Pega Cssa

24 8 8 26 Questions
Topic
Implementation and Performance

2. Reports
3. Application Deployment
4. BPM
5. BRE
6. General PRPC Architecture
7. UI
8. Services and Connectors
9. Rule Resolution and Achieving Reusability
10. Security
1.
Total
10.5
7
3.5
9
7
5
7
7
9
5
70
General PRPC Architecture

1.
2.
The BLOB is stored in the pzPVStream column of a table and contains the data associated with
the instance. Which two statements are true
a)
Since it is a column in a table in a database you can extract the BLOB and use it in
another system
b)
The BLOB contains the same clear text xml which you see when clicking the rule data or
the View XML option on the clipboard
c)
The "pzPVStream" can be eliminated by use of simple tables (those without embedded
pages and page lists)
d)
The BLOB enables a single table to store complex data structure that would normally
require multiple tables in a non blob database.
What determines which table a work object is persisted to? (Choose one)
a)
b)
The Data-Admin-DB-Table record for the class group the work object belongs to and
the Access Group
The Rule-Set the class belongs and Data-Admin-DB-Table definitions
3.
4.
5.
6.
c)
Data-Admin-DB-Table record associated to the class group the work object belongs to
d)
The Rule-Set the class belongs to
Which of the following are disk based caches ?(choose two)

a)
Rule Instance Cache
b)
Static Contect Cache
c)
Look up list cache
d)
Conclusion cache
e)
Dictionary cache
How can you debug an agent using Tracer(choose one)

a)
There is a way to select the agent and force its execution
b)
You can delay the agent processing from SMA and then trace the given requestor
c)
We can set a breakpoint in the activity that the agent runs to have tracer pick it up
d)
We can set a log message step in the activity the agent runs to have tracer find the
activity
Which two of the below statements are about exposing BLOB data(Choose two)
a)
Declare expression or Declare Trigger rules can be used to copy a single embedded
property to a top level page property and can be exposed
b)
Declare Index rules can be used to expose many or all of the items in an embedded list
or group
c)
Ask your DBA to create a database level index.This is a good mechanism to expose
embedded properties
d)
Exposing a new property with the Modify Databse schema Wizard will automatically
populate all rws of the new column - both for new rows and existing rows
Why is allowing instances to be stored in a default table(pr_other) a poor design

practice?(choose one)
a)
The default table does not contain adequate indexes and columns for performance
b)
Data is purged by the system cleaner
c)
The default table names are too generic
d)
The default table is too small to hold of ur data
e)
7.
8.
PRPC can be installed using a WAR or EAR configuration.Which of the following NOT require an
EAR configuration (choose one)
a)
JMS message services support need to be provided
b)
Support for two-phase commits is required
c)
Support for EJB services need to be provided
d)
J2EE security is required
e)
JSR-94 support is required
Which two statements are true about RuleSet prerequisites?(Choose 2)

a)
9.
10.
Because the Preflight tool will flag it as bad practice
Ruleset prerequisites as specified in the "Requires Ruleset and Versions" fields of the
Ruleset form are enforced at runtime
b)
Pre-requisites Rulesets govern the creation of new rules during development
c)
RuleSet prerequisites are validated during export of application archives
d)
When saving Application rules, Ruleset prerequisites are validated
Which of the following is true about Data-Agent-Queue instance (Choose one)

a)
Data-Agnet-Queue instances are not locked so they allow you to control the behavior
of Agents in a locke RuleSet at run time
b)
Data-Agent-Queue instances are created by PRPC to support the new Queue for Agent
functionality which was provided in PRPC 5.4
c)
Data-Adgent-Queue instances are created automatically by PRPC whenevr Queue-ForAgent method is used in an activity step to queue work for agent
d)
Data-Agent-Queue instances are data instances which are used by the Queue manager
functionality to allow for concurrent access to a queued piece of work by agents running
on multiple nodes
e)
Data-Agent-Queue instances represent the master definition of PRPC agents and have
been deprecated in PRPC 5.4 in favor of using Rule-Agent-Queue
What does the system pulse do(choose three)

a)
It is used by PRPC to synchronize changes to the Data-Agent-Schedule instances

whenever a Rule-Agen-Queue is modified
b)
It invalidates rule caches on a per node basis using entries in the pr_sys_updatescache
table
c)
It processes changes to the Lucene indexes that support full text searches
d)
It synchronizes the lookup list cache deletions and any rule-file-deletes
e)
11.
What does the rollback method do? (Choose one)

a)
13.
It supports incremental rollbacks
b)
Rollback is not supported by PRPC.The only way to do a rollback is by using the

compensation action method
c)
Rollback is a way to rollback an object to a previous state using the History instance for
a work object
d)
12.
It is used by PRPC to send information to PAL on a weekly basis so that the

performance analysis can be performed over a period of time
Rolls back the entire deferred stack of operation
What is the Rule Assembly Cache? (Choose one)

a)
The Rule assembly cache is a memory based cache that stores the generated XML and
resulting class files, post compilation since what finally gets executed is XML , not Java
code
b)
The Rule Assembly cache is a memory cache which is used to determine the right
instance or existence of the generated Java code on disk used by the classloader
c)
The Rule Assembly Cache is a memory cache of the rule data accessed when using the
Obj-Open, Obj-Open-By-Handle.The cache is checked when rule data is needed
d)
The Rule Assembly cache is used by PRPC to feed the instance cache as the instance
cache is the instance of a given rule for which code has been generated
Which of the following statements are true(Choose 2)

a)
The overall size of a PRPC work object impacts the time it takes to compress and store
the onject in the database
b)
During ListView execution, PRPC will only retrieve/expand the BLOB if the properties
retrieved are not exposed
c)
During ListView execution, PRPC will only retrieve/expand the BLOB if the properties
used in the generated where clause are not exposed
d)
e)
PRPC only retrieves/expands the BLOB via the use of the Obj-Open and obj-Open-BHandle methods
By default the PRPC BLOB is stored in an encrypted format in the database
Implementation and Performance

14.
15.
Your application just went into production and the users are complaining that response times
are terrible.Your best initial action should be?(Choose one)
a)
Use the PLA-PegaRULES Log Analyzer to analyze the ALERTS, System Logs and GC
b)
Run PAL on every screen in the application
c)
Run Pre-Flight
d)
Ask the DBA to monitor the database
Which of the following statements are true regarding the PRPC log files?(Choose 2)
a)
16.
17.
The Alert log contains garbage collection details to help support performance
monitoring
b)
The Pega Log details the internal runtime exceptions thrown by the Application Server
c)
The Pega Log contains messages created by the Application Server
d)
The Log Usage log contains details on how the system is being used
e)
The alert log contains only alerts and supports performance monitoring.
Which three actions help to optimize your database or promote effective SQL statements
(Choose three)
a)
Partition the database
b)
Avoid arithmetic operations or functions in the where clause
c)
write queries that operate on large results sets but only display small amounts of data
d)
Create and use indexes effectively
e)
Avoid using Where clauses
Which one stmt is true regarding configuring log files in PRPC(Choose one)
a)
You can configure within an activity rule which log file you want to write errors to
b)
You are able to configure within SMA which rules write to which log files
18.
c)
You can update prlogging.xml file to change the efault PegaRules log file name
d)
You can update the prlogging.xml file to change the log file names, roll over settings
and even add new log files for specific rule type and class within PRPC
Which one of the following is not a refactoring tool provided by PRPC (Choose one)
a)
19.
20.
21.
Renaming a class and propagating the name change through the heirarchy and rule
references
b)
Converting a Map-Value into a decision table
c)
Search and replace of a string in all rules
d)
Merging one ruleset into another
Which tool gives you the broadest picture of ur systems overall health (Choose one)
a)
PAL
b)
Profiler
c)
SMA
d)
DBTrace
Which tool is best if you wanted to compare PRPC Error with alerts , as well as the JVM
garabge collection log(Choose one)
a)
PLA_ PegaRules Log Analyzer
b)
AES
c)
SMA
d)
Excel
Which two of the following statements regarding the Preflight tool are true? (Choose one)
a)
The Preflight checks rules when run to validate if they follow best practices
b)
The Preflight tool checks the Index Warnings table to find which rules have warnings on
them- (pr_index_warning table)
c)
The Preflight tool is flexible and allows for you to create your own custom warnings on
rules, possibly to implement additional best practises for client
d)
The Pre-flight tool will check for specialization and re-use and determine if your
application is following the best practices of an enterprise class structure.
22.
What is the Byte Governor Alert (PEGA0004) and how does it work?(Choose one)
a)
23.
24.
25.
It is a non-critical alert that says you have too much data on the clipboard
b)
It is triggered when the total number of bytes sent to the browser in an interaction
exceeds a byte count threshold
c)
It is triggered when the total number of bytes read to the browser in an interaction
d)
It is triggered when the total number of bytes saved to the database in an interaction
Where can you view the contents of the Rule Instance Cache? (Choose one)
a)
Using the SMA you can view the contents of the instance cache which are displayed
in the form of an excel file
b)
Using the Developer Portal you can viewe the contents of the instance cache which are
displayed in the form of an excel file and is accessed from the tools>instance cache
menu
c)
By viewing the XML files from the TEMPDIR\PRGenJava\XML directory
d)
By Viewing the XML files from the pzInsKey column by usng JDBC code
PegaRULES is installed on a multi-node system and a copy of the various caches is stored on
each node. Each of these nodes must be updated with rule changes. Which functionality in RPC
manages the update process?(choose one)
a)
Node-Pulse
b)
Rule Cache
c)
System-Update
d)
System-Pulse
What does PRPC do when executing a blocked rule (choose one)

a)
It writes a message to log4j
b)
only ignores the rule and continues to search for the next rule via rule resolution
c)
it throws an exception
d)
it either ignores the rule or throws an exception depending on the prcofig.xml setting
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
Given the following situation:A BPM application was deployed in to production 9 months ago
and was performing well initially.Now users have statrted complaining slow responses on
certain screen interactions irrespective of the time of day. Which of the following stmts is most
likly to be accurate as to the root cause of this issue (choose one)
a)
Over time more rows have been added to work, history, assignment and operator
tables and inefficient queries on them are taking longer than they did 9 months ago
b)
A memory leak in the configuration has led to more and more garbage collection over
the past 9 months
c)
If the PRPC application server has not been restarted recently it is likely the case that
the PRPC cache has not been utilized well
d)
As new rules have been added to PRPC rulebase , the database containing the rules
needs to be tuned so that frequent access to the rules is made as efficient as possible
The PAL indicator that refer to the stream are measuring what
a)
The HTML data going to the browser
b)
Any processing of requests and responses via services
c)
Reading and writing data in database
d)
Databse operations pertaining to BLOB
What are three performance impacts of having an extremely large work object
a)
Slower persistence to database as the BLOB needs to be compressed
b)
Garbage collection impacts when object is released
c)
Large clipboard page foot print
d)
Large work objects waste space in the instance cache
e)
Large work objects are stored as XML files on the files system and
Which two statements are correct in regards to Java stack trace and PRPC
a)
They are thrown only to log files when an internal engine class file throws an exception
b)
They are very helpful in debugging because it shows you the entire execution
c)
They can be found in the log file or within the application(on the screen)
d)
They are thrown only when you can call the Log-Message method and check the
Which 3 statemets are true about the Log-Message method
31.
32.
33.
34.
a)
You can force a stack trace
b)
You can specify the file name where you want to write the message
c)
It allows you to avoid using Java steps to write to the PegaRULEs log
d)
You can add a message that will show up in tracer
e)
It always uses the Debug log level
Where do you configure the thresholds for alerts

