Ans (C) Explanation:: Ax y and y y y Axy and Ay X X Now X y or Ay y Ora

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1. Write in your answer book at the space provided for question 1 the correct or the most appropriate
answer to All the following twenty five multiple choice sub questions, by writing only the alphabet A,
B, C or D that corresponds to your choice of the answer. Write this alphabet only in the ANSWER
column, against the corresponding NUMBER of the sub-questions.
3 2 9
1.1 Rank of the matrix given below is 6 4 18
12 8 36
a) 1
Ans: (c)
b) 2
Explanation: Since the value of
c) 3
18
d)
=0
8 36
Rank of the matrix is less than 2.

1.2 For the function = ax2 y y2 to represent the velocity potential of an ideal fluid, 2 should be
equal to zero. In that case, the value of a has to be
a) 1
b) 1
c) 3
d) 3
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
2
ax 2 3 y 2 and 2 6 y
y
y
2
2axy and 2 2ay
x
x
2
2

Now, 2 2 0
x
y
or 2ay 6 y 0 or a 3
1.3 If the velocity vector in a two dimensional flow field is given by then vorticity vector, curl v will be
a) 2y2 j
b) 6y k
c) zero
d) 4 x k
Ans: (d)
Explanation;
i
Curl v
x
2 xy
y
2 y 2 x2
z
0
i (0) j (0) k (2 y 2 x 2 )
2 xy
y
x
2 x 2 x k 4k
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1.4 Lapalce transform of (a + bt) 2 where a and b are constants is given by

a) (a + bs) 2
b)
a bs
c)
a 2 2ab 2b 2
2 3
s
s
s
d)
a 2 2ab 2b 2
2 3
s
s
s
Ans: (c)
Explanation: (a+bt)2= a2+b2t2+2abt
Laplace transform of 1 =
1
s
n
s 1
a 2 2b 2 2ab
2
3 2
Laplace transform of (a+bt) =
s
s
s
Laplace transform of tn =
1.5 Following are the values of a function y(x) : y( - 1) = 5, y(0), y(1) = 8

central difference scheme is
a) 0
b) 1.5
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
c) 2.0
dy
at x = 0 as per Newtons
dx
d) 3.0
y 1 y 1 8 5
y y
dy
2 1
1.5

1 1
2
dx at x 0 x2 x1
1.6 Analysis of variance is concerned with

a) determining change in a dependent variable per unit change in an independent variable
b) determining whether a qualitative factor affect the mean of an output variable
c) Determining whether significant correlation exist between an output variable and an input
variable
d) Determining whether variances in two or more populations are significantly different
Ans: (d)
Explanation: Analysis of variance is used in comparing two or more populations, e.g Different types of
manures for yielding a single crop.
1.7 A concentrated force, F is applied (perpendicular to the plane of the figure) on the tip of the bent bar
shown in figure. The equivalent load at a section close to the fixed end is
a) Force F
b) Force F
and bending moment FL
IES-GATE ACADEMY
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c) Force F and twisting moment FL

d) Force F, bending moment FL, and twisting moment FL
Ans: (c)
1.8 Which theory of failure with you use for aluminium components under steady loading
a) Principal stress theory
b) Principal strain theory
c) Stain energy theory
d) Maximum shear stress theory
Ans: (d)
1.9 For the planar mechanism shown in Fig. 1.9 select the most appropriate choice for the motion of link
2 when link 4 is moved upwards.
a) Link 2 rotates clockwise
b) Link 2 rotates counter clock wise
c) List 2 does not move
d) Link 2 motion cannot be determined
Ans: (b)
2
2u
2 u
1.10 2 = C 2 represent the equation for
x
t
a) vibration of a stretched string

c) Heat flow in thin rod
Ans: (a)
b) Motion of projectile in a gravitational field

