician in
making the choice, the health professional must rely on
a guiding principle of the medical profession: Where
no danger to others exists, patients come first.
The possibility of discovering contraband during
routine examinations of prisoner patients reinforces the
need for informed consent at several stages. First,
prisoner patients should be evaluated and treated only
after they provide informed consent, unless they are
incompetent. Before an X ray is taken, they should be
informed that it can demonstrate metal and other
foreign bodies, and their agreement to the procedure
should be obtained. Second, if a concealed weapon is
discovered during a routine examination, the prisoner
patient should be informed that the discovery will be
reported and given the opportunity to surrender the
weapon to authorities before more forcible means are
taken to remove it. If Prisoner A is harboring drugs and
a needle, drug use is quite possibly contributing to As
health problem. It is the physicians responsibility to
educate A about the potential harm of drug use.
following source:
C. Levine (Ed.), Cases in Bioethics: Selections from the Hastings
Center Report. 1989 by St. Martin' Press.
91. Assume that a prison did not have a policy of

obtaining informed consent before a diagnostic
procedure, and almost all of the inmates refused to
be X-rayed. The authors comments suggest that
this situation could reasonably be interpreted as
evidence that prisoners:
A) believe that they have a Constitutional right to
privacy.
B) are less concerned about their health than are
nonprisoners.
C) distrust physicians who are employed by the prison.
D) feel a need to carry weapons for self-protection.
31
92. Suppose that a prisoner under sedation for a

medical procedure inadvertently reveals that a
weapon is hidden in the prisoners cell. Passage
information suggests that the author would be
most likely to advise the physician to report the
incident:
A) only if the prisoner threatened to use the weapon.
B) only if the prisoner consented to the report.
C) only if the prisoner subsequently denied that the
weapon existed.
D) regardless of the patients assertions.
93. The author argues that a routine examination is
part of the confidential communication between a
patient and a physician and that the clinical
autonomy of the physician is essential for good
medical practice in prisons. These beliefs imply
that:
A) if the quality of medicine practiced in a prison
declines, a physician has violated the
confidentiality of a routine examination.
B) if all physicians in a prison refuse to reveal
information about prisoners obtained during routine
examinations, the physicians in that prison have
clinical autonomy.
C) if all physicians who conduct routine examinations
in a prison respect their patients confidence, the
quality of medicine practiced in the prison is high.
D) if a physician is required to reveal information
about a prisoner obtained during a routine
examination, the quality of medicine practiced in
the prison suffers.
95. Which of the following conclusions about

physician confidentiality can be inferred from the
passage?
A) It is more likely to be assumed in a private setting
than in a prison.
B) It is especially important when patients are
incompetent to give informed consent.
C) It is threatened by the use of invasive diagnostic
tools such as X rays.
D) It is an aspect of a Constitutional right that is lost
by prisoners.
96. Which of the following objections, if valid, would
most weaken the argument made for the special
importance of the physician-patient covenant
within prisons?
A) Prisoners understand that X rays will detect hidden
weapons.
B) Prisoners assume that physicians are independent of
the institution.
C) Prison officials often question physicians about
prisoners.
D) Prisoners often misunderstand their Constitutional
rights.
94. With respect to prisoners, necessary

informationprobably refers most specifically to a
patients:
A) past criminal activities.
B) use of illegal drugs.
C) intent to harm others.
D) psychiatric history.
32
Passage IV
In Civilization and Its Discontents, Sigmund Freud
examined the agonizing dilemma of human social life.
We are by nature selfish and aggressive, yet any
successful civilization demands that we suppress our
biological inclinations and act altruistically for the
common good and harmony. Freuds argument is a
particularly forceful variation on a ubiquitous theme in
speculations about human nature. What we criticize
in ourselves, we attribute to our animal past. These are
the shackles of our apish ancestrybrutality, aggression,
selfishness; in short, general nastiness. What we prize
and strive for (with pitifully limited success), we
consider as a unique overlay, conceived by our
rationality and imposed upon an unwilling body.
One nagging scientific argument does seem to support
this ancient prejudice. The essential ingredient of
human kindness is altruism sacrifice of our personal
comfort, even our lives in extreme cases, for the
benefit of others. Yet if we accept the Darwinian
mechanism of evolution, how can altruism be part of
biology? Natural selection dictates that organisms act
in their own self-interest. They know nothing of such
abstract concepts as the good of the species. How,
then, could anything but selfishness ever evolve as a
biological trait of behavior?
We owe the resolution of this paradox to the theory of
kin selection, which was developed in the early 1960s
by W. D. Hamilton, a British theoretical biologist.
According to this theory, animals evolve behaviors that
endanger or sacrifice themselves only if such altruistic
acts increase their own genetic potential by benefiting
kin. Altruism and the society of kin must go hand in
hand; the benefits of kin selection may even propel the
evolution of social interaction.
Kin selection seems to explain the key features of
social behavior in ants, bees, and wasps. But what can
it do for us? How can it help us to understand the
contradictory amalgam of impulses toward selfishness
and altruism that form our own personalities? I am
willing to admit and this is only my intuition, since
we have no facts to constrain us that kin selection
probably resolves Freuds dilemma of the first
paragraph. Basic human kindness may be as animal
as human nastiness. But here I stop short of any
deterministic speculation that attributes specific
behaviors to the possession of specific altruist or

opportunist genes. Upbringing, culture, class, status,
and all the intangibles that we call free will
determine the way we restrict our behaviors from the
wide spectrum extreme altruism to extreme
selfishness that our genes permit.
Although I worry long and hard about the deterministic
uses of kin selection, I applaud the insight it offers for
my favored theme, biological potentiality. For it
extends the realm of genetic potential even further by
including the capacity for kindness, once viewed as
intrinsically unique to human culture. Freud argued
that the history of our greatest scientific insights has
reflected, ironically, a continuous retreat of our species
from center stage in the cosmos. Before Copernicus
and Newton, we thought we lived at the hub of the
universe. Before Freud, we imagined ourselves as
rational creatures (surely one of the least modest
statements in intellectual history). If kin selection
marks another stage in this retreat, it will serve us well
by nudging our thinking away from domination and
toward a perception of respect and unity with other
animals.
following source:
R. Lewin, In the Age of Mankind: A Smithsonian Book of Human
Evolution. 1988 by The Smithsonian Institution.
97. Which of the following statements best

summarizes the main idea of the passage?
A) What we criticize in ourselves we attribute to our
animal past.
B) Natural selection dictates that organisms act in their
own self-interest.
C) Altruism and the society of kin must go hand in
hand.
D) Basic human kindness may be as animal as
human nastiness.
98. The term unique overlay refers implicitly to our
human:
A) altruistic behavior.
B) tendency toward animalistic behavior.
C) propensity toward selfishness.
D) ability to be self-critical.
33
99. An important comparison is made in the passage

between:
A) altruism and rationality.
B) selfishness and aggressiveness.
C) altruism as a uniquely human trait and as a trait
shared with lower animals.
D) determinism and rationality.
100. Suppose the author had inserted the following
sentence at the end of paragraph 4: Both the
misers tendency to hoard and the
philanthropists tendency to give have, at times,
been attributed to genetics. This example would
best illuminate the authors discussion of:
A) free will.
B) rationality.
C) determinism.
D) human nature.
101. Which of the following assertions in the passage
is NOT supported by an example or by reference
to an authority?
A) Free will determines our behaviors within the
wide range our genes permit.
B) The history of science has marked the continuous
retreat of humanity from center stage.
C) Animals evolve altruistic behaviors only if such
acts increase their own genetic potential.
D) Successful civilization demands that we suppress
our biological inclinations.
102. The author asks, Yet if we accept the Darwinian
mechanism of evolution, how can altruism be
part of biology? This question is most directly
dealt with in the authors discussion of:
A) natural selection.
B) kin selection.
C) civilization.
D) evolution.
103. The last paragraph of the passage implies that we

