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Intro Page.

INSTRUCTIONS FOR USE

Dear Pilot Colleague,
Thank you for purchasing this product. A Iot of time and effort has been expended to ensure that the
questions represent the depth of Understanding required. They reflect 10+ years of association with
Iicence conversion training and addresses the CASA ATPL Law exam accurately. Other ATPL subject exams are available separately. Ask your pilot supply shop about the full range.
HOW THE SYSTEM OPERATES

Registered users can use the paper exams to find/record their answers, then go online using your
unique access codes to get the examination paper marked automatically by the Avfacts cyba-exam
system. Your percentage mark will be displayed to you quickIy along with the correct answer, and
any incorrect responses. You can then re-study and attempt the questions you got wrong on flrst
attempt.

GETTlNG REGISTERED FOR EXAMINATION MARKING

Simply fiII in the registration fonn at: h_ttp:IIwww.avfacts.com.aulav10 using the initial unique
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To facilitate this, about 5 minutes after completing registration click "send/receive" on your Outlook
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to enter the online marking for each examination.
NOTE: Each book can only be registered once and to one owner.

EXAM ACCESS MARKING PERIOD

You receive 4 marking credits for each examination or CAO quiz. Your access to the online marking
facility lasts for up to 6 months from the day you register the book, not the day you purchased it. Access is provided for the initial purchaser onIy and only one computer IP code is allowed by the cybaexam security system. NOTE: Using multiple Computers for access can result in loss of access.
Instructor help is n_ot provided. Refer questions to your flight instructor or ground instructor.
REFERENCE BOOKS

You will need the CASNAirservices reference books to complete this course. Also needed for the
CASA ATPL Law exam (open-book exam). They are available from the pilot supply shop you bought
this exam booklet from.
Full Iist of these publications at: virww.casa.gov.au/scripts/nc.dIl?WCMS:STANDARD::pc=PC_90074
You may use Jeppesen or Airservices products for study and in the CASA ATPL Law exam.
General briefing on what's nonnally required to convert ? www.robavery.com.au/aaos_info.htm
OTHER ROB AVERY PRODUCTS

PRACTICE EXAMS For PPL CPL, lREx and ATPL subjects.

FULL OVERSEAS PILOT LICENCE CONVERSION COURSES PPL CPL, ATPL.
BAK practice exam book (product code Av14). Suitable for CASA and RA-Aus pilots.
BAKIPPUCPL Study Questions lntemet marking and KDR and model answer working.
ATPL COURSES - Study at your own pace at home. lnstructor help provided via email.
BASIC GAS TURBlNE TRAINING COURSE Must know information when converting to jets.

For information on the wide range of Rob Avery theory products go to: www.robavery.com.au
Best wishes for your studies and career. lt is all worth the hard work in the end.
ROB AVERY

Av10 ATPL PRACTICE LAW EXAMS

CONTENTS
Exam Module

Topic

50 questions.

50 questions.
50 questions.

NOTE: There are only 40 questions in actual CASA AALW Exam.

Quiz Module

Civil Aviation Orders Topic (Bonus)

CAO 20.2 Safety Precautions before Flight"
CAO 20.4 Provision of Oxygen"
CAO 20.7.1b module 1 - "Takeoff and Climb Performance"

CAO 20.7.1b module 2 - Approach and Landing Performance"

CAO 20.9 Fuelling and Radar Ops"

CAO 20.11 Emergency and Life Saving Equipment

CAO 20.16 Loading of Aircraft

CAO 20.18 "Aircraft Equipment - Basic Operational Requirements"

OQNGMNN

CAO 26.8.1 "Feny Flights by Aircraft with One Engine lnoperative"

INSII{L'(TF()I{ .\SSIS'IX\N(.'IC

I8 NOT .\ FICXFFRIC 0F IHIS PRODUCW.

LINKS TO ASSIST YOU

The websites below may assist you in your studies.
Rob Avery products home page: www.robavery.com.au
Converting an ICAO ATPL Licence (plain taIk): http://www.avfacts.com.au/aaos_info.htm
CASA: http://www.casa.gov.au/scripts/nc.dII?WCMS:STANDARD::pc=PC_90085

AND: httpzl/www.casa.gov.au/scripts/nc.dII?WCMS:STANDARD:1845672828:pc=PC_90024
CASA Flight Crew Licensing (CLARC)
CLARC CASA", GPO Box 2005, Canberra ACT 2601, Australia

Book an Exam Assessment Services Limited (ASL)

https://wvvw.asIexamcomfTOUGeneraI/Main.aspx?sponsorid=5982
Material to take to an exam:
httpzl/wwwcasa.gov.au/scripts/nc.dII?WCMS:STANDARD::pc=PC_90074

CASA document free downloads (CAR, CAO, CAAP)

http://wvvw.casa.gov.au/scripts/nc.dlI?WCMS:STANDARD::pc=PC_90902
Airservices Aust free material (ERSA, AIP, DAP) httpz/lwww.airservices.gov.au/pubIications/aipasp

Av10: Index

ATPL Study Manuals by Rob Avery

ATPL

ATPL

ATPL

Aerody 8. Systems Pt 1

Navigation Part 1

Aerody 8. Systems Pt 2
Basic Gas Turblnes

Code Av1

Code Av2

Code Av4

Flying Glass

ATPL Aerodynamics and Aircraft Systems

Flying Glass (Code Av1)

ATPL
night phnning
Trainmg Texts

Code Av8

Part 1

A CASA Aerodynamics and Aircraft Systems suggested text. Simply explaining how the B767 automated cockpit
works. Written to the ATPL syllabus, covering EFIS Flight Management Systems (FMS) Autopilot, Autothrottle
functions. 87 pages, plus over 100 muIti-choice review questions/answers supplied. A must have publication l

ATPL Navigation Part 1 (Code Av2)

Covers Airspeed, AItimetry ETP PNR. Easy to folIow seIf-contained. with handy tips, assignments, answers
provided. Contains over 100 pages. Lots of diagrams. Lots of CASA style review questions + answers provided.
Practice exams are also available for this subject (product codes Av5 Av18 and Av40).

ATPL Aerodynamics and Aircraft Systems Part 2

Basic Gas Turbine Texts (Code Av4)
For all pilots including ATPL students this easy to read 110 page seIfcontained course includes 180 multichoice CASA style/depth review questions with answers provided. Do not enter a CASA AASA exam with
reading this first ! Also refer ATPL exam products listing or practice exams for this subject (product codes Av5
and Av18).
ATPL B727 Flight Planning Training Texts
Limited Edition (Code Av8)
Designed for those pilots findlng difficulty passing the CASA examination. Covers all types of operation both
normal and abnormal. Over 60 worked CASA style questions and featuring handy tips to save time in the exam.
Over 100 pages. ldeaIIy read in association with B727 Flight Planning Practice Exam booklet (Product code
Av3).

ATPL Navigation Part 2 (Code Av9)

Read in association with Navigation Part 1, it covers the entire CASA ATPL syllabus, including all nav aids,
radar, communication Systems, chans. compass. and time calculations. 140 + pages. with lot's of diagrams.
Practice exams are also available for this subject (product codes Av5, Av18 and Av40).

ATPL
Nay|9aflon Pan 2

Code Av9

ATPL
GTOY& SYSQGITIS Pt 3

Code Av13

ATPL
Performance & Load

Code Av15

ATPL Aerodynamics 8: Systems Part 3 (Code Av13)

When read in association with Aerodynamics and Systems Parts 1 and 2. the entire CASA ATPL syllabus is
covered. The 240 pages cover topics including. hydraulics e|ectric's pneumatics. waming & recording Systems,
aerodynamics and much more. A focussed reference book for the ATPL AASA. Essential reading prior to attempting the CASA AASA exam. Also refer ATPL exam products listing or practice exams for this subject
(product codes Av5 and Av18).The 'good oiI' on what to expect.
ATPL Performance and Loading (Code Av15)
Addresses CASA syllabus, with lot's of examples, and 180 pages. Exactly what you need to pass this exam
subject. All aspects of CASA ATPL Performance and Loading syllabus are oovered in this one book. Very high
pass rate by ATPL students that used this book as a guide. Also refer ATPL exam products listing or practice
exams for this subject (product codes Av5 Av18 and Av42).

pages

bookpormo2011

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ATPL
Flight Planning
Exams

Code Av3

ATPL

ATPL

Exams Part 1

Exams Part 2

Code Av5

Code Av18

B727 Fllght Plannlng Practice Exams (Code AVJ)

A must for anyone sitting this demanding and time Iimited exam. There are 5 fully worked exams, each with 50 marks as in the
CASA exam. ll you do NOT have this booklet. you are risking precious marks/re-sit. Read in association with B727 'Flight
Planning Limited Edition (Ref Av8). Online marking/KDR with worked answer lile.
ATPL Practlce Exams Part 1 (Code Av5)
A very popular exam book containing hundreds of invaluable practice multi-choice review questions over 5 subjects. Targets
the CASA syllabus and exam accurately a must lor ATPL students. Features auto-online marking/KDR. Multiple attempts
allowed per exam. Answer working PDF file where calculations are required. lntemet access required.

ATPL Practice Exams Part 2 (Code Av18)

Contains multi-choice review questions. with answers, and working. Two exams each ol subjects Aerodynamics 8: Systems,
Flight Planning Navigation, and Performance & Loading. A must for ATPL students. Online automatic marking through the
Avfacts Cyba-Exam System. Internet access required. Long access period.
A HOT seller !

ATPL Law Exam book (product code Av10)

An exam booklet containing 3 practice ATPL exams of CASA depth and style.
270 + questions. Useful for final review prior to CASA Law exam (AALW). Also
for those converting overseas ATPL to Australien. Bonus module of questions
covenng most frequently asked CAO's section topics in typical CASA style.
ATPL Navigation Practice Exams (Code Av40)
Exam book containing 5 multi-choice review exams. with password provided to
get online automatic marking/KDR through the Avfacts Cyba-Exam System
(Internet access required). A detailed worked answer PDF file provided online
for each exam also. A must for ATPL Navigation students. As used in the full
ATPL correspondence course by Rob Avery so it's the good oil. Multiple exam
attempts allowed and long access period provided. You can buy this book with
conlidence.
w"

'

"

Code Av10

ATPL Aerodynamlcs and Aircraft Systems AASA Exams (Code Av41)

Exam book containing 5 multi-choice CASA focussed AASA exams. with password provided to allow online automatic marking/KDR through the Avfacts
Cyba-Exam System (lntemet access required). Superb guidance on AASA
exam question depth and style 250 questions in total. As used in Rob's fuII
ATPL AASA correspondence course. Multiple exam attempts allowed and long
access period provided. Reler also Robs ATPL training manuals Aerodynamlcs
and Systems 1, 2, and 3 for AASA subject coverage.

ATPL
5 Navigation Exams

Code Av40

ATPL
5 Aerodynamlcs and
Systems Exams

Code Av41

ATPL Performance and Load Practlce Exam Book (Code Av42)

Four multi-choice CASA style Performance and Loading practice exams with
password provided to get online marking/KDR via the Aviacts cyba-exam system (lntemet access required). Detailed answer working PDF file provided
online also. Excellent focus on what CASA requires ol you in the actual examination. Multiple exam attempts allowed and long access period provided. CASA
B727 Load addenda booklet and 8727 Trim sheet as used by CASA in the
actual exam is included.

ATPL
4 Performance and
Loading Exams
nun-n

rn

Code Av42

IREX
4 Practice Exams

IREX Examination Book

..o

Code Av6

IREX Practice Exam Book (Code Av6)

Written by a senior Airline Check and Training Captain and ATO with many years of IREX teaching. it
contains dozens of invaluable practice multi-choice review questions. with answers and quick reference guide to AIP etc. Also contains oondensed IREX training file to simplify the regulations. CASA
style question techniques. An absolute must for IREX students. 3 marking credits per exam.

E
9
c1

E
9

BAK/PPL/PAOS
Study Companions and Practice Exam Books by Rob Avery
o

Suitable for CASA and RA-Aus Qilot students.

Large number of multiple-choice practice questions.

Multiple attempts permitted.
o
Worked answers available via online PDF file where appropriate.
o
Automatic online marking and KDR.
o
Requires Internet access for marking to occur.
Product Codes: Av14, Av16, Av31 (Oz PPL), and Av44 PAOS Exams.
o

PPL/CPL
Study Companion Multi-choice Quiz Books by Rob Avery
The only products of their kind in Australia, it allows either PPL or CPL students to access review quiz's within a CASA syllabus subject to check their
Understanding topic by topic. There are 6 books covering all but the Air Law
subject. Automatic marking and KDR via Avfacts Cyba-exam system.
Worked answers available via online PDF file where appropriate. Multiple
attempts permitted.
Subject choices are:
PPL/CPL Navigation (product code Av32).
PPL/CPL Aircraft General Knowledge (product code Av33).

PPL/CPL Aerodynamics (product code Av34).

PPL/CPL Meteorology (product code Av35).
PPL/CPL Human Factors (product code Av36).
PPL/CPL Performance, PIanning and Loading (product code Av37).
Note: Internet access is required for online marking to operate.

CPL Multi-choice Practice Exam Books

by Rob Avery
These books each contain 4 CPL exams on all CPL subjects including Air
Law. These are representative of the presentation style in the CASA examinations, and depth of understanding required.

Features:

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o
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Online marking of exam paper.

KDR issued automatically.
Worked answer file where calculations required-students can identify
GFTOTS.

rusAsm-s (um

Multiple attempts per exam.