d) Oscillation of a simple pendulum
1.11 Bolts in the flanged end of pressure vessel are usually pre-tensioned indicate which of the following
statements in NOT TRUE?
a) Pre-tensioning helps to seal the pressure vessel
b) Pre-tensioning increases the fatigue life of the bolts
c) Pre-tensioning reduces the maximum tensile stress in the bolts
d) Pre-tensioning helps to reduce the effect of pressure pulsations in the pressure vessel
Ans: (c)
1.12 If p is the gauge pressure within a spherical droplet, then gauge pressure within a bubble of the
same fluid and of same size will
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a)
p
4
GATE-1999-ME
b)
p
2
c) p
d) 2p
Ans: (d)
1.13 If velocity of water inside a smooth tube is doubled, the n turbulent flow heat transfer coefficient
between the water and the tube will
a) remain unchanged
b) increase to double its value
c) increase but will not reach double its value
d) increase to more than double its value
Ans: (c)
1.14 A stirling cycle and a Carnotcycle operate between 50 0C and 3500C. Their efficiencies are ns and nc
respectively. In this case, which of the following statements is true?
a) s > c
b) s c
c) s < c
d) The sign of (s c) depends on the working fluids used
Ans: (c)
Explanation: Efficiency of striling cycle is equal to Carnot ccle only when regenerative arrangement is
employed.
1.15 A Carnot cycle refrigerator operates between 250K and 300K. Its coefficient of performance is
a) 6.0
b) 5.0
c) 1.2
d) 0.8
Ans: (b)
Explanation: Coefficient of performance (C.O.P) =
250
T
=
=5
T1 T2 300 250
1.16 In pulverized-fuel-fired large power boiler, then heat transfer from the burning fuel to the walls of
the furnace is
a) by conduction only
b) by convection only
c) by conduction and convection
d) predominantly by radiation
Ans: (c)
1.17 A gas turbine power plant has a specific output of 350 kJ/kg and an efficiency of 34%. A regenerator
is installed and the efficiency increases to 51%. The specific output will be closest to
a) 350 kj/kg
b) 468 kj/kg
c) 525 kj/kg
d) 700 kj/kg
Ans: (a)
1.18 Kinematic viscosity of air at 200C is given to be 1.6 x 10-5m2/s. Its kinematic viscosity at 700C will be
vary approximately.
a) 2.2 x 10-5 m2/s b) 1.6 x 10-5 m2/s
c) 1.2 x 10-5 m2/s
d) 3.2 x 10-5 m2 /s
Ans: (a)
Explanation: Viscosity of gas increases with increasing temperature.
1.19 Which of the following statements does NOT apply to the volumetric efficiency of a reciprocating
air compressor?
a) It decreases with increases in inlet temperature
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b) It increases with decreases in pressure ratio

c) It increases with decrease in clearance ratio
d) It decreases with increases in clearance stroke ratio
Ans: (a)
1.20 Ambient air dry bulb temperature is 450C and wet bulb temperature is 270C. Select the lowest
possible condensing temperature from the following for an evaporatively cooled condenser.
a) 250C
b) 300C
c) 420C
d) 480C
Ans: (d)
1.21 Identify the stress state in the FLANGE portion of a PARTIALLY DRAWN CYLINDRICAL CUP when
deep-drawing without a blank holder.
a) Tensile in all three directions
b) No stress in the flange at all, because there is no blank holder
c) Tensile stress in one direction and compressive in the one other direction
d) Compressive in two directions and tensile in the third direction
Ans: (b)
1.22 Which of the following materials requires the largest shrinkage allowance, while making a pattern
for casting?
a) Aluminium
b) Brass
c) Cast Iron
d) Plain Carbon Steel
Ans: (a)
1.23 In Electro-Discharge Machining (EDM), the tool is made of
a) Copper
b) High speed Steel
c) Cast Iron
Ans: (a)
d) Plain Carbon Steel
1.24 Choose the correct statement :

a) A fixture is used to guide the tool as well as to locate and clamp the work piece
b) A jig is used to guide the tool as well as to locate and clamp the work piece
c) Jigs are used on CNC machines to locate and clamp the work piece and also to guide the tool
d) No arrangement to guide the tool is provided in jig.
Ans: (b)
1.25 The first algorithm for Linear programming was given by
a) Bellman
b) Dantzig
c) Kulm
Ans: (b)
d) Von Neumann
2. Write in your answer book at the space provided for Question 2 the correct or the most appropriate
answers to ALL. The following twenty five multiple choice sub questions, by writing one or more of
the alphabets A, B, C and D which correspond (s) to your choice of the answer (s). Write the alphabets
only in the ANSWER column, against the corresponding NUMBER of the sub-question.
2.1 The eigenvalues of the matrix

are
3 3
a) 6
b) 5
c) 3
d) - 4
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Ans: (a, d)
Explanation:
A I =
5 3 9
15 5 3 2 9
2 2 24 0
6 4 0
6 or 4
2.2 The static moment of the area of a half circle of unit radius about y axis.
x 1
2 xy dx is equal to
0
a)
2
3
b)
c)
d)
Ans: (a)
Explanation: Area of half circle =
r 2 12
2
2
2
Moment of area about y axis = Area
2 4.12 2
=
2
3
2.3 In a flow field is x, y plane, the variation of velocity with time t is given by v = (x2 + yt) and
v = (x2 + y2) i . The acceleration of the particle in this field, occupying point (1, 1) at time t = 1 will
be
a) i
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
b) 2 i
c) 3 i
d) 5 i
v x 2 yt i
v x 2 yt ,
At t 1, v1,1 1 11 2
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u
u
2 x 2 1 2,
x
t
u
y 1 t 1
y
u
u
u u
ax u v w
x
y
z t
2 2 0 0 1 i 5i
2.4
dy
d2y
+ (x2 + 4x)
+ y = x8 8. The above equation is a
2
dx
dx
a)
b)
c)
d)
Partial differential equation

