PRACTICE SET

IBPS PO-CWE
Test-I: Reasoning Ability
Directions (Q. 1-5): Study the following information
carefully to answer the given questions.
A word and number arrangement machine when given
an input line of words and numbers rearranges them
following a particular rule in each step. The following is an
illustration of input and its rearrangement.
Input:
no 64 are 25 files 4 official 81 available 9
Step I:
official no are 25 files 4 81 available 9 64
Step II: official no are 25 files 81 available 9 64 4
Step III: official no files are 81 available 9 64 4 25
Step IV: official no files available are 9 64 4 25 81
Step V: official no files available are 64 4 25 81 9
And Step V is the last step of the above input. As per the
rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the
following questions, the appropriate step for the given input.
Input: human 121 complex 49 conflicts 36 review 25
operational 81
1. What is the position of human in Step IV?
1) Fourth from the right 2) Third from the left
3) Sixth from the right
4) Fourth from the left
5) None of these
2. In a certain way, review is related to 36. In the same
way 121 will be related to which word?
1) complex
2) human
3) conflicts
4) operational
5) None of the above
3. If in the input the word human is replaced by the
word hypocrisy, then what will be the number that
will replace 25?
1) 64
2) 121 3) 81
4) 100 5) None of these
4. How many steps will be required to complete the
arrangement of the above input?
1) Five 2) Six
3) Seven 4) Four 5) Eight
5. In the last step, if the numbers are arranged in
ascending order from right to left and words are
arranged in alphabetical order from left to right, which
number or word will be at the sixth position from the
right?
1) review
2) 25
3) operational
4) 49
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 6-10): In the following questions, the
symbols A, !, #, $ and @ are used with the following
meanings as illustrated below
R A S means R is not greater than S
R S means R is neither greater than nor equal to S
R # S means R is not smaller than S

R $ S means R is neither smaller nor greater than S

R @ S means R is neither smaller than nor equal to S
Now, in each of the following questions, assuming
the given statements to be true, find out which of the two
conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely
true. Give answer
1) if only conclusion I is true.
2) if only conclusion II is true.
3) if either conclusion I or II is true.
4) if neither conclusion I nor II is true.
5) if both conclusions I and II are true.
6. Statements: P # S, S @ R, P A N
Conclusions: I. N $ R
II. P @ R
7. Statements: N $ S, S @ R, R # Q, Q # T
Conclusions: I. N @ R
II. R # T
8. Statements: P ! S, S # N, N @ R, P ! Q
Conclusions: I. Q @ S
II. S @ R
9. Statements: C $ D, D @ E, D ! G, C # P, P @ N
Conclusions: I. D # P
II. C ! G
10. Statements: Z $ R, R A Q, Q # P, P ! K
Conclusions: I. Z # Q
II. P ! Z
Directions (Q. 11-14): Study the following information
carefully and answer the questions given below.
A polling was held in a particular constituency last
month. Rakesh, who is a voter of that constituency, walked
40 metres towards east from his home and took a right turn
and walked 20 metres. He again took a right turn and walked
30 metres. Finally he took a right turn and reached the
polling station, which was 10 metres away.
There was a long queue at the polling station and
when Rakesh reached there it was 4o clock. He was a little
worried about whether he would be able to cast his vote or
not as it was taking two-and-a half minutes for every voter
to complete the whole procedure before casting a vote.
11. In which direction was the polling station located from
the starting point?
1) South
2) Southeast
3) Northeast
4) Northwest
5) East
12. What was the total distance covered by Rakesh to
reach the polling station?
1) 100m 2) 40m
3) 80m
4) 60m
5) 50m
13. If there were 22 people ahead of Rakesh, at what time
did he cast his vote?
1) 55 minutes past 4o clock
2) 50 minutes past 4o clock
3) 52 minutes past 4o clock
4) 58 minutes past 4o clock
5) 56 minutes past 4o clock

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14. What is the shortest distance between the polling

station and Rakeshs home?
1) 10m
2) 10 2 m
3) 20 2 m
4) 15m
5) 25 2 m
15. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word
CRITIQUE each of which has as many letters between
them as in the English alphabet?
1) One
2) Four
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than four
16. Pointing to a boy, Radhika says, He is the son of my
grandfathers only son. How is the boys mother
related to Radhika?
1) Mother
2) Aunt
3) Sister
4) Cousin
5) Data inadequate
17. How many meaningful English words can be formed
with the letters ELSTA, using all the letters, but each
letter only once in each word?
1) Three
2) Four
3) Five
4) Six
5) Seven
Directions (Q. 18-21): Study the following information
carefully and answer the questions given below.
A group of seven students M, N, O, P, Q, R and S went
to Shimla to celebrate Christmas. All of them went to the
church for prayer and sat in a row facing north, but not
necessarily in the same order. Q sat on the immediate left of
O and second to the right of R. M was fourth to the right of
R, but not an immediate neighbour of P or Q. N was an
immediate neighbour of R. There were two persons sitting
between M and N. P was sitting at the extreme right of the
row.
18. Which of the following pairs sat at the ends of the
row?
1) R and P
2) R and M
3) R and S
4) P and S
5) P and Q
19. How many persons sat between S and Q?
1) Three
2) One
3) Four
4) Two
5) None of these
20. Which of the following pairs sat between O and R?
1) M, Q 2) Q, N 3) Q, O 4) R, Q 5) S, M
21. Who sat in the middle of the row?
1) Q
2) M
3) O
4) S
5) Data inadequate
Directions (Q. 22-26): Study the following information
carefully and answer the questions given below.
T-20 World Cup is being organised by Bangladesh.
Different teams are participating in the T-20 World Cup.
There are some new teams which are also participating in
this T-20 for the first time. Seven new teams which are
participating for the first time are Afghanistan, Nepal,
UAE, Bangladesh, Netherlands, Hongkong and Ireland.
They will be playing there practice matches at different
places, namely Mirpur, Chittagong, Sylhet, Dhaka, Begra,
Khulna and Fatullah, but not necessarily in the same order,

on different days of the week, starting from Monday.

l
Afghanistan will be playing at Chittagong, but neither
on Friday nor on Monday.
l
The host country will be playing on Thursday at Begra.
l
There is a gap of one day between Afghanistan and
Bangladesh match.
l
Hongkong will be playing the match before Ireland
but after Netherlands at Sylhet on Wednesday.
l
Ireland will be playing on the last day of the week.
l
Nepal will be playing at Fatullah.
l
No match will be played at Mirpur on Monday.
l
The match at Khulna will be played on the last day of
the week.
l
The match at Dhaka will be played on Tuesday.
l
No match will be played at Fatullah on Tuesday and
Friday.
22. Nepal will be playing the match on which day of the
week?
1) Friday
2) Tuesday
3) Saturday
4) Wednesday 5) Monday
23. Which team will be playing the match between
Saturday and Thursday?
1) Ireland
2) UAE
3) Bangladesh
4) Netherlands 5) Afghanistan
24. Which of the following combinations is true?
1) Bangladesh Thursday Begra
2) Netherlands Wednesday Mirpur
3) Ireland Saturday Khulna
4) UAE Monday Chittagong
5) Nepal Friday Dhaka
25. Which team will be playing in Dhaka?
1) Nepal
2) Bangladesh
3) Netherlands
4) Hongkong
5) Ireland
26. Which of the following combinations is true?
1) NepalTuesday
2) HongkongSunday
3) NetherlandsThursday 4) NepalMonday
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 27-31): In each question below are
given two or more statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to
be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly
known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide
which of the given conclusions logically follows from the
given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer
1) if only conclusion I follows.
2) if only conclusion II follows.
3) if either conclusion I or II follows.
4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
5) if both conclusions I and II follow.
27. Statements:
All politicians are corrupt.
Some politicians are honest.
No leader is honest.
Conclusions:
I. Some politicians are not leaders.

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28. Statements:

Conclusions:

(29-30):
Statements:

II. All honest being corrupt is a

possibility.
Some people are intelligent.
All intelligent are honest.
No intelligent is smart.
I. Some honest are not smart.
II. All people being honest is a
possibility.

Some writers are poets.

All poets are singers.
Many singers are actors.
No singer is a dancer.
29. Conclusions:
I. Some writers are singers.
II. Some actors are not dancers.
30. Conclusions:
I. All poets being actors is a
possibility.
II. No poet is a dancer.
31. Statements:
No American is Indian.
Some Indians are Pakistanis.
All Indians are honest.
Conclusions:
I. Some Pakistanis are honest.
II. No American is a Pakistani.
Directions (Q. 32-36): Study the following statement
carefully and answer the given questions.
In a certain code India beats Pakistan is written as ra
ja sa, Pakistan beats Australia is written as sa ja ga,
Australia beats no any team is written as ga na pa ta ja,
and team performance is written as pa ma.
32. What is the code for team?
1) ra
2) ta
3) pa
4) ma
5) sa
33. What does ra stand for?
1) Pakistan
2) India
3) beats
4) Australia
5) performance
34. Which of the following is the code for no any
performance India?
1) na ta ma ra
2) na ta ga pa
3) na ta ja sa
4) na ma sa ga
5) None of these
35. What is the code for any?
1) na
2) ta
3) ma
4) Cant be determined
5) na or ta
36. Which of the following is the code for no team
excellent?
1) ta na sa
2) na pa ga
3) ta na ze
4) ta pa ca
5) Cant be determined
Directions (Q. 37-41): Study the following information
carefully and answer the questions given below.
Germany, France, UK, Italy, Japan, US, Canada and
Russia are the members of G-8 committee sitting around a
circular table facing the centre, but not necessarily in the
same order. All the member countries have different cars at
the venue. These cars are Porsche, McLaren, Hennessey
Venom, Zenvo, Ferrari, Lamborghini, Aston Maruti and
Bugalti, but not necessarily in the same order.