may be nudged toward a perception of respect
and unity with other animals because:
A) we live at the hub of the universe and can therefore
see things with relative clarity.
B) we are rational creatures and can therefore see the
importance of kindness toward other animals.
C) our behavior, like that of other animals, is entirely
governed by our genetic makeup.
D) we see that our altruistic traits, like traits of other
animals, may be due to biological evolution.
104. It has been said that war is inevitable because
brutality is a part of our biological heritage. The
author would probably disagree by saying that:
A) we may be brutal by nature, but we are also kindly
by nature.
B) contrary to past beliefs, our true biological nature is
not brutal but altruistic.
C) although our biological nature may be brutal, our
spirituality can help us to transcend this trait.
D) biologically we may be brutal, but our human
ability to reason can help us to overcome this trait.
105. In another essay, the author quotes Benjamin
Franklin as saying, We must all hang together,
or assuredly we shall all hang separately. This
quotation could best be used in the passage to
illustrate the survival value of:
A) biological determinism.
B) reciprocal altruism.
C) animal aggression.
D) genetic mutation.
106. Freuds argument that to behave altruistically we
must renounce many of our innate animalistic,
biological instincts is most weakened by which
idea that is implicit in the passage?
A) Our tendency toward selfishness is directly linked
to our animal ancestry.
B) Darwins theory of natural selection dictates that an
animal always acts in its own best interest.
C) Lower animals such as ants, wasps, and bees are
capable of acts of self-sacrifice.
D) Human social life entails agonizing dilemmas.
34
Passage V
The fossil record indicates that flowers originated
some time during the middle of the Mesozoic Era,
about 150 million years ago. Flowers probably made
their first humble appearance in the age of conifers,
cycads, dinosaurs, and beetles. Most of the seedbearing plants of that age were probably pollinated by
wind. They possessed the same kinds of reproductive
structures, including separate sexes and in some
instances, winged pollen, that are associated with wind
pollination in their modern survivors. The ovules were
borne in cones or on leaves and exuded drops of sap.
In the course of time, beetles feeding on the sap and
resin of stems and on leaves must have discovered that
the liquid droplets from the ovules and the pollen in
the male cones were nutritious foods. Some of these
beetles, returning regularly to the newly found source
of food, would have accidentally carried pollen to the
ovules. For some Mesozoic plants, this new method of
pollination may have represented a more efficient
method of cross-pollination than did the releasing of
enormous quantities of pollen into the air. Through
natural selection, they would develop adaptations to
the potentialities of beetle pollination.
The ovules, first of all, must be placed behind some
protective wall to prevent their being chewed up by the
beetles. One means of accomplishing this isolation
would be to fold the ovule-bearing leaf or branch into a
hollow, closed carpel. The pollen-collecting function
would then have to be transferred from the individual
ovules to a central stigma serving all the ovules in the
carpel.
The beetles could be drawn to the stigma by a special
secretion of nectar, which would replace the droplets
previously given off by the individual ovules. A beetle
visiting the stigma would be apt to leave behind
sufficient pollen for the fertilization of numerous
ovules. The number of seeds formed in a single
pollination would no longer be one, as in the windpollinated ancestor, but ten or twenty. So the transition
from wind to beetle pollination would increase the
fertility of the plant.
The chance that the beetle would bring pollen to the
stigma would be increased if the male stamens were in
close proximity to the carpels. The stamens and carpels
might even be advantageously grouped within the

same cone. The stamens would have to be present in
large number so that they would not all be devoured by
the beetles. In the course of time, the outer stamens
might become sterilized and pigmented and
transformed into a set of showy petals. When these
conditions had been fulfilled, there would have come
into existence a structure possessing all the essentials
of a modern flower.
When the bees, moths, butterflies, and long-tongued
flies arrived on the earth at the beginning of the
Tertiary Period, some 70 million years ago, the
evolution of flowers was greatly broadened. In flowers
pollinated by the long-tongued insects, the petals
became fused into a tubular corolla with the supply of
nectar concealed at its base. The carpels were similarly
fused into a compound ovary with a more localized
and centralized stigma. The tubular structure of the
corolla tended to screen out the beetles and small flies
and to restrict visitors to those insectsthe bees, moths,
and long-tongued flies that fly regularly from flower
to flower of the same species. This was a great step
forward in floral design: It marked a transition from
promiscuous pollination by miscellaneous
unspecialized insects to restricted pollination by
specialized and flower-constant animals.
following source:
V. Grant, The Pollination of Flowers. 1965 by Harper and Row.
107. The ideas in the passage seem to derive primarily

from:
A) evidence on the behavior of living insect species.
B) speculation based on an accepted theory.
C) knowledge of ongoing evolutionary trends.
D) facts observable in the fossil record.
108. The passage discussion most clearly suggests the
hypothesis that as flowers evolve they
increasingly form reproductive structures that:
A) are attractive to numerous insects.
B) accommodate the structure of insects.
C) exclude insects not of a particular type.
D) determine the direction of insect evolution.
35
109. The authors reasoning about flower evolution

could most reasonably be extended to questions
about:
A) climatic influences on flower shape.
B) the biochemistry of nectar and pollen.
C) flower color as an insect attractant.
D) the era in which winged insects originated.
110. Which of the following findings would most
compromise the authors conclusions about the
evolution of flowers with corollas?
A) Flowers with corollas often become extinct shortly
after their insect pollinator becomes extinct.
B) The long-tongued insects of the Tertiary Period had
not developed wings.
C) The genes that control the formation of a corolla
also cause vulnerability to a fungus.
D) Flowers without corollas can be chemically
stimulated to form this structure.
111. A botanist hypothesizes that as flowers evolved
tubular corollas, their nectar attracted a particular
species of long-tongued fly that became their
only insect pollinator. For this hypothesis to be
reasonable, what issue should the botanist
address?
A) The reason that the beetles of the period did not
develop long tongues
B) The reason that bees, moths, and butterflies evolved
along with these flies
C) The means by which these flies survived before
tubular corollas existed
D) The advantage of pollination by these flies over
pollination by multiple species
36
Passage VI
Perhaps the least likely place to find deep knowledge
about animals is in a trained-orangutan act performed
on a Las Vegas stage by Bobby Berosini and his five
orangutans. According to Berosini, orangutans are the
hardest of all the apes to teach a trick to because they
are so self-contained. The same idea is expressed in
scholarly literature on orangutans with reference to
their marked lack of social interaction in the wild.
Unlike most other apes, they are not dependent on
social support and approval. An orangutan is
irredeemably his or her own personthe most poetic
of the apes, as primate researcher Lyn Miles once told
me.
Chimpanzees are much admired for their use of tools
and their problem-solving relationship with things as
they find them. A chimpanzee looks inferential,
ingenious, and ever so active while taking the various
IQ tests that science presents a hexagonal peg, say,
and several holes of different shapes, only one of them
hexagonal. Here, the chimpanzee shows tremendous
initiative right away. Holding the peg this way and that,
it experiments, filled with the inventors work ethic.
Give your orangutan the hexagonal peg and the several
different holes, and it uses the peg to scratch its back,
has a look-see at its right wrist, stares dreamily out the
window, if there is one, and at nothing in particular, if
there is not, then casually, and as if thinking of
something else, the orangutan slips the hexagonal peg
into the hexagonal hole and continues staring off
dreamily. Professor Miles says that this sort of
behavior contradicts the traditional finding that orangs
are dumber than chimps. It is rather, she says, that
chimps are problem oriented, whereas orangs are
insight oriented, the dreamers and visionaries of the
world of the great apes.
If Berosinis act can be said to have one overriding
theme, it is trainingobedienceitself. Obedience
comes from an old French word that means to hear,
or to heed, to pay attention to. The great trainers of
every kind of animal have said for millennia that you
cannot get an animal to heed you unless you heed the
animal; obedience in this sense is a symmetrical
relationship. It may start with the human, who perhaps
says to the dog, Rex, sit! Soon, however, Rex will
take the command and turn it, use it to respond, to say
something back. A dog might take to sitting in a

sprightly fashion when one picks up a leash, as if to
say: Yes, thats it, lets go! It is at this moment that
true training with any species, including humans, either
begins or fails. If the human obeys, hears, heeds,
responds to what the animal is now saying, then
training begins. If the human drops the animal at this
point, not realizing that the task has only begun, then
the dog or orangutan will disobey.
The intelligent responsiveness of animals is for us one
of the most deeply attractive things about them, not
only because we are a lonesome and threatened tribe
but because intelligent responsiveness is a central,
abiding good. The intelligent responsiveness of trainers,
which some of them call respect, is what makes them
attractive to animals, and may be the whole of the
secret of having a way with animals. The knowledge
trainers have may contain clues to imaginative and
enlightened ways we might escape the violence and
sentimentality of our age toward the nonhuman world
and thereby genuinely take up the burden of our
responsibility to other species.
following source:
V. Hearne, Can an ape tell a joke? 1993 by Harper's Magazine.
112. The central thesis of the passage is that:

A) orangutans are especially difficult to train.
B) orangutans are more interesting than chimpanzees.
C) respecting other species may help us to respect
humans.
D) obedience is best achieved through sensitivity.
113. The authors comparison of chimpanzees and
orangutans indicates that:
A) chimpanzees understand problems more quickly
but solve them more slowly than do orangutans.
B) chimpanzees use more appropriate problem-solving
techniques than do orangutans.
C) the problem-solving process is observable in
chimpanzees but not in orangutans.
D) intelligence can be evaluated in chimpanzees but
not in orangutans.
37
114. The author cites Lyn Miless description of the

orangutan as the most poetic of the apes to
make the point that this species is especially:
A) nonaggressive in social encounters.
B) unresponsive to external stimuli.
C) temperamental during training.
D) independent of others.
115. The author suggests that the difficulty of training
orangutans to perform tricks results from their:
A) lack of problem-solving initiative.
B) indifference to approval.
C) limited attention span.
D) distrust of humans.
116. The aphorism you cannot get an animal to heed
you unless you heed the animal means that a
trainer should:
A) show as much respect for an animal as is expected
from it.
B) proceed with training only when an animal is
attentive.
C) utilize the natural social structure of the species.
D) be alert to signs that an animal may become
disobedient.
117. What is the intended relevance of the comment
that humans are a lonesome and threatened
tribe to the rest of the passage?
A) To explain the satisfaction that can be gained from
interacting with animals
B) To indicate a basic similarity between humans and
the great apes
C) To express the sentimentality of the authors
attitude toward animals
D) To provide a moral justification for requiring
obedience from animals
118. A dog is being trained correctly, according to the