a)
PRLOGGING .XML
b)
Rule-Admin-System Settings
c)
PRCONFIG.XML
d)
You cannot customize the thresholds, the defaults are fine and do not need to
customize
Which features are available when using tracer (choose two)

a)
You can set a breakpoint for a specific step within an activity
b)
Open an named clipboard page to display current data
c)
Select which requestor session you wish to trace
d)
Re-run a specific set of steps with updated data
Which one of the folowing is most true about DB trace and Application Profiler(choose one)
a)
They are essentally the same thing .ts personal preference as to which to use
b)
You can see activity rule executions only in the application profiler
c)
To see where database actions are taking place, the Application profiler provides more
details
d)
The Application profiler is the better tool to see the step-by-step where the elapsed
and CPU time
Which of the following statements is true regarding PRPC and garbage collection (Choose
One)
a)
Effective clipboard management is one of the best ways for an architect to reduce an
applications memory footprint performing garbage collection
b)
When available additional JVM heap space will always improve the time in garbage
collection
35.
c)
As PRPC architects it is important to set properties to null so that they can be discarded
as part of garbage collection
d)
As long as reporting is done by a third party tool garbage collection will have a minimal
impact on the performance of a PRPC
Which of the following measurements are not used by the alerts reported to PRPC Alert log?
(Choose) refer PR Help (Understanding alerts)
a)
The overall time elapsed from when a user triggers Client Side Java Script
b)
The time spent executing Declarative expressions
c)
The time for a response from a web service called using the Connect-SOAP method
d)
The time for a database query to execute and return results to PRPC
e)
The size of the HTML stream returned to the user/browser
Rule Resolution and Achieving Reusability

36.
37.
38.
You want to restrict the developers to save the rules that apply to the MyApp-LoanJumboLoan class only in JumboLoanRS ruleset.How do you accomplish this(choose one)
a)
Use the restriction tab on the class definition form
b)
Create an access rule
c)
Lock the JumboLoanRS ruleset
d)
Crate a series of activities and declarative xpressions
According to Pega best practices in which class should rules that are reusable at divisional
level be placed. MyCo stand for an arbitrary company name and Div1 stands for an arbitrary
division name (choose one)
a)
Work-
b)
MyCo-
c)
MyCo-Work-
d)
Myco-Div1-Work-
When are RuleSet pre-requisites important?

a)
In both development and run-time
b)
In run time only
c)
In development only
d)
39.
40.
41.
Which one of the following technique is most appropriate for specializing business rules for
country and state
a)
Rule Set only (e g a separate ruleset where rules aply to the same)
b)
Class and Ruleset
c)
Circumstancing
d)
A or B depending on additional details
e)
B or C depending on additional details
Which two statements are true about EAA?

a)
EAA can generate a FrameWork and corresponding Implementation Layer in one go
b)
You need to generate Framework and Implementation layer in two separate EAA runs
c)
The EAA can create the Enterprise Organizational and Divisional Reuse layers
d)
When generating a New Implementation, I can pick the work classess in the
FrameWork to go
What is the Int-Class in the Divisional Reuse layer used for (choose one)
a)
42.
43.
None of the above
For generated connector class and rules that are shared by all application within a
division
b)
For classes and rules internal to a given division
c)
For generated connector class and rules that are shared across all divisions
d)
To internationalize an application
Rules with Circumstances rank ahead of unqualified rules (choose 2)

a)
except when the base rule flag is checked on the circumstanced rule
b)
even when the unqualified rule is in a higher rules set version
c)
except when the base rule flag is checked on the unqualified rule
d)
only when the unqualified rule is in the same same ruleset version as the
circumstanced rule
If user A is owrking in version 01-01-02 and user B is working in version 01-01-03 of the same
RuleSet and if user A modifies an activity in his version which user B is also working on in his
version, what does PRPC do?(choose one)
44.
45.
46.
a)
The situation will never occur as PRPC will never allow you to check out the activity in
version 01-01-03, if it has been checked out in version 01-01-02
b)
PRPC will flag the activity in version 01-01-03 with a merge flag which user B will have
to manually resolve by reponding to changes that user A introduced similar to how
other SCMS/RCS systems such as ClearCase work
c)
PRPC will not warn User B if user A modifies the activity in a lower version of the same
Ruleset
d)
PRPC will warn User B if User A modifes the activity in a lower version of the same
Ruleset by diplaying a yellow warning at the bottom of the rule.
Which of the following statements is false? (Choose one)

a)
The Enterprise class structure allows building enterprise grade application that are
scalable and extensible
b)
Pega best practices call for all applications on PRPC v 5 platform be built using the
Enterprise Class Structure pattern
c)
The Enterprise Class Structure provides the foundation for superior application
performance
The primary reason to using the Enterprise Class structure to reach reusability goals is
(Choose one)
a)
To put most rules in the Enterprise shared layer
b)
To create new classes for each type of implementation
c)
To consider the most appropriate class and ruleset for each rule
d)
To use it as is and do not try to alter it
Which one statement is valid for As-Of date processing and date qualified
circumstancing?(Choose one)
a)
As-Of date using a property on the work object and date qualified circumstancing uses
the current system time
b)
As-of date processing uses the rule whose date circumstance matches a work object
property
c)
As-of date processing requires a RuleSet effective date
d)
Data qualified circumstancing allows selecting rules based on a work object property.
47.
48.
49.
Which statement is true about withdrawn rules?(Choose one)

a)
Withdrawn rules make refactoring the class a rule "applies to" easier
b)
Seting a rule's availabiltiy to "Withdrawn" is the same as setting it to "NO"
c)
Withdrawn rules remove all instances of the rule from the database
d)
Withdrawn rules are the same as blocked rules
Which one of the following is not a fundamental way to improve reusability (Choose one)
a)
Thoroughly document all rules
b)
Paramterize rules
c)
Use a Dynamic class referencing design pattern
d)
Limit ur design to utilize not more than 8 different rule types
e)
Use naming conventions when naming rules
Withdrawn rules are important in reuse and specialization because(choose one)

a)
50.
It is the primary way to notify other developers that the rule should not be refused
b)
It is the primary way to notify other developers that the rule can be reused but should
not be overridden
c)
It allows a developer to move the rule to a more generic class in the class structure
d)
it allows a developer to use an older version of the same rule (and the same applies to
class)
When circumstancing a rule, a base version of the rule to be circumstanced must already exist
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
BPM
51.
Work Parties are(Choose one)

a)
Stored in a page group with the subscript representing the role of the party
b)
Stored in a page list with the subscript representing the priority of the party
c)
Only used if the application is sending email correspondence
d)
Data instances that are linked to work objects as attachments
52.
53.
54.
55.
Which two statements are true about Rule-HTML-Property Instances (Choose two)
a)
Rule-HTML-Property instances cannot be circumstanced
b)
Rule-HTML-Property instances belong to a ruleset version
c)
Rule-HTML-Property instances can accept parameters as input
d)
Rule-HTML-Property instances have an applies to class
Which two of the following statements are true about folders? (Choose 2)
a)
Folders can contain 2 covers
b)
A folder can contain another folder
c)
A folder contains an embedded page of all the work objects that it contains
d)
A folder cannot have a process run on it
e)
A folder does not have a status
Which one of the following statements is true about work object history in PRPC (choose one)
a)
History is automatically added during key events, such as SLA deadlines as well as by
application specific rules
b)
History is automatically deleted from the PRPC database when the associated work
object is resolved
c)
History is only added by application specific rules
d)
History is stored as a page list inside a work object so it can be easily displayed in the
harness.
Which one of the following stmts are true regarding passing page references to
activities(Choose one
a)
b)
c)
d)
Both page name parameters and prompt pages provide a way to pass a page reference
to an activity so page names dont need to be hardcoded
Page name parameters can only be used to pass top-level pages
Page names parameters create aliases for pages that can be used by any rule that is
executed after an activity
Passing pages by reference requires java Code
56.
Which two of the following statements are true about covers?(choose 2)

a)
b)
By default, only one covered item that belongs to the same cover can be processed at a
time.
c)
Covers cannot belong to a folder
d)
Covers can only cover 10 objects or less
e)
57.
58.
59.
Covers cannot cover another cover
The links between a cover and its covered objects is stored using foreign keys in the
database this is not right Raju Botu
In which order does validation occur on a standard flow action (choose one)
a)
Client Side Validaion, Post processing Activity, Validate Rule on Flow Action
b)
Client Side Validation, Validate Rule on Flow Action, Post processing Activity
c)
Validate Rule on Flow Action,Client Side Validaion, Post processing Activity
d)
You can change the order per screen
Which statement is true regarding the initial harness that is displayed for a work object
?(choose one)
a)
The initial harness is defined in the pyDefault model
b)
The initial harness is defined on every flow
c)
The initial harness is only defined for flows that create new work objects and is
required
d)
The initial harness can be skipped and this is configuration from the flow rule.
Which one of the following actions could set different urgency values for a work object and
an assignment on that work object?(choose one)
a)
An assignment's SLA has an urgency escalation
b)
An update to the work object urgency occurs when a lock is not obtained on the
assignment
c)
An update occurs to the assignment SLA and pyUrgencySync property is set to false
There is no such property
d)
This cannot occur as a rule-declare-trigger is used to keep the values in sync
This is achieved by a rule declare expression.
60.
61.
62.
Which of the following statements are true about the Split-For-Each and Split-Join shapes
(choose 2)
a)
Boths shapes allow you to continue processing when ANY or ALL of the sub processes
complete
b)
Split-Join allows you to execute different sub-flows whereas split-for-each calls the
same process on different pages.
c)
Split-For-Each allows you to execute different sub-flows whereas Split-Join calls the
same process on different pages
d)
Both shapes create separate threads for sub-processes they create
e)
Split-For-Each can only be used when iterating over a list of work objects
Which one statement best explains how you can control navigation within a screen flow?
a)
Each step in the screen flow allows you to determine if u can jump to this step or if you
can only jump back after it has been completed
b)
Screenflows only support assignment shapes thus always have a predefined number of
steps to complete
c)
The harness determines if u r able to jump forward to future steps in a screen flow
d)
Screen flows force the end user to walk through the flow in sequential order without
the ability to jump from one screen to another
What are the 6 R's (Choose 6)

a)
Report
b)
Receive
c)
Resolve
d)
Respond
e)
Route
f)
Research
63.
Which one of the following stmts is true abt worklists and workbaskets (Choose one)
a)
64.
b)
getnextwork only uses workbaskets when determing which work to process
c)
WorkBaskets automatically notify all eligible oprators that new work exists
d)
Work can only be routed to a workbasket if a Data-Admin-Operator ID exists for the