Non-linear differential equation
Non-homogeneous differential equation
Ordinary differential equation
Ans: (d)
2.5 We wish to solve x2 2 = 0 by Newton Raphson technique. Let the initial guess b x0 = 1.0. Subsequent
estimate of x (i.e. x1) will be
a) 1.414
b) 1.5
c) 2.0
d) none of these
Ans: (b)
Explaantion: x2 2 = 0,
x1 x0
f x0
1
1 1.5
f x0
2
f(x) = 2x
f(x0) = 2x0 = 2(1) = 2.
2.6 Four arbitrary points (x1, y1), (x2, y2), (x3, y3), (x4, y4) are given in the x, y plane. Using the method of
least squares, if, regressing y upon x gives the fitted line y = ax + b; and regressing y upon x gives the
fitted line y = ax + b; and regressing x upon y gives the fitted line x = cy + d, then
a) the two fitted lines must coincide
b) the two fitted lines need not coincide
c) it is possible that ac = 0
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
d) a must be
1
C
y = ax+b(i)
x = cy+d ..(ii)
From equation (ii),
x d = cy or y =
1
x d .(iii)
c
IES-GATE ACADEMY
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From equations (i) and (iii), a =
1
and b = d.
c
2.7 A thin walled cylindrical vessel of wall thickness t and diameter d is filled with gas to a gauge
pressure of p. The maximum shear stress on the vessel wall will then be
a)
pd
t
b)
pd
2t
c)
pd
4t
d)
pd
8t
Ans: (d)
pd pd
p1 p2 2t 4t
pd
Explanation: Maximum shear stress =
=
2
2
8t
pd
pd
p1
and p2
2t
4t
2.8 A lean elastic beam of given flexural rigidity, E1, is loaded by a single force F as shown in Figure. How
many boundary conditions are necessary to determine the deflected centre line of the beam?
a) 5
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
b) 4
M = EI
c) 3
d) 2
d2y
dx 2
Since the above equation is second

2.9 As shown in Figure, a person A is standing at the centre of a rotating platform facing person B who is
riding bicycle, heading East. The relevant speeds and distances are shown in given figure person a
bicycle, heading East. At the instant under consideration, what is the apparent velocity of B as seen
by A?
a) 3 m/s heading East

c) 8 m/s heading East
Ans: (d)
b) 3 m/s heading West

d) 13 m/s heading East
Relative velocity = 8 (1 5) = 13 m/s towards East.
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2.10 For the audio cassette mechanism shown in figure given below where is the instantaneous centre
of rotation (point) of the two spoons?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Point P lies to the left of both the spools but at infinity along the line joining A and H.
Point P lies in between the two spools on the line joining A and H, such that PH = 2AP.
Point P lies to the right of both the spools on the line joining A and H, such that AH = HP
Point P lies at the intersection of the lines joining B and C and the line joining G and F.
Ans: (d)
2.11 With regard to belt drives with given pulley diameters, centre distance and coefficient of friction
between the pulley and the belt materials which of the statement below are False?
a) A crossed flat belt configuration can transmit more power than an open flat belt
configuration
b) A V belt has greater power transmission capacity than an open flat belt
c) Power transmission is greater when belt tension is higher due to centrifugal effects than the
same belt drive when centrifugal affects are absent
d) Power transmission is the greatest just before the point of slipping is reached
Ans: (c)
2.12 Under repeated loading a material has the stress strain curve shown in Figure, which of the
following statements is true?
a)
b)
c)
d)
The smaller the shaded area, the better the material damping
The larger the shaded area, the better the material damping
Material damping is an independent material property and does not depend on this curve
None of these
Ans: (a)
2.13 Consider the system of two wagons shown in figure. The natural frequencies of the system are
IES-GATE ACADEMY
a) 0,
2k
m
GATE-1999-ME
b)
k
2k
,
m
m
k
k
,
m 2m
c)
d) 0,
k
2m
Ans: (c)
2.14 Water flows through a vertical contraction from a pipe of diameter d to another of diameter d/2
(see figure). The flow velocity at the inlet to the contraction is 2m/s and pressure 200kN/m 2. If the
height of the contraction measures 2m, then pressure at the exit of the contraction will be very
nearly
a) 168 kN/m2
b) 192 kN/m2
c) 150 kN/m2
d) 174 kN/m2
Ans: (c)
Explanation: From continuty equation,
A1 v1 = A2 v2
or
d2 2
v2 or v2 8 m / s
42
Applying Bernoulis theorem,
2 0 p2 8 2
200 1000
or
9810
2 9.81
2 9.81
2
p2 = 150.38 Kn/m
2
2.15 An aeroplane is cruising at a speed of 800 kmph at an altitude, where the air temperature is 0 0C.
The flight Mach number at this speed is nearly
a) 1.5
b) 0.254
c) 0.67
d) 2.04
Ans: (c)
Explanation: M =
C=
v 800kmph
800 1000
0.67
C
C
3600 331.2
RT 1.4 0.287 273 1000 =331.2 m/s
2.16 It is proposed to coat a 1 mm diameter wire with enamel paint (k 0.1 W/mK) to increase heat
transfer with air. If the air side heat transfer coefficient is 100 W/m2 K, then optimum thickness of
IES-GATE ACADEMY
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enamel paint should be