The President of Germany is sitting third to the right

of the President of France. The President whose car is
Porsche is sitting second to the right of Japans President.
The President who used Ferrari is sitting fourth to the right
of the person coming in Hennessey Venom, which is owned
by the Canadian President. The President of Italy is sitting
opposite the President who is comming in Bugalti. The UK
and Canadian Presidents are the neighbours of the Italian
president. The President of Russia is sitting fifth to the left
and third to the right of the Italian President.
There are two persons sitting between the US
President and the Canadian President. The President
coming in Lamborghini is sitting second to the left of the
US President and the President coming in McLaren is sitting
second to the right of the US president. The President of
UK is coming in Zenvo.
37. The President of which country is coming in Porsche?
1) Russia
2) US
3) France
4) Italy
5) Canada
38. The President of which country is sitting to the right
of the Italian President and the President of which
country is sitting to the left of the President who is
coming in Ferrari, respectively?
1) Japan and Canada
2) USA and Canada
3) UK and Canada
4) Japan and UK
5) UK and France
39. Which president has come in Zenvo?
1) UK
2) Canada
3) France
4) Germany
5) Cant be determined
40. Which of the following pairs is correct?
1) Russia Zenvo
2) France Ferrari
3) Italy McLaren
4) Japan Porsche
5) USA Bugalti
41. How many presidents are sitting between the
President of Canada and the President of US if we
count in anticlockwise direction, starting from the
Canadian President?
1) Four
2) Two
3) Three
4) Five
5) Cant be determined
Directions (Q. 42-46): Study the following information
carefully to answer the questions given below.
No matter how categorically a party or candidate might
comment, the problems of education cannot compete with
those of water and electricity supply or the condition of
roads. These problems affect the daily life of a citizen more
elementally than education does. Public perception of a
governments efficiency is based on its ability to manage
essential services, police and inflation. Schools and
colleges have a rhythm much too slow to merit the attention
of our politicians. Socially too, education remains an
ambiguous area.
(A) School and college issues are just political stunts
by different parties to win the election; nothing
turns into reality after the elections.

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42.

43.

(B) In developed countries, elections are fought on

different issues like countrys GDP and FDI, but
in India elections are fought on social issues.
(C) For the poor education system in India, political
parties need to be blamed.
(D) Education matters only in the long run.
(E) Peoples perception is that social and essential
services are better handled by government
officials.
Which of the following statements (A), (B), (C), (D)
and (E) is definitely true on the basis of the above
paragraph?
1) Only (A)
2) Only (C)
3) Only (E)
4) Only (D)
5) None of these
Which of the following statements (A), (B), (C), (D)
and (E) is not related to the above passage?
1) Only (E)
2) Only (B)
3) Only (A)
4) Only (C)
5) None of these
Which of the following has/have been assumed in the
above paragraph?
1) Only (A)
2) Only (D)
3) Only (E)
4) Only (A) and (B)
5) None of these
Which of the statements is/are not in line with regard
to the above passage?
1) Only (C) and (E)
2) Only (A)
3) Only (C)
4) Only (E)
5) None of these
Which of the following statements can be a conclusion
of the above passage?
1) Only (A)
2) Only (C)
3) Only (E)
4) None of these
5) Only (D)
A newspaper is not merely a product. It represents the
readers desire to be a part of public sphere. It blends
the cardinal aspects of good journalism with best
business practices. It tries to be as broad-based as
possible without losing focus.
Which of the following statements substantiates the
fact expressed in the above passage?
1) Newspaper is one of the biggest print media which
reaches to the masses and makes people aware of
the facts and figures.
2) Print media has experienced tremendous change
during the last decade.
3) Newspaper has given a good career opportunity in
journalism.
4) With the increase in electronic media people are
least bothered about putting a newspaper properly.
Most of the newspapers go waste.
5) None of these
Tuberculosis (TB) in India is big2.3 million cases,
30000 deaths, a million missing patients. The number
reminds of a continuing crisis though every TB death

is preventable.
Which of the following course of action should best
be taken?
1) TB is curable if diagnosed early, and if continuous
treatment is given with the right combination of
drugs, many TB deaths can be prevented.
2) Drug-resistant TB is a real threat and a challenge
to effective TB control.
3) Tuberculosis is not just a clinical issue. Its
management requires the interplay of clinical
medicine, social sciences factors of equity and
right to health.
4) TB is major public health challenge in India.
5) None of these
49. Retail inflation declined for the third straight month to
a 25-month low of 8.10 per cent and WPI touched a
nine-month low of 4.68 per cent in February.
Which of the following is the best reason for the abovementioned decline?
1) Indias gold and silver imports on a communication
basis stood at $30.53 billion.
2) Indias export shows a positive trend.
3) Indias trade deficit fell by nearly 29% to a little
over $128 billion from over $179 billion, that brought
a reduction in the CAD.
4) Light monetary policy by the RBI does not see
much surge in the Indian Rupee.
5) All the above
50. As T-20 begins in the Bangladesh with the first match
between India and Pakistan and India has a massive
run over Pakistan, it is just a beginning for the Indian
fans. It will pick the momentum as the game proceeds.
Which of the following is the best inference that can
be derived?
1) Bangladesh fans will be jealous as Indian teams
are performing excellently at the ground.
2) There will be a huge surge in the flow of
international tourists.
3) Other teammates and fans will cancel their tickets
because of massive performance by the Indians.
4) There will be a huge inflow of Indian tourists in
Bangladesh.
5) By seeing the huge Indian support in the ground,
India will start losing match.

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44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

Test-II: English Language

Directions (Q. 51-60): Read the passage carefully
and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/
phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
There are many things that make humans a unique
species, but a couple of them stand out. One is our mind;

the other our brain. The human mind can carry out cognitive
tasks that other animals cannot, like using language, and
inferring what others are thinking.
The human brain is exceptional, too. At three pounds,
it is gigantic relative to our body size. Our closest living
relativeschimpanzeeshave brains that are only a third
as big.
Scientists have long suspected that our big brain and
powerful mind are intimately connected. Starting about
three million years ago, fossils of our ancient relatives record
a huge increase in brain size. Once that cranial growth was
underway, our forerunners started leaving behind signs of
increasingly sophisticated minds, like cave paintings.
But scientists have long struggled to understand how
a simple increase in size could lead to the evolution of
those faculties. Now, two Harvard neuroscientists, Randy
L Buckner and Fenna M Krienen, have offered an
explanation.
In our smaller-brained ancestors, the researchers
argue, neurons were tightly tethered in a relatively simple
pattern of connections. When our ancestors brains
expanded, those tethers ripped apart, enabling our neurons
to form new circuits.
Buckner and Krienen have called their idea the tether
hypothesis, and presented it in a paper in the December
issue of the journal Trends in Cognitive Sciences.
Buckner and Krienen developed their hypothesis after
making detailed maps of the connections in the human
brain, using fMRI scanners. When they compared their
maps with those of other species brains, they saw some
striking differences. The outer layers of mammal brains are
divided into regions called cortices. The visual cortex
occupies the rear of the brain. That is where neurons
process signals from the eyes, recognising edges, shading
and other features. There are cortices for the other senses,
too. The sensory cortices relay signals to another set of
regions called motor cortices. The motor cortices send out
commands. This circuit is good for controlling basic
mammal behaviour.
You experience something in the world and you
respond to it, Krienen said.
This relatively simple behaviour is reflected in how
the neurons are wired. The neurons in one region mostly
make short connections to a neighboring region. They carry
signals through the brain like a bucket brigade from the
sensory cortices to the motor cortices. The bucket brigade
begins to take shape when mammals are still embryos.
Different regions of the brain release chemical signals,
which attract developing neurons.
51. What does the author want to suggest by giving the
example of cave paintings?
1) That our ancestors were fond of wild animals and
carved their paintings on the walls of the caves.

52.

53.

2) That our ancestors had least developed brains and

they could not think beyond drawing some rough
sketches of animals found around them.
3) That the cave paintings suggest that the growth of
cranial nerves was in the process of development
then.
4) That our forerunners were aware of colours, which
is evident from Ajanta cave paintings.
5) None of these
Which of the following is responsible for the
perception of image of an object? Reply on the basis
of the given passage.
1) Rods and cone cells present in the retina
2) The visual cortex present in the forebrain
3) The visual cortex present in the hind brain
4) The eyeball located in the vitreous cavity
5) None of these
What makes humans different from animals? Give your
answer in the context of the given passage.
1) Humans have brains while animals have none.
2) Humans can draw logical conclusions while animals
cannot.
3) Humans have small brains while animals have
comparatively bigger brains.
4) Humans came into existence approximately three
million years ago while nothing concrete is known
about when animals came into existence.
5) Humans are omnivorus while animals are
carnivorus.
Which of the following statements is not based on
the facts mentioned in the given passage?
1) In animals the development of bucket brigade starts
in the embryonic stage of development.
2) Any type of signal is carried through the brain from
the sensory cortices to the motor cortices.
3) The developing neurons get attracted towards the
electrical impulse generated in the different regions
of the brain.
4) The signal behaviour like responding to any
experience in the world is reflected in the tethering
pattern of neurons.
5) None of these
Find out the correct statement(s) on the basis of the
given passage.
(A) In smaller brains neurons are tightly held like
simple chains.
(B) The researchers suggested that with the
expansion of brains the chains of neuron got
separated and formed a new pattern.
(C) Developed brains have a complex network of
neurons.
1) All (A), (B) and (C)
2) Only (A) and (B)
3) Only (B) and (C)
4) Only (C)
5) Only (A) and (C)

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54.