authors views, when the owner:
A) punishes disobedience immediately, fairly, and
consistently.
B) uses a calm, even tone in praising or correcting the
dog.
C) provides a reward for any advance toward the
desired behavior.
D) establishes a cooperative relationship with the dog.
119. If the species in question were human children,
the authors ideas suggest that a teacher should:
A) not attempt to interact with children who are
inattentive.
B) continue to encourage children who perform well in
class.
C) demonstrate obedience by yielding to demands by
the children.
D) assure the class frequently that the teacher likes
children.
120. Suppose researchers discover that only wild-born
orangutans respond to IQ tests in the way
described, whereas those born in captivity behave
in the same way as chimpanzees. Which of the
following hypotheses is most compatible with
passage information?
A) Orangutans have no need to solve problems
systematically in their natural habitat.
B) Wild-born orangutans are less intelligent than are
those reared in captivity.
C) Orangutans can be trained to increase their
problem-solving efficiency.
D) The same difference exists between wild-born
chimpanzees and those born in captivity.
121. What distinction is implied in the passage
between cognition in chimpanzees and
orangutans, respectively?
A) The ability and the inability to concentrate
B) More rapid and slower thought processes
C) More and less advanced stages of mental
development
D) Trial-and-error learning and insight
38
Passage VII
When Charles Darwin published his On the Origin of
Species, he wrought an intellectual revolution that
would forever alter humankinds view of itself.
Humans, as all other organisms, had evolved by the
process of natural selection from more primitive
ancestral forms and were therefore not separate from,
but a part of, nature. Anthropologists long have
struggled with the dilemma resulting from Darwins
revolution: If Homo sapiens is nothing but an
animal, then how do we account for our sense of
specialness? Part of the answer is that although we are
animals, two qualities arose in the course of our
evolution that were novel in the animal kingdom.
The first quality is consciousness, the facility for deep
introspection that enables us to see into our own minds
and those of others. An animal without consciousness
may know the world it inhabits, but only the human
animal knows it knows. The second evolutionary
innovation crucial to the unusual course of human
history is culture, the facility not only to impose an
unprecedented degree of artificiality on the world but
to participate in a collective, cumulative learning
experience. A vital part of this facility is language, a
vehicle for complex thought processes. Through
culture, each new generation benefits not only from its
own experience and that of its parents but also from
the collective wisdom of all previous generations.
Combine consciousness and culture in a species and a
truly different kind of animal is created. This animal
can build a civilization. And within civilization exists
an animal with concerns that can be totally divorced
from the business of subsistence, an animal with
frontiers that can extend beyond its immediate material
surroundings, an animal that wants indeed needs to
discover things about itself and the world it inhabits.
This animal has an insatiable appetite for knowledge.
success in the struggle for existence. The process is

one of passive selection, notwithstanding the active
striving implied by Darwins phrase.
The mechanism of natural selection works, as
evidenced by the usually excellent fit between most
species and their environments. But it is very slow.
When biologists speak of rapid evolutionary change,
they mean something on the order of 10,000 years.
What has enabled Homo sapiens to speed up the pace
of change in its world is culture: Cultural evolution is
incomparably faster than genetic evolution.
Its true that cultural evolution may appear to obey
some of the rules of natural selection. Good ideas
will catch on and be promulgated, for example, while
bad ones perish. The components of culture,
however, are artificially created; they are selected
for not only between generations but also within them
hence the potential for exceedingly rapid rates of
cultural change. Genetic evolution deals with gene
mutations, which usually have modest influence on the
way an individual behaves or grows; if favored by
selection, genetic mutations may become dominant in
a population after tens of thousands of years. Cultural
evolution deals with novel artifacts, which sometimes
transform entire societies virtually instantaneously
witness the effects of the electronic computer today.
following source:
S.J. Gould, Ever Since Darwin: Reflections in Natural
History. 1977 by S.J. Gould.
One characteristic of our scientific civilization is rapid

change, whether it be in fashion, technology, or
political alliances. Change is the core of the Darwinian
world of natural selection, too: adaptation to shifting
circumstances and environments. The process of
adaptation occurs generation by generation; individuals
that are genetically most suited to prevailing conditions
are equipped to produce more surviving offspring. This
reproductive advantage is what Darwin meant by
39
122. The author implies that an animal without

consciousness is not:
A) aware of its individuality.
B) able to learn from its experiences.
C) able to express its knowledge.
D) fully aware of its surroundings.
123. The authors argument that culture contributes to
human evolution depends on the acceptance of
which of the following premises?
A) Darwins theory revolutionized the conception of
human nature.
B) Consciousness and culture give humans a sense of
specialness.
C) Only humans are curious about the world around
them.
D) Genetic mutations do not cause rapid social
changes.
126. The authors discussion of the relationship of

language to culture and complex thought implies
that:
A) before a culture existed, language could not have
developed.
B) nonhuman animals may have languages but not
cultures.
C) complex problems cannot be solved through visual
imagery.
D) teaching is a particularly important function of
language.
124. Which of the following situations would NOT be

an example of the operation of natural selection
within cultural evolution?
A) Foreign languages are taught to young children in
private schools but not to those in public schools.
B) The most popular television shows are those that
glorify violence, and the number of such shows
increases.
C) In a period of economic decline, only the
candidates with coherent social programs are
elected.
D) As each generation creates terminology, the
language is gradually transformed.
125. Assume that few humans give much thought to
anything except their immediate material
surroundings. Which of the following hypotheses
does this assumption suggest?
A) Consciousness provides no significant advantages.
B) Cultural evolution has not kept pace with genetic
evolution.
C) Language does not make complex thought possible.
D) Civilization does not create a desire to understand.
40
Passage VIII
Many scholars see an incompatibility between
democracy and economic growth for both economic
and political reasons. The economic reasons relate to
the fact that growth requires an economic surplus
available for investment. Such a surplus can be either
invested or consumed. Hence, the only way to increase
the investable surplus is to reduce consumption. The
argument is that a democratic regime will not be able
to pursue policies of curbing consumption (holding
down real wages) because the consumers are also
voters and they will punish the politicians the next time
they get the chance at the ballot box.
Those with political reservations about democracy take
as their starting point the fact that economic
development is best promoted when there is a high
degree of political stability and order. According to
this position, democracy opens the already weak
institutions of the developing countries to all kinds of
pressures from different groups in society. Instability
and disorder are the result.
They argue that the odds are increasingly being
stacked against the successful promotion of
development, and thus the demands for comprehensive
state action in order to promote development have
increased dramatically over time. There is more
competition from the world market and a higher
internal urgency for development than was the case
when the industrialized Western countries went
through the early phases of development. And in the
past hundred years, there has been no case of
successful economic development without
comprehensive political action involving massive state
intervention in the economy. Such concerted state
action is difficult, if not impossible, under democratic
conditions.
Although it is true that a specific amount of economic

surplus can be either invested or consumed but not
both, the conclusion that there is thus a sharp
contradiction between growth and welfare is not as
straightforward as it seems. For example, public
expenditure in such areas as health and education
constitutes investment in human capital, which
simultaneously improves welfare for large groups in
the population. Indeed, the choice may be not between
growth and welfare but between two different kinds of
investment policy one that supports welfare and one
that does not.
Next, these critics turn the argument that democracy
cannot secure order and stability on its head by
pointing out that authoritarianism can mean arbitrary
rule and undue interference in citizens affairs. Only a
democracy can provide the predictable environment in
which economic development can prosper. Moreover,
political and economic pluralism reinforce each other.
Without basic civil and political liberties, citizens will
not feel secure to pursue economic goals consistently.
Finally, there is the argument concerning the need for
comprehensive and concerted state action in order to
promote economic development. Advocates of
democracy reply that although strong state action may
be needed, it cannot be taken for granted that a strong
state capable of taking a leading role in economic
development efforts is also necessarily a
nondemocratic state.
following source:
G. Sorensen, Democracy and Democratization: Processes and
Prospects in a Changing World. 1993 by Westview Press.
They also assert that the current tasks of nation

building are indeed formidable. Political order and
governmental authority are needed to get through the
early, difficult stages of economic development. Only
at a later stage do participation and distribution
become relevant.
Critics of the viewpoint that there is a trade-off
between democracy and economic growth counter the
argument about democracy hurting growth as follows:
41
127. Apparently, both sides participating in the debate

assume that the primary necessity for developing
nations is:
A) economic growth.
B) democratic institutions.
C) social benefits.
D) authoritarian rule.
128. The opinion that the only way to increase the
investable surplus is to reduce consumption is
challenged in the passage by the argument that:
A) an increase in production would increase the
surplus for investment.
B) some consumption is a form of investment that
contributes to the surplus.
C) some investment produces enough surplus to enable
steady consumption.
D) consumption decreases demand, thereby releasing
surplus for investment.
129. According to one of the positions presented, all
recent cases of successful development have
involved massive state intervention in the
economy, and development is best promoted
when there is a high degree of political stability.
If both of these premises are true, what
conclusion is most reasonable?
130. In recent years, low-paid workers in South Korea

were required to keep a certain percentage of
their income in savings accounts. The argument
presented for the incompatibility of economic
growth with democracy suggests that this policy:
A) strengthened the economy.
B) led to political instability.
C) blocked economic development.
D) prevented democracy.
131. What does the argument that democracy hurts
growth imply about the kind of political system
appropriate for a developing country that is
divided by religious, ethnic, regional, and class
differences?
A) An authoritarian government would have trouble
obtaining the popular support needed for economic
growth.
B) An authoritarian government would be more likely
to provide the stability needed for economic
growth.
C) A democratic government would be better able to
protect the interests of the minority groups.
D) A democratic government would have trouble
ensuring a fair distribution of the economic surplus.
A) The governments of countries that have recently