a) 0.25 mm
b) 0.5 mm
Ans: (b)
Explanation: Critical radius of insulation,
rc =
c) 1mm
d) 2 mm
k 0.1
0.001 1mm
h 100
Radius of min =0.5 mm.

Thickness of coating = 1 0.5 = 0.5mm.
2.17 An isolated thermodynamic system executes a process. Choose the correct statement (s) from the
following
a) no heat is transferred
b) No work is done
c) No mass flows across the boundary of the system
d) No chemical reaction takes place within the system
Ans: (a, b, c)
Explanation: For an isolated system, Q = 0, W = 0 and mass does not flow through the system.
2.18 The silencer of an internal combustion engine
a) reduces noise
b) decreases brake specific fuel consumption (BSFC)
c) Increases BSFC
d) Has no effect on its efficiency
Ans: (a)
2.19 Select statement from List II matching the process in List I. Enter your answer D, C if the correct
choice for (1) is (D) and that for (2) is (C).
List I
List II
1) Cooling and dehumidification
A) dry bulb temperature increased, but

dew point temperature deceases
2) Chemical dehumidification
B) Dew point temperature increased and

dry bulb temperature remains uncharged
C) Drybulb and wet bulb temperatures decreases
D) Dry bulb temperature decreases, but
Dew point temperature increases
Ans: (c, d)
2.20 Select statement from List II matching the process in List I. Enter your answer A, B if the correct
choice for (1) is (A) and that for (2) is (B).
List I
List II
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1) Inter cooling
A) No heat transfer during compression
2) Isothermal compression
B) Reduces low pressure compressor work

C) Heat rejection during compression
D) Reduces high pressure compressor work
Ans: (c, b)
2.21 For butt-welding 40 mm thick steel plates, when the expected quantity of such jobs is 5000 per
month over a period of 10 years, choose the best suitable welding process out of the following
available alternatives.
a) Submerged arc welding
c) Electron beam welding
b) oxy-acetylene gas welding

d) MIG welding
Ans: (b)
2.22 What is a approximate percentage change is the life, t, of a tool with zero rake angle used in
orthogonal cutting when its clearance angle, , is changed from 100 to 70? (Hint : Flank wear
rate is proportional to cot )
a) 30% increase b) 30% decreases
c) 70% increase
d) 70% decreases
Ans: (b)
Explanation: Wear rate is proportional to tan , i.e
Wear rate tan
where clearence angle is decreased from 100 to 70, then
percentage change in t =
tan10 tan 7
100 30.37% decrease.
tan10
2.23 Suppose X is a normal random variable with mean 0 and variance 4. then the mean of the
absolute value of X is.
a)
1
2
b)
2 2
c)
2 2
d)
Ans: (b)
Explanation: Mean of the absolute value of X =
2 2
or 2 4
2
2.24 In computing Wilsons economic lot size for an item, by mistake the demand rate estimate used
was 40% higher than the free demand rate. Due to this error in the lot size computation, the
IES-GATE ACADEMY
GATE-1999-ME
total cost of setups plus inventory holding per unit time. Would rise above the true optimum by
approximately
a) 1.4%
Ans: (c)
b) 6.3%
Explanation: EOQ =
c) 18.3%
d) 8.7%
2 RC0
Cc
Inventory cost =
Cost rise =
2 RC0Cc
2 1.4 RC0Cc
= 1.183 2 RC0Cc
Percentage increase
1.183 1
100 18.3% increase
1
2.25 At a production machine, parts arrive according to a poisson process at the rate of 0.35 parts
per minute. Processing time for parts have exponential distribution with mean of 2 minutes.
1What is the probability that a random part arrival finds that there are already 8 parts in the
system (in machine + in quetic)?
a) 0.0247
b) 0.0576
c) 0.0173
d) 0.082
Ans: (c)
Explanation: Probaqbility of nnumbers in the system, pn (t) = pn (1 p)
= (0.7)8(1 0.7) = 0.0173.
3. Consider the signboard mounting shown in Fig. given. The wind load acting perpendicular to the plane
of the figure is F = 100N. We wish to limit the deflection due to bending at point A of the hollow
cylindrical pole of outer diameter 150 mm to 5mm. Find the wall thickness for the pole. Assume E =
2.0x 1011 N/M2.
Explanation: The system signboard mounting can be considered as a cantiliver loaded at A i.e, W = 100N
and also having antilockwise moment of M = 100 1=100Nm at the free end.
Deflection of a cantilever having concentrated load at the free end,
Wl 3 MI2
3EI 2EI
IES-GATE ACADEMY
or
GATE-1999-ME
0.005
100 53
100 52
3 2 1011 I 3 2 1011 I
or I = 0.0000053
4
d0 di4 0.0000053
64
0.0000053 64
4
4
or, (0.15) di
or,
or di = 0.14154 m
Wall thickness of pole =
di d0 150 141.5
4.25mm
2
2
4. The peak bending stress at critical section of a component varies between 100MN/m2 and
300MN/m2. The ultimate tensile strength of the material is 700MN/m2, yield point in tension is 500
MN/M2, endurance limit for reversed bending is 350 MN/m2. Find the factor of safety.
Explanation: f m
fb (min) fb(max)
2
100 300
200 MN / m 2
=
2
fb (max) fb (min) 300 100
fm
0.572
2
2
For designed based on ultimate tensile strength, using Goodmans criterion, we have
f
f
1
m u
F .S fut f e
1
200 100
0.572
=
F .S 700 350
or,
F.S = 1.75
For design based on yield strength, using Soderberg equation,
or
F.S
f m fu 200 100