55.

Directions (Q. 56-58): Choose the word/group of

words which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word/
group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
56. Tether
1) picket
2) stake
3) fold
4) impulse
5) fetter
57. Cognitive
1) manual
2) mental
3) physical
4) beneficial
5) tough
58. Underway
1) underlined
2) in the process 3) undertaken
4) complete
5) comprehend
Directions (Q. 59-60): Choose the word/group of
words which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning of the word/
group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
59. Rear
1) back
2) reverse
3) dorsal
4) front
5) behind
60. Ripped
1) sewed
2) slit
3) cleaved
4) shred
5) hacked
Directions (Q. 61-70): Read the passage carefully
and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/
phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
In 1973, a Bench comprising 13 Supreme Court judges
ruled by a majority that Article 368 of the Constitution
does not enable Parliament to alter the basic structure or
framework of the Constitution. The Court ruled what has
come to be known as the basic structure doctrine a
judicial principle that the Indian Constitution has certain
basic features that cannot be altered or destroyed
through amendments by Parliament. Paramount among
these are the fundamental rights guaranteed by the
Constitution.
Only two years later, the Allahabad High Court found
the then Prime Minister Indira Gandhi guilty of electoral
malpractices. Justice Jagmohan Lal Sinha invalidated Mrs
Gandhis win and barred her from holding elected office for
six years. The decision caused a political crisis in India
that led to the imposition of the Emergency by Mrs Gandhis
government from 1975 to 1977.
During the Emergency, Mrs Gandhi altered the election
law retroactively by the 39th amendment to the
Constitution. Article 329A was inserted to void the Allahabad
judgment. The retroactive, undemocratic, and politically
motivated legislative enactment validated an election. The
amendment secured her position and prevented her removal
from Indian politics. Later the enactment was successfully
challenged in the light of the 1973 ruling and Article 329A
was struck down. The judiciary curtailed autocratic politics
a stitch in time saved nine.
Our fundamental rights are the conscience of the
Constitution. This right, and every other legal right, stems

from our ability to retain the integrity and the structure of

our Constitution.
There is a hard-learnt, intellectual history to this legal
inheritance. The principle of the basic structure of the
Constitution is enshrined in Article 79 (3) of the Basic Law
for the Federal Republic of Germany. The German
Constitution was drafted during 1948-49, in the immediate
shadow of its Nazi past. During the drafting sessions, the
Weimar Constitution came under immense scrutiny by
German jurists and scholars, who investigated the
document at great length. The Constitutions broad powers
to suspend civil liberties, coupled with an insufficient
system of checks and balances, presented a structural
opportunity for Adolf Hitler to seize power and preside
upon an authoritarian democracy.
61. What was the reason of imposition of Emergency by
Mrs Indira Gandhi in 1975?
1) She wanted to teach a lesson to lethargic
bureaucrats and rude opposition leaders.
2) She wanted to take revenge on an arrogant
judiciary.
3) She was afraid of imminent attack on India by its
neighbouring country Pakistan.
4) She wanted to show her power to eminent world
leaders.
5) A political crisis caused by the decision of
invalidating the decision of her win
62. What is the essence of the Article 368 of the Indian
Constitution? Give your answer in the context of the
passage.
1) Article 368 lays down the procedure for
Constitutional amendment in any part of the
Constitution.
2) Article 368 of the Constitution does not permit even
parliament to change the basic features of the Indian
Constitution.
3) Article 368 is related to the imposition of emergency
in case of a political crisis in India.
4) Article 368 does not allow amendment in the
Preamble of the Constitution of India.
5) None of these
63. According to the given passage, what did Mrs Gandhi
do during the Emergency?
(A) She inserted a new article to quash the judgement
which prevented her from holding elected office.
(B) She brought about changes in electoral system.
(C) She reversed the decision of the Allahabad High
Court in her favour.
1) Only (A) and (C)
2) Only (A) and (B)
3) Only (B)
4) Only (B) and (C)
5) All (A), (B) and (C)
64. What does the author want to suggest by using the
proverb A stich in time saves nine? Select the most
appropriate option in the context of the given passage.

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1) The author wants to suggest that Mrs Gandhi was

an arrogant leader and had she not been taught a
lesson she would have made everybody a puppet
in her hand.
2) The author wants to suggest that the provisions
of Article 368 helped save the country well in time,
otherwise Mrs Gandhi could have become a Hitler
of India.
3) The author has used the proverb to express that
every wrong act should be checked before it is too
late.
4) The author seems to have a literary bent of mind
and to make the expression more emphatic this
proverb has been used.
5) The author seems to be anti-Gandhi in his/her
approach.
65. Why is the doctrine of the basic structure in Indias
Constitution so important?
1) Because it enshrines fundamental duties of every
citizen
2) Because this doctrine is the essence of the Indian
Constitution, and can prevent anybody whatsoever
from becoming an autocrat
3) Because this doctrine allows amendment in any
part of the Constitution and is hence the most
important
4) Because this doctrine can never become obsolete
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 66-68): Choose the word/group of
words which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word/
group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
66. Curtailed
1) downsize
2) lengthen
3) amplify
4) prolong
5) extend
67. Stems
1) branches
2) flows
3) divides
4) multiplies
5) arises
68. Retroactive
1) forward
2) before
3) retrospective
4) prior
5) prospective
Directions (Q. 69-70): Choose the word/group of
words which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning of the word/
group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
69. Paramount
1) outstanding 2) highest
3) colossus
4) trivial
5) eminent
70. Void
1) bereft
2) devoid
3) empty
4) vacant
5) valid
Directions (Q. 71-75): Read each sentence to find out
whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it.
The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The
number of that part is the answer. If there is No error,
the answer is 5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

71. 1) Pakistan has for the first time admitted to the

presence / 2) of Indias most wanted terrorist, Dawood
Ibrahim, / 3) on its earth, but has said that / 4) he has
now been chased out and could be in the UAE. / 5) No
error
72. 1) The Delhi Government will set up seven laboratories
/ 2) in East Delhi to test, verify and calibrate / 3) the
work and reference standards of different types of
balances, / 4) weights and measuring equipments used
in shops or establishments. / 5) No error
73. 1) Samajik Suvidha Sangam, also known as Mission
Convergence, / 2) is the most unique initiative of NCT
of Delhi / 3) for holistic empowerment of women from
vulnerable and / 4) most vulnerable sections of society.
/ 5) No error
74. 1) The Supreme Court has sought a response of the
Centre / 2) on a PIL seeking effective functioning of
the / 3) human rights courts in the country / 4) to
further the cause of according social justice. / 5) No
error
75. 1) Caught napping by the powerful mining Mafia after
a bid / 2) on the life of the SDM, the police has now
booked / 3) the driver of the tractor trolley and / 4)
filed an FIR against him. / 5) No error
Directions (Q. 76-80): Rearrange the following seven
sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (F) and (G) in the proper
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer
the questions given below.
(A) A contract for the supply of the necessities of
life, as per status of the party, to a minor, is a valid
contract.
(B) It further states that every person is competent
to contract who is of the age of maturity according
to the law he is subject to and who is of sound
mind and is not disqualified from contracting by
any law to which he is subject.
(C) As per the Indian Contract Act, 1872, when the
age of maturity has been provided by law to be 18
years, any person less than that age, even by a
day, would be a minor in law.
(D) In case of all other contracts, a minor may
repudiate his promise or consent.
(E) In the same way, a minor can also recover money
from others, if advanced, since a minor can be a
beneficiary.
(F) The essence of this is that a minor is not
competent to enter into a contract.
(G) This affects his capacity to hold, acquire or
dispose of property.
76. Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence
after rearrangement?
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
5) E
77. Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence

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after rearrangement?
1) F
2) G
3) A
4) B
5) C
78. Which of the following would be the LAST
(SEVENTH) sentence after rearrangement?
1) G
2) E
3) F
4) D
5) A
79. Which of the following would be the FIFTH sentence
after rearrangement?
1) B
2) A
3) D
4) E
5) F
80. Which of the following would be the SECOND
sentence after rearrangement?
1) G
2) A
3) E
4) C
5) B
Directions (Q. 81-90): In the following passage, some
of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated
by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given
against each number and fill up the blanks with
appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful.
What if hens (81) low-cholesterol and therefore,
healthier eggs, cows produce 30% more milk with cheaper
cattle feed and butter chicken becomes more nutritious?
There must be something (82) about this, or someones
been drinking, right?
Right and true. Indias poultry and dairy industries
(83) discovered that fish residue and brewery (84) as
poultry and cattle feed, respectively, make eggs healthier
and milk more (85). The science is this: If hens are fed with
fish residue, the healthy cholesterol-battling Omega-3 fatty
acids in fish oil easily move through the hens digestive
system to the yolk of the egg, which is (86) a cholesterol
bomb. Even butter chicken will be relatively healthy if the
bird is fed this diet. For dairies, the brewery waste is (87) of
nutrients only starch from the grain is used to make
alcohol lacking in traditional cattle feed (88) rice husk.
And theres nothing fishy or boozy about the
economics (89). Beer waste is now so much in demand
that it is booked in advance and (90) number of contractors
in this business is rising every year.
81. 1) lie
2) laid
3) lay
4) shed
5) produces
82. 1) fishy
2) conspicuous 3) shady
4) honest
5) probable
83. 1) being
2) were
3) could
4) have
5) has
84. 1) loss
2) waste
3) thing
4) growth
5) possession
85. 1) unproductive 2) wanting
3) excessive
4) bumper
5) plentiful
86. 1) otherwise
2) differently
3) in no way
4) surely
5) never
87. 1) efficient
2) lack
3) full
4) half
5) sufficient
88. 1) close
2) identical
3) such
4) akin
5) like
89. 1) forever
2) either
3) one
4) neither
5) ever

90. 1) much
4) the

2) no
5) most

3) few

Test-III: Quantitative Aptitude

Directions (Q. 91-95): Find out the number in place
of question mark (?) in the following number series.
91. 2 5 23 119 659 ?
1) 982
2) 3275 3) 4079 4) 5148 5) 3895
92. 8 9 29 148 1040 ?
1) 8967
2) 7342
3) 9810
4) 7598
5) 9365
93. 16 34 66 134 266 ?
1) 589
2) 534
3) 634
4) 530
5) 536
94. 6 3 4.5 11.25 39.375 ?
1) 114.5375
2) 110.2075
3) 121.1875
4) 117.2530
5) 177.1875
95. 64 77 66 73 68 ?
1) 73
2) 71
3) 80
4) 65
5) 72
Directions (Q. 96-98): What value should come in
place of question mark (?) in the following questions?
96. (150 20 15) ? = 600
1) 65
2) 73
3) 65
4) 75
5) 75
0.4 1.5
97.
=?
0.2
1) 3.2
2) 0.3
3) 3
4) 30
5) 0.33

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2 4
?
3 9
1) 680
2) 540
3) 340
4) 580
5) 690
Directions (Q. 99-100): What approximate value
should come in place of question mark (?) in the following
questions?
3.899
3
?
99. 1000
1. 3
1) 12
2) 13
3) 14
4) 15
5) 16
2914.01 1.99
?
100.
31.1
3.01
1) 150
2) 141
3) 145
4) 162
5) 139
Directions (Q. 101-105): Study the following
information carefully and answer the following questions.
The number of voters from City X and
City Y in eight different constituencies
City X

98. 2295

H
G 13%
8%
F
16%

E
9%

A
18%
B
12%
C
D 10%
14%

Total number of voters = 65800

City Y
G
19%
F
7%

H
A
5% 17%
B
11%

105. What is the difference between the total number of

female voters from Constituency B, F and H of City X
and the total number of male voters from Constituency
F, G and H of City Y?
1) 331
2) 313
3) 301
4) 333
5) 342
106. Find the perimeter of an equilateral triangle whose area
is 3 times the area of a rectangle with dimensions 9 cm
1
and
cm.
3
1) 36 cm 2) 6 cm 3) 12 cm 4) 24 cm 5) 18 cm
107. The perimeter of a rhombus is 52 cm and one of its
diagonals is 10 cm. Find its area.
1) 130 cm2
2) 120 cm2
3) 150 cm2
2
2
4) 140 cm
5) 110 cm
108. A cow is tied in a corner of a rectangular field with
dimensions 55 cm 65 cm. The length of the rope is 28
cm. Find the area which the cow can graze.

C
D 15%
6%

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E
20%

Total number of voters = 88600

Ratio of male to female population in different
constituencies of City X and City Y

City X
City Y
M:F
M:F
A
4:8
8 :9
B
2:4
5 :6
C
4:6
9 :6
D
3:4
5 :1
E
8:6
3 :5
F
6:2
5 :9
G
9:7
11 : 8
H
5:8
2 :8
101. What is the total number of male voters from
Constituency A, D, E and G in City X?
1) 12421 2) 13241 3) 14241 4) 12441 5) 14421
102. The total number of voters from Constituency A, B
and C of City X is what per cent of the total number of
voters from Constituency D, E and F of City Y?
1) 90.01%
2) 85.5%
3) 84.45%
4) 88.8%
5) None of these
103. What is the ratio of male voters from constituency D
and E of City X to the female voters from Constituency
A and C of City Y?
1) 7862 : 6645
2) 8562 : 7245
3) 7982 : 8215
4) 3666 : 7567
5) 1222 : 2215
104. What is the total number of male voters from all the
Constituencies of City X?
1) 30631
2) 30681
3) 30690
4) 30281
5) None of these
Constituency

1) 414 cm2
2) 313 cm2
3) 515 cm2
2
2
4) 616 cm
5) 717 cm
109. Find the perimeter of the square whose area is 15 cm2
more than the area of a circle of radius 7 cm.
1) 42 cm

2) 22 7cm
3) 52 cm
4) 48 cm
5) 50 cm
110. The age of man is four times that of his son. 15 years
ago, the man was 7 times as old as his son. What will
be the age of his son after 12 years?
1) 30 years
2) 42 years
3) 52 years
4) 36 years
5) 62 years
111. Rancho has `31000 in the form of `100, `500 and `1000
notes. The ratio of the number of these notes is
7 : 5 : 3. What is the amount of `500 notes?
1) `2500
2) `1500
3) `12500
4) `10500
5) `5000
112. The price of an article increases by 20% every year. If
the difference between the price at the end of the third
year and the fourth year is `144, what was the price at
the end of the second year?
1) `420
2) `500
3) `600
4) `650
5) Data inadequate
113. The profit on selling an article for `550 is thrice the
loss on selling it for `350. What is the CP of the article?
1) `200
2) `300
3) `400
4) `500
5) `600
114. The CI and SI on a certain sum for 2 years are `1653.64
and `1560 respectively. Find the sum and the rate of
interest.
1) `7800, 10%
2) `7800, 15%
3) `6500, 10%

4) `6500, 12%
5) `7800, 12%
115. A trader claims to sell rice at CP but mixes stones and
earns 25% profit. What percentage of stones is mixed
by the trader?
2
1) 16 % 2) 20% 3) 25% 4) 12.5% 5) 22%
3
116. Farhan worked for 2 hours and then Raju joined him.
After 4 more hours, Farhan stopped, and Raju took
another 20 hours to complete the remaining part of the
job. If both of them work together they can complete
the job in 18 hours. How many hours will Farhan and
Raju take to complete the job if they work separately?
1) 24 hours, 36 hours
2) 36 hours, 24 hours
3) 57 hours, 24 hours
4) 54 hours, 27 hours
5) 20 hours, 35 hours
117. A train leaves point A at 5 pm and reaches point B at
11 pm. Another train leaves point B at 7 pm and reaches
point A at 10 pm. At what time would the two trains
meet?
1) 8 pm
2) 8 : 15 pm
3) 8 : 20 pm
4) 8 : 30 pm
5) 8 : 40 pm
118. In how many ways can a group of 5 boys and 4 girls
be formed from a total of 9 boys and 7 girls?
1) 5210 2) 4410 3) 5715 4) 4375 5) 5151
119. In how many ways can 6 girls and 6 boys sit around a
circular table so that no two boys sit together?
1) (5!)2
2) (6!)2
3) 5!4!
4) 11!
5) 5!6!
120. If three bags are selected from ten red bags and four
black bags, then the odds against the three bags being
black is
1) 1 : 91 2) 90 : 91 3) 90 : 1 4) 1 : 90 5) 91 : 90
Directions (Q. 121-125): Study the following
information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
The bar-graph shows the production of steel in a
country (in lakh tonnes) in different years.

E
D 13%
15%
C
12%

A
22%
B
38%

121. In the year 2012, what was the production of steel by

Company C (in lakh tonnes)?
1) 98.6
2) 103.2
3) 112.6
4) 123.4
5) 132.5
122. In how many years is the production of steel more
than 10% more/less than the previous year s
production?
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
5) 5
123. Company A produced 18% of the total steel produced
every year except in 2012. What was the total
production of steel by Company A for the given years
(in lakh tonnes)? (Do not take 2012 intoi account.)
1) 462.60 2) 531.20 3) 591.70 4) 651.8 5) 720.6
124. In how many years was the production of steel more
than the average production for the given years?
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
5) 5
125. What is the angle subtended by Company D in the
steel production in 2012?
1) 18
2) 36
3) 144
4) 72
5) 54
Directions (Q. 126-130): Study the following
information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
The line graph shows the export of sugar by a trader
(in tonnes).
25
22

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(In lakh tonnes)

1000
800
600
400

860
690
500

780

600

20
10

13

12

10

5
0
2008

200
0
2009

20

15

15

2010

2011
Year

2012

2013

The pie-chart shows the production of steel (in lakh

tonnes) by five different companies in 2012.
These companies are the only ones to produce
steel in all the given years.