Access period for up to 6 months from date of registration.
Product order codes Av20 Av22 to Av30 depending on subject required.
Note: Internet access is required for online marking/KDR to operate.
o
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Lawl page I.

Airline Transport Pilot Law

Practice Exam No.1

Number of questions
Q1. A CASA examiner can travel

S7!

50

Pass mark 80%

1 mark per question

on a flight for the purpose of undertaking operational checks ?

Provided 24 hours written notice is provided to the Operator.

Provided 7 days verbal notice is provided to the Operator.
Any time, provided that no passengers or freight need to be off-Ioaded and with no prior notification.
Any time irrespective of the need to off-Ioad a passenger or freight, if the examiner considers it warranted and with no prior notification.

Q2. You are in CTA 20 nm from the destination aerodrome Iocated within a primary CTR. ATC ask
you to confirm sighting of another arriving aircraft ahead. You subsequently report the aircraft sighted
to ATC, who instruct you to maintain segaration from that aircraft. One of the provisions of this instruction is that ?

F199?

You may overtake that aircraft provided you do so by passing on the Ieft of that aircraft.
You may overtake that aircraft provided you do so by passing on the right of that aircraft.
You may overtake that aircraft only when within 5 nm of the destination airport.
You may NOT overtake that aircraft.

Q3. IFR aircraft operating OCTA are required to carry ?

F???

VHF radio only.

VHF, plus HF. if the flight is to prooeed beyond the range of VHF radio oommunications.
HF radio at all times.
HF only if the aircraft has not been fitted with a serviceable ELB.

Q4. Which Statement is most correct regarding the dumping of fuel.

9-999

Aircraft shall never dump fuel if the aircraft is below 5000 AGL.
Aircraft shall not dump fuel below 6000 ft. except in an emergency.
Aircraft shall under no circumstances dump fuel if the aircraft is below 6000 ft AGL.
ATC need not be advised of the requirement to dump fuel in CTA, if the aircraft is above 5000
ft AGL.

AV10Lawex 1IATPL Law. lawex1 190109 lmenectual propeny o! Roh Avery.

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Q5. Which answer is most correct about the shortening/Iengthening of racetrack holding pattems ?

a.
b.

c.
d.

A pilot may never shorten the outbound Ieg of a holding pattem, even OCTA without prior ATC
approval.
A pilot whose aircraft is operating in CTA may shorten the Iength of the holding pattem in order
to Ieave the pattern at a specified time.
A pilot whose aircraft is operating in CTA may at his/her discretion extend the outbound Ieg of
a holding pattem beyond the published DME Iimit, without the prior approval of ATC in order to
Ieave the pattem at a specified time.
A pilot whose aircraft is operating in CTA may extend the length of the outbound Ieg of the
holding pattem beyond the published DME Iimit without prior ATC approval if holding for a proIonged period of time.

Q6. An aircraft is flying a Category 1 ILS, is exactly on the glideslope and upon passing the published
altitude check point the pilot notes that the altimeter reading was not the same as that published on
the ILS approach chart. Which answer best describes the actions (if any) that the pilot should take ?

The pilot should initiate a missed approach.

F79

c.
d.

The pilot need not amend the published approach minima. as the error is caused by
atmospheric oonditions, and the error will reduce as altitude is reduced.
The pilot should lower the approach altitude minima if the altimeter under-reads at the
altimeter check point.
The pilot should raise the approach altitude minima by the amount of the error ifthe
altimeter under-reads at the altimeter check point.

Q7. Which of the answers Iisted below best represents the Rated Coverage' of a sea Ievel VOR if
the aircraft is at FL250 ?

a.

90 nm

b.

195 nm

d.

150 nm

c.

e.

120 nm

180 nm

Q8. Which answer best describes the aircraft approach Category if it's speed at runway threshold
(Vat) is 150 KIAS ?

a.
b.

c.
d.

Category "A"
Category B
Category C
Category D

Q9. Which of the Statements Iisted best describes the procedures with regard to oxygen equipment in

a pressunsed aircrafl operating above FL250 ?

a.
b.

c.
d.

Flight crew shall use oxygen whenever the Cabin altitude is above FL140.
Cabin crew members shall use oxygen during those times when the cabin altitude is above

10, 000 n.
Ifthe flight crew station is equipped with quick donning type oxygen masks, then one of the
pilots shall use oxygen whenever the aircraft is above FL450.
lf the flight crew station is NOT equipped with quick donning oxygen masks one member of
the flight crew shall use oxygen whenever the aircraft is above FL200.

Q10. Which of the answers is correct about position fixing/track keeping/altimeters.

9-99?

Maximum time between positive radio fixes under IFR is 90 minutes.

Maximum time between visual fixes under VFR is 60 minutes.
VFR aircraft operating above FL200 shall have altimeters calibrated t0 IFR Standards.
VFR aircraft cruising on-top of more that 4/8th cloud need only VFR instrumentation.

AvioLawex 1IATPL Law. Iawex1 190109 Intellectual property o1 Rob Avery.

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O11. The PIC has the responsibility to check for water contamination of aircraft fuel ?

9.079

Before the commencement of each flight.

Before the commencement of the first flight of the day for that aircraft, and after refuelling.
At frequent intervals throughout the days flying operations.
Only if the aircraft has been standing in rain or direct sunlight for periods exceeding 3 hours
after refuelling operations.

Q12. With regard to the carriage of airbome weather radar equipment, which answer Iisted below is
most correct if the aircraft is required by law to carry serviceable weather radar equipment?

a.

Should the weather radar equipment become inoperative en-route, the aircraft must be imme-

diately diverted to the nearest suitable altemate, and the route to that altemate shall not involve penetration of any cloud fonnation Iikely to be associated with severe turbulence.
An aircraft which suffers a failure of it's weather radar equipment shall not depan that aerodrome despite the fact that no cloud associated with severe turbulence is forecasted en-route
to the destination and/or planned altemate.
An aircraft which suffers a failure of the weather radar whilst en-route may continue that
flight, provided the aircraft avoids penetration of any cloud formation Iikely to be associated
with severe turbulence.
An aircraft which suffers a weather radar failure may continue flying operations for a further 24
hours thereafter, even if this may involve the penetration of cloud associated with severe turbulence.

O13. A maintenance release can only be issued if ?

a.

lt is approved by CASA.

b.

There is in force a certificate of airworthiness, g it has been approved by CASA. '

c.

A certificate of airworthiness is in force.

d.

lt is approved by CASA gm a certificate of airworthiness is in force.

O14. Prior to commencing an IFR chaner flight in a pressurised heavy transport turbojet aircraft with
a gross takeoff weight in excess of 5, 700 kg, you note that the altitude alerting system is unserviceable. Under which one of the conditions Iisted below may you prooeed with the flight ?

9-0579

Provided the flight does not fly higher than 10, O00 ft.
Provided the flight does not fly higher than FL185.
Provided the aircraft track/Ievel will not enter oontroiled airspace.
Provided there are no other instrument unserviceability's there are no restrictions to the
flight.

Q15. When navigating by reference to ground based navigation aids which one of the following best
represents an aoceptable method of obtaining a positive radio fix ?

b.

When within the rated coverage of two NDBs if the position lines cross at a minimum angle of
45 degrees.
When within the rated coverage of two NDBs if the position Iines cross at and angle of NOT
more than 45 degrees.
Passage over a VOR or NDB.
One position Iine provided it is from an aid other than an NDB. and is within the rated cover-

age.

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Law] Page 4_

O16. Your destination airport TAF is marked Provisional. As P|C you must ?

9-999

Ensure that sufficient holding fuel for INTERmittent weather deteriorations is carried.
Ensure that sufficient holding fuel for TEMPOrary weather deteriorations is carried.
Only cany weather holding fuel if it is specifically stated on the TAF.
Carry sufficient fuel allow for a diversion from the destination to a suitable alternate, for

which the TAF is not marked "Provisional".

O17. After a rest period, you commence a 7 hour period of reserve at home. Thereafter you are required to fly as a passenger on a deadhead re-positioning flight which takes two hours. As part of a
two crew operation you may now commence a flight, provided the expected duty time required to
complete the flight does not exceed ?

a.

14 hours

b.

2 hours

d.

9 hours
11 hours

c.

O18. which Statement is most correct regarding the removal of control surface locks and olher such
extemal devices from an aircraft about to taxi for takeoff ?

a.

9.0.5

Any member of the Operators ground personnel may remove these, without the need to display
them to the pilot in command.
Only the First Officer or Captain may remove these devices.
Only the pilot in command of the flight may remove these devices.
An authorised member of the Operators ground personnel can remove these devices, provided
these are displayed to the pilot in command, and he/she acknowledges to that person that they
have been sighted.

O19. A B727 is planned to fly a VFR sightseeing charter flight. How many serviceable tum and slip
indicators must be on board ?

F???

One, if an altemate source of power is provided.

None.
Two, and each must have an altemate source of power.
Nonnally two though only one if it is listed in the aircraft operating manual as

a pennitted

unserviceability'.
O20. The "main runway is defined as the runway having ?

a.
b.

c.
d.

e.

The highest pavement strength. (i.e. PCN)

The longest TORA.
The least crosswind component.
The most headwind component.
The longest oorrecled effective operational Iength. (i.e. EOL)

O21. You are the Pilot in Command of a BAe 146 aircraft rostered to fly an IFR charter flight within
controlled airspace. You note lhat the altitude alerting system is unservioeable. Can the aircrafl depart with this unservlceability ?

a.
b.

c.
d.

No

Yes, provided the aircraft has an assigned altitude indicator.

Yes, as this is a charter flight, not RPT.

Yes, provided the aircraft is not operated above FL200.

AV10Lanex 1IATPL Lavr. lawexl 190109 Intelleotual ptopeny of Rob Avery.

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Lawl

Page 5.

O22. You are rostered to fly a Saab 340 type aircraft on a series of three charter flights. each of
which has the same passenger load. The departure and destination airports are the same for each of
the flights. Which answer Iisted below is most correct regarding the provision of Ioad sheets ?

a.
b.

c.
d.

Three separate Ioad sheets are required, one for each flight.
Load sheets are not required for any of the flights. as this is a charter opetation. not RPT.
Only one Ioad sheet is required, but it must be revised afler each of the first two flights.
Only one Ioad sheet is required, assuming the condions do not change.

O23. Before activating the aircraft weather radar in "Normal" (antenna rotating) mode whilst on the
ground you must flrst ensure that the minimum distance between your aircraft and persons other
aircraft and equipment is not Iess than ? Assume N0 approved attenuating screen is in plaoe.

a
b.

c
d

46 metres
120 metres
60 metres
37 metres

O24. Which statement is correct regarding the provision of lifejackets in a 20 pax charter aircraft ?

a.
b.

c.

Required only when operating 50 nmor greater from Iand.

Required in a muIti-engine charter or RPT aircraft if departure or arrival phase is such that a
ditching is a possibility.
Required only when operating 100 nm or greater from Iand.

O25. when under radar control, and a radar heading change instruction is given, the pilot
must commence the tum ?

a.
b.

c.
d.

Immediately on receiving the instruction, and the tum shall be rate 1.

Wlthin 30 seconds of receiving the instruction, at whatever turn rate the pilot decides upon.
vwm 30 seconds of receiving the instruction, and the bank angle will be 15 degrees, irrespective of speed.
Wlthin 60 seconds of receiving the instruction and the turn shall be rate one.

O26. You are to conduct a freight only charter flight at night under the IFR. which of the answers
Iisted below best describes the minimum requirement for electric Iighting ?

99.0"!

Two Ianding Iights, or two separate energised filament shall be provided.

Two Ianding Iights if operating into a capital city airport
One Ianding Iight.
One anti-oollision light plus wing mounted strobe lights if the aircrafl is not fitted with a Ianding
Iight

O27. Wim regard to precautions during engine Starting, which one of the answers listed beIow is
most correct .7

a.
b.

c.
d.

The aircraft engine shall not be within 8 metres of a sealed buitding.

The aircrafl engine shall not be within 15 metres of another aircrafL
The aircraft engine shall not be started if that engine is within 15 metres from a fuel spiIL
unfil the fire hazard has been removed.
The aircraft engine shall not be started if it is within 50 metres of an unsealed building if
the aircraft has a MTOW greater than 5, 700 kg.

AV10Lawex 1/ATPL Lavr Iawexi 190109 Intelledual propetty o! Rob Avery.

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O28. A TTF has been issued for a particular airport. Which Statement is most correct ?

9.0.79

The TTF supersedes the TAF for the period of the ITF validity.
A TAF supersedes a TTF for the peiiod of the TAF.
The TAF has preoedence over the TTF for the period of the TTF.
Operational holding fuel requirements are made in accordance with the TAF during the validity
of the ITF.

O29. Which one of the Statements Iisted below is most correct ?

a.
b.

c.
d.

A pilot shall change the altimeter subscale setting from 1013.2 HPa to area ONH value when

passing FL110 on climb.

The pilot shall change the altimeter subscale setting from 1013.2 to area QNH value as the aircraft passes FL110 on descent.
Only one altimeter is required to be serviceable for departure of an IFR RPT flight with a
MTOW greater than 5, 700 kg.
A pilot shall change the attimeter subscale setting from 1013.2 HPa to area or destination airport QNH as the aircraft passes 10, 000 ft on descent.

O30. As pilot in command you must tum on the seat belt signs and ensure a public address has
been made requesting the passengers fasten their seat belts prior to commencing ?

a.
b.

Descent from cruising altitude.

An over-water Ieg.

d.

An instrument approach.

c.

Final approach.