0.686
f yt f e 500 350
Or
F.S = 1.46.
Taking larger of the two values, we have F.S = 1.75
5. A proper base isolation is to be designed for mounting a sensitive instrument as shown in figure. At
the point of mounting, the base vibration due to other disturbances is indicated in the figure. If the
permitted absolute displacement amplitude on the rigid mounting pad is 0.001 mm, find the stiffness
of the spring. Assume that the total mass of the mounting pad and the instrument is 50kg.
IES-GATE ACADEMY
GATE-1999-ME
d2 x
dt 2
d2 x
Now, n 200 2
dt
2
d x
m 2 S ( y x)
dt
2
or mn x S 0.199
Explanation:
n 200
or S (or k) = 99.12 N/mm

6. Given figure shows a 2 degree of freedom manipulator consisting of a rotary base and a sliding arm
which slides radially with respect to the base. The instantaneous position, angular acceleration and
relative velocity of arm with respect to the base are shown in Fig 6. The radical relative acceleration
of the arm with respect to the base is zero. Obtain the magnitude and direction of the absolute
acceleration of the point P on the sliding arm.
Explanation:
fCOQ Component 2 = 2 11 2 m/s

2
Tangential acceleration of arm with respect to base = r
= ft PO 0.732 1 0.732 m/ sec 2

Radial acceleration of arm with respect to baes = 0
Magnitude of absolute acceleration of the point P on the sliding arm,
f Po 2 0.732 2.732 m / sec2

IES-GATE ACADEMY
GATE-1999-ME
7. A planetary gear train is shown in figure. Internal gear (1) has 104 teeth and is held fixed and planet
gear (2) has 96 teeth. How much does the planet gear rotate for sixty revolutions of the planet carrier
(3) in clock wise direction?
S.No
Conditions of motion
Arm (3)
1.
Arm fixed-wheel (2)

ratates through +T
(i.e., 1 revolution anticlockwise)
2.
3.
4.
+1
T2
T1
Arm fixed wheel