developed successfully have intervened in the
economy and have been stable.
B) Successful development has not occurred recently
in countries with governments that have been
unstable.
C) The governments that have been unstable have not
intervened recently in the economy of their country.
D) The governments that have intervened in the
economy of their country recently have been stable.
42
Passage IX
Zoroaster, the founder of the Zoroastrian religion, was
an Iranian who lived between about 1400 and 1200 B.C.
He was thirty when revelation came to him. It is said
that Zoroaster went at dawn to a river to fetch water
and had a vision of the god Ahura Mazda calling him
to his service, a summons that he wholeheartedly
obeyed. Mazda had been worshipped of old as the
greatest of the three Ahuras, the guardians of order; but
Zoroaster went much further and, in a startling
departure from accepted beliefs, proclaimed Ahura
Mazda to be the one uncreated god, existing eternally,
and creator of all else that is good.
In the vision, Zoroaster beheld, co-existing with Ahura
Mazda, an adversary, the hostile spirit, Angra
Mainyu, equally uncreated but ignorant and wholly
malign. An essential element in this revelation is that
the two primal beings each made a deliberate choice
between good and evil, an act that prefigures the
identical choice that all persons must make for
themselves in this life. Ahura Mazda fashioned the
world as a battleground for their two forces. At the end
of history, Ahura Mazda will win the great struggle to
destroy evil and so achieve a universe that will be
wholly good forever.
The lucid and comprehensive doctrines taught by
Zoroaster left little scope for heresy or schism. Yet
they must have given the magi (Zoroastrian converts of
the sixth century B.C.) much new matter to ponder. One
of the most striking elements in the prophets teachings
was the concept of history having an end. The magi
had also become familiar with very different
Babylonian speculations about history being divided
into great recurrent cycles of time in which all events
repeated themselves; and contrasting such theories
with Zoroasters teachings may well have led them to
reflect much on time and its nature.
The result was the Zurvanite heresy. The word zurvan
means time. The Zurvanites came to believe that time,
Zurvan, did not merely provide the framework for
events but was actually in control of them, hence a
sentient being. They found their main scriptural
justification for this belief in Zoroasters verse: Truly
there are two primal spirits, twins, renowned to be in
conflict. Meditating upon this text, they postulated
with scholastic ingenuity that for twins, there must be a
father; and the only possible father for Ahura Mazda

and Angra Mainyu was Zurvan, time. Zurvan was held
to be a remote first cause. He does not himself
intervene in the present struggle between his sons.
The Zurvanites felt themselves to be the most truly
orthodox followers of Zoroaster, who had divined the
correct meaning of the prophets words.
But theirs was in fact a deep and grievous heresy, for
by declaring that Ahura Mazda and Angra Mainyu
were brothers, the Zurvanites betrayed Zoroasters
fundamental doctrine that good and evil are utterly
separate and distinct by origin and nature. They also
diminished the grandeur of Ahura Mazda. Moreover,
the Zurvanite preoccupation with fate and the
inexorable decrees of time obscured the basic
Zoroastrian doctrine of free will and the power of
individuals to shape their own destiny through the
exercise of choice. Zurvanism finally disappeared
some centuries after the coming of Islam.
following source:
M. Boyce, Zoroastrians: Their Religious Beliefs and
Practices. 1979 by M Boyce.
132. The author asserts that in Zoroastrianism, both

humans and the two primal spirits are:
A) required to choose between good and evil.
B) destined to exist eternally.
C) creations of Ahura Mazda.
D) subordinate to Zurvan.
133. Suppose it is discovered that the first Zurvanites
were influenced more by Indian than by
Babylonian conceptions of cyclical time. Does
this discovery support the authors argument?
A) Yes; it confirms it.
B) No; it does not affect it.
C) No; it weakens it.
D) No; it disproves it.
43
134. The authors assertion that the utter separateness

of the primal spirits was Zoroasters fundamental
doctrine supports which of the passage
conclusions?
A) Zoroasters teaching that Ahura Mazda created all
that is good was unprecedented.
B) The Zurvanites interpretation of Zoroasters
teachings was heretical.
C) The Zurvanites were familiar with the Babylonian
concept of time as cyclical.
D) The Zurvanites obscured Zoroasters teaching that
individuals have free will.
135. Which of the following discoveries, if genuine,
would most weaken the authors argument?
A) A text by a pre-Zoroastrian asserting that history
would eventually end
B) A text by an early Zurvanite denying that history
would ever end
C) A text by Zoroaster asserting that Ahura Mazda and
Angra Mainyu had a common parent
D) A text by Zoroaster foretelling the development of
the Zurvanite heresy
136. Passage information indicates that which of the
following statements must be true?
A) All religions acknowledge at least one divine being.
B) Some religions maintain wholly consistent
doctrines.
C) All interpretations of religious doctrines can be
justified.
D) Some interpretations of religious doctrines are
inconsistent.
137. The Orphic Greeks of the sixth century b.c. held
that history began when Chronos (time) gave
birth to the twin forces of divine Aether and dark
Chaos. The similarity between this theory and
Zurvanism could NOT have resulted from the
influence of:
A) the Orphic Greeks on the Zurvanites.
B) the Zurvanites on the Orphic Greeks.
C) the Orphic Greeks on Zoroaster.
D) Zoroaster on the Orphic Greeks.
44
Writing Sample
Time: 60 minutes
2 Prompts, separately timed:
30 minutes each
This is a test of your writing skills. The test consists of two parts. You will have 30 minutes to complete each
part. Use your time efficiently. Before you begin writing each of your responses, read the assignment carefully to
understand exactly what you are being asked to do. Because this is a test of your writing skills, your response to
each part should be an essay of complete sentences and paragraphs, as well organized and clearly written as you
can make it in the time allotted.
138. Consider this statement:

Governments have a responsibility to regulate companies that provide necessary services to citizens.
Write a unified essay in which you perform the following tasks. Explain what you think the above statement
means. Describe a specific situation in which a government might not have a responsibility to regulate a
company that provides a necessary service to citizens. Discuss what you think determines whether or not
governments have a responsibility to regulate companies that provide necessary services to citizens.
46
139. Consider this statement:

Only those politicians who have learned the art of compromise can achieve their political goals.
Write a unified essay in which you perform the following tasks. Explain what you think the above statement
means. Describe a specific situation in which a politician might achieve a political goal without
compromising. Discuss what you think determines when politicians should compromise to achieve a
political goal.
47
Biological Sciences
Time: 100 minutes
Questions: 140 - 216
Most questions in the Biological Sciences test are organized into groups, each containing a descriptive
passage. After studying the passage, select the one best answer to each question in the group. Some questions are
not based on a descriptive passage and are also independent of each other. If you are not certain of an answer,
eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining alternatives.
Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet. A periodic table is
provided for your use. You may consult it whenever you wish.
Periodic Table of the Elements
He
4.0
10
1.0
3
Li
Be
Ne
6.9
9.0
10.8
12.0
14.0
16.0
19.0
20.2
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
Na
Mg
Al
Si
Cl
Ar
23.0
24.3
27.0
28.1
31.0
32.1
35.5
39.9
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
Ca
Sc
Ti
Cr
Mn
Fe
Co
Ni
Cu
Zn
Ga
Ge
As
Se
Br
Kr
39.1
37
40.1
38
45.0
39
47.9
40
50.9
41
52.0
42
54.9
43
55.8
44
58.9
45
58.7
46
63.5
47
65.4
48
69.7
49
72.6
50
74.9
51
79.0
52
79.9
53
83.8
54
Rb
Sr
Zr
Nb
Mo
Tc
Ru
Rh
Pd
Ag
Cd
In
Sn
Sb
Te
Xe
85.5
55
87.6
56
88.9
57
91.2
72
92.9
73
95.9
74
(98)
75
101.1
76
102.9
77
106.4
78
107.9
79
112.4
80
114.8
81
118.7
82
121.8
83
127.6
84
126.9
85
131.3
86
Cs
Ba
La*
Hf
Ta
Re
Os
Ir
Pt
Au
Hg
Tl
Pb
Bi
Po
At
Rn
132.9
87
137.3
88
138.9
89
178.5
104
180.9
105
183.9
106
186.2
107
190.2
108
192.2
109
195.1
197.0
200.6
204.4
207.2
209.0
(209)
(210)
(222)
Fr
Ra
Ac
Unq
Unp
Unh
Uns
Uno
Une
(223)
(226)
(227)
(261)
(262)
58
(263)
59
(262)
60
(265)
61
(267)
62
63
64
65
66
67
68
69
70
71
Ce
Pr
Nd
Pm
Sm
Eu
Gd
Tb
Dy
Ho
Er
Tm
Yb
Lu
140.1
90
140.9
91
144.2
92
(145)
93
150.4
94
152.0
95
157.3
96
158.9
97
162.5
98
164.9
99
167.3
100
168.9
101
173.0
102
175.0
103
Th
Pa
Np
Pu
Am
Cm
Bk
Cf
Es
Fm
Md
No
Lr
232.0
(231)
238.0
(237)
(244)
(243)
(247)
(247)
(251)
(252)
(257)
(258)
(259)
(260)
Passage I
The two divisions of the autonomic nervous system
(ANS) are the parasympathetic (PS) and the
sympathetic (S) divisions. Structurally, the S ganglia
appear near the spinal cord in the thoracic and lumbar
regions and connect with each other to form the
sympathetic trunk. PS innervation originates in either
the brain stem or the sacral region of the spinal cord.
The PS ganglia lie in or near the organs they connect to
but do not connect with each other (Figure 1). The
neurotransmitter acetylcholine is released at the
ganglia in both the PS and the S divisions. However,
acetylcholine is released at the motor synapse (at the
organ) only in the PS division; the corresponding
neurotransmitter in the S division is norepinephrine.
The motor portion of the pupillary light reflex