2009

2010
2011
2012
2013
Year
The bar-graph shows the value of export (in ` thousand)
in different years.

300
250
200
150
100
50
0

275
230
144

2008

165
130

2009

Luxury
5%

156

2010 2011
Year

2012

Mid size
17%
Economy
cars
78%

2013

126. In which year is the value of sugar exported per tonne

the highest?
1) 2009 2) 2008 3) 2010 4) 2012 5) 2013
127. In which of the following years is the percentage
increase in the value of sugar exported over the
previous year the minimum?
1) 2009 2) 2011 3) 2012 4) 2013 5) 2010
128. In how many years the quantity of sugar exported is
more than the average quantity of sugar exported for
the given period?
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
5) 5
129. What is the difference in the value of sugar per kg
exported in 2009 and that in 2012?
1) `2
2) `1.50
3) `1
4) `5
5) `2.50
130. From 2013 to 2014, if there is a 25% increase in the
quantity of sugar exported and 40% increase in the
value, then what is the value of sugar exported per kg
in 2014?
1) `11
2) `12
3) `13
4) `14
5) `15
Directions (Q. 131-135): Study the following
information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
The pie-charts show the sales of different car
manufacturers in the year 2013. Total sales = 490000

Sales breakup of Maruti economy cars

Wagon
7%

Omni
15%

Maruti
800
43%

Zen
16%

K
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rd
Fo

Fiat
10%
Tata
11%

6%

Others
3%

Maruti
54%

Hyundai
16%

Sales breakup of Maruti

Alto
19%

131. If Hyundai manufactures two models, Accent and

Santro, with sales ratio 1 : 7, then what is the
approximate average monthly sales of Santro?
1) 5435 2) 5717 3) 67900 4) 68700 5) 12740
132. Which of the economy cars is the best-selling model?
1) Alto
2) Omni
3) Maruti 800
4) Both 1) and 2) 5) Cant be determined
133. By how many units did Maruti 800 outsell Wagon in
that year?
1) 64500
2) 76600
3) 71800
4) 74300
5) 68400
134. The difference between the number of units
manufactures by Ford and the number of units of luxury
cars sold by Maruti is
1) 13840
2) 14850
3) 15630
4) 16960
5) 16170
135. The sales of Alto exceeds that of other manufacturers
by (approx):
1) 20750
2) 22850
3) 24514
4) 25800
5) 28600
Directions (Q. 136-140): Study the following
information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
The bar graph shows the number of customers of an
insurance company (2009 to 2013)

(In thousand)

4500
4000
3500
3000
2500
2000
1500
1000
500
0

Test-IV: General Awareness

3900
2880

3196

2371

2009

2010

(with Special Reference to Banking Industry)

2716

2011

2012

2013

Year

The pie-chart shows the classification of

customers for the year 2012
Vehicle
Insurance Health
Insurance
Property 54
72
Insurance

141. The Union govt declared Polavaram a national project

recently. This decision paved the way for transfer of
136 villages from Telangana to which of the following
states?
1) Seemandhra (successor of Andhra Pradesh)
2) Tamil Nadu
3) Karnataka
4) Odisha
5) None of these
142. Abdel Fattah al-Sisi won a landslide victory in the
presidential polls held in which of the following
countries recently?
1) Thailand
2) Philippines
3) Egypt
4) Libya
5) None of these
143. Pakistan has said to grant India the status of NDMA
to facilitate enhanced bilateral trade. What does
NDMA stands for?
1) Non-Discursive Market Access
2) Non-Discriminatory Market Access
3) National Direct Market Access
4) Non-Divisive Market Access
5) None of these
144. Seen as Russias answer to the European Union, an
agreement was signed to set up Eurasian Union in
Kazakhstans capital, Astana, recently. Which of the
following statements is/are NOT correct in this regard?
1) Russia, Belarus and Kazakhstan are the founding
members of the new bloc.
2) The Eurasian Economic Union will come into force
on Jan 1, 2015.
3) It will create a market of 170 mn people, combined
annual GDP of $2.7 tn and a quarter of the world
energy resources.
4) Ukraine, the second largest economy of the
erstwhile Soviet Union, too has agreed to join the
bloc.
5) None of these
145. The Indian economy expanded at what per cent during
the period 2013-14 as per the official data released by
the Central Statistical Office (CSO) recently?
1) 4.3 per cent
2) 4.5 per cent
3) 4.7 per cent
4) 4.9 per cent
5) 5 per cent
146. The theory of Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) is
associated with which of the following?
1) Exchange Rate
2) Interest Rate
3) Bank Rate
4) Wage Rate
5) None of these
147. According to the information provided by Sri Lanka
govt recently, which of the following countries has

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54

Life
Insurance
144

Retirement
Plan
36

136. In which year is the increase in the number of

customers of the company highest over the previous
year?
1) 2010
2) 2011
3) 2012
4) 2013
5) 2009
137. How many customers took vehicle insurance in 2012?
1) 46500
2) 58500
3) 78000
4) 47800
5) 64000
138. What per cent of the total customers for the year 2012
do the customers covered under health insurance and
property insurance together form?
1) 15%
2) 20%
3) 30%
4) 35%
5) 45%
139. The pie-chart for various schemes is the same for all
the years. When was the number of life insurance
customers the highest?
1) 2010
2) 2009
3) 2013
4) 2012
5) 2011
140. From the data of question 139, what is the approximate
percentage increase in the number of customers under
retirement plan from 2010 to 2012?
1) 25%
2) 30%
3) 35%
4) 40%
5) 45%

emerged as the biggest source of Sri Lankan imports

as of now?
1) UK
2) US
3) Singapore
4) China
5) India
148. In one of the biggest-ever deals in the Indian media
sector, Reliance Industries Ltd (RIL) has announced
to acquire controlling stake in which of the following
media houses for `4,000 cr?
1) India TV
2) TV Today Network
3) Network 18 Group
4) NDTV
5) None of these
149. Which of the following countries has announced to
start a USD 5-bn anti-terrorism partnership fund
recently?The fund will be used to help train other
countries to take on rising extremism.
1) Russia
2) China
3) Japan
4) US
5) Germany
150. The Reserve Bank of India announced its bi-monthly
policy review on 3rd Jun. Which of the following is
correct in this regard?
1) Repo rate 8 per cent
2) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) 4 per cent
3) Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) 23 per cent
4) Only 1) and 2)
5) All 1), 2) and 3)
151. Name the Chinese Foreign Minister who is scheduled
to arrive in New Delhi on Jun 8 as a special envoy of
his govt to formally establish contacts with the new
govt in India.
1) Li Yuanchao 2) Wang Yi
3) Hong Lei
4) Yang Jiechi
5) None of these
152. The govt had to promulgate an ordinance to appoint
Nripendra Misra as the Principal Secretary to the Prime
Minister recently. His previous appointment as the
chairman of which of the following regulators was
prohibiting him from accepting a govt post?
1) SEBI
2) CCI
3) TRAI
4) IRDA
5) None of these
153. The Competition Commission of India (CCI) has
cleared purchase of a 50 per cent stake in Tata Group
firm Trent Hypermarket by which of the following
global retailers recently? It is the first FDI transaction
in multi-brand retail since the sector was opened up in
2012.
1) Carrefour
2) Walmart
3) Kroger
4) Tesco
5) None of these
154. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has reduced the
availability of funds under the export credit refinance
(ECR) window from 50 per cent of export credit
outstanding to what per cent with immediate effect?
1) 40 per cent
2) 36 per cent
3) 32 per cent
4) 25 per cent
5) None of these

155. The market regulator SEBI wants the govt to pare its
holdings in PSUs to ensure what per cent public share
holding in these firms? The regulator has successfully
implemented the same for private companies.
1) 10 per cent
2) 15 per cent
3) 20 per cent
4) 25 per cent
5) 40 per cent
156. International hockey suffered a big setback as the
Sultan of Perak, Sultan Azlan Shah, passed away
recently. He was a father figure for hockey in which of
the following countries?
1) Indonesia
2) Malaysia
3) Yemen
4) Pakistan
5) None of these
157. Who has authored the book Redesigning the
Aeroplane While Flying: Reforming Institutions?
1) Pallavi Aiyar 2) Mihir Shah
3) Arun Maira
4) Sam Pitroda 5) Montek Singh Ahluwalia
158. The leaders of the South Asian Association for
Regional Cooperation (SAARC) group took part in
the swearing-in ceremony of the new PM Narendra
Modi recently. Which of the following countries is
NOT a member of the SAARC group?
1) China
2) Afghanistan 3) Bhutan
4) Nepal
5) Mauritius
159. Which of the following statements is/are NOT correct
with respect to a recent decision taken by the Reserve
Bank of India (RBI) related to currency?
(A) Non-resident Indians (NRIs) who were so far not
allowed to take any Indian currency notes out of
the country have been allowed to take out up to
`25,000.
(B) The citizens of Pakistan and Bangladesh will be
allowed to take only `10,000 out of India.
(C) Indian residents who were so far only allowed to
take out `10,000 have also been allowed a higher
limit of `25,000.
1) Only (A)
2) Only (B)
3) Only (C)
4) Only (A) and (B)
4) Only (A) and (C)
160. In the first decision after assuming office, the Narendra
Modi govt constituted a special investigative team
(SIT) to unearth black money. Which of the following
is NOT correct about the new SIT?
1) It will be headed by former Supreme Court judge
Mukul Mudgal.
2) It will include Revenue Secretary, CBI and IB
directors, Enforcement Directorate official, CBDT
Chairman and RBI deputy governor.
3) Former Supreme Court judge Arijit Pasayat will be
the vice-chairman of the panel.
4) It has been charged with the responsibility and
duties of investigation, initiation of proceedings
and prosecution in cases involving unaccounted
money.
5) None of these