(2) rotates through
+x revolution
+x
T2
x
T1
+x revolution Add +y
revolution to all
elements.
+y
+y
+y
x+y
or,
y+
T2
x
T1
T2
x 0, where, y 60
T1
60
or,
Wheel(1)
Total motion
Now, y +
Revolutions of element
Wheel (2)
T2
x0
T1
T2
x 60
T1
x
60T2
T1
= + 60
104
=65 revolution anti-clockwise.
96
Relation of planet gear (2) for 60 revolutions of planet carrier (3) clockwise,
x+y = 65 60
= 5 revolutions anti clockwise.
8. A flat belt opon drive transmits 1.5 kW of power. The coefficient of friction between the belt and the
drive pulley is 0.25 and the lap angle is 1590. the drive pulley is rotating in the clock wise direction
with the linear belt velocity of 3.75 m/s. Determine the x and y components of the reaction force on
pulley shaft.
IES-GATE ACADEMY
GATE-1999-ME
Explanation:
From P = (T1T2 )v
1.5 1000 = (T1T2) 3.75 orT1 T2 = 400 ..(i)
Now,
T1
159
e e0.25
2
T2
180
or, T1 = T2..(ii)
From equations (i) and (ii), we get T2 = 400 N and T1 = 800 N
X-component (T1 cos 10.50+T2cos 10.50) = ( 800 cos 10.50 + 400 sin 10.50) = 1179.9 N
Y-component : T1 sin 10.50 T2 sin 10.50 = 800 sin 10.50 = 72.89 N
9. A centrifugal pump running at 750 rpm discharges water at 0.1m 3/s against a heat of 10 at its best
efficiency. A second pump of the same homologous series, when working at 500 rpm, is to deliver
water at 0.05m3/s at its best efficiency. What will be the design head of the second pump and water
is the scale ratio between the first and the second?
N R
34
H1
N R
3 4
H2
750 0.1 500 0.05
or
10 3 4 H32 4
500 0.05
or H32 4 =
42.18
H2 3.67m
Q1
0.1
Scale-ratio: L2.5
r
Q2 0.05
Explanation:
10. Two fluids, A and B exchange heat in a counter-current heat exchanger. Fluid A enters at 4200C and
has a mass flow rate of 1 kg/s. Fluid B enters at 20 0C and also has a mass flow rate of 1 kg/s.
Effectiveness of heat exchanger is 75%. Determine the heat transfer rate and exit temperature of
Fluid B. (specific heat A = 1 kj/kgK and that of fluid B = 4kJ/kgK)
Explanation: Heat tranfer rate, Q = mCpc( tB2 tB1 )
IES-GATE ACADEMY
GATE-1999-ME
= 1 4( tB2 200 )
= mCpm( t A1 t A2 )
or 4( tB2 200 ) = 1 1(4201200) = 300
t B2 =
300
20 = 950C
4
Heat transfer rate = 300kJ/s = 300kW

11. An R -717 (ammonia) system operates on the basic vapour compression refrigeration cycle. The
evaporator and the condenser pressure are 0.119 MPa and 1.389 MPa respectively. The mass flow
rate of refrigerant is 0.1 Kg/s. If the volumetric efficiency of the compressor is 84%, determine the
compressor displacement rate. If the COP of the cycle is 2, determine the power input to the
compressor. Saturation properties of R 717 (ammonia)
Temp. 0C
Pressure MPa
-30
36
0.119
1.389
Specific Volume of
Vapour m3/kg
0.9638
0.0930
Enthalpy Kj/Kg
Liquid
Vapour
63.9
1423.6
371.4
1488.6
Explanation:
(i) Compressor displacement =

=
mv
0.1 0.9638
v( 30)
0.84
= 0.9638 m3/kg]
= 0.1174 m3/s
(ii) Refrigeration effect = h1 h4 = 1423.6 371.4 = 1052.2 kj/kg.
C.O.P =
Re frigeration effect
Work done
Work done =
1052.2
526 kJ / kg
2
Power input to the compressor = 526.1 0.1 = 52.61 kW

12. A large diesel engine runs on a stroke cycle at 2000 rpm. The engine has a displacement of 25 litre
and a brake mean effective pressure of 0.6 MN/m2. It consumes 0.018kg/s of fuel (calorific value =
42000 kJ/kg). Determine the brake power and the brake thermal efficiency.
IES-GATE ACADEMY
GATE-1999-ME
Pml.A.N 0.6 10 3 0.025 2000

250 kW
=
2
2
250
Brakethermal efficiency,
100 33.07%
0.018 42000
Explanation: Break power =
13. An isentropic air turbine is used to supply 0.1kg/s of air at 0.1 MN/m 2 and at 285 to a cabin. The
pressure at inlet to the turbine is 0.4 MN/m2. Determine the temperature at turbine inlet and the
power developed by the turbine. Assume C p = 1.0kJ/kg K.
Explanation:
T p
Now, 3 3
T4 p4
0.286
0.4
=423.68K
0.1
Power developed = mCp (T3 T4) = 0.1 1 (423.68 6.586) = 13.87 kW
or T3 = 285
14. An adiabatic steam turbine receives dry saturated steam at 1.0MN/m 2 and discharges it at
0.1MN/m2. The steam flow rate is 3kg/s and the moisture at exit in negligible. If the ambient
temperature is 300K, determine the rate of entropy production and the lost power.
Steam properties :
P
MN/m2
10
0.1
Tsat 0C
hf
kj/kg
762.8
417.5
179.9
99.6
hg
kj/kg
2778.1
2675.5
sf
kj/kg k
2.139
1.303
Explanation: Rate of Entropy production = m(Sg2 Sg1) = 3(7.359 6.586) = 2.319 kJ/K/s
ss
kj/kg k
6.586
7.359
15. In a butt-welding operation on plates, the heat input necessary is given by
Q = 8KTct 0.2
Where
K
TC
t
v
b
vb
4
is thermal conductivity
is temperature increases from room temperature up to melting point
is thickness of plate
is welding speed
is width of the weld and
is thermal diffusivity
IES-GATE ACADEMY
GATE-1999-ME
Two alloy steel plates as shown in Figure. Are to be welded using a power source rated at 5 kVA
having a duty cycle of 75%. Using the given data, determine the MAXIMUM welding speed for the
job in given figure.Where : K = 45 W/m0 C, Tc = 1450 C, and a = 1.2 x 10-5m2/s.
Explanation: Width of the weld, b =
Q = 8KTc t 0.2
5
5.774 mm
sin 600
v 5.774
vb
or 4250 = 8 45 1450 5 103 0.2