O31. You have completed type endorsement training for the Saab 340 twin turboprop, plus an additional 60 hours ICUS flight time including 12 sectors of 50 minute duration. All training was completed within a 90 day period. Assuming you had no previous experience on the Saab 340, what further requirement (if any) must be met for you to act as pilot in command on charter operations ?

9-9?!

There are no further requirements.

You must oomplete a route check under the Supervision of a check captain.
You must complete a flight test with a CASA flight operations inspector.
A further 40 hours ICUS is required.

O32. Where an aircraft has a permitted unserviceability" which statement is correct about the maintenance release ?

a.

lt is no Ionger valid.

b.

lt must state the unserviceability and bear an endorsement that it is issued subject to certain
conditions.

c.

lt must be signed by a Iicensed ground engineer type rated on that aircrafl.

O33. With the undercaniage retracted afler an engine failure at or atter V1, a twin engine turbojet aircraft oertificated in the normal category with takeoff flap, and takeoff power set, must achieve what
minimum net ciimb gradient ?

9-579?

2.4%
Positive
1.6%
1.8%

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O34. An ERC chart has an area in red, with the words R242 0-UNL H24". This means ?

a.
b.

c.

That you can NOT enter this area.

That you may enter this area at any time of the day or night.
That you may only enter this area with prior approval and under conditions stipulated by the
controlling authority.

O35. When flying in controlled airspace, a change of Ievel must be ?

9-9979

Made at the standard rate.

Initiated within 1 minute of ATC the instruction given unless a Iater time/place is quoted.
lnitiated as soon as possible.
Commenced immediately the instruction is received.

O36. On a tour of duty the flight time has been 8 hours and 50 minutes. Assuming the previous day
was a rest day, which answer best represents the minimum rest period before the commencement of
the next tour of duty ?

579

F1.

9 hours. embracing the hours of 10 pm and 6 am.

12 hours, embracing the hours between 10 pm and 6 am.
24 hours.
13 hours, embracing the hours of 10 pm and 6 am.

O37. As a ATPL Iicence holder, under certain conditions you may gain approval conduct flights involving another ATPL Iicence holder to gain a type endorsement. You must ?

999".

Hold a current command instrument rating.

Hold an instruclor rating.
Be endorsed on that type of aircraft concerned.
Hold an aerobatic rating.

O38. You are the PIC of a heavy turbojet aircraft coasting out" during the commencement of a Iong
overwater leg. What is the Iatest time at which passengers must be briefed on Iocation and operation
of flotation devices fitted to the aircraft ?

F19?!

Before coasting out.

Before takeoff.
Before the aircraft proceeds more than 200 nm offshore.
Before taxiing at departure.

O39. What is the takeoff minima for a heavy transport aircraft, assuming the airport Iighting is of the
highest Standard ?

a.
b.

c.

Visibility 550 mlcloud ceiling zero.

Visibility zerolcloud ceiling zero.
Visibility 2 km/cloud ceiling 300 ft.

O40. For a heavy turbojet aircraft maintaining FL290 the minimum oxygen requirement for crew and
passengers is ?

a.
b.
c.

10 minutes for all passengers and cabin crew, and 30 minutes for flight deck crew on duty.
45 minutes for all passengers, cabin crew, and flight deck crew on duty.
10 minutes for all passengers, and 45 minutes for flight deck crew on duty.

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O41. Given: Twin engine turbojet aircraft greater than 5700 kgNFR operations. which Statement is
most oorrect about the number of attitude indicators required to be fitted and servioeable for this flight
to proceed ?

99-999

One if it's supply source is duplicated.

None.
Two. one of which having a duplicated source of power supply.
Two irrespective of whether or not their source of supply is not duplicated.
One, irrespective of whether or not it's source of supply is not duplicated.

O42. Which statement is most correct about fitting and serviceability of GP\NS to a turbine powered
aircraft over 15, 000 kg, or 10 passengers, on RPT operations?

9.0.5.9

lt can NOT depart if the GPWS is unserviceable.

lt can depart provided the conditions are forecast to be VMC to destination.
lt can depart provided no repair or replacement is possible at the departure airport.
lt can depart an airport where repair/replacement facilities exist but not operate for more
that 24 hours thereafter.

O43. An passenger and freight air service operation between fixed terminals and to a fixed
schedule but aooommodation NOT available to the general public, is classed as ?

Q9579

A RPT operation.
A private operation.
A charter Operation.
A private transportation service.

O44. A turbojet to fly RPT Adelaide to Alice Springs at FL31O with 120 passengers aboard. Which
answer best describes the minimum supply of supplemental oxygen requirements for all the crew
members on flight deck duty ?

a.
b.

c.
d.

e.

15 minutes supply.
45 minutes supply.
Aircraft emergency descent period, or 10 minutes, whichever is the greater amount, if the
aircraft manufacturers flight manual specifies a descent time to 10, O00 ft amsl.
The specified aircraft emergency descent safety period.
The specified aircraft emergency descent safety period. plus 30 minutes.

O45. An aircraft approaching to Iand must be established

meters from ?

a.
b.

c.

on final approach track no later than 500

The runway threshold.

The airport perimeter boundary.
The planned touchdown point.

O46. A heavy turbojet aircraft has arrived overhead its destination airport, which is OCTA It's gross
weight is greater than its maximum landing weight Fuel dumping to reduoe weight is ?

POP?

Not permitted except in an emergency.

Permitted with ATS approval.
Pennitted in other than an emergency, provided it occurs at or above 6, 000 lt AGL.
Permitted at any altitude, at the Captains discretion provided it is not over a populated area.

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Q47. which Statement is most correct regarding timing and headings in a holding pattem to
allow for wind effects ?

a.
b.

c.
d.

Allowances should not be applied, as an |CAO wind maximum was allowed in the design of
the holding pattem.
Allowances should be applied for when OCTA but NOT within CTA.
Allowances should be applied for when in CTA, but NOT when OCTA.
Allowances should be applied whether in CTA or OCTA.

Q48. Given:
o
Twin engine turbojet aircraft greater than 5, 700 kg.
o
Charter operation.
o
Three pilots - all Iicensed as PlC of type.

which answer best describes the maximum ACTIVE tour of duty that can be rostered or this crew ?

FDP-O?!

8 hours
14 hours
12 hours
11 hours
16 hours

Q49. An aircraft certificated for single pilot operations has a 3 axis autopiIot which has automatic
heading and altitude hold functions but you note the yaw damper is unserviceable. The AFM says
this is a permitted unserviceability. Under what conditions may this aircraft be flown IFR RPT with this
unserviceability ?

a.
b.

c.
d.

Provided the altitude hold, and heading hold functions remain serviceable.
If the second control seat is crewed by a pilot with at least private lFR license.
Without any additional requirements.
If the second control seat is crewed by a pilot with at least a PPL.

O50. Simultaneous takeoffs and Iandings are permitted under LAHSO operations 7

51.0579

By day and night with cloud ceiling 1, 000 ft and 5, 000 m visibility or better.
By day and night provided aircraft are notified by ATS of LAHSO ops in progress.
By night only with minimum cloud ceiling 500 ft and visibility 3, 000 m or better.
By day only, with minimum cloud ceiling 1, 000 ft and visibility 5, 000 m or better

End of ATPL Law Exam 1.

Record your answers below then go online to get your exam marked at

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Lawz page |_

Airline Transport Pilot Law

Practice Exam No.2

Number of questions

50

Pass mark 80%

1 mark per question

Q1. Whilst in flight on an all cargo trip in a B757-200PF, the Captain leaves the F.0 at the controls
alone. Quick donning oxygen masks are available. What is the Iowest altltude above which lhe F.0.
is required to use supplemental oxygen during the Captains absence ?

a.
b.

c.
d.

FL420
FL250
FL450
10000 ft

Q2. You become aware of an aircraft defect whilsl on your pre-flight inspection. You must ?

9.0.59

Inform the chief pilot. lt is his responsibility to arrange to have it fixed_

Inform a maintenance engineer but he must be one who is endorsed on your aircraft type.
Inform a maintenance engineer who does not need to be endorsed on your aircraft type.
Enter the details in the maintenance release and sign the entry.

Q3.Which Statement is mCORRECT regarding the ferrying from one licensed airport to another licensed airport of a turbojet aircraft which has an engine operative, and able to confonn to the CAO
perfonnance orders ?

999.79

CASA regional office shall always be advised of the flights itinerary.

Only minimum flight crew shall be carried.
The flight must be operated to VFR when below 1500 ft.
Three and four engine aircraft can be ferried.
Flight into icing conditions is prohibited.

Q4. When advised to conduct a visual approach during daylight hours the PIC shall ?

a.
b.

c.

Not descend below 1000 ft until the aircraft is established on the VASIS.
Follow the route clearance 1owithin 5 km of the airport.
Follow the route clearance until within 5 nm of the airport.

Q5. You are en-route to your destination Perth, where the ATIS indicates an lLS approach will be required. The 75 MHz marker beacon receiver is unserviceable. Which Statement is correct ?

9057!

You must provide for an allernate airport which is above alternate minima.
You must provide for an altemate airport which only need be above landing minima.
You may carry out an ILS approach, provided the aircraft DME is serviceable.
You may not proceed to Perth until the weather improves to above altemale minima.

Q6. lmmediately prior to takeoff. the pilol in command shall ensure that ?

a.
b.

c.

The air data probes are free of ice or frost.

The control surfaces are free of ice or frost.
The aircraft is completely free of ice or frost.

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Lawz Page 2_

Q7. During refuelling operations ?

a.
b.

c.

No passengers are permitted in the aircraft.

Passengers shall not embark or disembark.
AII fuelling equipment shall be earthed to assure the same electrical potential.

Q8. The term ambient conditions describes ?

a.
b.

c.

The values of wind, barometric pressure, and temperature indicated on a current TAF.
The conditions as advised on the airpon ATIS.
The atmospheric temperature pressure, and prevailing wind conditions within the preceding
15 minutes.

Q9. An aircraft is cruising under VFR at 7500 ft outside controlled airspace. Which answer represents
the minimum horizontal distance from cloud ?

a.
b.

c.
d.

e.

5000 m
1500 m

600 m
500 m
1 km

O10. Whilst on the ground what is the minimum distance between the aircraft and persons or equipment if the weather radar antenna is operated in normal mode, assuming attenuating screen NOT
fitted ?
U!

F157

60 metres
37 metres
15 metres
9 metres

O11. You are Iined up for takeoff in a Fokker 50 twin turboprop 50 seat aircraft. The runway Iength is
1750 metres. A Iight aircraft has departed ahead of you. You may not begin the takeoff roll until ?

99.5".

The preceding aircraft is at least 1800 m past your proposed takeoff point.
The preceding aircraft has become airborne.
The preceding aircraft has passed the upwind end of the runway or commenced a turn.
The preceding aircraft is at least 600 m past your proposed takeoff point.

Q12. When cruising at 10 000 f1. the altimeter setting shall be set to ?

a.
b.

c.

1013.2 HPa
Destination QNH
Area QNH

d.

Departure airpon QFE.

Q13. An aircraft has been assigned a SID. This can be cancelled by ATC when ?
579

c.
d.

The pilot first contacts the departures Controller.

The aircraft has 'Iined up on the runway.
The aircraft can be cleared direct to it's first en-route departure airport provided traffic separation is not a problem.
Not below the MVA/LSALT/MSA unless the cloud base is such as to allow flight in VMC by day
up to MVNLSALT/MSA, as appropriate.

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O14. Before acting as PIC of an RPT aircraft on a particular route, a pilot shall ?

a.
b.

c.
d.

Be certified as competent on that route by a CASA examiner.

Have made at least one flight over the route within the previous 12 months as a pilot member
of the operating crew of an aircraft engaged in RPT operations only.
Have made at least one flight over the route, within the last 12 months, as a pilot member of
the operating crew of an aircrafl engaged in any type of operation.
Made at least one Instrument approach at the depanure and destination aerodromes within
the previous 12 months

O15. The term contaminated runway" means ?

a.
A.

A runway that has snow over it's entire Iength.

Water or slush greater than 3mm covering more than 25% of the runway required Iength and
width.

a.

Has any depth of water over 25% or more of it's surface.

O16. A person who is not a member of the ogerating crew of an RPT aircraft may ?

a.
b.

c.
d.

With permission of the Pilot In Command, enter the crew compartment and occupy a vacant
crew operating position.
With the pennission of the Pilot In Command enter the crew comgartment, but must not occupy a vacant crew ogerating gosition.
Not enter the crew compartment, unless the person is authorised to conduct examinations,
inspections or checks of the aircraft, its equipment a member of the operating crew or the
ground Organisation provided for use of the aircraft.
Not enter the crew compartment unless authorised by CASA and approved by the Pilot In
Command (PIC).

O17. How many turn and slip indicators must be fitted and serviceable for a VFR charter flight in the
B737 ?
None.
One, if it has a duplicated power source.
One, whether or not the power source is duplicated.

9519.79

Two, if their power source is not duplicated.

Two, whether or not the power source is duplicated.

O18. Given: PIC of charter flight in a turboprop with MTOW of 17, 500 kg. You have never flown the
route, but you appreciate the specification of the route to be flown, including diversion to alternate,
and are familiar and current on the IFR approach procedure and navaids. Can you act as PIC of this
flight without further provisions ?

a.
b.

Yes

No you need to be route checked first.

O19. Given LSALT for route 5600 ft. Track O70M. The Iowest applicable IFR Ievel at which you may
fly under the IFR is ?

a.
b.

c.

d.

7000 ft.
6000 ft.
7500 fl.
9500 ft

O20. Prior approval from CASA is not required should a pilot wish to drop which of the following
items from an aircraft in flight ?

a.
b.

c.