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161. Which of the following movies won the prestigious

Palme dOr award, the festivals highest honour, at the
67th annual Cannes Film Festival?
1) Foxcatcher
2) Mr Turner
3) Maps to the Stars
4) The Wonders
5) Winter Sleep
162. Power Finance Corporation (PFC) and Rural
Electrification Corp (REC) rescued Reliance
Infrastructures power distribution companies in Delhi
by disbursing a combined ________to clear the dues
of NTPC recently.
1) `400 cr
2) `600 cr
3) `800 cr
4) `1000 cr
5) None of these
163. Which of the following television channels is all set
to air Amitabh Bachchans television debut in the
fiction show named Yudh?
1) Colors
2) Sony
3) Zee TV
4) Star TV
5) Life OK
164. What per cent FDI is allowed in online retail companies
that own inventory and sell directly to consumers?
1) 100 per cent
2) 74 per cent
3) 49 per cent
4) 26 per cent
5) FDI not allowed
165. The sixth BRICS summit is scheduled to be held in
which of the following countries in Jul which will be
the first overseas multilateral visit for the Prime
Minister Narendra Modi?
1) China
2) Russia
3) Brazil
4) South Africa 5) None of these
166. Which of the following Internet giants came up with
right to be forgotten option recently? This option
has been brought for the people who opt for removal
of results about them.
1) Google
2) Facebook
3) LinkedIn
4) Whatsapp
5) None of these
167. Who among the following has been sworn in as the
first Chief Minister of the newly formed 29th state of
the country, Telangana?
1) Vijayashanti
2) YS Jaganmohan Reddy
3) T Harish Rao
4) N Chandrababu Naidu
5) K Chandrashekar Rao
168. The celebrated Indian sportsperson Yogeshwar Dutt
is associated with which of the following games?
1) Wrestling
2) Boxing
3) Badminton
4) Shot-put
5) None of these
169. The promoters of the Kotak Mahindra Bank reduced
their stake in the lender as per the directions from the
Reserve Bank of India (RBI). The RBI had asked the
bank to cut its promoter holding to what per cent by
Sep 2014?
1) 60%
2) 40%
3) 20%
4) 10%
5) None of these
170. In its efforts to contain inflation in the country, the
RBI announced to suck out excess liquidity recently.

The central bank uses which of the following tools to

suck excess liquidity?
1) Reverse repo 2) Repo
3) CRR
4) SLR
5) None of these
171. The movie Frozen has become the fifth highestgrossing film in box office history across the world,
recently. Which of the following movies is the highest
all-time grosser?
1) Avatar
2) Titanic
3) The Avengers
4) Harry Potter and the Deathly Hallows
5) None of these
172. ONGC Videsh Ltd (OVL) has signed a deal with Rosneft
to jointly explore hydrocarbons in the offshore Arctic
region. Rosneft is the largest oil and gas producer of
which of the following countries?
1) US
2) Russia
3) China
4) Uzbekistan
5) None of these
173. Which of the following teams lifted Thomas Cup mens
badminton championship title recently?
1) Indonesia
2) China
3) Malaysia
4) Japan
5) India
174. As the trends show, households in India put twothirds of their savings in which of the following assets
in 2012-13?
1) pension and insurance funds
2) physical assets
3) bonds
4) bank deposits
5) None of these
175. Who among the following has become the first Indian
to be honoured with Harvard Medal recently?
1) Azim Premji
2) Anand Mahindra
3) Sunil Bharti Mittal
4) Adi Godrej
5) Kumar Mangalam Birla
176. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) hiked the amount of
foreign exchange up to which an individual can take
out of the country in a fiscal year, recently. What is
the amount?
1) $75,000
2) $100,000
3) $125,000
4) $200,000
5) None of these
177. Who among the following took over as the new Chief
Information Commissioner in the Central Information
Commission recently?
1) Syed Asif Ibrahim
2) Rajiv Mathur
3) N Sandhu
4) PC Haldar
5) None of these
178. India lost to which of the following countries and

K
KUNDAN

settled for a historic bronze in Uber Cup womens

badminton tournament, recently?
1) Denmark
2) Japan
3) Indonesia
4) China
5) None of these
179. King Juan Carlos is the present king of which of the
following countries? The cabinet of the country is to
discuss his abdication and the accession of his son,
Crown Prince Felipe.
1) Norway
2) Spain
3) Argentina
4) Poland
5) None of these
180. Which of the following statements is correct with
respect to Arihant? It is
1) Indias first indigenously built nuclear submarine
2) Indias first fighter jet armed with nuclear warheads
3) Indias first indigenously built nuclear reactor
4) Indias first indigenously built aircraft carrier
5) None of these

Test-V: Computer Knowledge

3) Backward compatibility but not forward

compatibility
4) Forward compatibility but not backward
compatibility
5) None of these
186. When installing software, you must accept the
________ agreement before you can continue with
the installation.
1) software licence
2) Add/Remove Programs
3) authorization
4) download
5) None of these
187. What is the difference between a MESSAGEBOX and
an ALERT?
1) A message box can be used only by the system
and cannot be used in user application while an
alert can be used in user application also.
2) An alert can be used only by the system and cannot
be used in user application while a message box
can be used in user application also.
3) An alert requires a response from the user while a
message box just flashes a message and only
requires an acknowledgment from the user.
4) A message box requires a response from the user
while an alert just flashes a message and only
requires an acknowledgment from the user.
5) None of these
188. Vector images are
1) composed of pixels
2) composed of thousands of dots
3) slightly more difficult to manipulate than other
images
4) composed of objects such as lines, rectangles, and
ovals
5) None of these
189. Every component of your computer is either
1) software or CPU/RAM
2) hardware or software
3) application software or system software
4) input devices or output devices
5) None of these
190. If the destination does not receive a segment, how
will the TCP host know how to resend the information?
1) The ACK received will not include the segment
number that was not received.
2) The ACK received will include the segment number
that was not received.
3 ) The sending host will send a PACK to verify
segment receipt.
4) The destination host will send a YACK message
back to the sending host.
5) None of these

K
KUNDAN

181. Which of the following places the common data

elements in order from smallest to largest?
1) character, file, record, field, database
2) character, record, field, database, file
3) character, field, record, file, database
4) bit, byte, character, record, field, file, database
5) None of these
182. The Internet is
1) a large network of networks
2) an internal communication system for a business
3) a communication system for the Indian government
4) All the above
5) None of these
183. POST stands for
1) Positive Operating System Test
2) Particle Of Static Transfer
3) Power-On Self-Test
4) Printer Online Static Test
5) None of these
184. Which of the following statements is NOT true about
a computer?
1) 8085 is an example of 8-bit microprocessor.
2) Software is used to make computer usable.
3) Based on the microprocessor, systems are classified
as PC-XT and PC-AT.
4) SMPS converts AC (Alternate Current) into DC
(Direct Current).
5) None of these
185. What is the most common type of compatibility that a
software manufacturer will provide for new versions
of their software?
1) Both backward and forward compatibility
2) Neither backward nor forward compatibility

191. Which of the following statements is FALSE

concerning file names?
1) Files may share the same name or the same
extension but not both.
2) Every file in the same folder must have a unique
name.
3) The file extension comes before the dot (.) followed
by the files name.
4 ) File extension is another name for file type.
5) None of these
192. Verification of a login name and password is known as
1) configuration 2) accessibility 3) authentication
4) logging in
5) None of these
193. Expansion of VIRUS is
1) Vital information resource under siege
2) Vital information reference under size
3) Vital information resource under size
4) All
5) None of these
194. Internet Banking means
1) Meeting of banks on Internet
2) Net practice
3) Banking through Internet
4) All of these
5) None of these
195. ________ program is used to detect overall system
malfunction.
1) System software
2) Application software
3) Utilities

4) System diagnostics
5) System analysis
196. To separate mechanism from policy ________ is used
in operating system.
1) single-level implementation
2) two-level implementation
3) triple-level implementation
4) multi-level implementation
5) None of these
197. Which of the following is not a graphic input and
output device?
1) Digitiser
2) Tablet
3) Plotter
4) Line Printer
5) Light Pen
198. The three main parts of a computer are
1) hardware, manual and disk
2) software, hardware and disks
3) software, hardware and OS
4) monitor, systerm unit and keyboard
5) memory, microprocessor and OS
199. Which of the following is true for Database?
1) It reduces data redundancy.
2) It solves data integrity problem.
3) It includes data security features.
4) Any of the above
5) All the above
200. Based on display documents feature, how many types
of word processing packages are available?
1) Two
2) Three
3) Four
4) Five
5) Six