(constriction of the pupil in bright light to protect the
retina from excessive illumination) consists of the PS
innervation of the circular muscle. Light entering the
retina stimulates the optic nerve to send impulses to the
midbrain, which in turn activates the PS pathway
leading to the circular muscle. This results in
constriction of the pupils. In contrast, when the PS
pathway is not being stimulated (as in darkness),
signals from the S system to the radial muscles
predominate, causing the pupils to dilate.
140. Opiates, such as morphine and heroin, increase

impulse traffic on the PS nerves to the iris.
Therefore, after a morphine injection, the pupils
will be more:
A) constricted, due to release of acetylcholine.
B) constricted, due to release of norepinephrine.
C) dilated, due to release of acetylcholine.
D) dilated, due to release of norepinephrine.
141. Drugs affecting the ANS may have either an
active mechanism (that mimics the activity of
the PS or the S division) or a passive
mechanism (that blocks the effect of the
opposing division). The drug atropine prevents
acetylcholine from attaching to its receptors on
the circular muscle. Is this mechanism active or
passive?
A) Passive, because PS innervation is blocked
B) Passive, because S innervation is blocked
C) Active, because PS innervation is mimicked
D) Active, because S innervation is mimicked
Figure 1 General structure of autonomic nervous

system, showing innvervation of iris muscles. (Figure
is not proportional.)
A typical example of the function of the ANS is the
regulation of pupil size by the iris musculature. The
circular muscle of the iris is innervated by the PS
division of the ANS, and the radial muscles are
innervated by the S division (Figure 1).
142. If acetylcholine is removed from the circulation

faster than norepinephrine is, which of the
following autonomic processes would be most
rapidly inactivated?
A) Dilation of the pupils
B) Dilation of blood vessels in the skeletal muscles
C) Rise in blood pressure
D) Stimulation of digestive secretions
50
143. The autonomic nerve fibers that directly

innervate the heart to cause cardiac slowing are:
A) sympathetic motor fibers.
B) sympathetic sensory fibers.
C) parasympathetic motor fibers.
D) parasympathetic sensory fibers.
144. Based on information in the passage, would the S
or the PS division of the ANS be expected to
produce a more rapid systemic (whole-body)
response to a stimulus?
A) The S division, because its ganglia are
interconnected
B) The S division, because it secretes norepinephrine
C) The PS division, because its ganglia are not
interconnected
D) The PS division, because it secretes acetylcholine
145. The ocular drug physostigmine inhibits
acetylcholinesterase, the enzyme responsible for
the hydrolysis of acetylcholine. Administration of
physostigmine would be expected to cause the
pupil to:
A) dilate, due to decreased acetylcholine levels.
B) dilate, due to increased acetylcholine levels.
C) constrict, due to decreased acetylcholine levels.
D) constrict, due to increased acetylcholine levels.
51
Passage II
A few species of vertebrates from northern latitudes
are freeze tolerant; they can survive episodes of cold
temperatures during which some of their body water
freezes. Formation of ice within cells disrupts
structural organization and metabolic function, and
ultimately causes cell death. But in these animals, slow
cooling permits redistribution of water among the
various fluid compartments, such that only
extracellular water freezes.
Studies of the wood frog, Rana sylvatica, suggest that
a main cryoprotective strategy involves accelerated
glucose release from hepatic glycogen stores that
consequently raises the glucose concentration of body
fluids. This hyperglycemia (high glucose concentration)
may protect tissues and organs by depressing the
freezing point of body fluids, thereby facilitating the
dehydration of cells and other secondary
cryoprotective mechanisms. Figure 1 shows the time
course of various physiological parameters during one
freeze-thaw episode in a wood frog.
Figure 1 Responses to freezing and thawing in Rana

sylvatica
In an experiment, scientists injected frogs with saline
alone or with saline containing one of two
concentrations of glucose before testing their survival
in a freeze-thaw episode. After the episode, blood
samples were taken and centrifuged; the blood plasma
was analyzed for hemoglobin content. Results are
shown in Figure 2.
52
147. The extreme hyperglycemia of these animals

suggests that major changes in the normal
glucose regulatory mechanisms occur during
freezing. Which of the following observations
would support this hypothesis?
A) Suppression of insulin secretion during freezing
episodes
B) Suppression of glucagon secretion during freezing
episodes
C) Slowing of glycogen catabolism in the liver during
freezing episodes
D) Increased sensitivity of all pancreatic endocrine
responses during freezing episodes
148. The persistence of a pulse for several hours after
the onset of ice formation (Figure 1) is crucial to
the cryoprotective role of glucose because:
A) circulating blood distributes the glucose throughout
the body tissues.
B) circulating blood equilibrates the temperature
throughout the body.
C) a beating heart warms body tissues and slows ice
formation.
D) a beating heart requires a constant supply of
glucose as an energy source.
Figure 2 Effects of exogenous glucose on frog
response to freezing
146. Presumably, hyperglycemia promotes cellular

dehydration because:
A) glucose, as an energy source, accelerates the
osmotic work performed by plasma membranes.
B) glucose, as an energy source, accelerates plasma
membrane ion exchange pumps.
C) glucose molecules raise the osmotic pressure of the
extracellular space.
D) glucose molecules are exchanged for water
molecules across the plasma membrane.
149. According to the passage, which of the following

parts in the frozen body of a freeze-tolerant frog
would contain ice?
I.
Cytoplasm
II.
Blood plasma
III.
Lymph
A) II only
B) III only
C) I and II only
D) II and III only
150. During what time period of the freeze-thaw
episode shown in Figure 1 were the frogs tissues
relying entirely on anaerobic respiration?
A) Before 0 hours
B) Between 0 and 6 hours
C) Between 0 and 24 hours
D) Between 12 and 26 hours
53
151. Do the results presented in Figure 2 support the

hypothesis that glucose has a cryoprotective role
in frogs?
A) Yes; survival and protection against hemolysis are
promoted by exogenous glucose.
B) Yes; death caused by freezing is directly correlated
to the extent of hemolysis.
C) No; injected glucose lowered blood hemoglobin
levels, suggesting that the survival rates are not
related to the treatment.
D) No; injected saline promoted hemolysis, suggesting
death was most likely related to circulatory
collapse.
152. According to the passage, which of the following
physiological conditions would increase a wood
frogs chance of surviving freezing temperatures
most effectively?
A) Dehydration
B) Ample liver glycogen stores
C) High blood hemoglobin concentration
D) High tissue glucose concentration
54
Passage III
Table 1 Possible Structures of Compound C
A chemist performed a variety of experiments to

determine the identity of an unknown compound
(Compound A). It was discovered that, at room
temperature, Compound A was insoluble in water and
soluble in dilute HCl. It was also observed that
Compound A slowly dissolved in refluxing aqueous
NaOH to result in the formation of two new
compounds.
The first compound (Compound B) was a watersoluble alcohol and was removed from the NaOH
reaction mixture. The proton NMR spectrum of
Compound B consisted of a quartet, a triplet, and a
singlet.
The second compound (Compound C), which had a
melting point (mp) of 187-190oC, was formed when
the remaining NaOH mixture was carefully acidified.
Compound C was optically inactive and soluble in
both dilute acid and base. Compound C was
determined to be one of the compounds shown in
Table 1. The identity of Compound C was confirmed
by comparing its IR spectrum with a reference
spectrum.
55
153. The solubility data indicate that Compound C

most likely contains which of the following
functional groups?
158. The compounds in Table 1 can be most

unequivocally distinguished from each other by
comparing their:
A) Carboxylic acid and amide