Buoys into the sea to assist with flshing operations.

Streamers but only from below the IeveI of 1000 ft AGL.

Ballast in the form of fine sand.

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O21. A curved departure is planned should an engine fail at or after "m V1. which Statement is
most correct assuming a Q runway surface ?

a.
b,

c.

The turn can not be commenced until obstacles are cleared by 50 ft.
Bank angle must not be greater than 20 degrees.
Obstacles to be over-flown must be cleared by 35 ft.

O22. Your aircraft has a MTOW of 4000 kg and you wish to conduct a charter operation carrying passengers under the lFR. As Pilot In Command, it is your responsibility to check that aircraft is fitted
with certain serviceable instruments. Which of the following groups of instruments must have a duplicated source of power supply for such a flight?

519579

Heading indicator, turn and slip indicator and two attitude indicators.
Heading indicator, turn and slip indicator and ASI.
Heading indicator, turn and slip indicator and one attitude indicator.
Heading indicator, turn and slip indicator and VSI.

O23. You are on a charter flight in an B737 at FL280. The crews supplemental oxygen supply must
be adequate for the entire time the cabin altitude is above 10000 ft, but in any case you must ensure
that ?

9-9579

There is not less than 45 minutes supply for each flight crew member.
There is not Iess than 45 minutes supply for each flight crew member on flight deck duty.
There is at least a 30 minute supply for each crew member.
There is not less than a 10 minutes supply for each crew member.

O24. A pressurised high capacity turbine engine aircraft operating on international RPT Services lnto
and out of Australia above FL150 under the lFR and operating in CTA, requires which of the following ?

Q9579

An assigned altitude indicator.

An assigned altitude indicator plus a serviceable altitude alerting system.
A serviceable altitude alerting system.
A serviceable radar altimeter.

O25. An ATPL authorises you to act as Pilot In Command of a heavy jet aircraft in which of the following operations ?

a.
b.

c.
d.

e.

International regular public transport operations.

lntemational charter operations.
Domestic regular public transport operations, without special approval.
Domestic operations only.
Any type of operation.

O26. As the holder of an ATPL you may under certain conditions be approved to conduct flights to
enable another ATPL holder lo qualify for an endorsement. To conduct this endorsement training you
must hold a valid licence endorsed .7

5199"!

Vlfith an instructor rating.

For the type of aeroplane used.
WIth a command instrument rating.
Wlth an instructor rating and a command instrument rating.

O27. Survival radio equipment must be carried on a domestic flight when ?

909".

Operating within or through a designated remote area over a distance in excess of 50 NM.
The carriage of Iife jackets is mandatory.
The carriage of life rafts is mandatory.
Not equipped with HF radio.

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Law2 page 5.

O28. You are proceeding through an ADIZ and are intercepted by a military fighter aircraft on your
Ieft. lt then executes an abrupt 90 degree climbing Iefthand turn away from you. What should you
do ?

a.
b.

c.

Follow that aircraft.

Rock your wings and proceed as flight pIanned.
Attempt to contact that aircraft by radio to teII him to stop wasting taxes.

O29. In a heavy jet aircraft with passengers on board one of the conditions under which cargo may
be carried is that it may be Ioaded ?

a.
b.

c.
d.

On an unoccupied control seat if the weight of cargo does not exceed 77 kg, is properiy re
strained and the relevant flight controls are removed.
In the passenger compartment ahead of but never behind the passengers.
In the aisle, but only if the crew members are still able to move freely through the aircraft in an
upright position.
On an unoccupied passenger seat if the weight of the cargo does not exceed 77 kg and is
suitably restrained.

O30. You have just completed endorsement training for a heavy jet aeroplane which includes 5 hours
of flight time ICUS and 5 take-offs and 5 Iandings to a full stop. This training was all completed within
the previous 90 days and you have other aeronautical experience on the aircraft type. The additional
requirements (if any) to allow you to act as Pilot In Command of a charter flight carrying passengers
in this aircraft are best summarised as ?

99.0"?

An additional 45 hours flight time ICUS.

An approved simulator training course of at least 25 hours.
A flight test by an approved person.
There are no additional requirements.

O31. A turbojet aircraft departing an en-route hoIding pattern at FL160 shall do so at what indicated
airspeed ?

a.
b.
C.

d.

210 kt +/- 10 kt
250 kt +/- 10 kt
280 kt +/- 5 kt
180 kt +/- 5 kt

O32. A Machmeter must be fitted and operable in which types of aircraft ?

99.579

AII turbine powered aircraft capable of indicated airspeeds over 250 kt.
AII turbojet aircraft.
AII turbojet aircraft operating RPT or charter .
Turbojet aircraft where Iimitations are expressed as a Mach number.

O33. The minimum NET climb gradient for a twin engine turboprop aircraft certificated in the Commuter Category with one engine failed, in the second segment must be ?

a.
b.

c.

1.6%
Positive
1.2%

O34. Having commenced tour of duty in two crew operation of 10 hours, the flight is delayed due to
an unserviceabi|ity and extends to 12.5 hours. Assuming no other Iimitations app|y and the rest period wiII embrace 2200 hrs and 0600 hrs Iocal time, the minimum rest period foIIowing this tour is ?

99-9579

15 hours
24 hours
16 hours
12 hours
10 hours

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O35. A holding pattem limitation specifies a Iimit of 20 DME. At what point on the outbound Ieg of the
pattern, should a turn to intercept the inbound Ieg occur '?

a.
b.

c.
d.

Up to but not exceeding 20 DME.

Before reaching 20 DME.
At such position to allow the aircraft not to exceed 20
Not before reaching 20 DME.

DMEduring the inbound turn.

O36. Given: Pressurised turbojet, IFR ops in CTA. Which answer is most correct regarding the provision of an operable altitude alerting system. and assigned altitude indicator ?

5951957!

An assigned altitude indicator only is required.

An altitude alerting system is required if not fitted with an assigned altitude indicator.
An assigned altitude indicator is required if it does NOT have an altitude alerting system.
An altitude alerting system is required.
An assigned altitude indicator, and an altitude alerting system are both required.

O37. Some requirements of a Ioad sheet if MTOW 6, 000 kg are best summed up by 7

a.
b.

c.
d.

They must be signed by the pilot in command.

Each Operation must have an individual Ioad sheet, even if the route/Ioad are unchanging on

consecutive flights.
The Operator must retain a copy for 6 months after the relevant flight.
ln the case of RPT operations, a copy of the Ioad sheet is retained on the ground at the depar-

ture airport.

O38. You are the PIC of an RPT turbojet that is parked at the terminal gate. Both engines are operating due an APU bleed duct fault. Which statement is most correct regarding Ioading operations ?

a.
b.

c.
d.

e.

Freight may be Ioaded or unloaded without restriction provided the wheels are chocked.
Freight must NOT be Ioaded under any circumstances while the engines are running.
Passengers can NOT embark or disembark under any circumstances.
Passengers may embark or disembark without any restfictions or briefing provided the wheel
chocks are in place.
Passengers may embark or disembark, provided they have been adequately briefed on how
to avoid injury from the operating engines.

O39. In-flight and under radar ATS guidance, you are instructed to turn onto a new heading.
You must 7

a.

Commence the turn at rate one or standard rate for the aircraft immediately on receiving the

b.

Commence the turn within 1 minute, at the standard rate for the aircraft immediately on receiv-

c.

Commenoe the turn at rate one or standard rate for the aircraft within 30 seconds of receiving

instructlon.

ing the instruction.

the instruction.

O40. Before acting as PIC of a heavy turbojet aircraft in RPT operations, you must ?

a.
b.

c.
d.

Have made at least one flight over the proposed route within the previous 30 days or have
completed a flight review by a CASA operations inspector within the previous 6 months.
Have flown the route at least once before in your flying career as PIC or First Officer.
Have oonducted at least one instrument approach at the departure and destination airports
within the previous 12 calendar months.
Have fiown the proposed route as a pilot crew member of an operating crew within the previous 12 months.

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O41. what is the maximum number of passengers that may be canied on a light turboprop twin engine aircraft certified for single pilot operations assuming IFR RPT ?

9057.

9 passengers under all circumstances.

11 passengers, provided they are all adults.
11 passengers, provided no more than 2 are infants or children.
11 passengers, provided at least 2 are either children or infants.

O42. Under what condition may you as pilot of an IFR flight be authorised to conduct a visual approach to a primary oontrol zone ?

a.
b.

c.

When you specifically request such.

Only after the flight has advised ATS of changing from IFR to VFR flight rules.
When flight oonditions become such that the pilot can report visual.

O43. Your aircraft is required to have on-board two serviceable altimeters. Assuming you have submitted an IFR flight plan that altimeter # 1 reads 40 ft in error, and altimeter #2 reads 70 ft in error,
which Statement is most correct ?

A.
B.

C.

The flight to the destination can not proceed.

The flight may proceed to the destination, where a second aitimeter check is required.
The flight to the destination and all subsequent flights can proceed provided the errors do not
increase.

O44. Destination airport eievation is 1500 ft amsl. You set destination QNH at 1023 HPa at FL110
during descent and join the circuit at an indicated altitude of 2500 ft. lf the QNH was in fact 1013
HPa, what would your height be on downwind ?

9-99?

700 ft
1300 fl
1000 ft
2500 ft

O45. Minimum vertical distance from cloud if VFR beiow 10 000 ft in class G airspace is ?

a.
b.

c.
d.

500 ft below, 1000 ft above.

1000 fl below, 500 fi above.
500 ft below or above cloud.
1000 ft above or below cloud, unless below 3000 ft or 1000 ft AGL.

O46. Which of the following answers best represents the instruments which must have a dupiicated
source of power supp|y assuming your operation is IFR passenger charter and a twin engine turbine
powered aircraft with a MTOW of 4800 kg ?

99.579

Tum and slip, plus heading indicator, Machmeter VSI and altimeters.
Tum and slip, heading indicator, plus VSI.
Tum and slip, heading indicator and both attitude indicators.
Tum and slip, heading indicator and one attitude indicator.

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Law2 page 8.

O47. In class C controlled airspace which statement is most correct ?

a.
b.

c.

You must maintain your own Separation from all other aircraft in the zone.
ATC will separate you from IFR traffic but never VFR traffic.
ATC provide Separation between special VFR flights IFR to IFR, and IFR to VFR flights.

O48. Given IFR RPT flight. Which Statement best represents SARWATCH '?

a.
b.

c.

If Ianding at a CTAFR, the pilot may only cancel sarwatch after Ianding.
lf Ianding at an airport with a control service, you must cancel your sarwatch.
When inbound to an intermediate airport doubt exists as to the continued ability to communicate by radio the pllot may nominate a sartime for departure.

O49. Having just completed a 12 hour tour of duty in an aircraft with a crew of 3 pilots. that is fitted
with approved crew rest seats you contemplate the minimum rest period required before the next
tour of duty can be commenced. lt is 7

a.
b,

c.

After 24 hrs
After 12 hours
After 14 consecutive hours.

O50. Which answer is NOT correct about the availability of special alternate minima ?

a.
b.

c.

lt is available if the HIRL is NOT available.

lt is NOT available if the METAR/SPECl service is NOT provided.
lt continues to be available when the airport control service is NOT provided.

End of ATPL Law Exam 2.

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ATPL Lawpage 1.

Airline Transport Pilot Law

Practice Exam No.3

Number of questions
Q1. A condition relating

9.0.59

50.

Pass mark 80%

1 mark per question.

to the carriage of an animal in a passenger class aircraft is that it ?

must never be carried.

shall never be carried in the passenger cabin.
may onIy be carried in the passenger cabin if carried in a suitable Container.
may be carried in the cargo compartment if carried in a suitable Container.

Q2. How many flight attitude indicators are required to be serviceable for a VFR charter flight in a
heavy jet aeroplane?

Q0579

none
One
Two
three

Q3. Following the failure of the critical engine at V1 the gradient of the net flight gath to be
achieved by a non-commuter twin engine jet aircraft with the gear fully retracted must be at least 7

0.8%
1.2%
1.6%
99.0"!

2.4%

Q4. If you experience failure of the critical engine during cruise in VMC and a drift down technique is
required to maintain obstacle cIearance then the net flight path of the aircraft must be clear by ?

a.
b.
C.

d.

1000 feet vertically, all obstacles within 5 nm. plus 20% of the air distance flown since the
last positive fix, of the aeroplane's track.
2000 feet vertically, all obstacles within 10 nm of the aeroplanes track.
2000 feet vertically, all obstacles within 5 nm of the aeroplane's track.
1000 feet venically, all obstacles within 5 nm of the aeroplane's track.

Q5. In flight, segrate safeg hamess seat belts must be wom by ?

9.0.55

all occupants of an aircraft, including Infants and children, during take off and landing.
at least one pilot crew member at all times during flight.
at least two flight crew members when an electronic type automatic pilot is engaged.
all flight crew members, but not passengers during an instrument approach.

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Q6. The conditions required to maintain VMC (not special VMC) when flying in an aeroplane below
l0 000 ft AMSL in class "C" airspaoe are require a flight visibility of ?

F7.

51.0

5000 m with 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from cloud.
8 km with 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from cloud.
5000 m with 600 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from cloud.
8 km with 2000 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from cloud.

Q7. You note on the ERC that the planned flight passes near the boundary of an area marked R644
6000 FL 150 H24. Flight through this area is ?

9.0.79

not permitted in any circumstances.

permitted only with prior perrnission.
perrnitted at the pilots discretion.
permitted only if conducted above A060.

Q8. While operating under IFR in Australia FlR within oontrolled airspace you ?