5
1000
1.2
10
4
or Vmax = 0.012m/sec.
16. In a particular mould design, the down sprue has an area of cross section of 6.45 Cm2 where the
pouring basin leads into the sprue. The sprue is 20cm long. The required metal flow rate at the top
section of the sprue is 820 cm3/s. Determine the pouring height necessary above the sprue top. Also
determine the area of cross-section of the sprue at its bottom to avoid aspiration of liquid metal.
Explanation:
Q = A V or 820 = A 2gh = 6.45 2gx

or x = 8.246 8.5cm
To avoid aspiration effects,
A2
x
8.5
A1
20 x
28.5
or A 2 6.45
8.5
3.52cm2
28.5
17. The shape ABCDE shown in figure is to be produced by blanking operation from a larger sheet of
4mm thickness. The material is alloy steel having ultimate shear strength, USS of 600 MPa.
IES-GATE ACADEMY
GATE-1999-ME
a) Calculate the force required in the blanking operation.

b) Determine the coordinates of the centre of pressure during the operation with origin at A.
Explanation: (a) Required force, F = P.t.fsu
= 100+200+
2 100
200
sin 45 2
= 641.42 mm
F = 641.42 4 600
=1539.41 kN
(b) Co-ordinate of centre of pressure X coordinate = 50mm.
100 100 200 200
50 1
100 50
3 2
112.96 mm
1
100 200 100 50
2
Co ordinates of centreof pressure withorigin Aare (50 /112.96)
18. A1, is the diameter of a random part of type A and A1 has uniform distribution over the tolerance
range, (25.0, 25.3)mm. Similarly, B1 is the diameter of a random part of type B and B1 has uniform
distribution over the tolerance range, (25.4, 25.6) mm. satisfactory assembly of type A part with a
type B part requires that the clearance (B1 A1) must be between 0.1mm and 0.4mm.
i) List the corner points of the region in the X y plane where (A1, B1) would lie in the event of
satisfactory assembly between A1 and B1.
ii) Derive the probability that A1 and B1 do Not give satisfactory assembly.
Explanation:
Dimesions of B1
Dimesions of A1
25.4 mm
25.5mm
25.6 mm
25.0 mm
25.1mm
25.3 mm
Dimesions of B1
Dimesions of A1
For clearance of 0.1 mm
25.4
25.3
..(2)
25.5
25.0
(3)
25.4
25.1
(1)
25.5
25.2
(5)
25.6
25.3
(4)
(i) Corner points of the region in the X-Y plane 1-2-3-4-5 are the corner points.
(ii) Dimensions for non-satisfactory assembly.
Dimesions of B1
Dimesions of A1
25.4
25.3
25.4
25.0
IES-GATE ACADEMY
GATE-1999-ME
25.5
25.1
25.6
25.2
Total number of cases = number of cases satisfactory assembly+Number of cases of nonsatisfactory assembly
=5 +4 =9
Probability that A1 and B1 do not give satisfactory assembly =
4
9
19. Demands for parts in weeks 1, 2, 3 are : 200, 300, 500 units respectively while available capacities for
production in the three weeks are for 350, 350, 350 units respectively. Inventory holding cost is Rs. h
per week.
a) To minimize total inventory holding cost while meeting demands on time, determine the
production quantities in weeks 1, 2, 3.
b) If the optimization problem above is formulated as a Linear Program, determine the shadow
price of the capacity constraint in the Third week.
Explanation: (i) In the third week demand is 500 and the available capacity is only 350 units.
Minimum inventory required = 500 300 = 150 units.
Production in the second week required = 300+150 =450 units.
Since the available capacity for the second week is 350 units only
Minimum inventory required = 450 350 =100 units.
Now, production quantity in I week = Demand+Inventory for second week
= 200 + 100 = 350 units
Production quantity in II week = 350 units
Production quantity in III week = 350 units
(ii) If the above proble in formulated as a Linear program, then
Production Quantity/week = 350 units
Total production = 350 + 350 + 350 = 1050 units
Total Demand = 200+300+500=1000 units
Shadow price is equivalent to (1050 1000) = 50 units
20. In an orthogonal cutting experiment with a tool of rake angle, = 70, the chip thickness was found to
be 2.5 mm when the uncut chip thickness was found to be 2.5mm when the uncut chip thickness was
set to 1mm.
a) find the shear angle .
b) Find the friction angle assuming that Merchants formula holds good.
0.4cos 7
r cos
=
0.417
1 r sin 1 0.4sin 7
or
(b) According to Merchant theory, = 900
Explanation: (a) tan =
= 90 + 7 18 =510 41
21. The lives of two tools, A and B, governed by the equation vt0.125 = 2.5 and vt0.250 = 7 respectively in
certain machining operation where v is the cutting speed in m/s and t is the tool life in second
a) Find out the speed v* at which both the tools will have the same life. Also calculate the
corresponding tool life t*.
b) If you have to machine at a cutting speed of 1 m/ s, then which one of these tools will you
choose in order to have less frequent tool changes?
IES-GATE ACADEMY
GATE-1999-ME
Explanation:
(a) v = v*
1
2.5 0.125 2.5
t1
v*
v*
v t0.250 = 7 or v*t20.250 = 7
Let t2 = t
2.5 8
v *