specified WorkBasket
Which one of the following stmts is true about the implementation of PRPC's Spin-off flow
behavior
a)
Spin-off flows are executed in the current requestor in a serial manner, however they
do provide business parallelism the users to have assignments on the same work object
b)
Spin off flows achieve greater throughput by allowing assignment to be worked on by

multiple users by acquiring separate locks for each sub process
c)
Spin-off flows create separate threads which will allow for faster processing of
assignments - They Run on same node
d)
65.
66.
Work can only be routed to a worklist if a data-admin-operator-id exists for the

specified worklist
Spin-off flows create separate requestor so that work can be assigned to different user
Given the requirement, need to route the work to the operator specified in the
.RecommendedOperator property, if the property is not present then route it to
GeneralWorkBasket" Which one of the following approaches is most vlid(choose one)
a)
Create a single assignment shape, set it to worklist and set the switchtoWorkBasket if
.RecommendedOperator is not set
b)
Use a fork shape to determine if recommnededoperator is set or not then split to

different assignment shape respectively
c)
Create as single assignment shape and provide a when rule for the "UseWorkBasket"
d)
Build a subflow that is circumstanced on the >RecommendedOperator property
Is it appropriate to use the RDB-Save method to save/update instances to PegaRules database

compared to Obj-Save
a)
Yes, you can run SQL inserts and updates against the PRPC database for any PRPC
object
b)
Yes, but access via RDB-Save will be less efficient than an Obj-Save
c)
No, because not all properties are distinct database columns and some data may be lost
d)
67.
Which one of the following is true about the concepts of push and pull routing as
implemented in PRPC?(choose one)
a)
Assigning work to worklist is an example of push routing and using get next work to
grab work item from workbasket is pull routing
b)
Assigning work to worklist is an example of pull routing and using get next work to
grab wrok item from workbasket is push routing
c)
Using a load balancing algorithm to assign work to individual operators in an example

for pull routing
d)
68.
No, the byte governor will prevent me from opening an RDB connection to the
PegaRules database
A single application should only use one type of routing, push or pull
Which 3 statements are true about the primary and step pages within activities
a)
A primary page acts as the context page for the activity
b)
A step in an activity where the Step page column is blank indicates that the step page is
primary page
c)
When iterating through embedded pages, each instance of the embedded page
becomes a step page
d)
When an activity calls another rule the primary page of the calling activity becomes
primary page of the called activity this also looks like true
e)
The keyword primary always refers to a top level page
BRE
69.
The calculation types (sum of ,value of etc)available in a rule declare expression

a)
Depend on the "applies to" class of the rule
b)
Depend on the expression is context free or context sensitive
c)
Depend on the type of the input properties
d)
Depend on the type of target property
70.
71.
72.
73.
According to Pegas best practice what is the recommended way to implement client side
calulations ?Example you have a products on the screen each with a price. As you change the
price the Grand total should automatically be updated (choose one)
a)
Put an onchange client event on each of the price inputs and have it use the refresh
section event to call an activity for grand total
b)
Build a declarative expression to calcuate the grand total and use the calculated value
HTML property on the GrandTotal screen displaying it This looks right
c)
Build a declare to calculate the Grand Total and refresh the section when inputs
change- This is not right
d)
Use onChange client events on the input events and have them alter the vlaues in the
GrandTotal property
Choose three times when a Thread Level Declarative Page is removed from memory
a)
When the user doesnt not refer to it for a duration more than the timeout setting
b)
When the user logs out
c)
when the user session expires
d)
when the application server is brought down
e)
when the SMA is used to refresh a declarative page
Which of the following rules do fit the "Build for Change" paradigm and are best candidates
for being delegated
a)
Rule-File-Text
b)
Rule-Declare-Casematch
c)
Rule-Declare-Constraint
d)
Rule-Declare-Decision Tree
e)
Rule-Edit-Validate
f)
Rule-Obj-When
Rule-Declare-Onchange rules are different from Rule-Declare-Expression (choose one)

a)
OnChange rules can execute an activity directly rather than set a single property
b)
Onchange rules require a front end user to make the change
c)
OnChange can only track top level properties
d)
74.
Onchange rules only use backward chaining to track changes whereas expressions can
use either of them
Which of the following is a difference between a declarative page defined as node level
versus thread level (choose one)
a)
Node level pages are read only and thread level are not
b)
Thread level pages can use a when to determine when the page needs to be refreshed,
node level cannot
c)
Node level pages must be named Declare_Node_<PageNAme>
d)
Node level pages are loaded when PRPC starts up and thread level pages are loaded
when the user logins in - Declarative pages are created only when requested the first time a
requestor attempts to access a property value on the page
75.
Which of the following two are Declarative Rules? (Choose two)
76.
77.
a)
Rule-Declare-DecisionTree
b)
Rule-Declare-Decisiontable
c)
Rule-Obj-MapValue
d)
Rule-Declare-Expression
e)
Rule-Declare-Onchange
Which of the following is false?(choose one)

a)
Decision Tables can call other Decision tables without having to use a utility function
b)
Decision Trees can call other Decision Trees without having to use a utility function
c)
Decision Trees can call other Decision Trees,Decision Table or Map Values without
having to use a utility function.
d)
Decision Tables can call other Decision Trees,Decision Table or Map Values without
having to use a utility function.
As part of BRE implementation, is it possible to execute unordered rules dynamically if given a

set of conditions that state execute all Decision rules when Stste is Ohi, and audit as to which
rules get executed?(choose one)
a)
No PRPC has no OOTB faclities to support this and we will have to buid something
custom to support this
b)
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
Yes, you can do this using a List View in conjunction with a Rule-Declare-Collection
c)
Yes, you can do this using a Summary View in conjunction with a Rule-DeclareCollection
d)
Yes, you can do this using a Rule-Declare Expression in conjunction with a Rule-DeclareCaseMatch
e)
Yes you can do this using a Rule-Declare-Trigger in conjunction with Rule-Obj-MapValue
True or False: Decision tables can associate a privilege with ability to edit each individual cell
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
During the execution of a Rule-Declare-Onchange will delclarative expressions execute?

(Choose one)
a)
Yes
b)
No
Which one of the following rules can use backward chaining as a method of propagation
?(Choose one)
a)
Rule-Declare-Expression
b)
Rule-Declare-OnChange
c)
Rule-Declare-Constraint
d)
Rule-Declare-Trigger
e)
Rule-Declare-CaseMatch
If you created Rule-Declare-Expression on a target property A first, will PRPC let you to use
property A in the left hand side of a property-set in a new activity?
a)
Yes
b)
No
Decision Table rules can be edited in Excel

a)
True
b)
FALSE
Reports
83.
84.
85.
86.
Which three statements are true about List View reports?(choose 3)

a)
A listview report can be displayed in a flow action
b)
Both developers and managers can create and update list view rules
c)
In an activity a List View rule can be executed to provide searching and sorting with
activity step method
d)
List View reports can only run queries against PRPC assignment and work objects table
It can run against any concrete class
What features allows the worklist to display additional data from the wotkobject(Choose two)
a)
The JOIN feature on ListVews now lets you join the assignment table to the workobject
table to add exposed columns for display
b)
The JOIN feature on ListViews now let you join the assignment table to the workobject
table to retrieve any columns
c)
The smart info hover lets you display section rule to show additional work object
information
d)
Alter the getContect activity to write custom code to look through items on worklist tp
perform additional look.
Pick the most appropriate statement about PRPC reporting (Choose one)
a)
PRPC is an excellent reporting solution and is recommended for reporting instead of

purchasing expensive Business Intelligence reporting software
b)
You can always get the reporting data you need by exposing properties as database
columns
c)
If the reporting data is stored in sources other than PRPC, you need to create
connectors to retrieve the data from the source system
d)
PRPC reporting is highly optimized, the impact of running large reports in a production
system is negligible
e)
PRPC includes powerful BAM reports that provide business managers with real-time
and historical information to measure and manage business process performance
Which two statements are true about the getContent activity? (Choose two)
a)
The getContent activity should not be replaced as it provides highly optimized retrieval
of reporting data
b)
You can customize the getContent activity for creating a copy of the same name in your
application ruleset
c)
Customizing the getContent activity allows you to fetch data from sources other that
databases
d)
Date can be fetched from an external database table so long as the key of the table is
mapped to the pxInsHandle property.
Supporting Info: For an external class, identify the property that holds the key to a row. In a custom GetContent
activity, copy the value of this property to the property pxInsHandle on each page in the pxResults list. For
example, if the key of the row is named customerID, then the custom activity can use this SQL syntax to return the
data from the database: Select customerID as pxInsHandle
In most cases, accept the default getContent activity. Identify an activity that applies to the Embed-ListParams class to
support processing of results from the database operation.
When reporting on rules, you can select getContentForProfile to limit rules to those that are accessible on the report requestor's
RuleSet list.
If you implement a custom activity for unusual reporting needs, choose a name other than getContent, and identify the
activity in this field. Your activity can derive report contents from various means and sources, such as access to external
databases through connector rules and calculations, but must place the results on the page named in the Content Page Name
field and enforce the Maximum Value limit.
A few list view capabilities are disabled when an activity other than getContent is used here. See Customizing getContent
Activities in the Pega Developer Network article
PRKB-14593 How to Get Started on V4.1 Reporting for more information
on custom activities for this field.

GetContent activities and external classes
Additional considerations apply when an activity identified here accesses instances of an external class:
1. Design the activity to use an SQL alias named pxInsHandle for the key of the external table. For example:
SELECT CUSTOMERID as "pxInsHandle"
2. Use only columns of the external table that conform to Process Commander data type conventions, as follows:
Property type
Database
Text
varchar or char
DateTime
Date or DateTime
Date
varchar(8)
TrueorFalse
varchar(5)
Number
numeric data type, such as smallint
Integer
numeric data type, such as smallint
Decimal
numeric data type, such as decimal
TimeofDay
varchar(9)
87.
Which three statements are true about Summary View and List View reports (choose 3)
a)
Summary View reports allow you to drill down to another summary view report
b)
Summary View reports allow you to drill down to detailed view
c)
d)
e)
88.
List views allow you to pass in parameter values to be used as filter criteria Params
can be passed only for selection criteria.
List views allow you to pass in parameter values to be used as selection criteria
Parameters can be used to override selection criteria that are hard coded in a summary
view - Summary view accepts parameters , but they cant be hardocded
Which three statements are true about the out-of-box PRPC reports (choose 3)
a)
A database view can simplify reporting, especially with properties from two or more
classes that are in separate class groups
b)
Reports in the Monitor Processes category support day-to-day monitoring of work that
has arrived but is incomplete
c)
Reports in the Analyze performance group analyze which flow actions were selected
how often, by assignment and the timeliness of the selection
d)
Analyze performance and Analyze quality reports cover only unresolved work object
Conflict: Reports in the Analyze Performance group of the Monitor Activity workspace cover
resolved work objects and selected flow rules
Reports in the Analyze Quality area of the Monitor Activity workspace cover resolved
work objects
e)
Monitor assignment and Monitor processes reports cover resolved work objects only
Conflict: The Monitor Assignments area of the Monitor Activity workspace support
reporting on open assignments. Open assignments represent a backlog of work for
human operators
Reports in the Monitor Processes area of the Monitor Activity workspace cover
open (unresolved) work objects
f)
The Final Conflicts report allows developers to identify the rules in the current
application Rule set that conflict with previous RuleSet versions
Conflict: Use the Final Conflicts report, available from a link in the Rule Reports area of the
Monitor Activity slice, to find final rules that both have the same name and same other
visible key parts
89.
90.
Which two statements are true about reports (choose two)

a)
ListViews and SummaryView rules allow presenting the results in segments knows as
pages Only List views support Paging
b)
The criteria specified in filter by become part of the SQL where clause - No its from
selection criteria
c)
Paging improves response time and reduces the size of the clipboard
d)
The report display generated by a ListView can be embedded in a section
Which of the following statements are true about Summary Views ?(Choose two)
a)
Summary View report provide a multi-level report display with drill down capabilities
b)
The drill down capabiltity provides only the ability to invoke another Summary View
No u can drill down to detailed, list, summary

c)
d)
91.
92.
Because of the aggregate first level display, Summary Views allow you to report on
table with 10,000 + rows
Summary View rules generate HTML and JSP for display that can be further customized
Which two of the out-of-box feature do List Views Provide?