9-9975

must cruise with standard pressure set on your altimeter at all Ievels.
need not oomply with the appropriate table of cruising Ievels if cruising below 5000 ft amsl.
need not oomply with the appropriate table of cruising Ievels if cruising below 5000 ft VMC.
need not comply with the appropriate table of cruising Ievels if approved by ATC.

Q9. When flying in CTA any change of Ievel must be ?

a.
b.

c.
d.

commenced within one minute of receiving an instruction from ATC. unless a Iatter time is
specified.
made at a rate of not less than 500 fpm except that the last 1000 ft of Ievel change must be
made at 500 fpm.
commenced immediately on receipt of the instruction unless a latter time is specified.
made at the standard rate.

O10. You are cmising OCTA and you sight a slower aircraft directly ahead at the
and on the same track. To overtake this aircraft you must ?

a.
b.

c.
d.

same cruising Ievel

alter heading to the left.

climb to pass above the other aircraft.
alter heading to the right.
descend to pass underneath the other aircraft.

011. While cruising OCTA you sight an aeroplane converging head on from the left and note that
the relative bearing of the other aircraft remains constant. Your action should be to ?

a.
b.

c.
d.

tum to pass behind the other aeroplane.

tum to the right.
maintain Ievel and heading but be prepared to take to take avoiding action if necessary.
descend to pass underneath.

012. At what point on a descent, after cruising at a flight Ievel within Australien FlR's should the altimeter setting be changed to the area or destination QNH?

a.
b.

c.
d.

immediately on commencing descent.

at the transition Ievel.
at 10000 feet.
at 5000 feet

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ATPL Law3 Page 3

013. On completing a tour of duty you note that the total flight time was 8 hours and 50 minutes. If
the previous day was a rest day, which of the following constitutes a minimum acceptable rest period
before commencing the next tour of duty?

a.
b.
c.
d.

13 hours, embracing the hours between 10pm and 6am.

9 hours, embracing the hours between 10pm and 6am.
12 hours, embracing the hour between 10pm and 6am.
24 hours.

C114. On completion of a flight and return home to base you suffer an illness that prevents you exercising the privileges of your licence for 8 days. Under what conditions may you resume flying ?

9-9579

only after passing an ATPL medical renewal with an approved medical practitioner.
as soon as you consider that you have recovered.
after a designated medical practitioner has certified you have recovered from the illness.
only after approval has been granted by CASA.

Q15. During the flight in a pressurised heavy jet aeroplane carrying passengers, only one flight crew
member is seated at that controls. If quick donning type oxygen masks are avaiIabIe then the flight
altitude above which the pilot is required to use supplemental oxygen is ?

9.9579

I0 000 ft
FL45O
FL250
FL410

016. In a Saab 340 turboprop aircraft with cabin attendants and passengers on board, one of the
conditions under which cargo Ioading into the passenger compartment can take place is ?

a.
b.

c.
d.

lt must only be Ioaded ahead of the occupied passenger seats, and in such a way as to permit
movement of the cabin crew in an upright posture.
lt must only be Ioaded behind the occupied passenger seats and in such a way as to permit
movement of the cabin crew in an upright posture.
lt can be Ioaded in an unoccupied pilot control seat, provided it does not exceed 77 kg, and it
is properly restrained from movement in flight, and the relevant flight controls are removed.
lt can be Ioaded on an unoccupied passenger seat, must not exceed 77 kg. and is propedy re-

strained.

O17. What is the maximum distance at which a heavy CAO20.7.1b compliant non-EROPS twin jet
aeroplane may be operated from Iand without being required to carry Iife rafts if the true airspeed is
390 kt?

9-9579

780 nm
50 nm
400 nm
120 nm

O18. For aeroplanes engaged in international operations. forecast oonditions of temperature and
pressure may be used to determine Ianding weight Iimitations at the destination if made within a
maximum period of '?

a.
b.
c.
d.

1 hour of ETA at the destination aerodrome.

2 hours of ETA at the destination aerodrome.
1 hour of ATD from the departure aerodrome.
2 hours of ATD form the depanure aerodrome.

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Am

L3 P393 4-

019. When is an Emergency Locator Beacon NOT required to be carried ?

99.0".

When caniage of Iife rafts is not required.

When a flight is to be conducted wholly within a 50 nm radius of the departure airport.
When an aircraft is not operating in a "designated remote area".
Whenever an aircraft is fitted with an operable HF radio.

020. For an RPT turboprop aircraft Ianding at an airport that is NOT an altemate, the demonstrated
LDR to bring the aircraft to a stop on a wet runway is factored ?

9.9.79

Up by 15%
Up by 43%
Down by 67%
Up by 67%

G21. Under what conditions may a flight operating under day IFR be authorised to make a visual approach to a destination within a primary control zone?

a.
b.

c.
d.

an IFR category flight is not pennitted to make a visual approach.

when within 30 nm of destination airport, clear of cIoud in sight of Iand or water visibility 5000
m or greater. to the circling area.
only if the pilot requests such an approach.
only if the flight is changed to VFR procedures.

G22. After cruising under IFR at FL250 you intend to descend to a Iower cruising Ievel. If this descent
is to take place OCTA then which of the following will apply?

a.

9-99

the rate of descent must not be Iess than 500 fpm exoept that the last 1000 feet must be made
at 500 fpm.
descent must be commenced within 1 minute of notification of intention to change Ievel.
IAS must not exceed 250 kt between 5000 feet and 10000 feet.
IAS must not exceed 220 kt between 6000 feet and 14000 feet.

Q23. A curved departure is planned should an engine fail

most correct assuming a g runway surface ?

at or after W_et V1". Which

Statement is

a. Bank angle may be greater than 15 degrees.

b. Obstacles to be over-flown must be cleared by 35 fl.
c. The net flight path may clear Obstacles during a tum by Iess than 50 feet.
Q24. Assuming a heavy twin engine turbojet aircraft suffers an engine failure whilst in the cruise to
destination, what is the minimum climb gradient if any required at 1, 500 ft above the destination or
nominated altemate airports ?

51.0.3!

3.2% at destination/2.1% at nominated altemate.

Must be able to maintain height at either destination or nominated altemate.
Must have a positive slope at the destination or nominated altemate.
2.1% at both destination and nominated altemate.

O25. "Major Defects" or "Major Damage" on an Australian airoraft is found by you as the pilot. Which
answer best desctibes the action must you take ?

a.
b.

c.

No action is required, provided it is a perrnitted unserviceability.

You need only ensure that such defects are written in the maintenance release, and state
that the maintenance release has effect subject to certain conditions.
The aircrafi can not be flown, unless the Operator, certificate of registration holder, or authorised maintenance personnel, endorse the aircraft as fit to fly, and subject to whatever operating oonditions as may then apply.

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ATPL Lau page 5.

O26. Which Statement is most correct about who is authorised to carry out maintenance on a Class
"A" Australian registered aircraft ?

a.
b.

c.

Only a licensed Aeronautical engineer.

An Aeronautical engineer who is licensed or otherwise.
A pilot. providing those items are within the aircraffs approved system of maintenance.

O27. Which Statement is most correct about who is authorised to carry out maintenance on
Class "B" Australian registered aircraft ?

a.
b.

c.
d.

Only a licensed aeronautical engineer (LAME).

Only an Aeronautical engineer who is licensed or otherwise.
A student pilot, or higher Iicence IeVeI providing those items are within the aircrafts approved

system of maintenance.
A person being the holder of a pilot Iicence (excluding a student pilot Iicence), and then only in
those items approved by the applicable CASA maintenance schedule.

O28. Maintenanoe to the fuel control unit on a high "High Capacity Turbine" engine aircraft has been
carried out, and a flight at high altitude is required to perform a test. In this case ?

a.
b.

c.

Only the flight crew are permitted to be on board.

Only the flight crew, and engineering staff are permitted to be on board.
You can carry passengers to the next destination whilst canying on such tests en-route.

O29. As PIC of a class A aircraft you have entered a "major defect' into the aircraft maintenance release. The defect is a permitted unserviceability is the aircraft's pennitted unserviceability schedule.
What is the effect of this entry on the validity of the aircraft maintenance release ?

A.
B.
C.
D.

The maintenance release remains valid provided it is countersigned by a LAME.

The maintenance release is no Ionger valid.
The maintenance release remains valid subject to any conditions specified in the pennitted unserviceability schedule.
The maintenance release remains valid without any conditions.

O30. You discover a "Major Defect" on an Australian registered aircraft, which effects the control system. Which answer is most correct ?

9-9579

You must infonn CASA immediateIy or as soon as possible.

You must inform CASA within 24 hours.
You must inform CASA within 48 hours.
You must infonn CASA within 7 working days.

O31. Which answer best describes who can endorse a permitted unserviceability ?

a.
b.
c,

The piiot in command, but no other flight crew.

The Operator, licensed and authorised maintenance personnel, but not a flight crew member,
The Operator, licensed and authorised maintenance personnel, or a flight crew member.

O32. Regarding windshield clear Vision equipment, which statement is most oorrect ?

a.
b.

c.

All aircraft must carry approved clear Vision equipment,

All fixed wing aircraft weighing 5700 kg and greater must be fitted with approved clear Vision
equipment
Those fixed wing aircraft up to and INCLUDING 5700 kg, are exempt from rriageof approved clear Vision equipment, provided evidence can be produced to the Secretary, that the
windshieids has been designed in such a manner that moderate rain conditions do not unduly
impair the View of the flight path both in normal flight and during takeoff or Ianding.

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O33. Regarding the carriage of a guide in an aircraft passenger cabin which answer is correct ?

a.
b.

c.

A guide dog may never be perrnitted to be carried in an aircraft passenger cabin.

A guide dog may be carried in an aircraft passenger cabin. under certain oonditions.
A guide dog may be perrnitted to be carried in an aircraft passenger cabin., provided it is in a
suitable Container, and is muzzled.

O34. Under which of the conditions Iisted may you fly below 500 ft AGL ?

a.
b.

c.

When flying over a regatta or such public gathering for the purposes of aerial photography.
When transiting from one airport to another.
Because the cloud base is Iow, and you need to stay "visuaI".

O35. Regarding carriage of fireanns. Which answer is correct ?

a.
b.

c.

Fireanns can never be carried in an aircraft.

Firearrns may be carried provided the aircraft is NOT engaged in Charter or RPT operations.
A flight crew member or other permitted person may cany a firearm on board an aircraft, provided that aircraft is involved in Charter or RPT operations.

O36. Which statement is correct regarding documents to be carried in an aircraft involved during
general flying (GF) within Australian Territory (domestic ops) ?

a.
b.

c.
d.

Certificate's of registration and airworthiness must be carried.

radio Iicence must be carried.
A manifest of names of those passengers carried. including place of embarkation and destination must be carried.
Maintenance reIease aircrew Iicences flight manual.

O37. An aircraft approaching from the Ieft is on an apparent collision course with your aircraft. Who
has the final responsibility to take avoiding action ?

a.
b.

c.
d.

The aircraft on the Ieft.

The aircraft on the right.
Both pilots.
Neither pilot.

O38. You are one of three captains rostered to fly a Charter Operation in a B737 aircraft. The maximum "ACTIVE" Tour of Duty that you be rostered for is ?

A.

B.
C.
D.

11 hours.
12 hours.
14 hours.
18 hours.

O39. You beoome visual at the circling minima during a circling approach. The Non-Towered aerodrome circuit directions for both mnways are Ieft-hand. May a right-hand tum onto downwind be
flown ?

a.
b.

c.

No, not under any circumstances.

Yes but only during the day.
Yes, at any time of day or night.

O40. A DeHaviIland Dash 8 turboprop aircraft is required to carry weather radar .7

a
b.

c.
d

On Charter operations only within Australian FIR's.

RPT operations onIy within Australian FlRs
Charter or RPT operations but only when outside Australian FIR's.
RPT or charter operation when within or outside the Australian FIR's.

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ATPL Law3 page 7.

O41. Which statement is most correct regarding the reporting of incidents (RRM) or accidents
(IRM) ?

9-959

The Operator must infonn the ATSB in writing within 24 hours of the incident (lRM).
lncidents (RRM) do not need reporting, but accidents (IRM) do.
An RRM must be reported within 24 hours or less incidents within 48 hours.
An IRM must be reported by telephone as soon as reasonably practicaI and in wnting within
72 hours.

O42. What is the minimum clearance from cloud for VMC. OCTA, at 5000 ft amsl ?

a.
b.

c.

600 metres horizontally, 500 ft above or below.

1.5km horizontaIIy 1000 fl above or below.
1.5 km horizontally, and 500 ft above, 1000 ft below.

O43. You have just oompleted fuel loading operations of your Saab 340 turboprop aircraft.
A fuel tanker is parked in a position 20 metres behind. Which statement is most correct ?

a.
b.

c.

You must not start the engines.

You can start the engine but use taxi power only.
You may start the engines but not taxi until the tanker has been moved away.

O44. Whilst in the cruise you observe another aircraft directly ahead at the same level and apparently on the same track. To overtake, you ?

a.
b.

c.

Must pass on the left of that aircraft.

Alter heading to the right.
Climb or descend as you think most appropriate.

O45. When planning a charter flight in a B737 turbojet aircraft, a tour of duty in excess of 11 hours
may be undertaken when ?

a.
b.

c.

A flight crew of three pilots is rostered. and two of them can act as pilot in command.
Under no circumstances irrespective of flight crew number.
The tour of duty does not exceed 12 hours.

O46. A three pilot B777 flight crew has just oompleted a tour of duty of 20 hours. After the minimum
specified rest period, which answer best represents the maximum period of active duty in a 3 person
crew, that can be rostered for the ensuing tour of duty ?

a.
b.

c.
d.

e.