B) Amine and amide
C) Amide and nitro
D) Amine and carboxylic acid
A) solubility behaviors.
B) reactivities toward alcohols.
C) melting points.
D) molecular weights.
154. The IR spectrum of each compound in Table 1

should contain a strong, sharp band at
approximately:
A) 3150 cm-1.
B) 2100 cm-1.
C) 1700 cm-1.
D) 1000 cm-1.
155. A sample of 4-aminobenzoic acid is
contaminated with a small percentage of
camphoric acid. What can be determined about
the melting point of this mixture?
A) The mixture will have a broad melting range above
189oC.
B) The mixture will have a broad melting range below
188oC.
C) The mixture will have a sharp melting point of
186oC.
D) The mixture will have a sharp melting point of
189oC.
156. Compound B is most likely water soluble
because it:
A) is nonpolar.
B) has a plane of symmetry.
C) can form hydrogen bonds.
D) can form ionic bonds.
157. Based on the passage, Compound A most likely
contains which of the following functional
groups?
A) Ether
B) Ester
C) Ketone
D) Aldehyde
56
Passage IV
Escherichia coli, a bacterial species that inhabits the
colon, benefits humans by breaking down foods for
which we lack digestive enzymes and by producing
vitamins such as B12 and K. About every 20 min, E.
coli undergo asexual reproduction. Copies of the
bacterial chromosome, which are attached to the cell
membrane, move to opposite ends of the cell as the cell
divides. Plasmids (small, circular DNA molecules
within the bacterial cell) contain various nonessential
genesincluding genes that confer resistance to
specific antibiotics. Because plasmids are not attached
to the cell membrane, they may not be equally
distributed among daughter cells.
Bacteria also carry out a form of sexual reproduction
called conjugation. Conjugation occurs when the
plasmid genes of one bacterium direct the building of a
cytoplasmic bridge, or sex pilus, between that
organism and a bacterium lacking such genes.
Following plasmid DNA replication, a copy of the
plasmid DNA moves unidirectionally through the pilus,
bestowing new genes upon the recipient cell.
Conjugation may occur between members of the same,
or different, bacterial species.
A man was hospitalized with a ruptured appendix and
received massive doses of the antibiotics ampicillin
and kanamycin over a period of weeks. Shortly after
leaving the hospital, he contracted Mycobacterium
tuberculosis, the pathogen that causes tuberculosis,
from a coworker. He was again hospitalized and
treated with large doses of first ampicillin and then
kanamycin, with no effect. Recovery was rapid when a
third antibiotic, streptomycin, was administered.
159. A bacterium containing genes for sex pilus

construction gave rise to a daughter cell lacking
these genes. This most probably occurred
because:
A) the bacterial chromosome was not completely
replicated prior to cell division.
B) the cell membrane failed to move the replicated
chromosomes apart.
C) copies of the plasmid containing the genes were not
equally distributed to the new daughter cells.
D) one copy of the plasmid containing the genes was
digested by a bacterial lysosome.
160. At the end of his initial hospital stay, a few E.
coli cells remained in the patients colon, even
though he was taking antibiotics. These cells
were most likely present because:
A) the antibiotics caused drug-resistance mutations to
occur in the bacterial DNA.
B) the bacteria in the patient developed an immune
reaction to the antibiotics.
C) the patients colon cells became increasingly
resistant to the antibiotics during his
hospitalization.
D) chance mutations in a few E. coli before the
treatment made these cells and their descendants
antibiotic-resistant.
161. Tests performed on the M. tuberculosis strain
infecting the patients coworker indicated that the
strain was susceptible to both ampicillin and
kanamycin, and the coworker was successfully
treated. TheM. tuberculosis most likely survived
in the patient because it had:
A) undergone conjugation with cells of resistant E.
coli.
B) undergone an antibiotic-induced mutation that
conferred antibiotic resistance.
C) reproduced more rapidly than the strain in the
coworker.
D) adapted to its new environment by modifying its
metabolism.
57
162. The patients ruptured appendix required

treatment with antibiotics because he had a
bacterial infection caused by:
A) M. tuberculosis.
B) E. coli entering the colon from the appendix.
C) E. coli entering the abdominal cavity from the
appendix.
D) E. coli entering the appendix from the colon.
163. Following the antibiotic treatment, the patients
colon will be recolonized by other bacteria. The
factor that will ultimately determine whether
antibiotic-resistant E. coli cells will persist in the
colon at this time is E. colis ability to:
A) produce more viable descendants than the other
bacteria.
B) produce more vitamin B12 than the other bacteria.
C) metabolize glucose faster than the other bacteria.
D) cause fewer incidences of diarrhea or constipation
than the other bacteria.
164. If the E. coli population in the colon is severely
reduced due to extended antibiotic treatment,
which of the following effects on digestion and
nutrition are most likely to occur?
A) Deficiencies of necessary digestive enzymes
B) Deficiencies of specific vitamins
C) Intestinal tract infections due to increased
populations of other bacteria
D) Greatly reduced absorption of caloric nutrients
165. Bacterial conjugation is similar to the sexual
reproduction of eukaryotic organisms in that it:
A) results in genetic recombination.
B) results in the combination of 2 sets of chromosomes
within a single nucleus.
C) increases the number of organisms in the
population.
D) can only occur between members of the same
species.
58
168.
166. Actin filaments within cells can be identified

experimentally by the use of a labeled molecule
that binds specifically to actin and not to other
cell substances. Which of the following would be
best to use as the labeled molecule?
A) ATP
B) Myosin
C) Albumin
D) Myoglobin
167.
Which of the following assignments of formal

charge correctly represents the structure shown
above?
A) on N-1 only
B) + on N-7 only
C) on N-1 and + on N-7
D) + on N-1 and on N-7
The above diagram represents the neural pathway

that causes an individual to retract a stubbed toe.
If one were to modify this diagram to represent
the pathway involved in feeling pain in the
stubbed toe, where could additional neurons be
placed?
A) At II and III
B) At II and IV
C) At III and IV
D) At I and IV
169. Suppose that in a randomly mating population of
mammals, 160 of its 1,000 members exhibit a
specific recessive trait that does not affect
viability of the individual. How many individuals
in this population are carriers of the trait?
A) 160
B) 400
C) 480
D) 600
59
Passage V
Stem cells are immature cells that continually replace
cells having short life spans, such as those of the skin
and blood. When stem cells divide, one of the daughter
cells remains a stem cell and the other differentiates to
produce a mature cell. A pluripotent stem cell can
replicate often, but can only produce a few cell types.
A totipotent stem cell cannot replicate as often as a
pluripotent cell, but can differentiate into many cell
types. A committed stem cell is committed to
producing a particular specialized cell line, such as
leukocytes.
Hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) are located in the
bone marrow and have the potential to differentiate
into blood cells. HSCs can also be pluripotent,
totipotent, or committed; totipotent cells can replace all
the types of blood cells of the immune system.
Current investigations into the mechanism governing
HSC differentiation have revealed two properties
common to all stem cells. First, receptors on stem cells
respond to hormones that regulate the production of
different types of blood cells. Second, stem cells
grown in cultures lacking naturally occurring support
cells differentiate randomly.
Two hypotheses describe different mechanisms
governing differentiation. The deterministic view holds
that external signals, such as hormones, direct stem
cell differentiation. The stochastic view maintains that
differentiation into various cell types occurs randomly.
170. HSCs are vital to human body function because

blood cells:
A) typically have short life spans.
B) are not stored in the body.
C) constantly leave the body through the urinary and
digestive systems.
D) constantly differentiate into other types of cells.
171. Which of the following observations supports the
deterministic view?
A) Cultured stem cells develop hormone receptors
when exposed to naturally occurring support cells.
B) When cultured stem cells are exposed to hormones,
they divide more rapidly.
C) When cultured stem cells are reintroduced into the
body, they continue random differentiation.
D) When genes for erythrocytes are introduced into
cultured stem cells, erythrocytes are formed.
172. Which of the following observations supports
both the deterministic and stochastic views?
A) When hormone X is presented to a culture of
HSCs, only erythrocytes are formed.
B) When stem cells initially express hormone
receptors, they do so randomly.
C) The receptors on HSCs are expressed in response to
external signals from surrounding bone marrow.
D) Genes within the HSCs are turned on according to
internal signals early in fetal development.
60
173. Damaged or destroyed bone marrow can be

replaced with transplanted tissue. If the main goal
of such a transplant is to replace all blood cell
types, the transplanted tissue should contain
which of the following cell types?
A) Pluripotent HSCs, because they differentiate
stochastically and therefore would replicate the
fastest
B) Pluripotent HSCs, because they differentiate
stochastically and the body could therefore signal
which types of cells it needs
C) Totipotent HSCs, because they can differentiate
stochastically and the random differentiation would
therefore produce the most types of blood cells
D) Totipotent HSCs, because they can differentiate
deterministically and the cells would therefore have
the greatest ability to differentiate in response to
the new host
174. If only the deterministic hypothesis is correct,
undifferentiated stem cells isolated from bone
marrow and grown in vitro will:
A) require the correct external signal to replicate.
B) start to develop new receptors in adaptation to their
new environment.
C) differentiate non-randomly only when specfic
hormones are present.
D) develop receptors in a random fashion.
61
a skeletal rearrangement, and is stereoselective in both

steps.
Passage VI
Three reactions that produce alcohols are shown below.
Equation 1 shows the hydration of an alkene. The
reaction is regioselective, not stereoselective, and
molecular rearrangements may occur.
Equation 1
Equation 2 shows an oxymercuration-demercuration
reaction sequence.
Equation 3
175. Which of the following reactions could be used

to prepare the alcohol from the alkene shown in
the following equation?
Equation 2
An organomercurial alcohol is formed in the first step,
followed by removal of the mercury by sodium
borohydride. Molecular rearrangements do not occur in
this procedure. It is regioselective, and the first step is
stereoselective. The demercuration step is not
stereoselective because the borohydride reduction
proceeds through a free-radical mechanism.
I.
II.
III.
Hydration
Hydroboration-oxidation
Oxymercuration-demercuration
A) I only
B) II only
C) I and III only
D) II and III only
Equation 3 shows a hydroboration-oxidation reaction.