a)
Pagination
b)
Dynamic Select Control
c)
Single or Multi Selection
d)
Drag and Drop columns
e)
AJAX based calculations
Which two statements are true about List View Reports?

a)
List Views allow you to export date to Excel but for display only
b)
List View rules allow you to use Excel to add or update work and data
c)
Access to List View and Summary View rules can be controlled with privileges
d)
If you display a decimal property with only 2 decimal places, then 2 decimal placs is the
maximum precision of the value that will be exported to excel- there is no way to
display 2 decimal places but to export the valueto a precision of, 5 decimal places
Security
93.
94.
A user has the access role that allows Level 5 access to modify instances of the MyCo-WorkPolicy. What should you use to disallow access to instances of the MyCo-Work-PolicyAppEndorse class
a)
Access Settings
b)
Access Role to Object
c)
Access Deny
d)
Access Privilege
Which four statements are true about roles? (Choose four)

a)
A role defines the levels of access to rules that aply to a class and instances of that class
b)
Roles can be created and modified using the Role Editor
c)
A Role defines various levels of access to RuleSets and RuleSet versions
d)
A role defines a list of privileges a user has on a class level
e)
An acess when rule defines a test that the system performs to allow, or disallow a
requestor to perform actions on specific class
f)
An access group can only have one role defined
95. A user has the following class access mappings

. MyCo-App-Work Modify rules =3
.MyCo-App-Work-CaseCretae Modify rules=5
. MyCo-App-Work-CaseDelete Modify rules =0
Which three of the below statements are correct (choose 3)
a)
The users can modify rules in the MyCo-App-Work-Research class on a development system
b)
The User can modify rules in the MyCo-App-Work-CaseDelete class in the experimental system
c)
The user can modify rules in the MyCo-App-Work-CaseCreate class in a test system
d)
The user can modify ruoles in the MyCo-App-Work-CaseCreate calss in production
96. If an access role to Object and an access deny rule are defined on the same class which rule is
applied
a)
Access role to object
b)
Access deny
c)
PRPC prevents them from being applied to the same class
d)
None-they both are applied
97. What is true about Container managed and PRPC managed authentication (choose one)
a)
Container managed authentication disable the entire PRPC authorization mechanism(s)

Conflict: authorization A process that determines the access rights of a user after the
user is authenticated. Process Commander determines a users authorization through security rules such
as roles (Rule-Access-Role-Name) and access groups (Data-Admin-Operator-AccessGroup).
No matter how a user is authenticated internally or externally Process Commander always performs
authorization
b)
Container managed authentication cannot be used when deloying a PRPC WAR on TOMCAT
c)
eliminates the need to store Operator ID in PRPC
d)
PRPC does not support container managed authentication
98. Can the out of the box PRPC Access Roles be modified?(Choose one)
a)
No, All of these roles are in blocked RuleSets
b)
Yes, Out of the box roles are starter roles that are supposed o be customized
c)
No, Out of the box roles should be overridden in application Rulesets
d)
Yes, The Role Editor allows you to modify all roles
99. Which two statements are true about PRPC security?(Choose 2)

a)
An access group can reference one or more access roles
b)
A production level of 0 identifies an experimental system
c)
Security in PRPC can be controlled at a class level
d)
A user's Ruleset list is a proper mechanism to control access to rules
100. Access groups cannot be referenced from which of the following objects?(Choose one)
a)
Divison
b)
Unit
c)
Requestor type definition
d)
Operator ID
101. There are two session-related timeouts that are configurable in PRPC, the authentication
timeout and the requestor timeout. Which statement is true
a)
Authentication timeout should be set to occur first
b)
Requestor timeout should be set to occur first
c)
Both timeouts should be set to the same value
d)
With passivation enabled , authentication timeout should be set to 0
Services and Connectors

102. Compare SOAP and HTTP messaging protocols. Which of the below statements (Choose )
a)
HTTP is a low-overhead alternative to SOAP
A low-overhead stateless alternative to SOAP, Connect HTTP rules implement connect in a way that is consistent with
REST (Representational State Transfer).
b)
SOAP is more reliable protocol than HTTP
c)
SOAP is needed if I want to exchange XML messages

Supporting Info: Use HTTP connector rules when you want your application to send XML or string data (text) as
messages to an external system without the need to comply with messaging standards or protocols like SOAP.
d)
HTTP services can be configured to process service request asynchronously

Supporting Info: HTTP services generally process service requests synchronously. That is, they
immediately perform their requested processing and return a configured response while the
calling application waits. However, you can configure HTTP services to process service requests
asynchronously, which means the service queues the request for asynchronous execution and
the calling application calls back later for the results
e)
HTTP connectors can be generated with the Connector and Metadata
103. Which to statements are true about services and the services accelerator (Choose 2)
a)
The SA generates service activities that allow services to create or manage work
b)
The service accelerator generates a service rule for activities of your choice allowing you to
invoke those
c)
Services can be configured so that service requests that fail PRPC processing are re-queued for
another execution
d)
The performance of long running service request can be significantly improved through
requestor pooling
104. Which of the following stmts are true about service packages (choose 2)
a)
SP allow u to disable requestor pooling
b)
SP allow u 2 specify priority of requestors so that stateless requetors are used
c)
SP allow u 2 specify an access group under which the services run
d)
SP allow u 2 either execute the service synchronously or queue for later execution
105. Which two stmts are true when using the stateless services?Choose two
a)
You are guranteed to connect to a new application requestor each time the service is invoked
b)
You cannot assume which application requestor u will connect to
c)
You must manually clear the clipboard of any data left on from previous application requestors
d)
When invoked ur service may or may nt result in the creation of new application requestor
106. Which statement is true abt running Connect- methods in parallel (choose one)
a)
RunInParallel uses the same mechanism as a Spin-off flow to achieve asynchronous behavior
b)
Only connect soap rules can run in parallel
c)
d)
Connect Wait is used with the run in parallel option to wait for the parallel connection to
complete
Connect cancel can be used to cancel a running connector
107. Which method of service integration within PRPC requires the configuration of a listener?(choose
one)
a)
SOAP
b)
BPEL
c)
EJB
d)
JMS
e)
SQL
108. Which two statements are true about testing services and connectors?(choose 2)
a)
Using tools that allow u to monitor traffic and interaction between a SOAP client and service
helps you in determing where the problem lies
b)
Service invocation in PRPC cannot be traced because the requestor doesnt exist before service
execution
c)
When connect simulation is enabled for MQ connecotr, the connector itself is not tested
d)
The only way to simulate a connector when the service isnt available is to comment out the
Connect-SOAP method and replace it with an activity that directly creates pages and properties
as the connector would
109. What is the recommended way to configure Service endpoint URLs and other connector specific
information(Choose one)
a)
The requestor page
b)
The process page
c)
A Declarative page
d)
The primary page
110. What four steps must be taken to unit test a connector within a flow when the target interface
/system is not yet available(Choose 4)
a)
Create a Simulation activity
b)
Set the connector to simulate in the Simulation data instance and specify the activity
c)
Use Tracer and set a breakpoint
d)
Define a Connect simulation instance
e)
Test the flow with simulation enabled
f)
Create a new investigator task
User Interface (UI)

111. BPM
a)
Rules Inspector
b)
Tracer
c)
Style Viewer
d)
Preflight
e)
Profiler
112. Which of the following are true(choose two)
a)
Repeating list displays are only for pagelist
b)
You can display lists as rows or column list(top to bottom or left to right)
c)
You can only display a list as a row repeating lists display(list goes from top to bottom)
d)
there is no support for tabs when displaying repeating lists
e)
A section rule can be used to specify how items of the repeating list are displayed
113. Which client side events are supported within PRPC(choose 3)

a)
ONCHANGE
b)
ONMOUSEOUT
c)
ONCLICK
d)
ONBLUR
e)
ONFOCUS
114. Which two statemenst are true about SmartInfo display

a)
You can trigger the SmartInfo display by hitting the down arrow
b)
The SmartInfo display can contain a live URL
c)
SmartInfo uses AJAX texchnology
d)
The SmartInfo feature is part of Client-side processing and handled completely by the browser
115. what is the default error handling mechanism for connector rules generated through the
Connector Wizard
a)
The connector activity does not handle a failure in the connector, processing is trnsferred to
the connector error flow
b)
The connector activity handles the result of the connector via a Precondition on the step
following the
c)
The connector activity handles the result of the connector via a transition
d)
the connector activity doesnot handle a failure in the connector, processing is transferred to
the Flow problem
116. Which are the best practices when designing UI rules so they can be re-used?(choose 2)
a)
By building all displays within cells of layouts it will allow you the granularity needed to re-use
the rule
b)
By building section rules or HTML-property rules with parameters it will allow you to re-use
thee display rules more frequently within an application
c)
By grouping related data into section rules, you can re-use these sections throughout the
application and control if they should be updatabale or read-only in the parent section
d)
The best practice for re-using interface rules is to assure it is in the right part of the class
structure
117. Which one statement describes the best practice for branding an application to meet a company's
style requirements (choose one)
a)
Using the application skin wizard and then use the inline styles on the User Interface rules
b)
Use the Application Skin wizard and then modify the generated skins when needed, try to limit
inline styles
c)
Only use the style viewer and make the changes to the out of the box CSS files and your own
RuleSets
d)
Use inline styles to change displays to meet corporate standards.
Application Deployment
118. Which statements are true about creating a Rule-Admin-Product ZIP files? (Choose Two)
a)
All rules should be checked-in, otherwise errors are reported
b)
RuleSet versions must be locked
c)
You only need to include major and minor Rule-Set versions. All paches will be automatically
d)
You must create a When Rule to include data instances.
119. The customer wants to rollback a recently deployed Rule-Admin-Product which was imported into
a target prduction system. How to solve this problem in the best possible way.(choose two)
a)
By doing an export of the Rulesets from the target production system.An export also deletes
the rules which were imported
b)
By taking a DB backup before the import on the target system and restoring from the DB
backup in a case of rollback
c)
By explaining to the customer that even though the new rules are in the target system we can
controls which rules are accssed by access groups
d)
There is no way to do this in the product or outside of the product currently
e)
f)
By selectively deleing the imported rules by logging into the target system
By selectively executing delete operations on the database and hope that you deleted
everything
Pegasystems PEGACSSA-v6.2
Certified Senior System Architect (CSSA) Exam