16 hours
9 hours

12 hours
18 hours
14 hours

O47. An Australian ATPL licenoe, without special CASA perrnission entitles you to act in the role of
pilot in oommand of a BAe 146 four engine turbojet aircraft ?

a.
b.

c.

In RPT and heavy jet charter on international and domestic operations only.
In all classes of operation other than international RPT.
In all classes of operation including international RPT or charter.

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G48. An aircrafl is required by Iaw to have on board a servioeable Flight Data Reoorder (FDR) and a
servioeable Cockpit Voice Reoorder (CVR). If the FDR is found to be unservioeable then ?
A.

B
C.

The flight can not depan under any circumstanoes.

The flight may depart, though it may not operate on any sector where there is oonvective turbulence forecast.
The flight may be operated for up to 21 days afier the fault was initially reoognised subject to

certain oonditions.
The flight may depan but only if it is involved solely in test or training flights.

O49. Which answer best describes the maximum distanoe from land that a twin engine Airbus A320
EROPS (EDTO) certificated aircraft can operate without Iife rafts aboard ?

9.9.5!

120 minutes or 400 nm. whichever is the Iesser.

30 minutes, or 100 nm whichever is the Iesser.
30 minutes, or 100 nmwhichever is the greater.
50 nm.

O50. Which answer best represents the minimum requirements regarding the power supply to the
attitude indicators fitted to a high capacity IFR RPT turbo-jet aircraft unIess exempted in the aircraft
flight manual permitted unserviceability list ?
A.
B.

C.

Two attitude indicators each powered by it's own power supply system.
Three attitude indicators each powered by ifs own power supply system.
Three attitude indicators two of which may be powered by one a single power supply system.

End of ATPL Law Exam 3.

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CAO 20.2/vage 1.

CAO 20.2 Quiz Module

Air service operations

safety precautions before flight.

Q1. Which people can NOT remove control Iocks prior to flight ?

A.
B.
C.
D.

An authorised ground engineer.

The Pilot in command
The Co-pilot.
Any person provided helshe displays the devices to the pilot in command after removal,

Q2. One proviso where Iocking pins are removed by a person other than the pilot in command, or eopilot is that ?

P7159751?

They must be endorsed as flight crew on that model of aircraft.

They must be a licensed aircrafl maintenance engineer.
They must be a licensed aircrafl maintenanoe engineer endorsed on that aircraft
The Iocking devices must be displayed to the flight crew.
The Iocking devices must be displayed to the pilot in command.

Q3. At which time must all oontrols be checked for full and free movement ?

A.
B.

C.

Before engine statt.

Immediately before taxiing.
Immediately before takeoff.

Q4. Doors and hatches must be confinned by who/how ?

A.
B.
C.

Physical on-site inspectionlby the Pilot in Command.

Physical onsite inspectionlby the CoPilot or Pilot in Command.
Physical on-site inspection or instmment indications/by the Pilot in Command.

Q5. Unless the aircraft manufacturer specifies otherwise, tests for the presence of water shall be
done ?

A.
B.

C.

Prior to every domestic flight.

Prior to every flight that is prooeeding "0VERWATER'.
Prior to first flight of the day and after any re-fuelling.

End of CAO 20.2 Quiz Module.

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CAO20AIpa9e1.

CAO 20.4 Quiz Module

PROVISION AND USE OF OXYGEN AND PROTECTIVE BREATHING EQUIPMENT

Q1. A pressurised air canier jet aircrafi is about to depan. lt will be cruising at FL340. The passengers must be briefed on requirements for and use of oxygen equipment before ?

A.
B.
C.
D.

The aircraft begins it's takeoff run.

The aircrafl begins taxiing.
The aircraft reaches FL140.
The aircraft reaches FL250.

Q2. A flight crew member who is on flight deck duty in an unpressurised aircraft must be provided
with and continually use, supplemental oxygen at all times during which the aircraft is above ?

A
B.
C.

10000 f1.
FL120
FL250
FL140

Q3. An unpressurised air transport aircraft is to cruise at FL110. What is the maximum time period in
the cruise without cabin attendants requiring continuous supplemental oxygen ?

A.

Unrestficted.

B.

30 minutes.
45 minutes.
15 minutes.

C.
D.

Q4. Above which FL must cabin attendants continually use suppiemental oxygen assuming the aircrafl is not pressurised ?

A.
B.
C.
D.

10000 fi
FL140
FL110
FL120

Q5. Supplemental oxygen must be used by flight deck crew members when the cabin altitude exceeds ?

A.
B.
C.
D.

10000 ft
FL120
FL140
FL250

Q6. By definition a High Capacity aircraft is one that is ?

A
B.
C.

Carrying 38 or more passengers.

ls able to carry more than 38 passengers.
Is able to cany 38 people or more. whether they by crew or passengers.

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CAO 20.4Ipage 2.

Q7. A pressurised high capacity" transport aircraft will be operated up to FL350 during the flight sector. In this case the minimum supplemental oxygen supply for flight deck crew members must not be

Iess than ?

A.
B.
C.
D.

45 minutes.
30 minutes.
30 minutes Ionger than the emergency descent safety period.
10 minutes.

Q8. A pressurised high capacity aircraft is NOT fitted with quick-donning oxygen masks". In this
case continuous supplemental oxygen is required ?

A.
B.
C.
D.

By both pilots all of the time above 10000 ft cabin altitude.

By both pilots if the aircraft operates above FL250.
By at least one pilot if the aircraft operates above FL250.
By one pilot if the aircraft operates above FL450.

Q9. A pressurised high capacity aircraft 5 fitted with quick-donning oxygen masks". In this case
continuous supplemental oxygen is required ?

A.

B.
C.
D.

By both pilots aII of the time.

By both pilots if the aircraft operates above FL250.
By at least one pilot if the aircraft operates above FL250.
By at least one pilot if the aircraft operates above FL450.

Q10. A pressurised aircraft that is to be operated above Flight Level 250 must carry an amount of
supplemental oxygen that is sufficient to provide each passenger with at least ?

A.
B.
C.

A 10 minute supply of oxygen.

A 15 minute supply of oxygen.
A 45 minute supply of oxygen.

Q11. With regard to first aid oxygen for passengers where a pressurised aircraft will operate above
FL250 with two pilots required, a sufficient quantity is deemed to be ?

A.

For 10% of the passengers 1% of the time.

B.

1% of the passengers for the time the aircraft will be above FL250.

C.

1% of the passengers for the planned flight time.

Q12. In a pressurised aircraft required to be crewed by two or more pilots, each pilot must have protective breathing equipment providing protective oxygen for each flight deck crew member providing
of at least ?

A.

10 minutes.

B.

15 minutes.

C.

20 minutes

End of CAO 20.4 Quiz Module.

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CAO 20.4/page 3.

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CAO20.7.1bmod ilpage 1.

CAO 20.7.1b Module 1 Quiz

Takeoff and Climb Performance.

Q1. Minimum NET gradient of climb for a twin engine turbojet aircraft NOT certificated in the
commuter category, with one engine inoperative in the first segment must be 7
(Refer CAO 20.7.1b, para 7.2 and 7.5)

A. 2.4%
B. 1.6%
C. positive.
Q2. Minimum NET gradient of climb for a three engine turbojet aircraft NOT cettificated in the
commuter category, with one engine inopemtive in the second segment must be ?

(Refer CAO 20.7.1b, para 7.2 and 7.5)

A. positive

B. 2.7%

C. 1.8%
Q3. Minimum GROSS gradient available for a four engina turbojet aircraft NOT certificated in
the commuter category, with one engine inoperative in the thind segment must be ?
(Refer CAO 20.7.1b, para 7.3.2)

A. 1.5%
B. 0.5%
C. positive
Q4. Minimum GROSS climb gradient for a twin engine turboprop aircraft certificated in the
commuter category, with one engine failed, in the second segment must be ?
(Refer CAO 20.7.1b, para 7.2a)

A. 2%
B. 1.6%
C. Positive
Q5. By definition the first segment climb ? (Refer CAO 20.7.1b, para 7.2)

A. Begins at VR and ends at 400 ft above the takeoff surface.

B. Begins at VR, and ends when the Ianding gear retraction begins.
C. Begins at 35 ft AGL, and ends when the Ianding gear is fully retracted.
Q6. By definition the second segment ends ? (Refer CAO 20.7.1b, para 7.3.1)
A 400 ft above mean sea Ievel.
B. 400 ft above the takeoff surface.
C. At a minimum of 400 ft above the takeoff surfaoe.

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O7. By definition the third segment ends ? (Refer CAO 20.7.1b, para 7.3.2 and 7.4.1)
A. When the Ianding gear is fully retracted.
B. When 1500 ft above the takeoff surface is reached.
C. When the flaps up final takeoff climb speed is reached.
Q8. Assuming one of the four engines fitted is inoperative, in the en-mute configuration existing at the end of the level flight acceleration manoeuvre, the aeroplane must be able to
achieve a NET gradient of climb of at least ? (Refer CAO 20.7.1b para 7.4.1, 7.4.2 and 7.5)

A. 1.5%
B. 0.9%
C. 0.5%
O9. The en-route climb segment may begin 7 (Refer CAO 20.7.1b para 7.4.1, and 7.4.2)

A. On reaching 400 ft above the takeoff surface.

B. When the aircraft has achieved flaps up final climb speed.
C. When the aircraft reaches 1500 ft above the takeoff surface.
O10. In the en-route climb segn1ent a three engine aircraft with t y g engines failed the reduction from the demonstrated climb gradient is reduced by what factor to find net climb gradient ? (Refer CAO 20.7.1b para 8.2 and 8.3)
A. 0.4%

B. 0.3%
C. There is no reduction to apply.
O11. Undercarriage retraction is compIete and flap is at takeoff position and power is at
takeoff setting and speed is V2. What is the minimum g
gradient of climb that must be
achieved by a twin engine aircraft 1g certificated in the commuter category in this segment 7 (Refer CAO 20.7.1b, para 7.2.2, and para 7.5)

P9517?

2.4 %
1.6 %
2.7 %
1.9 %

O12. The planned flight to the engine failure altemate involves IMC and a positive flight
path" in the en-route configuration. In this case ?
(Refer CAO 20.7.1b para 12.4)

A. AII obstacles within 5 nmmust be cleared by 2000 ft vertically.

B. AII obstacles with 5 nm or navaid accuracy Iimits must be cleared by 1000 ft vertically.
C. AII obstacles with 5 nm or navaid accuracy Iimits must be cleared by 2000 f! vertically.
O13. The planned flight to the engine fallure alternate involves IMC and a positive flight
path" is NOT possible in the en-route configuration. In this case ?
(Refer CAO 20.7.1b para 12.5)
A. AII obstacles within 5 nm must be cleared by 2000 ft vertically.
B. AII obstacles with 5 nmor navaid aocuracy Iimits must be cleared by 1000 ft vertically.
C. AII obstacles with 5 nm or navaid accuracy Iimits must be cleared by 2000 ft vertically.

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O14. On arrival at the engine failure altemate, the flight path ? (Refer CAO 20.7.1b para 12.6)

A. Must be positive at the runway threshold crossing height (TCH).

B. Can be negative provided the reported weather conditions are above alternate minima.
C. Must be positive 1500 ft above the airport elevation.
O15. A curved departure is planned should an engine fail at or after Q1 V1. Which stetement is most correct assuming a d3 runway surface ? (Refer CAO 20.7.1b para 12)

A. Bank angle must not be greater than 20 degrees.

B. Obstacles to be over-flown must be cleared by 35 ft.
C. The tum can not be commenced until obstacles are cIeared by 50 ft.

O16. A curved departure is planned should an engine fail at or after fit V1". Which statement is most correct, assuming a Lt runway surface ? (Refer CAO 20.7.1b para 12)
A. Bank angle may be greater than 15 degrees.
B. Obstacles to be over-flown must be cleared by 35 ft.
C. The net flight path may clear obstacles during a tum by less than 50 feet.
Q17. Minimum NET climb gradient for a twin engine turboprop aircraft certificated in the
Commuter Category," with one engine failed, in the second Segment must be ?
(Refer CAO 20.7.1b para 7.2 and 7.5)

A. 2%
B. 1.6%
C. Positive
D 1.2%

End of CAO 20.7.1b Module 1 Quiz.

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CAO 20.7.1b mod 2.

CAO 20.7.1b Module 2 Quiz

Approach and Landing Performance.

a twin engine aircraft {hat has the critical engine

inoperative whal is the minimum rate of climb required, assuming niI wind, speed maximum for this
manoeuvre, and a VS1 stail speed of 100 kt?
Q1. In the approach climb configuration, with

A. 225fpm
B. 315fpm
C. 415 fpm
Q2. In the Ianding climb configuration, with a three engine aircraft {hat has all engines operating,
what is the minimum rate of climb required, assuming niI wind, speed maximum for this manoeuvre,
and a VSO stall speed of 120 kt?

A. 360 fpm
B. 500 fpm
C. 415fpm
Q3. Which statement is most correct regarding the factors applied to the demonstrated Ianding
distance ?

A. For an aircrafl in the RPT jet category, a factor of 1.43 is built in to the Ianding graphs at
destination and at an alternate airporl irrespective of whether the runway is wet or dry.
B. For an aircraft in the charter turboprop category, a factor of 1.67 is built in to the Ianding graphs
at destination and 1.43 at an alternate airpon ifthe runways are dry.
C. For a turboprop aircraft a factor of 1.67 is built in to the Ianding graphs at destination whose
runway is wet, and 1.43 at an alternate airport.
Q4. Which Statement is most correct regarding the Ianding distance required as applied to Ianding
graphs ?