The overall reaction is regioselective, does not involve
62
176. Which compound is the major product of the

following sequence of reactions?
A)
B)
C)
D)
177. The IR spectra of the alcohols shown in

Equations 1-3 all display a broad band centered
near a frequency of:
A) 1000 cm-1.
B) 1500 cm-1.
C) 2500 cm-1.
D) 3500 cm-1.
178. The two isomeric organomercurial alcohols in
Equation 2 are:
A) constitutional isomers.
B) diastereomers.
C) enantiomers.
D) optical antipoles.
63
Passage VII
Important discoveries often result from the thoughtful
analysis of an incidental observation. The main
function of endothelial cells that line blood vessels was
long thought to be exchange of nutrients and waste
products between blood and interstitial fluid. In 1980,
two scientists noticed that vasodilation of arteries in
response to acetylcholine was inhibited if the
endothelial layer of the artery was accidentally
damaged during experimental preparation.
Subsequently, the scientists compared the responses of
undamaged and deliberately damaged segments of
arteries to various signals and showed that endothelial
cells release a substance that causes the adjacent
arterial smooth muscle to relax, allowing an increase in
blood flow. Figure 1 shows the results of their initial
experiment, in which two rings cut from rabbit aorta
were studied in separate saline baths. One ring was
undamaged, but the endothelium of the other ring had
been scraped off. Both rings were first contracted by
adding norepinephrine to the baths. Subsequently, the
relaxation of the intact and scraped rings in response to
different concentrations of acetylcholine was compared.
Figure 1 Effect of acetylcholine on tension in rabbit aorta

with and without endothelium
NE = norepinephrine added; ACH = acetylcholine;
at washout, NE and ACH are removed
The relaxing substance was found to be nitric oxide

(NO), which is derived from the amino acid L-arginine.
To study the physiological role of NO, competitive
inhibitors of the enzyme responsible for NO synthesis
(NO synthase) were developed; L-NMMA is one such
inhibitor. Thus, a serendipitous observation led to the
discovery of a new function of vascular endothelium,
the regulation of blood flow.
64
179. In Figure 1, which of the following observations

led to the conclusion that intact endothelium is
necessary for the relaxation of smooth muscle
when acetylcholine (ACH) is applied?
A) The tension initially changes when norepinephrine
(NE) is added.
B) The tension decrease occurs more quickly in the
ring without endothelium.
C) The tension decreases upon addition of 10-7MACH,
only in the ring with endothelium.
D) The tension decreases during washout in the ring
without endothelium.
180. From the data in Figure 1, one can conclude that
the sensitivity of aortic smooth muscle to
acetylcholine is:
A) decreased by the presence of norepinephrine.
B) increased by the presence of norepinephrine.
C) increased at least 10 times by the presence of the
endothelium.
D) greatest at 10-8M, with or without endothelium.
181. The concentration range within which muscle
tension is most sensitive to acetylcholine (Figure
1) is:
-8
A) less than 10 M.
B) near 10-7M.
C) greater than 10-6M.
D) much wider in the ring without endothelium than in
the ring with endothelium.
183. Information in the passage suggests that

acetylcholine and norepinephrine are
neurotransmitters in the:
A) parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions of the
autonomic nervous system, respectively.
B) sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the
autonomic nervous system, respectively.
C) motor and sensory pathways of the somatic nervous
system, respectively.
D) sensory and motor pathways of the somatic nervous
system, respectively.
184. Increased vasoconstriction has an important role
in which of the following situations?
A) Causing the decrease in blood pressure associated
with fainting
B) Increasing blood flow to muscle during exercise
C) Increasing blood flow to skin during blushing
D) Maintaining blood pressure during a hemorrhage
185. Assume that NO is continuously
synthesized. The addition of a saturating
concentration of L-NMMA to a relaxing aortic
ring with intact endothelium would probably:
A) increase its sensitivity to acetylcholine.
B) cause the ring to dilate (reduce its tension).
C) cause the ring to contract (increase its tension).
D) prevent norepinephrine from increasing ring
tension.
182. Two factors that normally determine the level of

blood pressure are:
A) the blood concentration of L-NMMA and
norepinephrine.
B) the cardiac output and the resistance to blood flow.
C) the blood volume and the amount of L-arginine in
the diet.
D) the heart rate (heartbeats/minute) and the cardiac
stroke volume.
65
Passage VIII
Oxiranes (1,2-epoxides) are cyclic ethers that contain
one oxygen atom and two carbon atoms in a 3-member
ring. The strain in the structure makes oxiranes
amenable to ring-opening reactions. Examples of
oxiranes are shown in Figure 1.
186. What is the approximate C-O-C bond angle in

(R)-styrene oxide?
A) 60o
B) 90o
C) 109o
D) 120o
187. If 1,2-epoxycyclohexane is hydrolyzed under
acidic conditions, what is the structure of the
predominant conformer of the diol produced?
Figure 1 (R)-Styrene oxide and 1,2-epoxycyclohexane
A) A trans, diequatorial diol

B) A trans, axial and equatorial diol
C) A cis, diequatorial diol
D) A cis, axial and equatorial diol
There are two generally accepted mechanisms for ring

opening, which depend on the reaction conditions.
Ring opening occurs under basic or neutral conditions
by Mechanism 1 and under acidic conditions by
Mechanism 2.
188. The first step in a reaction that produces its major

product by Mechanism 1 (R = tert-butyl and R =
methyl) is given by which of the following
equations?
Mechanism 1
A nucleophile attacks an unsymmetrical oxirane
predominantly at the least substituted carbon atom,
inverting its configuration. An alkoxide is produced,
which abstracts a proton from the solvent.
A)
B)
Mechanism 2
The oxygen atom of the oxirane is protonated in a
rapid and reversible first step. The second, ratedetermining step is the partial cleavage of a carbonoxygen bond and the partial production of a
carbocation, which then bonds with a nucleophile with
inversion of stereochemistry.
C)
D)
66
189. If (R)-styrene oxide undergoes ring opening in

the presence of NaOH(aq), what is the size of the
ring that is formed as a result of intramolecular
hydrogen bonding in the product?
A) 3-Member
B) 4-Member
C) 5-Member
D) 6-Member
190. What property accounts for diethyl amine
reacting more readily with styrene oxide than
does ethanol?
A) Its volatility
B) Its solubility
C) Its electrophilicity
D) Its nucleophilicity
67
191. Which of the bromomethanes is LEAST polar?
195. Hemophilia, a disease in which the time required

for blood to clot is greatly prolonged, is
determined by a sex-linked gene. Suppose a man
with normal blood clotting marries a woman with
normal blood clotting whose father was a
hemophiliac. If this couple has three sons, what is
the probability that hemophilia will be
transmitted to all three of them?
A) CBr4
B) CHBr3
C) CH2Br2
D) CH3Br
A) 1/8
B) 1/4
C) 3/8
D) 1/2

192. The phenomenon exemplified in the equilibrium

equation below is called:
A) reduction.
B) resonance.
C) tautomerism.
D) mutarotation.
193. Most fungal spores are:
A) metabolically active and diploid.
B) metabolically inactive and haploid.
C) relatively sensitive to environmental changes.
D) encased in a porous nuclear membrane.
194. Which of the following structures is derived from
the same germ cell layer as the heart?
A) Eye
B) Bone
C) Spinal cord
D) Liver
68
Passage IX
Lipopolysaccharide antigens on the surface of gramnegative bacteria are called endotoxins. People
infected with gram-negative bacteria sometimes
develop septic shock syndrome in response to the
endotoxins (see Figure 1).
To reduce the mortality rate of septic shock two
treatment plans were proposed.
Treatment 1: Administration of a general antiinflammatory drug to block the inflammatory cell

response in patients infected with endotoxin
Treatment 2: Administration of an antibody that blocks
the attachment site for the endotoxin-binding protein
complex on macrophages
Patients were selected who had signs of septic shock.
They were treated with either Treatment 1 drug,
Treatment 2 drug, or placebo.
Figure 1 Cascade of events that is important in causing septic shock
69
196. For Treatment 2 to be effective, the antibody

must:
199. Fever in septic shock leads to which of the

following compensation mechanisms?
A) stimulate macrophage activation.

B) stimulate T-cell production.
C) inhibit T-cell production.
D) inhibit macrophage activation.
A) Dilation of capillary beds in the skin

B) Increased skeletal muscle activity
C) Decreased respiration rate
D) Decreased fluid loss
197. What is a danger of using the drug in Treatment

1?
200. If the anti-inflammatory drug in Treatment 1

interfered with DNA replication, in which phase
of the cell cycle would cells tend to be arrested?
A) It may decrease endogenous antibacterial activities.

B) It may increase the platelet count.
C) It may decrease the red blood cell count.
D) It may increase the blood pressure.
A) G0 phase
B) G1 phase
C) S phase
D) G2 phase
198. Which of the following would NOT be predicted

as a consequence of venous blood pooling in
septic shock?
A) An increase in blood lactic acid levels
B) A decrease in blood pressure
C) A decrease in lymphatic fluid volume
D) A decrease in the oxygen content in the blood
70
Passage X
Acetoacetic ester (1) and malonic ester (2) serve as
synthetic precursors for the preparation of a variety of
methyl ketones and carboxylic acids. The starting ester
is alkylated, saponified, acidified, and pyrolyzed
(heated strongly); a typical procedure is shown in
Scheme 1. The final product is determined by the
alkylating agent.
Table 1 Target Compounds

Product number
Name
2-butanone
3
2-pentanone
4
4-methyl-2-pentanone
5
4-methyl-2-hexanone
6
pentanoic acid
7
3-methylbutanoic acid
8
4-methylpentanoic acid
9
decanoic acid
10
201. Which of the following alkyl halides can be used

in an acetoacetic ester synthesis to make Product
5?
A) Methyl chloride
B) Ethyl bromide
C) Propyl chloride
D) Isopropyl iodide
202. The saponification product is acidified to
convert:
Scheme 1
Acetoacetic ester 1 enolizes regioselectively in sodium
ethoxide/ethanol to one of two possible enolate ions,
which is stabilized by delocalization of charge to two
oxygen atoms. The enolate ion is then alkylated by an
alkyl halide. A second alkylation step may be
incorporated into the synthesis, but a different base is
sometimes used for the second enolization and
alkylation.
A) an ester into an acid.