Version: 4.0
Pegasystems PEGACSSA-v6.2 Exam

QUESTION NO: 1
Which of the following is a RuleSet versioning practice that is prevented by PRPC? (Choose One)
A. Skipping RuleSet versions
B. Having two unlocked versions of the same RuleSet
C. Locking a RuleSet that has rules currently checked out
D. Unlocking a RuleSet that was once locked
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
Which feature would you use to copy the highest version of every rule in a RuleSet to a new
version? (Choose One)
A. Copy/Merge RuleSet
B. Lock and Roll
C. Skim a RuleSet
D. Refactor on import
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
What statements most accurately explains private check-outs? (Choose Two)
A. When checking in a private checked-out rule manual merging might be required
B. Use the check-out setting in the operator preferences to specify the preferred check-out method
(standard/private)
C. Private check-out is available if the rule is checked-out by someone else
D. Locking a RuleSet prevents private check-outs
E. Private check-out is only available for a user who has previously checked in the rule
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com

QUESTION NO: 4
Which of the following best describes the purpose of Application Express? (Choose One)
A. To build a simple application that will be used for prototyping
B. To build an application profile that will be fed into the Application Accelerator
C. To build an enterprise-scale application that encourages reuse, including the Enterprise Class
Structure
D. To build an application from scratch, when an Application Profile is not necessary or available
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding declarative rules? (Choose One)
A. Declarative rules run in a separate thread
B. Declarative rules can only be used for numeric computation
C. Declarative rules should only be used in pure business rules engine applications
D. Declarative rules improve developer productivity and reduce risk by making PRPC responsible
for executing the rules
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 6
Expressions that are backward chaining (set to Whenever Used) execute when ___________.
(Choose One)
A. the target property is referenced ONLY in data transforms or activities
B. the target property is referenced in any way
C. dependent properties are changed
D. data is committed to the database
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 7
Which of the following statements are true regarding declarative expressions and their scope?
(Choose Two)
A. Declarative expressions can be defined relative to the top level page OR an embedded page
B. All declarative expressions must be defined relative to the work object
C. Defining expressions directly on data classes can improve reusability of the expression
D. The Applies To class of a declarative expression must derive from WorkE. Defining expressions directly on data classes means they will only run if the data class is a top
level page
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 8
The evaluate all rows feature of a decision table can be used to ________? (Choose One)
A. return multiple values to a declarative expression that calls it
B. return the value of the last row where all conditions are met
C. create a mechanism to calculate the sum of all matching rows
D. set the value of a specific property for all pages in a page list
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 9
Which of the following factors is most critical when deciding between Decision Trees, Decision
Tables and Map Values? (Choose One)
A. Which rule form the business users who will maintain the rule feel most comfortable with
B. Always consider Decision Trees before tables as they execute faster
C. Only consider MapValues when there is one input parameter
D. Which rule type provides the most optimal runtime performance
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 10
Given the following rules and assuming the expression is set to forward chaining (whenever inputs
change), which action will cause the expression to fire? (Choose One)
A. Changes to the values .Country or .State
B. Referencing .TaxRate
C. Referencing .Country or .State
D. Changes to the values .Country or .State as well as references to .TaxRate
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 11
Which of the following are most accurate regarding utility functions? (Choose Two)
A. Utility functions can use both the standard Java API and the PRPC Public API
B. Utility functions are called by utility shapes in flows
C. A new utility function should only be created if no other rules or provided functions can
accomplish a given requirement
D. Utility functions cannot access clipboard data
E. It is recommended, but not required, that utility functions belong to a library
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 12
Given the following decision table:
Considering clipboard values:
.Country = US .State=CA .MonthsEmployed = 9
What result value will be returned? (Choose One)

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
E. 6
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 13
A business requirement is to attach a scanned document to work items. However, only a select
group of workers should be allowed to do so. Which attachment feature would you most likely
leverage to implement your solution? (Choose One)
A. Configure an attachment category
B. Enable attachment level security
C. Define a specific access group
D. Provide a role-based attachment security
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 14
In which situation can the Data Transform rule not be used? (Choose One)
A. To set some properties as the work item advances over a flow connector
B. To copy data from a connector
C. To set initial property values on a SOAP service primary page
D. Interacting with PRPC database
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 15
Your application has leveraged the parent-child mid-process dependency relationship for some of
the case types. Which of the following situations should you be concerned with and have your

design appropriately avoid? (Choose One)
A. A double instantiation of the child cases
B. A broken process
C. A deadlock condition
D. A critical performance issue
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 16
Which statement is the least accurate regarding draft flow rules? (Choose One)
A. Rule Resolution ignores them
B. This is a good practice as it allows you to test the flow while it is still being built
C. This is a good practice to indicate that your flow is available only for unit testing
D. They should not be moved to production environment
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 17
When is it appropriate to use a spin-off? (Choose One)
A. When you wish to route work to a different department while continuing down the current
process path
B. When you wish to run calculations in a separate thread from the current process
C. When you wish to call a connector rule asynchronously
D. When you wish to call multiple connector rules simultaneously
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 18
Which two of the following statements are most accurate about the Split-For-Each and Split-Join

shapes? (Choose Two)
A. Both shapes allow you to continue processing when ANY or ALL of the sub processes
complete
B. Split-Join allows you to execute different sub-flows whereas Split-For-Each calls the same
process on different pages
C. Split-For-Each allows you to execute different sub-flows whereas Split-Join calls the same
D. Both shapes create separate Threads for sub-processes they create
E. Split-For-Each can only be used when iterating over a list of work objects
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 19
Which of the following statements about work parties is the least accurate? (Choose One)
A. Data Propagation is the only mechanism to add a work party to a child case
B. Correspondence is primarily sent to work parties
C. The AddParty flow action rule allows end users to add a word party to a work item at runtime
D. Multiple work parties on a specific work item may have the same work party role
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 20
An assignment remains unprocessed for 15 days and its urgency value is increased to 70. Which
of the following Service Level rule is most likely configured on the assignment? (Choose One)
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 21
Using the flow shown below, which flow shapes would allow a reference to a Data Transform rule?
(Choose One)
A. The "Create" assignment
B. The "Submit" connector
C. The "Process Engine" uitlity
D. The End shape
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 22
Which of the following flows is not a screen flow? (Choose One)
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 23
Which of the following property types would most appropriately represent a list of ordered line
items in a purchase order? (Choose One)
A. Page List
B. Page Group
C. Java Object
D. Value List
E. Value Group
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 24
When using a declarative page to store a list of currency rates used by an entire application, what
is the most appropriate scope? (Choose One)
A. Node
B. Requestor
C. Thread
D. Application
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 25
Which of the following sub classes of MyCo-Data-Person is least appropriate? (Choose One)
A. MyCo-Data-Person-Address
B. MyCo-Data-Person-Employee
C. MyCo-Data-Person-Contractor
D. MyCo-Data-Person-Customer
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 26
What type of property is "Drivers" in the following syntax: .Policy.Drivers(OWNER).Name?
(Choose One)
A. Page
B. Page List
C. Page Group
D. Single Value
Answer: C
Explanation:
10

QUESTION NO: 27
A linked property ___________? (Choose One)
A. is a form of a pointer to an object stored in the PRPC database
B. connects two properties on the clipboard
C. provides a way to update PRPC data objects from a work object
D. is used to dynamically build table joins when reporting
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 28
Which of the following is the best use of a data table? (Choose One)
A. Managing the mapping between account levels and discount rates (approx 10 account levels)
B. Managing the list of rules that should run when pricing a loan (approx 30 rules)
C. Managing a list of valid vendors and their addresses (approx 30 vendors)
D. Managing the effective dates of different discounts (approx 20 discounts each with up to 3
effective dates)
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 29 CORRECT TEXT

Connector simulations cannot be used in which of the following scenarios? (Choose One)
Answer: When the data source is temporarily unavailable

Answer: When the interface has not been defined
Answer: When testing an application
Answer: When the service has not been developed
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 30
Which of the following is the most appropriate use of Connect SQL rules? (Choose Two)
11

A. Execute a stored procedure against an external database
B. Execute custom SQL statements to improve performance of queries and updates to the
PegaRULES database
C. Update an external table as part of a distributed transaction
D. Execute SQL statements that contain database vendor specific syntax
E. Execute simple SQL Queries against an external database
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 31
For a SOAP Service, PRPC applies rule and data instances in which execution order? (Choose
One)
A. 1. Service Package
2. Service Rule
3. Map Inbound Data
4. Service Activity
5. Map Outbound Data
B. 1. Service Rule
2. Service Package
3. Map Inbound Data
4. Service Activity
C. 1. Map Inbound Data
2. Service Activity
4. Service Package
5. Service Rule
D. 1. Map Outbound Data
2. Service Activity
3. Map Inbound Data
4. Service Rule
5. Service Package
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 32
12

What cannot be done using the Connector and Metadata Wizard? (Choose One)
A. Generate a data structure defined by an XSD file
B. Generate connector rules for a WSDL file
C. Generate a WSDL file
D. Delete the files that are created by the wizard
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 33
Which method of service integration within PRPC requires the configuration of a listener? (Choose
One)
A. SOAP
B. EJB
C. JMS
D. SQL
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 34
Which of the following rule is most appropriate to read a comma separate value file? (Choose
One)
A. Parse Structured
B. Parse XML
C. Parse Delimited
D. Map Structured
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 35
13

The connector rules can be invoked from ________. (Choose Two)
A. Flow
B. Data Transform
C. Activity
D. Flow Action
E. Another Connector rule
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 36
The SetInfo data transform is called by the UpdateInfo flow action, which is called by the
MainFlow flow. Each rule is defined in the classes below:
MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work-TimeOff is the class of the work object. An architect wishes to

specialize SetInfo, and so he does a SaveAs into MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work-TimeOff. Will the
new specialized rule be called when MainFlow is run? If so, can the original SetInfo rule be
deleted? (Assume that UpdateInfo is the only rule that references SetInfo.) (Choose One)
A. The specialized SetInfo rule will not be called. UpdateInfo is in the more general class and
therefore cannot call a rule in a more specific class.
B. The specialized SetInfo rule will be called. However, the original rule should be retained to
prevent design-time validation errors.
C. The specialized SetInfo rule will be called, and the original can be deleted.
D. The specialized SetInfo rule will not be called. When two of the same rules are in an inheritance
path, the rule in the more general class will be called.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 37
An Application RuleSet Stack is as follows: MyCoSelfService:01-01MyCoHR:01-01MyCo:01-01
There are four instances of a given rulE.
14