A. lt assumes a threshold height/speed of 35fl/1.3VSO, no reverse thrust and head tail/wind as

reported.

B. lt assumes no reverse thrust, a speed of 1.3 VSO at threshoId and 50% of reported headwind,
150% of reported tailwind.
C. lt assumes niI wind, a threshold height/speed of 50 ft/1.3 VSO, and all means of retardation are
available.

Q5. The term contaminated runway"could be applied to a runway where ?

F?

There is 3mm or more of water or slush covering 25% or more of the entire runway length.
There is 20mm or more of compacted snow, ice or wet ice covering 25% or more of the runway
length.

C. There is more than 3mm of water covering more than 25% of the required runway Iength (LDR).
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Q6. Which statement is most oorrect regarding the application of mnway sIope" in assessing
takeoff or Ianding distance required ?

A. Slope must be applied to takeoff distance and ASDR, but may be disregarded in assessing LDR
if it is less than 1%.
B. Slope must be applied to takeoff distance and ASDR, but may be disregarded in assessing LDR
unless it is greater than 1%.
C. Slope need NOT be applied when assessing takeoff distance, ASDR and LDR if it is equal to or
less than 1%.
Q7. In the LANDING configuration (i.e. flap at Ianding setting, Ianding gear down) all engines
operating all aircraft irrespective of the number of engines must have a gross gradient of climb of
not less than ?

A. 3.2%
B. 2.3%
C. 2.4%
Q8. In the APPROACH configuration (i.e. flap at approach setting, Ianding gear down), a twin engine
aircraft with the critical engine inoperative must have available a gross gradient of climb of not less
than ?

A. 3.2%

B. 2.1%
C. 2.3%
Q9. In assessing LDR for
available!

an aircraft, reverse thrust or reverse propeller pitch is considered

A. True
B. False
Q10. VREF can not be less than ?

A.
B.
C.
D

1.2 VS
VS
1.5 VS
1.3Vs

Q11. For a jet air transport category aircraft operating a charter operation the Ianding distance data
found during certification trials is factored up by ?

A. 67% for both destination and altemate airpons.

B. 67% at destination and 1.92 at the alternate airport.
C. 92% at destination and 1.67 at the aiternate airport.
Q12. For a jet air transport category aircraft operating a RPT operation on a dry runway the Ianding
distance data found during certification trials is factored up by .7

A. 92%
B. 67%

C. 43%

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O13. Unless othemise set out in the operations manual, for a jet aircraft operating a RPT operation
on a wet runway, the Ianding distance data found during certification trials is factored up by ?
A. 92%

B. 67%

C. 43%

O14. For a turboprop air transport category aircraft operating a charter operation on a dry runway, at
an airport that is the destination, the landing distance data found during certification tnals is factored

upby?
A. 67%
B. 30%

C. 43%

O15. For a turboprop air transport category aircraft operating a charter operation on a dry runway, at
an airport that is NOT the destination the Ianding distance data found during certification tnals is fac-

tored up by ?

A. Factored up by 67%
B. Factored up 43%
C. Not factored.
Q16. For a turboprop air transport category aircraft operating a charter operation on a wet runway, at
an airport that is the destination the Ianding distance data found during certification trials is factored
upby?

A. 67%
B. 30%
C. 43%
Q17. For a turboprop air transport category aircraft operating a RPT operation on a wet runway, at
an airport that is the altemate, the Ianding distance data found during certification trials is factored up

by?

A. 67%

B. 30%
C. 43%

End of CAO 20.7.1b Module 2 Quiz.

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CAO 20.9 Quiz Module

Fuei|ing Engine and Ground Radar Operation.

Q1. During fuelling operations of an aircraft. whose gross weight is 45000 kg, the aircraft and fuelling
equipment shall be so located that no fuel tank filling ports or vent outlets Iie ?

POP?

Within 5 meters of any sealed building.

Within 5 meters of a stationary aircraft.
Within 9 meters of an unsealed building.
Within 6 meters of an exposed public area.

Q2. During refuelling operations, passengers may stay on board provided certain conditions are met.
One of them being ?

POP?

The fuel is aviation grade turbine fuel (aviation kerosene).

The fuel must be wide-cut aviation fuel.
The fuel must not be anything other than Avgas (aviation gasoline).
The fuel is aviation kerosene containing an anti-static additive.

Q3. The passengers of the 90 seat jet aircraft may stay on board during fuelling operations provided
they are briefed. Which Statement is most correci ?

A.

A cabin attendant is appointed for every passenger zone in the aircraft in which there are pas-

PPP

sengers.
Seat belts must NOT be wom.
They can not smoke or use electrical equipment.
AII of the above conditions are met.

Q4. Can aviation grade turbine fuel be Ioaded

A.

B.
C.

on an aircraft with passengers onboard ?

No under any circumstances.

no more than 72 passenger seats.

Yes provided certain conditions are met including an appropriate number of cabin attendants
are on duty within the cabin areas.
Yes, provided the aircraft is fitted with

Q5. Can the external power supply cable be disconnected during fuelling operations ?

A.

B.
C.

No under any circumstances.

Yes provided the fuel is aviation grade turbine fuel.
Yes provided the fuel is aviation grade turbine fuel and the aircraft is EARTHED".

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Q6. Fuelling operations are about to start, and the aircraft radar equipment is under maintenance.
Under what if any circumstanoes can radar maintenanoe go ahead during fuelling operations ?

A.
B.

C.

Under no circumstances can radar maintenance proceed during fuelling operations.

Radar maintenanoe can continue provided the radar maintenanoe area is at least 6 meters
from the fuelling points or fuel vents.
Radar maintenanoe can continue provided the fuel is kerosene and the radar is de-activated.

Q7. During a tum-around at the terminal building fuel is being Ioaded. The radio equipment requires
maintenance before departure can occur. Under what if any circumstances can these operations occur simultaneously ?

A.

B.
C.

Under no circumstances.
Provided the fuel is kerosene.
Provided the fuel has an anti-static additive within it.

Q8. The aircraft Max Takeoff weight is 27000 kg. The minimum distance from
during engine start is ?

A.
B.
C.

an unseaied building

8 meters.
15 meters.
5 meters.

Q9. An aircrafl behind and to the right of your aircraft is being re-fuelled. Can you start your aircraffs
turbo-jet engines ?

A.
B.
C.

No under any circumstances.

Yes, provided the refuelling equipment is at least 15 meters away from your aircraft.
Yes, provided the aircraft and refuelling equipment is at least 30 meters away from your aircraft, and outside of a 15 degree arc either side of the exhaust outlet.
Yes, provided the refuelling equipment is at least 46 meters away from your aircraft, and outside of a 15 degree arc either side of the exhaust ouflet.

Q10. Your aircraft turbo-jet engines are started and you are about to apply sufficient power to initiate
taxiing. What is the minimum distance that an exposed public area must be away from your aircraft if
this area Eswithin 15 degrees of the exhaust outlets ?

A.
B.
C.
D.

15 meters.
23 meters.
30 meters.
46 meters.

Q11. Passengers can be disembarked from an aircraft that has an engine operating provided ?

A.
B.
C.

They are briefed.

The aircrafi is not taking on fuel unless it is kerosene.
They are given instruction and guidance to avoid injury.

Q12. Assuming the aircraft weather radar system has a peak power of 30 kW, under which if any
circumstances can the radar be operated in antenna rotatin mode assuming a refuelling truck is in

front of the aircraft ?

A.

B.
C.
D.

At any distance from the truck provided the antenna is not pointing directly at the truck.
Provided the truck is at least 60 meters away from the radar antenna.
Provided the truck is at least 37 meters away from the radar antenna.
Under no circumstances.

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Q13. Assuming the aircraft weather radar system has a peak power of 30 kW, under which if any
circumstanoes can the radar be operated in antenna stationagy mode assuming a ground personne!
are directly ahead of the aircraft ?

A.

At any distance from the ground personne! provided the antenna is not pointing directly at the
them.

DOW

Provided the ground personnel remain at least 60 meters away from the radar antenna.
Provided the ground personnel are at least 37 meters away from the radar antenna.
Under no circumstances.

O14. Under which if any circumstances can the weather radar of an aircrafl be operated without being deactivated, whilst refuelling operations are undenuay ?

A.
B.
C.

Under no circumstances.
Provided the fuel is kerosene.
Provided the fuel is not Avgas.

End of CAO 20.9 Quiz Module.

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CAO 20.11 Quiz Module

Emergency and Life Saving Equipment

Q1. For a muIti-engine aircraft, life jackets must be carried if the aircraft track exceeds what distance
from land 7

A.

50 nm.

B.
C.

Gliding distance.
A distance relating to 30 minutes at nonnal cruising speed or 100 nm whichever is the Iesser.

Q2. The nonnal navigation approach procedure means (hat an aircraft may be forced to land in the
water. In this case ?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Life jackets must be worn by all occupants.

Sufficient life jackets and life rafts must carried on board.
Sufficient life jackets must be provided on board.
Life jackets need not be carried.

Q3. For a land based aircraft operating over water sufficient life jackets or individual floatation devices shall be carried such that ?

A.

B.
C.
D,

There is one for each passenger aboard the aircraft.

There is one for each passenger aboard the aircraft, plus 20% in a readily accessible position

near the exits.

There is one for each person aboard the aircraft, plus 20%.
There is one for each person aboard the aircraft including infants and children.

Q4. For a twin engine turbine powered aircraft confonning to CAO 20.7.1b the maximum distance
from land that it may operate without the carriage of life rafts on board is equivalent to ?

A.

B.
C.
D.

120 minutes at the 1 engine inoperative cruise speed.

30 minutes at the all engines operating cruise speed, or 100 nmwhichever is the Iesser.
120 minutes at the all engines operating cruise speed or 400 nm whichever is the Iesser.
120 minutes at the aIl engines operating cruise speed or 400 nmwhichever is the greater.

Q5. Where more than one life raft is required to be carried. how many emergency signalling transmit
ters must be carried ?

A.
B.
C.

One for each life raft.

At least two.
At least one for each life raft.

Q6. An aircraft is fitted with emergency Iighting equipment. I this case it shall be tum on, or anned
with the cabin lighting on, below what height above the surface ?

A.

B.
C.
D.

1000 ft
2000 ft.
3000 ft.
5000 ft.

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Q7. For an RPT fiight, above what passenger

tronic public address system be fitted ?

A.

B.
C.

cAo 2041 page 2_

seat capacity shall an approved and serviceable elec-

9
10
12

Q8.A oral briefing on the use and Iocation of emergency exits shaII be given ?

A.

B.
C.

Prior to the first engine starting sequence.

Prior to takeoff.
Prior to the aircraft becoming "underway?

Q9. For an aircraft engaged in RPT or charter operations, printed matter

procedures must be provided if ?

U091?

on emergency exits and

The number of passengers exceeds 6.

If the passenger seating capacity exceeds 6.
If the seating capacity including crew exceeds 6.
If the seating capacity including crew exceeds 10.

010. The aircraft is required to carry Iife jackets and Iife rafts for an overwater operation. Assuming
the aircraft will proceed directly over water immediately after takeoff, the briefing on use of Iife rafts
and Iife jackets shaII be completed ?
A.
B
C.

Prior to the aircraft beginning to taxi for takeoff.

Prior to the aircraft becoming airbome.
Prior to the commencement of the takeoff roII.
When the seat belt briefing is undertaken.

Q11. The aircraft is required to cany Iife jackets and Iife rafts for an overwater Operation. Assuming
the aircraft will NOT proceed over water for some considerable time after takeoff, the briefing on use
of Iife rafts and Iife jackets shall be completed ?

U053?

Prior to the aircraft beginning to taxi for takeoff.

Prior to the aircraft becoming airbome.
Prior to the commencement of the takeoff roII.
Before the aircraft reaches the overwater part of the flight.

End of CAO 20.11 Quiz Module.

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CAO 20.16.12, 3 Page 1.

CAO 20.16.1/16.2l16.3 Quiz Module

Loading of Aircraft

Q1. Where an aircraft engaged in RPT operations will be undertaking a series of flights with the exact
same (standard) Ioad on the same day ?

A.
B.

A load sheet for each separate flight must be raised.

A Ioad sheet for each separate flight must be raised. but only if the flight involves multiple

C.

stages.
The initial Ioad sheet will suffice for each flight under certain conditions.

Q2. Which answer best describes who can assume the role of Ioad Controller ?

A.
B.
C.
D.

The pilot in command.

The co-pilot.
Any approved person.
AII of the above people.

Q3. Which answer best describes who can sign a Ioad sheet ?

A.

B.
C.
D.

The pilot in command.

The co-pilot.
Any approved person.
All of the above people.

Q4. A Ioad sheet must be retained on file for how long after the relevant flight ?

A.
B.
C.
D.

30 days.
3 months.
6 months.
1 calendar year.

Q5. Which item need NOT be included on the Ioad sheet.

A.
B.

The aircraft registration.

Pilot In command.

C.
D.

Date.
Passenger names.

Q6. Which Operation requires a copy of the Ioad sheet to remain on the ground ?

A.
B.

C.

Private
Charter and regular public transport (RPT).

RPT.

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O7. A passenger Iist must be compiied for ?

A.
B.
C.

All types of fiight.

Charter and RPT flights only.
RPT flights only.

Q8. Which item does not need

A.

B
C.
D

to be included on a passenger Iist ?

Aircraft registration.
Passenger names.
Date.
Passenger next of kin contact details.