v *
2.5
v*
7
0.250
=7
8
2.5
0.893m / s and t* t1
3773.19s
0.893
(b) v t0.125 = 2.5

or 1 t0.125=2.5
or t1=1525.88 s
again vt0.250 = 7
or 1 t0.125 = 7 or t2 = 2401s
Since t2 > t1 hence select the macinhe having v t0.250 = 7
22. The bore diameter, D, of a plain ring having a height of 35mm was measured using two spherical
balls, each of diameter d = 25,000 mm. the ring was placed on a surface table and then both the
balls were placed inside the ring. In this position, the height, h, of the top of the upper ball from the
surface table was found to be 42,000 mm.
a) Derive the expression for D in terms of d and h.
b) What is the bore diameter, D, of the ring?
Explanation:
D=
d
d
x d x
2
2
x=
d d
2
d 2 h = d 2 h d = 2hd h2
2 2
D = d + 2hd h2 = 25 + 2 42 25 42 43.330mm
2

Ans (C) Explanation:: Ax y and y y y Axy and Ay X X Now X y or Ay y Ora

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IES-GATE ACADEMY

Explanation: Since the value of

Rank of the matrix is less than 2.

1.4 Lapalce transform of (a + bt) 2 where a and b are constants is given by

1.5 Following are the values of a function y(x) : y( - 1) = 5, y(0), y(1) = 8

1.6 Analysis of variance is concerned with

and bending moment FL

c) Force F and twisting moment FL

a) Link 2 rotates clockwise

b) Link 2 rotates counter clock wise

c) List 2 does not move

d) Link 2 motion cannot be determined

a) vibration of a stretched string

b) Motion of projectile in a gravitational field

b) It increases with decreases in pressure ratio

d) Plain Carbon Steel

1.24 Choose the correct statement :

2.1 The eigenvalues of the matrix

Moment of area about y axis = Area

Partial differential equation

From equations (i) and (iii), a =

Since the above equation is second

a) 3 m/s heading East

b) 3 m/s heading West

Relative velocity = 8 (1 5) = 13 m/s towards East.

Applying Bernoulis theorem,

RT 1.4 0.287 273 1000 =331.2 m/s

enamel paint should be

Radius of min =0.5 mm.

A) dry bulb temperature increased, but

B) Dew point temperature increased and

A) No heat transfer during compression

B) Reduces low pressure compressor work

b) oxy-acetylene gas welding

Wall thickness of pole =

or S (or k) = 99.12 N/mm

fCOQ Component 2 = 2 11 2 m/s

= ft PO 0.732 1 0.732 m/ sec 2

f Po 2 0.732 2.732 m / sec2

Arm fixed-wheel (2)

Arm fixed wheel

Heat transfer rate = 300kJ/s = 300kW

(i) Compressor displacement =

Power input to the compressor = 526.1 0.1 = 52.61 kW

Pml.A.N 0.6 10 3 0.025 2000

Explanation: Break power =

15. In a butt-welding operation on plates, the heat input necessary is given by

Explanation: Width of the weld, b =

or 4250 = 8 45 1450 5 103 0.2

Q = A V or 820 = A 2gh = 6.45 2gx

a) Calculate the force required in the blanking operation.

100 100 200 200

For clearance of 0.4 mm

Explanation: (a) tan =

2.5 0.125 2.5

(b) v t0.125 = 2.5

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