B) an acid into a salt.
C) a salt into an acid.
D) an ester into a salt.
Acetoacetic ester may also be converted into a dianion

by successive deprotonation steps with sodium hydride
and butyllithium, respectively. The alkylation of the
dianion results in a substitution at the less substituted
enolate ion.
Table 1 shows eight target compounds that may be
synthesized by either an acetoacetic ester or malonic
ester synthesis, as appropriate.
71
203. How can 3-ethyl-2-pentanone, below, be

synthesized starting with acetoacetic ester 1?
A) By an alkylation of the enolate with isobutyl iodide

B) By successive alkylations with methyl iodide
C) By successive alkylations with ethyl iodide
D) By alkylation of the dianion with isopropyl iodide
204. Why is a different base often used for a second
alkylation of acetoacetic ester?
A) Because the active hydrogen of the monoalkylated
product is less acidic, making a stronger base more
effective
B) Because the active hydrogen of the monoalkylated
product is more acidic, making a weaker base more
effective
C) Because the monalkylated product is sterically
hindered, making a larger base more effective
D) Because the monoalkylated product is more soluble
in ethanol, requiring a different solvent and base
72
Passage XI
Researchers have isolated G proteins, a new family of
membrane-associated proteins. These proteins are
believed to regulate all or most of the intracellular
signaling systems operating across the plasma
membrane, including those involving hormones and
action potentials. Figure 1 depicts how this mechanism
is hypothesized to function.
According to this hypothesis, extracellular signals such
as some hormones bind to specific receptors on the
surface of the plasma membrane. This binding
activates the receptor that then binds to a G protein
embedded in the lipid bilayer of the plasma membrane.

This, in turn, causes the G protein to release guanosine
diphosphate (GDP) and bind guanosine triphosphate
(GTP). The G protein with bound GTP interacts with
various enzymes or proteins in the plasma membrane.
The end result is either activation or inactivation of the
enzyme, depending on the specific system. The G
protein is then inactivated, which turns off the initial
steps of the signaling system.
Adenylate cyclase, the enzyme that synthesizes the
intracellular signal cyclic AMP (cAMP), is believed to
be activated by this mechanism.
Figure 1 Intracellular signaling by G proteins
73
205. Which of the following observations best

supports the hypothesis that G proteins regulate
intracellular signaling?
A) Membrane-bound receptors for extracellular signals
directly activate the intracellular signaling systems.
B) The absence of G proteins in a mutant cell line
results in the cells inability to operate signaling
systems.
C) All cells are found to contain varying ratios of G
protein to adenylate cyclase.
D) Adenylate cyclase is found to be activated without
the aid of G proteins.
206. According to the passage, all of the following
events must occur in order to activate a G protein
EXCEPT:
A) binding of the G protein to the receptor.
B) binding of the extracellular signal to the receptor.
C) displacement of GDP by GTP on the G protein.
D) phosphorylation of GTP.
207. Binding an activated G protein to an inactive
enzyme changes which of the following?
A) Primary structure of the G protein
B) Primary structure of the enzyme
C) Secondary structure of the G protein
D) Tertiary structure of the enzyme
209. Which of the following best explains the role of

GTP in controlling the function of G proteins?
A) GTP is required for binding the G protein to the
hormone receptor.
B) GTP alters the conformation of the G protein
allowing interaction with the enzyme.
C) Hydrolysis of GTP acts as a source of energy to
activate the G protein.
D) Hydrolysis of GTP is required for activation of the
membrane-bound enzyme.
210. Binding of G proteins to a membrane-bound
enzyme was observed to inactivate the signaling
system. Is this observation consistent with the
information presented in the passage?
A) No, because G proteins are believed to activate
signaling systems
B) No, because G proteins should have been activated
by binding to the signal-receptor complex
C) Yes, because the effect of G proteins is dependent
upon the specific signaling system involved
D) Yes, because binding of G proteins to the
membrane-bound enzyme results in the hydrolysis
of GDP, which inactivates the signaling system
208. Which of the following, if found to be true,

would best refute the hypothesis that a
membrane-bound enzyme is activated by a G
protein?
A) The enzyme can be activated in the absence of
bound GTP.
B) The enzyme is activated only when hormone is
present.
C) The enzyme cannot be activated when GDP is
bound to a G protein.
D) The enzyme is always found in the activated state.
74

211. Inflation of the lungs in mammals is

accomplished by:
A) diffusion of gases.
B) active transport of gases.
C) positive pressure pumping action.
D) negative pressure pumping action.
212. An organism is a bacterium rather than a virus if
it:
A) reproduces via fission.
B) has a rigid cell wall.
C) lacks a nuclear membrane.
D) contains both RNA and protein.
213. Would an increase in the level of plasma
aldosterone be expected to follow ingestion of
excessive quantities of NaCl?
A) No; aldosterone causes Na+ reabsorption by kidney
tubules.
B) No; aldosterone causes Na+ secretion by kidney
tubules.
C) Yes; aldosterone causes Na+ reabsorption by kidney
tubules.
D) Yes; aldosterone causes Na+ secretion by kidney
tubules.
215. The sequence of events in the human menstrual

cycle involves close interaction among which
organs?
A) Hypothalamus-thyroid-ovary
B) Hypothalamus-pituitary-ovary
C) Pituitary-thyroid-ovary
D) Pituitary-adrenal glands-ovary
216. In a certain plant, the gene for red flowers is
incompletely dominant to the gene for white;
hence, heterozygotes are pink. In the same plant
species, long leaf is dominant to short leaf and
the single gene controlling leaf length is not
linked to the gene for flower color. Homozygous
long, white plants are crossed with homozygous
short, red plants (P1 generation). The resulting
offspring (F1) are bred randomly among
themselves. How many different color and leaflength phenotypes will occur in the F2
generation?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 6
214. HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) is a

retrovirus, an RNA virus that can insert itself into
the human genome. This virus can reproduce in
host cells because it contains:
A) enzymes that destroy T cells.
B) viral DNA that is compatible with human DNA.
C) core proteins rather than DNA.
D) reverse transcriptase.
75
MCAT Practice Test 4R Answer Sheet

Physical Sciences
1 (A) (B) (C)
2 (A) (B) (C)
3 (A) (B) (C)
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Verbal Reasoning
78 (A) (B) (C) (D)
79 (A) (B) (C) (D)
80 (A) (B) (C) (D)
81 (A) (B) (C) (D)
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Periodic Table of the Elements

Table 1 Static Friction Data

1. The kinetic energy of a sliding block came from

Figure 1 Static friction apparatus

A) String tension only

5. If the wooden board is coated with a lubricant, MT

NH3 is prepared commercially by the reaction of N2

10. When Reaction IV is in a state of equilibrium,

11. In the fractional distillation of air, the N2 separates

N2 and O2 are both prepared by the fractional

Table 2 Constant Transmitted f and with Different

13. A stationary receiver detects a change in

15. Which of the following graphs best illustrates the

17. Why are the percentages of the change in

A) Sound waves travel more slowly.

18. A receiver is in a jet flying alongside another jet

A) The star is moving away from Earth.

16. As the speed of the jet flying away from the

O2(g) + 2H2O + 4e-

The current produced is measured by recording the

20. How is the accuracy of the oxygen determination

Figure 1 Coulometric determination of oxygen

21. If 10 L oxygen at 30oC and 756 mm Hg passes

22. In the schematic diagram shown in Figure 1, the

These questions are not based on a descriptive

25. An aqueous solution of a salt made by mixing

28. A student has a thin copper beaker containing 100

The table above gives pressure measured at

Table 2 shows some of the data collected by the

The instructor prepared a solution of NaOH(aq) by

Each unknown was dissolved in approximately 30 mL

Table 2 Partial Data of Students A-E

29. How many moles of KHP are present in the

32. At the stoichiometric (equivalence) point in a

36. Why would the surface temperature of the white

39. In a Type I supernova the expanding cloud is rich

Some students required the Nernst equation, Equation

41. If Student 3s measurement (Table 1) was obtained

Standard reduction potentials for certain electrodes are

Cu2+(aq) + 2e- Cu(s)

2H+(aq) + 2e- H2(g)

Zn2+(aq) + 2e- Zn(s)

Al3+(aq) + 3e- Al(s)

Ca2+(aq) + 2e- Ca(s)

45. Which of the following expressions gives the mole

Table 1 Properties of an Aqueous Solution, 20% by

46. Crystals precipitate when each of the following

The condosity of a solution is defined as the molar

47. Which point on the condosity plot shown below