O9. Carriage of a iife raft for the ovenivater flight" will mean an emergency exit will be blocked. In this

case ?
A.

B.
C.

The Iife raft must be stowed elsewhere.

The exit sign must be covered or othemise disabled.
The Iife raft must be made of flame resistant material.

O10. An emergency exit may be obstructed by cargo ?

A.

B.
C.

Provided it can be easily moved in an emergency.

Provided it is not tied down.
There are sufficient other exits to meet the requirements.

O11. Can cargo be carried in the control seat of an aircraft with a maximum takeoff weight (MTOW)

greater than 5700 kg ?

A.

B.
C.

No under any circumstances.

Yes provided it does not exceed 77 kg.
Yes provided it is secured correctly and does not foul any control.

O12. Seat belts need NOT be worn ?

A.
B.

C.
D.

By a member of the flight crew if the aircraft is greater than 1000 ft above the surface.
By passengers other than in turbulent oonditions in the cruise or greater than 1000 ft above
the surface.
During a visual approach to Iand if a missed approach is planned.
During an instrument approach.

O13. Two children may NOT occupy one seat in an aircraft unless ?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Their combined weight does NOT exceed 77 kg.

They are seated side by side.
They are restrained by a Iap strap only.
All of the above conditions are met.

O14. An infant ?

A.
B
C.

Can NOT be carried in an aircraft.

Can be carried in an aircraft only if a normal adult seat and seat belt are used in aII phases of
flight.
Can be carried in an aircraft provided the infant is sat on an adults Iap, or in their arms, and the
seat belt is around the adult and the infant.
Can be carried in an aircraft provided the infant is sat on an adults lap or in their arms, and the
seat belt is around the adult only.

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Q15. An infant may NOT be seated in an aircraft ?

A.
B
C.
D

Normal seat on an adults Iap during takeoff or Ianding.

Normal seat in an adults arms during any phase of flight except during the cruise.
Exit seat".
"Exit seat". except where the pilot in command is satisfied no hindrance to other passengers
will occur in an evacuation.

Q16. An infant by definition is a human being which ?

A.
B
C.
D

Has NOT reached their 3rd birthday.

Is between 3 and 13 years of age.
ls unable to wa|k unaided.
Has not reached their second birthday.

Q17. A passenger must always be in an approved seat during takeoff unless they are ?

A.
B
C.
D

A child.
An adolescent.
A parachutist.
A cabin attendant.

Q18. Obstruction to aisles and passageways in certain circumstances can NOT be allowed during
passenger carrying operations .7

DOW?

At any time during flight.

At any height below 1000 ft above ground Ievel.
At any height below 2000 ft above ground Ievel.
At any height below cruise altitude.

Q19. Where overhead Iockers are NOT provided for stowage of carry-on items, they must be
stowed ?

A
B.
C.
D

In the aisles.
On an empty passenger seat, but in this case must be restrained by a seat belt.
Under a seat.

On a persons Iap provided the weight of the item plus the passenger does NOT exceed 77 kg.

Q20. An item of cargo weighing 83 kg is to be loaded

In this case ?

A.

B.
C.

on an unoccupied passenger seat.

Provided the aircraft MTOW is Iess than 5700 kg. it may be loaded on an unoccupied control
seat without specific approval from CASA.
The item can be placed behind an unoccupied passenger seat, without any provisions.
The item can NOT be carried on any seat, except where specifically approved by CASA.

Q21. The position of the centre of gravity must be checked as within the specified Iimits?

POP?

At the ramp at GW applicable at engine stark only.

At both aircraft all up weight (AUW) and at zero fuel weight (ZFW).
At both aircraft all up weight (AUW) and at landing weight.
At ZFW, and at landing weight only.

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CAO 20.16.1, 2, 3 Page 4.

022. Given:
o
Two pilot flight deck crew.
o
RPT operation.
o
Maximum approved seating capacity is 50.
o
The passenger manifest shows that 44 passengers are listed for the flight.
Assuming maximum takeoff and Ianding weights will not be exceeded, which statement best describes the maximum number of extra passengers that may be carried, and under what circum-

stances ?

Six provided they are all adults.

Nine provided at least three of them are infants.
Six provided they are all children or infants.
2 provided they are children or persons that have not yet reached their 3rd birthday.
3 provided they are all children or infants.

W909?

Q23. Given:
Single aircraft cabin.
Maximum passenger accommodation is 34.
Two pilots
Charter operation.
POB: 19 aduIts 2 children and 1 infant.
Briefing and control of passengers in normal and emergency operations are specified in the
operations manual.

In this case the minimum number of cabin attendants is best described as ?

A.

None.

B.
C.
D.

Two.

One.

Three.

Q24. Regarding carriage of a live animal aboard an aircraft which is most correct ?

A.

B.
C.
D.

No animal may be carried in the cabin of a passenger carrying aircraft.

All animals in the cabin of a passenger carrying aircraft must be in an approved container.
More than one animal may be placed in one container without any additional provisions.
An animal may be carried in an aircraft passenger cabin under certain conditions.

Q25. An animal may be carried in the cabin of a passenger canying aircraft. provided ?

A.
B.
C.
D.

lt is in an approved container.
lt is in an approved container. and does not obstruct an aisle or exit.
lt is a dog accompanying a visually impaired passenger.
lt is a dog, without any other specific provisions.

O26. A dog may accompany a passenger in a passenger cabin ?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Provided that person is visually impaired.

lt is placed on an absorbent mat as near to the person as practically possible.
Restrained in a way to prevent the dog from moving from an absorbent mat.
Only if all the above conditions are met.

ENDOF CAO 20.16 Quiz Module > Record answers on next page then go online to get marked.

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CAO 20.18/page 1

CAO 20.18 Quiz Module

Aircraft Basic Operational Requirements.

Q1. Which Statement is most correct about provision of clear vision equipment ?

A.
B.
C.

Only aircraft above 5700 kg require it.

Only IFR aircraft equal to or greater than 5700 kg require it.
IFR and VFR flights in aircraft equal to or greater than 5700 kg require it.

Q2. For aircraft involved in other than agricultural operations, flight recording devices must be fitted

if ?

A.

The aircraft maximum takeoff weight is equal to or greater than 5700 kg, whether turbine or

.005?"

The aircraft is equal to or greater than 5700 kg.

Only aircraft equal to or greater than 5700 kg operating under IFR require them.
The aircraft is turbine powered and greater than 5700 kg.

piston powered.

Q3. For flight at night under the IFR, which Statement is most correct about minimum provision of
Ianding lights ?

A.
B.
C.

For RPT flights one energised filament will suffice.

Two separately energised filaments required for aII night flights irrespective of operation type.
Two separately energised filaments required for RPT and passenger charter, one for freight
only charter, aerial work and private operations.

Q4. Your pressurised aircraft was issued with it's Australian Certificate of Airworthiness in 1999, it's
MTOW is 5000 kg and it is turbine powered, and certificated for carriage of 11 persons including the
crew . At the departure aerodrome, except as exempted by maintenance constraints, which statement is most correct regarding recording devices ?

A.
B
C.
D

lt must have a serviceable Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR).

lt must have both a serviceable Cockpit Voice Recorder and a Flight Data recorder (FDR).
lt must have a serviceable Flight Data recorder.
No recording devices are required if it is a single engine type.

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Q5. Given the following aircraft data:

o
MTOW 23000 kg.
Passenger seats 40.

Pressurised cabin.
Twin turbine engines.
Involved in passenger carrying charter operations.

Unless excluded due to maintenance constraints, the minimum data recording devices, if any that
must be fitted is bes! stated as ?

B
C.
D

No recording devices are required unless it is a turbo-jet aircraft.

lt must have a serviceable Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR). but does NOT required a Flight
Data Recorder (FDR).
Requires 1h a CVR E
Requires either a CVR g

a FDR.
an FDR.

Q6. Your aircraft is required by Iaw to cany both a serviceable CVR and a serviceable FDR as part of
it's minimum equipment Iist. Under what condition (s), if any can it be despatched with the CVR

failed ?

9.093,3

Under no condition.
For any period of time provided the FDR remains working normally.
If maintenance to the failed unit can NOT be performed at departure aerodrome.
lf maintenance to the failed unit can NOT be perforrned at departure aerodrome up to a maximum period of 21 days.

Q7. Regarding an altitude alerting system, which Statement is most correct ?

A.
B.
C.

D.

AII aircraft operating above 15000 ft in all airspace types shall be fitted with one.

'
IFR aircraft operating above 15000 ft in all airspace types shall be fitted with one.
Piston powered aircraft are completely exempted from requiring one.
Pressurised aircraft operating under the IFR in controlled airspace (exoept night VFR) shall be
equipped with one.

Q8. Given:
o

o
o

Your flight is to be under the IFR. but NOT "night VFR.

Your aircraft is pressurised.
You will NOT be operating in controlled airspace at any stage of the flight

Can you depart with a unserviceable altitude alerting system ?

A.

B.
C.

No under no circumstances.
Yes. but only provided an assigned altitude indicator is fitted.

Yes.

Q9. Your flight will depart controlled airspace under the IFR (but not night VFR), and your pressurised twin turbojet aircraft will be cruising above 15000 ft for most of the flight. The minimum altitude
indicator and\or alerting system that must be fitted and serviceable in this case is ?

A.

B.
C.

An assigned altitude indicator.

An altitude aierting system.
An assigned altitude indicator, and an altitude alerting system.

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CAO zum/Page 3.

O10. Given:
o
Departure from controlled airspace.
o
Destination involves entry into controlled airspace.
o
Cruise Ievel 9000 ft outside controlled airspace.
o
Un-pressurised twin turbine aircraft.
c
Operating under the IFR (but not night VFR).

The minimum altitude indicator and\or alerting system that must be fitted and serviceable in
this case is ?
A.

B.
C.

An assigned altitude indicator.

An altitude alerting system.
An assigned altitude indicator, and an altitude alerting system.

Q11. A radiation indicatoi shall be fitted to all aircraft operating above what altitude ?

A.
B.

C.
D.

49 000 fl
10 000 ft
25 000 fl
30 000 ft

O12. Unless specifically exempted by CASA under which set of conditions must an approved ground
proximity warning system be fitted in an aircraft ?

A.
B.
C.

If the aircraft is turbine powered.

If the aircraft is fitted with 10 or more passenger seats.
If it is engaged in RPT or charter operations is turbine powered and carrying more than 10
passengers.
If it is engaged in RPT or charter operations. is turbine powered and carrying 10 or more passengers. with a MTOW in excess of 15000 kg.

Q13. Given:
o
o

Turbo-propeller charter operation under the IFR.

MTOW greater than 5700 kg.

Which instrument (s) are NOT required to be fitted and operational ?

01.0.0373?

2 sensitive pressure altimeters.

A turn and slip indicator assuming there are two operational attitude indicators fitted.
A Machmeter.
A directional gyroscope and standby magnetic compass.
A vertical speed indicator.

Q14. Given:
o
o

Turbojet aircraft involved in IFR charter operations.

MTOW 17 000 kg.

How many serviceable attitude indicators are required ?

A.
B.
C.

1
2
3

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Q15. For an aircraft involved in IFR RPT or IFR chaner operations with a MTOW of 11 000 kg, which
if any instruments used by the pilot in command shall have two static supply sources ?

A.
B.
C.

None.

The airspeed indicator, altimeters. direct reading compass and rate of climb indicator.
The airspeed indicator altimeters and where required the Mach meter.

O16. You are to fly a heavy turbo-jet transport aircraft on a sightseeing charter under the VFR.
Which of the flight instruments Iisted can be unserviceable ?

9.0533?

One of the 3 attitude indicators.

A tum and slip indicator.
The timepiece.
One of the two pressure altimeters.

Q17. With regard to CAO20.18 a flight crew member finds it necessary to manually input a waypoint
in the GPS as it is not in the GPS database. In this case if the aircraft is cenified for a minimum of
two or more flight crew ?

9.0.05?

lt must be checked by that crew member before it is input.

lt must be cross-checked by two other crew members for accuracy.
lt must be cross-checked by one other FLIGHT crew member for accuracy.
lt must be cross-checked by two other FLIGHT crew members for accuracy.

End of CAO 20.18 Quiz Module.

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CAO 26.8.1/page1.

CAO 26.8.1 Quiz

Ferry Flights by Aircraft with One Engine Inoperative

Q1. Which class of aircraft can NOT be ferried with one engine inoperative ?

A.
B.
C.

Twin engine types.

Twin and three engine types.
Three and four engine types.

Q2. Must guidance be available within the flight manual or operational manual about a one inoperative operations procedures and Iimitations before a such ferry flight can be contemplated ?

A.

B.

Yes.
No.

Q3. Where a three engine MD11 aircraft is to be ferried with one of it's engines inoperative, from a
regulations and operational point of view it shall be classed as ?

A.

B.
C.

A three engine aircraft.

A twin engine aircraft.
A single engine aircraft.

Q4. Which items can be Ioaded into an aircraft being ferried with one engine inoperative ?

A.

B.
C.

Essential crew.
Cargo carried for hire or reward.
The Captains 9 year old niece provided she is not a fare paying passenger.

Q5. Assuming the aircraft can conform to the appropriate section of CA020.7.1 b, can a tailwind be
accepted for takeoff ?

A.

B.

Yes.
No.

Q6. Can an aircraft being ferried with one engine inoperative do

A.
B.

so at night ?

No, not under any circumstances.

Yes. provided the appropriate section of CA020.7.1 b can be conformed to.

Q7. Must an aircraft being ferried with one engine inoperative remain in VMC during the entire flight ?

A.
B.

Yes.
No.

End of CAO 26.8.1 Quiz Module.

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