Which is chosen by rule resolution? (Assume that the rule is run on a work object of MyCo-HRSelfService-Work-TimeOff) (Choose One)
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 38
There are five instances of the same rule. The only differences between these are the
circumstance settings and ruleset version:
Which is chosen by rule resolution, when the Country clipboard property is Greece? (Choose
One)
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 39
An architect wishes to ensure that a rule can no longer be executed. What technique is best used
to handle this situation? (Choose One)
A. Mark the rule final
B. Mark the rule blocked
C. Mark the rule withdrawn
D. Lock the ruleset version
E. Eliminate ruleset version from the application stack
Answer: B
15

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 40
What is the primary benefit of having a framework layer? (Choose One)
A. It provides a reusable foundation for implementations to be built quickly
B. It provides an application that can be executed by multiple divisions
C. It improves performance by having fewer rules in the database
D. It provides a mechanism for exporting applications to different servers
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 41
If an agent runs at 2:30 PM and if its configured to run at 30 minutes interval with a max records
of 50, when does the agent run next time? (Choose One)
A. Depends on the number of PRPC nodes
B. 30 minutes after the last run is started
C. 30 minutes after the last run is completed
D. One hour after the last run because all agents can run only once every hour
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 42
Which of the following statements indicates when the PRPC engine leverages its services API
layer? (Choose One)
A. When PRPC calls a SOAP service
B. When a request is coming to PRPC from another program
C. When PRPC is deployed as an enterprise application
D. When PRPC is configured to leverage external databases
Answer: B
16

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 43
Which statement is most accurate regarding PRPC locking mechanism? (Choose One)
A. Obj-Open can be used to acquire a lock
B. The lock string for an object instance of a class that belongs to a class group is determined by
concatenating the Keys area properties on the Locking tab with the class group name
C. If a lock held by a requestor is soft, the requestor will need to re-acquire the lock before
executing another commit operation on the object
D. A PRPC lock is not needed until the Commit operation is executed
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 44
Which statement about the BLOB columns is the least accurate? (Choose One)
A. BLOB columns can be encrypted to increase security
B. All tables in PegaRULES database should have a BLOB-type column
C. BLOB columns allow easy storage of complex data structures
D. Content in BLOB columns is extracted from structured columns in the same table
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 45
An architect would like to create a report that has data from a work class and the operator who
created the work. All of the following are viable mechanisms to do this, except: (Choose One)
A. Configure entries in the Class Join part of the report definition
B. Use an association rule between the classes
C. Configure entries in the Subreports part of the report definition
D. Configure entries in the Declarative Index Join part of the report definition
17

Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 46
The Optimize for Reporting wizard is run on a BENEFICIARYID property in a newly created
BENEFICIARIES page list property. To support this action, PRPC creates all of the following,
except: (Choose One)
A. A database index on the BENEFICIARYID column
B. A BENEFICIARYID database table column
C. A declarative index
D. Another BENEFICIARYID property
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 47
Which of the following features is not available via the report editor? (Choose One)
A. Adding columns
B. Using a function
C. Changing pagination settings
D. Using a defined association
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 48
A report has the following output:
Which of the following definitions would produce the output as shown? (Choose One)
A.
18

B.
C.
D.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 49
Consider the following report output. Assume that all three operators have work objects in all four
statuses (New, Open, Pending, Resolved-Completed).
The filter condition rows for the report definition are as follows:
What might be the filter conditions? (Choose One)

A. A AND (B OR C)
B. A AND B AND C
C. A OR B OR C
D. (A AND B) OR C
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 50
A report has been configured as follows:
What is a possible output of this report? (Choose One)

A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: A
19

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 51
Which of the following statements most accurately describes the relationship of operators and
access groups? (Choose One)
A. An operator can belong to multiple access groups but only 1 is active at a time
B. An operator can only be assigned to a single access group
C. An operator can belong to multiple access groups which are combined to define the roles and
privileges of the operator
D. Only managers can have multiple access groups
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 52
Using the role related screenshots for the access group shown below and assuming no access
deny rules are used, which of the following statements is most accurate? (Choose One)
A. The privilege, SensitiveInfo, will be granted as the order is not significant
B. The privilege, SensitiveInfo, will be granted since the Admin role is evaluated last
C. The privilege, SensitiveInfo, will not be granted since Manager role is evaluated first
D. The privilege, SensitiveInfo, will not be granted since Manager role specified a 0 as the
production level
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 53
Assuming only the user role seen below and no access deny rules, will an operator with only the
User role be able to open instance of MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work-Benefits? (Choose One)
A. Yes, the value 5 from MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work is inherited
B. Yes, a blank cell means the access is granted
C. No, inheritance is not used at all in security processing
20

D. No, only the most relevant class is evaluated
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 54
Which of the following is the most appropriate way to limit which operators can execute a
particular flow action? (Choose One)
A. A When rule referenced on the flow action form
B. A privilege referenced on the flow action form
C. A Rule-Obj-Validate referenced on the flow action form
D. An activity, that calls a decision rule, referenced on the flow action form
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 55
Assuming all other factors equal, which flow action will be available to the most operators?
(Choose One)
A. The flow action with no privileges listed
B. The flow action with 1 privilege listed
C. The flow action with 2 privileges listed
D. All three flow actions will be available to the same number of users.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 56
Which of the following statements is least accurate about the PAL tool? (Choose One)
A. It displays the total bytes of data read from the blob in that reading
B. It suggests the recommended action needed to fix the issue
C. The readings can be exported to Excel
21

D. It is always gathering data
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 57
Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding alerts? (Choose One)
A. Alert Messages are saved in the PRPC database
B. My Alerts include the system exceptions that are logged in the user session
C. The alert message also includes the rule warning message
D. Alert thresholds can be configured by adding the entry directly in prconfig.xml
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 58
Log-Usage Reports are accessible ______________. (Choose One)
A. in the System Management application
B. the case manager portal
C. when you run PAL
D. in the Tracer window
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 59
The term storage stream in the PAL reading represents ________________. (Choose One)
A. the database table where the work item is persisted
B. the database table which the data tables and other external classes are pointing to
C. the data stored in the BLOB column of a PRPC database
D. the data stored for the stream(User interface) rules
22

Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 60
Storing instances in the table pr_other is ________. (Choose One)
A. a good practice as it is helpful in providing flexibility to your application
B. a poor practice as the table does not contain adequate columns and indexes
C. a poor practice as the table name is too generic
D. a good practice as it improves reusability
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 61
The button labels on a flow action can be customized in ________? (Choose Two)
A. the properties panel of the pxButton control
B. the flow action rule itself
C. the section rule that is referenced in the flow action
D. a section used in the Action area of a harness
E. the button area of the harness
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 62
Which of the following is not recommended for flow actions? (Choose One)
A. Enabling the client side validation on a flow action
B. Using HTML rule as the source
C. Modifying the short description of the flow action
D. Using NO HTML as the source
Answer: B
23

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 63
Which of the following is most accurate about the branding wizard? (Choose One)
A. Finish all steps in the same order only during creating a new skin
B. Finish all steps in the same order only when copying a standard skin
C. The skin can be modified in the branding wizard multiple times
D. Must always use quick create when creating a new skin
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 64
A section rule cannot be placed in ______________? (Choose One)
A. a layout
B. container
C. flow action
D. harness
E. portal
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 65
While entering personal information, First name and Last name must accept only textual (nonnumeric). What is the best validation type that you can choose in this scenario? (Choose One)
A. Define Text in the Property Type
B. Use TextInput in the Control
C. Use an Edit validate rule
D. Invoke a validate rule in the flow action
Answer: C
24

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 66
The Spouse Info section must be visible only when the Marital Status is "Married". What is the
best way to implement this behavior if the changes need to be enforced at the client side?
(Choose One)
A. Adding a Visible when rule on the section include
B. Adding a Visbile when rule on all labels and fields
C. Custom Javascript to hide/show the spouse information
D. Adding a Refresh when rule on the section include which is dependent on the marital status
property
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 67
When a state is selected the city field must refresh and show only the choices that are appropriate
for that state, how do we do that in PRPC? (Choose One)
A. Use a decision table to constrain the choices
B. Write an activity to get the results for the second choice
C. Use dynamic select and apply cascading condition on the second one
D. Use a custom jquery control
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 68
What is the most appropriate way to fix the alignment issue on smart layouts?
For example, considering the figure below, how would you fix the "Social Security Number" label
that is wrapped? (Choose One)
25

A. Increase the column width of smart layouts to avoid wrapping
B. Use a custom layout since smart layouts are not flexible
C. Adjust the smart layout width in the branding wizard for a single smart layout
D. Write custom HTML rule to fix the alignment
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 69
Which of the following statements is most accurate if we need to use a different image instead of
red X : (Choose One)
A. Modify the Error section using the branding wizard
B. Customize the image in the Perform harness rule
C. Customize the image in the workform section
D. Cannot be changed
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 70
A .ProductID property must store Product ID values (e.g. "P-123"), but user interface control for it
must allow users to pickfrom a list that displaysboth the Product IDand the Product Name (e.g. "P123 Organic Dried Pears").
Which PRPC UI control would you use for this requirement without any special customization?
A. AutoComplete
B. DynamicSelect
C. RadioButton
D. pxTextInput
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 71
Which statements pertaining to the Associated RuleSet setting on data instances is most
26

accurate? (Choose Two)
A. Access group instances must be associated with a RuleSet
B. Associating a RuleSet to a data instance assists in application packaging
C. The associated RuleSet for data instances of certain classes are set by wizards
D. Only data associated with RuleSets in your runtime stack can be accessed
E. Operator ID instances must be associated with RuleSet
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 72
Which of the following are the most appropriate ways to include data instances into your RuleAdmin-Product? (Choose Two)
A. Checking the associated data check box on each included RuleSet/Application
B. Selecting individual data instances
C. Invoking an activity that finds the instances based on meta data
D. Attaching data instances as linked properties
E. No additional work is required if the data is associated with a RuleSet
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 73
Which of the following statements most accurately describes DCO Sessions? (Choose One)
A. DCO sessions are aimed at deciding what can be done in that sprint
B. DCO sessions are only conducted in the Inception stage
C. DCO sessions discuss a single work type, design draft flows and User interfaces for that work
type
D. All business requirements documents must be available before the start of a DCO session
Answer: C
Explanation:
27

QUESTION NO: 74
Which of the following is the most appropriate way to start an enterprise application? (Choose
One)
A. Use the Enterprise Application Accelerator
B. Use the Application Express wizard
C. Enterprise applications should use a hand-crafted class structure
D. Use the System Management Application
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 75
Which of the following statements most accurately describes declarative rules? (Choose One)
A. Declarative rules are executed by PRPC directly making them less error prone and easier to
maintain
B. Declarative rules should only be used in rule engine applications that do not have a user
interface
C. Declarative rules can only be used for numeric computation
D. Declarative rules can only be run on work objects
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 76
Which of the following is not a feature supported by When rules? (Choose One)
A. Custom Boolean logic
B. Parameterized inputs
C. Executing a utility function
D. Rule Delegation
Answer: B
Explanation:
28