K
KUNDAN

Answers
(1-5):
The machine rearranges a word and a number
in each step. It rearranges the words in reverse
alphabetical order from left to right while
the square of number of letters present in
the word are arranged on right end.
Input: human 121 complex 49 conflicts 36
review 25 operational 81
Step I. review human 121 complex 49
conflicts 25 operational 81 36
Step II. review operational human complex
49 conflicts 25 81 36 121
Step III. review operational human complex
49 conflicts 81 36 121 25
Step IV. review operational human conflicts
complex 49 36 121 25 81
Step V. review operational human conflicts
complex 36 121 25 81 49
1. 2
2. 4
3. 3
4. 1
5. 1; review
After rearrangement
Step V: complex conflicts human operational
review 121 81 49 36 25
Hence, sixth from the right is review.
(6-10):
A
,!
<, #
,$
= and @
>
6. 2; From the given statement, we get
P#S
P S
... (i)
S@R
S>R
... (ii)
PAN
P N
... (iii)
Combining (i), (ii) and (iii), we get
N P S>R
Thus N > R. Hence Conclusion I (N = R)
does not follow.
Check for II. P > R. Hence, conclusion II (P
@ R) is true.
7. 5; From the given statement, we get
N$S
N=S
... (i)
S@R
S>R
... (ii)
R#Q
R Q
... (iii)
Q#T
Q T
... (iv)
Combining (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv), we get
N=S>R Q T
Now, check for I. N > R is true. Hence,
conclusion I (N @ R) follows. Again, R T.
Hence, conclusion II (R # T) is true. Thus,
both conclusions I and II follow.
8. 2; From the given statement, we get
P!S
P<S
... (i)
S#N
S N
... (ii)
N@R
N>R
... (iii)
P!Q
P<Q
... (iv)
Combining (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv), we get
Q>P<S N>R
Thus, we cant compare Q and S. Hence,
conclusion I (Q @ S) is not true.
Again, S > R. Hence, conclusion II (S @ R) is
true.
9. 5; From the given statement, we get
C$D
C = D ... (i)
D@E
D > E ... (ii)
D!G
D < G ... (iii)
C#P
C P ... (iv)
P@N
P > N ... (v)
Combining all these statements, we get
N < P C = D > E and N < P C = D < G

Thus, P
D or D
P is true. Hence,
conclusion I (D # P) is true. Again, C < G is
true. Hence conclusion II (C ! G) is true.
10. 4; From the given statement, we get
Z$R
Z=R
... (i)
Q#P
Q P
... (ii)
RAQ
R Q
... (iii)
P!K
P<K
... (iv)
Combining all these statements, we get
Z=R Q P<K
Thus, Z Q is not true. So, conclusion I (Z #
Q) is not true.
Again, we cant compare P and Z. Hence,
conclusion II (P ! Z) is not true.
(11-14):

11. 2; It is clear that the polling station is in

the southeast direction from the starting
point.
12. 1; Total distance travelled by Rakesh to
reach the polling station = 40 + 20 + 30 + 10
= 100m
13. 1; Here 22 people are ahead of Rakesh.
So, Rakesh will take to cast his vote
= 22 2.5 = 55 minutes

Rakesh reached the polling station at 4o

clock. Hence, Rakesh will be able to vote at
(4 + 55 =) 55 minutes past 4o clock.
14. 2; Shortest distance = AE
( AF) 2

AE =
=

(10) 2

( EF) 2

(10) 2 =

200 = 10 2 m

( EF = 20 10 = 10m
and AF = 40 30 = 10m)
15. 1;
16. 1; Boy = Radhika grandfathers only
sons son = Radhikas fathers son = Radhikas
brother. Hence, mother of boy is Radhikas
mother.
17. 3; Words that can be formed with the
letters E, L, S, T, A
STALE, LEAST, SLATE, STEAL, TALES.
(18-21):
From the given information we can draw the
table in the following way.

K
KUNDAN
18. 1
19. 4; O and M
20. 2; N and Q
21. 3; O

(22-26):
Team

Afghanistan
Bangladesh
Hongkong
Ireland
Nepal
Netherlands
UAE

Venue

Day

Begra Chitt Dhaka Fatullah Khu Mirpur Sylhet Mon Tue Wed Thu Fri Sat Sun

Team
Venue
Day
Afghanistan
Chittagong
Saturday
Bangladesh
Begra
Thursday
Hongkong
Sylhet
Wednesday
Ireland
Khulna
Sunday
Nepal
Fatullah
Monday
UAE
Mirpur
Friday
Netherlands
Dhaka
Tuesday
22. 5
23. 2
24. 1
25. 3
26. 4
27. 5; No leader is honest
conversion
No honest is a leader.
Now, Some politicians are honest (I) + No
honest is a leader (E) = I + E = O = Some
politicians are not leaders. Hence, conclusion
I follows.
Again, Some politicians are honest
conversion
Some honest are politicians
(I) + All politicians are corrupt (A) = I + A =
I = Some honest are corrupt. Hence, the
possibility in II exists. Thus, conclusion II
follows.

28. 5; Some people are intelligent (I) + All

intelligent are honest (A) = I + A = I = Some
people are honest. Hence, the possibility in
II exists. Thus, conclusion II follows.
Again, All intelligent are honest
conversion
Some honest are intelligent
(I) + No intelligent is smart (E) = I + E = O
= Some honest are not smart. Hence,
conclusion I follows.
29. 5; Some writers are poets (I) + All poets
are singers (A) = I + A = I = Some writers are
singers. Hence, conclusion I follows.
Many singers are actors
conversion
Some actors are singers (I) + No singer is a
dancer (E) = I + E = O = Some actors are not
dancers. Hence, conclusion II follows.
30. 5; All poets are singers (A) + Many
singers are actors (I) = No conclusion. But
the possibility in I exists. Hence conclusion
I follows.
Again, All poets are singers (A) + No singer
is a dancer (E) = A + E = E = No poet is a
dancer. Hence, conclusion II follows.
31. 1; Some Indians are Pakistanis
conversion
Some Pakistanis are Indians

(I) + All Indians are honest (A) = I + A = I =

Some Pakistanis are honest. Hence
conclusion I follows.
Again, No American is Indian (E) + Some
Indians are Pakistanis (I) = E + I = O* =
Some Pakistanis are not Americans. Hence
conclusion II does not follow.
(32-36):
India beats Pakistan
ra ja sa
... (i)
Pakistan beats Australia
sa ja ga ... (ii)
Australia beats no any team
ga na pa ta ja
... (iii)
team performance
pa ma
... (iv)
From (i), (ii) and (iii), beats
ja ... (v)
From (i), (v) and (ii), Pakistan
sa ... (vi)
From (v), (i) and (vi), India
ra ... (vii)
From (ii), (v) and (iii), Australia
ga ... (viii)
From (iii) and (iv), team
pa
... (ix)
From (iv) and (ix),
performance
ma
... (x)
From (iii), (viii), (ix) and (v)
no/any
na or ta
32. 3
33. 2
34. 1
35. 5
36. 5
(37-41):

92. 5; The series is 1 + 1, 3 + 2, 5 + 3, 7

+ 4, 9 + 5, ...
93. 2; The series is 2 + 2, 2 2 ... (repeated
alternately)
94. 5; The series is 0.5, 1.5, 2.5, 3.5,
4.5, ...
95. 2; The series is +13, 11, +7, 5, +3,
Note: Consecutive prime numbers subtracted
and added alternately.
96. 5; (150 20 15) ? = 600
45000
or, ? =
= 75
600
0.4 1.5
97. 3; ? =
=3
0.2
2
4
98. 1; ? = 2295

= 680
3
9
3.9
99. 2; ? = 10 +
= 10 + 3 = 13
1.3
2914
3
100. 2; ? =

= 141
31
2
101. 3; Total number of male voters from
4
constituency A in City X = 11844
12
= 3948
3
9212
Similarly, in constituency D =
7
= 3948
8
5922 = 3384
In constituency E =
14
9
5464 = 2961
In constituency G =
16
Total number of voters from (A + D + E +
G) = (3948 + 3948 + 3384 + 2961) = 14241
102. 1; Total number of voters from
constituency A, B and C = 11844 + 7896 +
6580 = 26320
Total number of voters from constituency
D, E and F in City Y = 5316+ 17720 + 6202
= 29238
26320
100 = 90.01%
Reqd % =
29238
103. 5; Total number of male voters from
City X in constituency (D + E)
= 3948 + 3384 = 7332
Total number of female voters from City Y
in Constituency A and C = 7974 + 5316
= 13290
Reqd ratio = 7332 : 13290 = 1222 : 2215
104. 5; Number of males from the
constituencies in City X
4
11844 = 3948
A=
12

9
5264 = 2961
16
5
8554 = 3290
H=
13
Total = 30691
105. 2; Number of females from B, F and H
in City X
4
2
8
7896 +
10528 +
8554
=
6
8
13
= 5264 + 2632 + 5264 = 13160
Number of males from F, G and H in City Y
3
11
2
6202 +
16834 +
4430
=
14
19
10
= 2215 + 9746 + 886 = 12847
Difference = 13160 12847 = 313
106. 5; Area of rectangle
1
9
= 9
cm2 =
cm2
3
3
G=

Now, area of equilateral triangle =

3 2
a
4

K
KUNDAN

37. 4
38. 5
39. 1
40. 5
41. 1; Italy, Russia, France and UK
42. 3; Follows from the third sentence.
43. 2; The above passage does not say clearly
about the growth of GDP and FDI.
44. 1; An assumption is something taken for
granted, so option 1) is the correct answer.
45. 3; If education is not so crucial an issue,
how can political parties he blamed?
46. 5; Only D is the statement which can be
concluded from the above passage.
47. 1; This mass appeal helps encompass
the public sphere.
48. 1; It gives a remedy of the problem
through which death rate can be controlled.
49. 5
50. 4; As the game proceeds lot of Indian
fans will make their presence felt in
Bangladesh.
51. 3
52. 3
53. 2
54. 3
55. 1
56. 5
57. 2
58. 2
59. 4
60. 1
61. 5
62. 2
63. 1
64. 2
65. 2
66. 1
67. 5
68. 3
69. 4
70. 5
71. 3; Replace earth with soil
72. 3; Replace work with working
73. 2; Replace the most with a
74. 1; Replace of with from
75. 2; Replace has with have
(76-80): CBFGAED
76. 3
77. 1
78. 4
79. 2
80. 5
81. 3
82. 1
83. 4
84. 2
85. 5
86. 1
87. 3
88. 5
89. 2
90. 4
91. 3; The series is 2 + 13, 3 + 23, 4 + 33,
5 + 43, 6 + 53, ...

B=

7896 = 2632

6
4
6580 = 2632
C=
10
3
9212 = 3948
D=
7
8
5922 = 3384
E=
14
F=

6
10528 = 7896
8

According to the question,

9
3 2
a = 3
3
4
a = 6 cm
Perimeter = 3a = 18 cm
107. 2;

Given perimeter of rhombus = 52 cm

52
So, side =
= 13 cm
4
Now, diagonal AD = 10 cm
ED = 5 cm

Now, EC = CD2 ED2 = 132 52 = 12 cm

Now, BC = 12 2 = 24 cm
1
1
d1 d 2 =
24 10
Area of rhombus =
2
2
= 120 cm2
108. 4;

Area grazed = area of sector with radius 28m

1 2 1 22
r
28 28 616 cm2
Then,
4
4 7

22
7 7 = 154 cm2
7
Now, area of square = 154 + 15 = 169 cm2
Side of square = 13 cm
Hence, perimeter of square = 13 4 = 52 cm
110. 2; Let the present age of the man be x
years and that of his son be y years.
Then, x = 4y
... (i)
According to the question, 15 years ago
(x 15) = 7(y 15)
or, x 15 = 7y 105
or, x 7y = 90
... (ii)
109. 3; Area of circle =

Putting the value of x from eqn (i) in equation

(ii), we get
4y 7y = 90
or, 3y = 90
y = 30 years
Sons age after 12 years = 30 + 12 = 42 years
111. 3; Let x be the number.
Ratio = 7x : 5x : 3x
(100 7x) + (500 5x) + (1000 3x)
= 31000
x=5
Hence `500 notes = 500 5 5 = `12500
112. 3; Let the initial price be `x.
Then, the price in first year = `x
Second year = `1.2x
Third year = `1.44x
Fourth year = `1.728x
Now, 1.728x 1.44x = 144
or, 0.288x = 144
x = `500
Hence, the price at the end of the second
120
year = `500
= `600
100
113. 3; Let CP be `x
According to the question,
550 x = 3(x 350)
or, x = `400
114. 4; Let the sum be `x and the rate be r%.
Then, the diference of SI and CI = r% of SI
for two years
r
1560
Then,
= 1653.60 1560
100
2
r = 12%
1560 100
Sum =
= `6500
2 12
115. 2; Let there be x kg of stones in 100 kg
rice.
x
then, (100 x ) 100 = 25
x = 20 kg
20
100
Percentage of stones mixed =
100
= 20%
116. 4; Number of hours Farhan worked
= 2 + 4 = 6 hours
Raju worked for (4 + 20 =) 24 hours
1
Let the per hour work of Farhan be
.
F
1
And that of Raju =
R
1 1
1
Then,
F R 18

18 18
1
... (i)
F R
For completing the work,
6 24
1
... (ii)
F R
Equating (i) and (ii), we get
F = 2R
Putting value of F in equation (i), we get
R = 27 hours and F = 54 hours
117. 3; Let the distance be D km.
D
Speed of the 1st train =
kmph
6
D
Speed of the 2nd train =
kmph
3
Speed of the 2nd train = 2 speed of 1st
tra in
Distance travelled by 1st train till 7 pm
D D
= 2
6 3
Now, distance between trains
D
2D
=D
=
km
3
3
or,

PE = 1

1
90
=
91
91

Odds against the event = P E : P(E) = 90 : 1

12
860
121. 2; Reqd production =
100
= 103.2 lakh tonnes
122. 3; Production increase from 2009 to
690 500
2010 =
100 = 38% increase
500
90
100
From 2010 to 2011 =
690
= 13.04% decrease
260
100
From 2011 to 2012 =
600
= 43.33% increase
80
100
From 2012 to 2013 =
860
= 9.30% decrease
Thus these years are 2010, 2011 and 2012.
Hence, there are only three years.
123. 1; Total production of steel by
Company A in year 2009, 2010, 2011 and
500 18
690 18
600 18
2013 =
+
+
+
100
100
100
780 18
18
(500 690 600 780)
=
100
100
18
2570 = 462.6 lakh tonnes
=
100
124. 3; Average production
500 690 600 860 780
=
5
= 686 lakh tonnes
Hence the production of steel is more than
average production in the year 2010, 2012
and 2013.
Thus, there are only three years in which
production of steel is more than average
production.
125. 5; Let the angle be x.
x
860 = 129
Then,
360
( 15% of 860 = 129)
129 360
x=
= 54
860
value
126. 3; Value per tonne =
tonne

K
KUNDAN
2D
1
3
Time taken = D D = 1 hours
3
3 6
1
7 pm + 1 hours = 8 : 20 pm
3
118. 2; Reqd number of ways = 9 C 5 7 C 4
= 4410
119. 5;

Six girls can be arranged in 5! ways and 6

boys can be arranged in 6 places in between
girls in 6! ways. So, the number of ways =
5!6!
120. 3; Total number of bags = 14
Number of ways of selecting 3 bags from 14
bags = 14C3
Number of ways of selecting 3 black bags
from 4 black bags = 4C 3
Probability that three bags are black P(E)
4
C3
1
= 14
=
C3
91

Difference
127. 1; % increase = Pr evious year 100

165 144
100
144
= 14.58%
128. 2; Average quantity of export of sugar
12 15 10 13 20 22
92
=
=
6
6
= 15.33 tonnes
Thus, in the year 2012 and 2013, the export
quantity of sugar was more than average
quantity of sugar export.
129. 2;
230 1000
165 1000
Difference =

20 1000
15 1000
= 11.5 11 = `1.5
130. 4; Quantity of sugar exported in 2014
= 1.25 22 tonnes = 27.5 tonnes
Value of sugar exported in 2014 = 1.4 275
= `385 thousand
1.4 275
Value per kg in 2014 =
= `14
1.25 22
Now, 2009 to 2010 =

16
490000 78400
100

54
3900 thousand = 585 thousand
360
138. 4; Health insurance cover customers
=

72
3900 = 780
360
Properly insurance cover customers
=

54
3900 = 585
360
Total = 780 + 585 = 1365
=

Reqd % =

1365
100 35%
3900

139. 4
140. 3; Number of customers under reiterment

K
KUNDAN

131. 2; Hyundai =
Santro =

7
78400 = 68600
8

Average monthly sales =

132. 3; Maruti 800 =

68600
12

plan in 2010

5717

43 78 54
100
100 100 100

= 18.1%
133. 4; Required number of units
54 78 (43 7)
490000 74300
=
100 100
100
134. 5; Difference
6 490000 54 490000 5

=
100
100
100
= 29400 13230 = 16170
135. 3; Sales of Alto

54 78 19
490000
100 100 100
= 39213.72 39214
Sales of other manufacturers
3 490000
=
100
= 14700
=

Exceeds by (39214 14700 =) 24514

136. 3; From the graph we see increase in
the number of customers only in the year
2010 and 2012.
So, in 2010
2880 2371 = 504 thousand
In 2012
3900 2716 = 1184 thousand
137. 2; Reqd number of customers

Similarly, 2012

36
2880 = 288
360

36
3900 = 390
360

390 288
100 35%
288
141. 1 142. 3 143. 2 144. 4 145. 3
146. 1 147. 5 148. 3 149. 4 150. 4
151. 2 152. 3 153. 4 154. 3 155. 4
156. 2 157. 3 158. 1 159. 4 160. 1
161. 5 162. 4 163. 2 164. 5 165. 3
166. 1 167. 5 168. 1 169. 2 170. 1
171. 1 172. 2 173. 4 174. 2 175. 2
176. 3 177. 2 178. 2 179. 2 180. 1
181. 3 182. 1
183. 3; POST: Power-On Self-Test refers to
routines run immediately after power is applied, by nearly all electronic devices.
184. 5
185. 3 186. 1 187. 2 188. 4 189. 2
190. 2 191. 3 192. 3 193. 1 194. 3
195. 4 196. 2 197. 4 198. 3 199. 5
200. 1
Reqd % =