QUESTION NO: 77
Which of the following rules is most appropriate to use for the following requirement?
Requirement: Track changes to the total amount field that are persisted to the database (not
temporary changes). For each change write an entry to the audit trail showing the old and new
value. (Choose One)
A. Declare Trigger
B. Declare OnChange
C. Declare Expressions
D. Access When
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 78
Which of the following is not a proper use of a Declare OnChange rule? (Choose One)
A. You wish to suspend work and call an audit flow when a risk score goes above a threshold
B. You wish to execute an activity to call decision trees and decision tables
C. Provide client side calculations of a price when line items change
D. You wish to track all changes to a property value during calculations of a risk score
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 79
Which of the following statements are most accurate regarding Declare Triggers? (Choose Two)
A. They can be configured to run an activity when an object is committed to the database
B. They are run directly on the database server
C. They must have an applies to class that descends from WorkD. There can be only 1 trigger defined per work type
E. They can track changes in properties including the old and new values
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
29
QUESTION NO: 80
Given the following rules and assuming the expressions is set to backward chaining (whenever
used), which of the following actions will cause the expression to fire? (Choose One)
A. Referencing .Country or .State

B. Referencing .TaxRate
C. Changes to the value of .Country ONLY
D. Changes to the value of .Country or .State
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 81
Which of the following is the best use of a utility function (either out of the box or custom)?
(Choose One)
A. Calculating the sum of a list
B. Formatting a property to be displayed in italics
C. Calculating the standard deviation of a large list of decimal values
D. Updating a work objects status
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 82
Given the following decision table:
With the following clipboard values:
.Country = US .State=FL .MonthsEmployed = 9
Which result value will be returned? (Choose One)
A. 1
30

B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
E. 6
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 83
What is the most appropriate way to control who can create work item attachments? (Choose
One)
A. Configure an attachment category
B. Enable attachment level security
C. Define a specific access group
D. Provide a role-based attachment security
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 84
Data Transform is most appropriately used for which of the following scenarios? (Choose One)
A. To interact directly with PRPC database
B. To set some properties on the work item as it advances over a flow connector
C. To Parse data coming from a connector
D. To transform PAL data into a user-friendly format
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 85
Which of the following statements most accurately describes dependency management? (Choose
One)
31

A. The waiting case can move forward only when all cases it is waiting for are completed
B. In order for 2 cases to depend on each other, they should have a direct parent-child relationship
C. The dependency configuration could be done through the case type rule form of the top-level
case
D. A dependency can be configured to instantiate a case when another case has started
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 86
Which statement is most accurate regarding draft flow rules? (Choose One)
A. Rule Resolution ignores them
B. PRPC turns off automatically the draft mode when the flows are moved to production
environment
C. This is a good practice to indicate that your flow is available only for unit testing
D. This is a good practice to indicate to the QA team which flow not to test
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 87
When is it appropriate to use a spin-off? (Choose One)
A. When you wish to run calculations in a separate thread from the current process
B. When you wish to make a long-running SOAP service call asynchronously
C. When you wish to start a different part of the process while continuing down the current process
path
D. When you wish to call multiple connector rules concurrently
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 88
Which two of the following statements are least accurate about the Split-For-Each and Split-Join
shapes? (Choose Two)
32

A. Both shapes allow you to continue processing when ANY or ALL of the sub processes
complete
B. Split-Join allows you to execute different sub-flows whereas Split-For-Each calls the same
C. Split-For-Each allows you to execute different sub-flows whereas Split-Join calls the same
D. Split-For-Each is used to iterate through a list of objects
E. Both shapes create separate Threads for sub-processes they create
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 89
A step of a For Each Embedded Page multistep iteration has no Step Page defined in an
activity. At runtime, in which page context will Process Commander execute that step? (Choose
One)
A. The Primary Page of the activity
B. The Step Page of the parent iteration
C. The current page of the iteration
D. There will be no page context
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 90
Based on the Service Level rule shown below, which of the following statements best explains
what the Service Level rule will instruct the system to do? (Choose One)
A. 7 days after the assignment is created and remains unprocessed, the first passed deadline will
be reached
B. 8 days after the assignment is created and remains unprocessed, the first passed deadline will
be reached
C. 10 days after the assignment is created and remains unprocessed, the first passed deadline will
be reached
D. 11 days after the assignment is created and remains unprocessed, the first passed deadline will
be reached
Answer: C
33

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 91
What is the most appropriate way to set a series of properties on a clipboard page during a flow
process? (Choose One)
A. Write a utility with "Property-Set" methods
B. Build a Data Transform rule and reference it
C. Use the "Set Properties" feature of an assignment shape
D. Use the "Set Properties" feature of a utility shape
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 92
Which of the following is not a screen flow? (Choose One)
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 93
Which of the following property types would most appropriately represent an unordered list of
people that are always referred to by their role? (Choose One)
A. Page List
B. Page Group
C. Java Object
D. Value Group
Answer: B
34

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 94
Which of the following statements about declarative pages are most accurate? (Choose Two)
A. A thread level declarative page can be used to look up work related to a work object
B. Requestor level declarative pages are useful to store data related to a user or users session
C. A requestor level declarative page can be used to look up work related to a work object
D. Thread level declarative pages are read/write whereas node level pages are read-only
E. Node level declarative pages can be used to execute an activity every X minutes
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 95
Which of the following sub classes of MyCo-Data-Vehicle is most appropriate? (Choose One)
A. MyCo-Data-Vehicle-Engine
B. MyCo-Data-Vehicle-Truck
C. MyCo-Data-Vehicle-Model
D. MyCo-Data-Vehicle-Doors
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 96
What type of property is "Drivers" in the following syntax: .Policy.Drivers(1).Name? (Choose One)
A. Page List
B. Page Group
C. Page
D. Single Value
Answer: A
Explanation:
35
QUESTION NO: 97
A linked property__________? (Choose One)
A. connects two pages on the clipboard
B. automatically handles the opening of a referenced object stored in the PRPC database
C. provides a way to update PRPC link objects from a work object
D. is used to dynamically build foreign keys in the database
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 98
Which of the following is the best use of a data table? (Choose One)
A. Managing a list of valid product resolution codes used to describe the resolution of a dispute
(approx 20 resolution codes)
B. Managing the mapping between account levels and discount rates (approx 10 account levels)
C. Managing the list of rules that should run when underwriting a policy (approx 30 rules)
D. Managing the effective dates of different discounts (approx 20 discounts each with up to 3
effective dates)
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 99
When integrating with external systems, one concern is managing how the connection information
may vary as the application migrates from Development through Production. This problem is
solved by using which of the following PRPC techniques? (Choose One)
A. Global Resource Settings
B. Dynamic Class Referencing
C. Declare Pages
D. Circumstanced Data Transform rules
36

Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 100

Which of the following parse rules is not available in the Process Commander? (Choose One)
A. The Parse Delimited rule used to parse input records where the fields are separated by a
comma, tab, quote, etc.
B. The Parse XML rule used to parse data from an XML text message
C. The Parse Binary rule used to parse data from a binary file, such as a TIFF image
D. The Parse Structured rule used to parse structured data, such as fixed-format flat files
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 101

SOAP connectors are typically generated based on a ________? (Choose One)
A. WSDL
B. Parse Delimited file
C. XSD file
D. File specified within prconfig.xml
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 102

What is the most appropriate way at handling errors in a connector? (Choose One)
A. Use the ConnectionProblem Flow
B. Use the step status in the transition of the connect activity step
C. Catch the Java exception thrown by the connect activity step
D. Catch the exception thrown by the application server
Answer: A
37

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 103

Which method of service integration within PRPC requires the configuration of a listener? (Choose
One)
A. JAVA
B. EJB
C. File
D. SQL
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 104

If you want to output a file in a fixed position file format, (eG. first four characters are work ids and
the next four characters are order amounts) which rule is most appropriate? (Choose One)
A. Parse Structured
B. Parse XML
C. Map Structured
D. Parse delimited
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 105

The connector rules are referenced in ________. (Choose Two)
A. Data Transform
B. Service Rule
C. Activity
D. Flow
E. Flow Action
38

Answer: C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 106

The UpdateInfo flow action is called by the MainFlow flow. Each rule is defined in the classes
below.
MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work-TimeOff is the class of the work object. If a data transform, SetInfo, is

defined at both MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work-TimeOff and MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work, which will
be executed? (Choose One)
A. MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work-TimeOff because it is the class of the work object
B. MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work-TimeOff because it is the class of the calling flow
C. MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work because it is the class of the flow action
D. MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work because it is the class group
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 107

An Application RuleSet Stack is as follows:MyCoSelfService:01-01MyCoHR:01-01MyCo:01-01
There are four instances of a given rulE.
Which is chosen by rule resolution? (Assume that the rule is run on a work object of MyCo-HRSelfService-Work-TimeOff) (Choose One)
A. B, With an Error
B. B, Without an Error
C. C, With an Error
D. C, Without an Error
E. D, With an Error
F. D, Without an Error
Answer: C
Explanation:
39
QUESTION NO: 108

There are five instances of the same rule. The only differences between these are the
circumstance settings and ruleset version. The operator's access group has access to all RuleSet
Versions.
On June 1, 2012, which is chosen by rule resolution, when the Country clipboard property is
Greece? (Choose One)
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 109

An architect wishes to move a rule to a more general class so that it can be used by more than
one work type. What technique is best used to handle this situation? (Choose One)
A. Do a SaveAs, and mark the original rule final
B. Do a SaveAs, and mark the original rule blocked
C. Do a SaveAs, and mark the original rule withdrawn
D. Do a SaveAs, and delete the original rule
E. Do a SaveAs, and mark the original rule with an availability of "No"
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 110

The application accelerator can be used to do all of the following, except? (Choose One)
A. Build an application without an Application Profile
40

B. Build an application from an Application Profile
C. Build a Framework layer when the Implementation layer requirements are not yet known
D. Build an Implementation layer when there is no need for a dedicated Framework layer
E. Build both a Framework layer and an Implementation layer
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 111

A standard agent is configured to run at 2 hour intervals. The next run time indicates 1:30 PM. At
that time, the agent queue is empty. Which statement is most accurate? (Choose One)
A. The Agent Manager does not create the Agent Thread
B. The Agent Thread does not wake up
C. The Agent Thread wakes up but does not run the Agent Activity
D. The Agent Thread wakes up, establish the security context and goes back to sleep mode
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 112

When can you expect the system to do an automatic commit? (Choose One)
A. When an assignment is created
B. When a Get Next Work is called
C. When routing occurs during flow processing
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 113

Which of the following can be done with a WAR deployment of PRPC? (Choose One)
A. JMS message services
41

B. JMS listener
C. Two-phase commit
D. EJB services
E. JEE Security
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 114

In which format does PRPC execute a Decision Table rule? (Choose One)
A. XML version in the BLOB
B. A java code compiled from the XML in the rule BLOB
C. A class file stored in the BLOB
D. A serialized java object stored in the BLOB
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 115

Consider the following Work-derived classes that belong to the same class group:
MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work
MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work-TimeOff
MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work-Expense
There are no instances of MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work.
If a report is created in MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work, what instances will the report return? (Choose
One)
A. No records
B. MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work-TimeOff and MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work-Expense
C. MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work-TimeOff and MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work-Expense, only if the
Report on Descendant Class Instances checkbox is selected
D. Instances of all Work- derived classes
42

Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 116

The Optimize for Reporting wizard is run on a BENEFICIARYID property defined on an
embedded page .BENEFICIARY. To support this action, PRPC creates which of the following?
(Choose One)
A. A new database index
B. A single database table column for the BENEFICIARYID
C. A declarative index
D. Database statistics
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 117

Which of the following features is not available via the report editor? (Choose One)
A. Including a chart
B. Changing filter criteria
C. Using a subreport
D. Using a defined association
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 118

Consider the following report definition:
Given this, what is a possible report output? (Choose One)

A.
43

B.
C.
D.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 119

The filter condition for a report definition is as follows:
Assume that Architect3, Architect4, and Architect11 have created work objects in all four statuses
(New, Open, Pending, Resolved-Completed). Considering these factors, what is a possible report
output? (Choose One)
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 120

The output of a report is as follows:
The columns in the report definition are configured as follows:
What might be the configuration of the report definition? (Choose One)

A.
B.
C.
D.
44

Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 121

Which of the following statements most accurately describes the relationship of operators and
access groups? (Choose One)
A. An operator can only be assigned to a single access group
B. An operator can be assigned to multiple access groups but only 1 is effective at a time
C. An operator can belong to multiple access groups which are combined to form the effective
access group
D. Only developers can have multiple access groups
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 122

Using the role related screenshots for the access group shown below and assuming no access
deny rules are used, which of the following statements is most accurate? (Choose One)
A. The privilege, SensitiveInfo, will not be granted since the Manager role is evaluated last
B. The privilege, SensitiveInfo, will be granted as the order is not significant
C. The privilege, SensitiveInfo, will not be granted since the User role is evaluated first and the
evaluation stops after finding the privilege set to the value 0
D. The privilege, SensitiveInfo, will not be granted as at least 50% of the roles do no grant the
privilege
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 123

Assuming only the user role seen below and no access deny rules, will an operator with only the
User role be able to open instance of MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work-Benefits? (Choose One)
45

A. No, only the most relevant class is evaluated
B. Yes, the value 5 from A- is inherited
C. Yes, a blank cell means the access is granted
D. No, inheritance is not used at all in security processing
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 124

Which of the following are the most appropriate ways to limit which local actions a user can
execute? (Choose Two)
A. An activity, that calls a decision rule, referenced on the flow action form
B. A Rule-Obj-Validate referenced on the flow action form
C. Using a declarative constraint
D. A privilege referenced on the flow action form
E. A When rule referenced on the flow action form
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 125

Assuming all other factors equal, which flow action will be available to the least operators?
(Choose One)
A. The flow action with no privileges listed
B. The flow action with 1 privilege listed
C. The flow action with 2 privileges listed
D. Both flow actions will always have the same number of operators who can execute the flow
action.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 126

Which of the following is PAL not able to represent? (Choose One)
46

A. The database queries that needs to be fixed
B. The elapsed time in executing declarative rules
C. The elapsed time in accessing data instances
D. The time spent in waiting for the external service to respond
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 127

Alert thresholds can be configured with __________? (Choose One)
A. entries in the prconfig.xml
B. an Agent rule
C. the System Management Application
D. an Application Rule
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 128

Log-Usage reports are useful to identify ____________. (Choose Two)
A. The average time spent in each work status
B. The average elapsed time by each requestor
C. The average response time for all requestors across all nodes
D. The average elapsed time on rule assemblies
E. The average response time for specific external connectors
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 129

Given a user interaction that takes 5 seconds and PAL elapsed times that only add up to 2
seconds, which of the following tools is most appropriate in determining where the other 3 seconds
are spent? (Choose One)
47

A. Tracer
B. Performance Profiler
C. Log-Usage
D. DB Trace
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 130

An end user sees a Java exception on their screen. Which of the following location is most likely to
contain the full stack trace of the error?(Choose One)
A. System Log
B. Alert Log
C. PAL
D. System Management Application
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 131

Which of the following statements about modal dialogs is most accurate? (Choose Two)
A. A flow can be run in a modal dialog
B. A section rule can be opened in a modal dialog
C. A navigation rule can be opened in a modal dialog
D. A HTML rule can be opened in a modal dialog
E. A local action can be executed in a modal dialog
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 132

Which of the following is not recommended for flow actions? (Choose One)
48

A. Tagging whether the flow actions is connector or local
B. Enabling the client side validation on a flow action
C. Referencing a HTML rule as the source
D. Modifying the short description of the flow action
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 133

Branding wizard cannot be used to __________? (Choose One)
A. create a new skin
B. delete a skin
C. copy a standard skin
D. modify the skin created in the application RuleSet
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 134

You want to restrict the quantity field to only accept numeric characters. What is the best validation
mechanism that you can choose in this scenario? (Choose One)
A. Use an Edit validate rule
B. Use Integer as the Property Type
C. Invoke a validate rule in the flow action
D. Use pxNumber as the control
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 135

To enter a value into a "Product" field, users need to select the product from a list of product
names. However, the system should store the Porduct ID into the field.
Which PRPC UI control offers this functionality without any special customization?
49

A. AutoComplete
B. DynamicSelect
C. RadioButton
D. PromptSelect
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 136

The spouse info section must be made visible only when the marital status of the applicant is
married. Besides setting an onchange event on the marital status property, what is the most
appropriate solution for achieving this behavior? (Choose One)
A. Applying a Refresh When on the section include with the condition as (.MaritalStatus =
"Married")
B. Applying a visible when condition (.MaritalStatus="Married") on all spouse name and spouse
SSN fields
C. hide/show using javascript function EnableClientEvent
D. Applying a when condition (.MaritalStatus = "Married") for the section include
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 137

What is the control that can be used to show the selections for state and city in the following
mockup? (Choose One)
A. Dynamic Select
B. PRPC does not work in Firefox
C. Prompt Select
D. Custom Jquery control
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 138
50

Refer to the social security number example below.
If the label is wrapping in a smart layout, which of the following statements is most accurate?
(Choose One)
A. Run branding wizard to fix the smart layout width which will then apply for all sections used in
the application
B. Apply inline style editor on the section to fix the smart layout width for only this section
C. Modify it to use custom layout
D. Use Smart layout with double template
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 139

Where do you configure to show the error message as a tooltip on the image? (Choose One)
A. Using the branding wizard for the error section
B. Configure the display field level error field in perform harness
C. In the workform section
D. By adding a custom section to show the error message
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 140

Updating which of the following rules, already in production, has the most risk? (Choose One)
A. Activity
B. Section
C. Flow
D. Function
Answer: C
Explanation:
51

QUESTION NO: 141
Which statement is least accurate regarding Product rules? (Choose One)
A. Exporting a RuleSet automatically packages any associated data instances
B. Schema changes can be included in a Product rule
C. Product rules can be configured to prevent exporting unlocked RuleSets
D. You can preview what rules will be included in a Product rule before exporting
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 142

Which statement most accurately describes RuleSets? (Choose One)
A. RuleSet prerequisites are used at both design and runtime
B. Two RuleSets can be prerequisites of each other
C. RuleSet prerequisites are primarily used to validate the dependencies across RuleSets
D. RuleSet prerequisites are optional
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 143

PRPC Test Cases validate their result by ________. (Choose One)
A. comparing values on the clipboard to expected values
B. comparing elements in the user interface with expected values
C. comparing the database rows of new work with saved instances
D. verifying that no exceptions were thrown
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 144
52

Which of the following statements most accurately describes forward and backward chaining
expressions? (Choose One)
A. In most cases forward chaining rules perform better, however there are some cases when
backward chaining rules perform better
B. Forward chaining expressions always perform better
C. Backward chaining expressions always perform better
D. In most cases backward chaining rules perform better, however there are some cases when
forward chaining rules perform better
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 145

Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding decision trees and decision tables?
(Choose One)
A. They can only be executed by an activity
B. Only decision trees can be executed by a declarative expression
C. While not declarative themselves they can be executed declaratively by declarative expressions
D. They can be used instead of when rules in user interface rules
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 146

Which rule type is most appropriate when the requirement is to use COMPANY and LEVEL to
return a discount value (note each COMPANY / LEVEL combination will have a unique discount)?
There are approximately 10 unique companies and 15 unique levels. (Choose One)
A. Map Value
B. Decision Tree
C. Decision Table
D. Data Table
Answer: A
Explanation:
53
QUESTION NO: 147

Decision trees are useful when a rule is delegated to a business user because ___________.
(Choose One)
A. only decision trees can be unlocked
B. decision trees are not in RuleSets
C. a developer can control which functions can be executed
D. only decision trees can be called declaratively
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 148

Which of the following is the most appropriate way to prevent infinite loops when using Declare
OnChange rules and Declarative Expressions? (Choose One)
A. Call the Declarative-Stop method in the first step of your onChange activity
B. Set the activity called by the OnChange rule to type OnChange to prevent forward chaining
expressions from firing
C. As a best practice you should not use both Declare OnChange rules and Declarative
Expressions
D. Nothing special is required PRPC automatically will detect and prevent any infinite loops from
occurring during design time validation
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 149

The options seen below on the decision table form are useful in _____________. (Choose One)
A. controlling what can be changed by business rule managers

B. improving the performance of the decision table
C. preventing architects from changing the rule
D. making rule migration simpler
54

Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 150

Which of the following factors determines what calculation types are available on an expressions?
(Choose One)
A. The Type of the target property
B. The applies to class of the expression
C. The role or privileges associated with the user account
D. The options are static
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 151

Which of the following features is not designed to help prevent logic defects in decision tables?
(Choose One)
A. Conflicts Checks
B. Completeness Checks
C. Evaluate All Rows
D. Allowed Values
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 152

Even though there are plenty of assignments in a workbasket a user has access to, no assignment
was returned by the Get Next Work button. What is the most likely reason? (Choose One)
A. No task is assigned specifically to the user
B. The user's profile is not configured with the required skills needed to process the assignments
C. No task is flagged as being urgent
D. The user is not configured to pull work using the Get Most Urgent feature
55

Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 153

What happens when two users from the same group clicks on the Get Next Work button
simultaneously assuming there are more than two work items available? (Choose One)
A. Both users will be presented the work item but only one of them will have the lock
B. PRPC will display a Release Lock button on the screen along with the work item to one of
them
C. One user will be presented the work item and the other will have a lock violation exception
message
D. Each user will be presented with different work items
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 154

Which email account record is used to send out an assignment notification message? (Choose
One)
A. The email account record with the same name as the correspondence rule
B. The email account record specified in the notification activity
C. The email account record with the same name as the workpool
D. All of the above
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 155

Based on the following output of a screen flow, which of the statements is true about the setting of
the Shipping Instructions step? (Choose One)
A. Both the Entry Point and Only Going Back check boxes are checked
56

B. Only the Entry Point check box is checked
C. Only the Only Going Back check box is checked
D. Both the Entry Point and Only Going Back check boxes are unchecked
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 156

Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding parent-child case locking
mechanism? (Choose One)
A. You are required to always lock the parent to work on a child
B. You can configure whether or not the parent lock is required to work on a child
C. Both parent and child must be locked to work on a child
D. Parent and all children need to be locked when working on a parent
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 157

Which of the following rules is not a validation rule? (Choose One)
A. Edit Input
B. Edit Validate
C. Validate
D. Declare Constraints
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 158

To implement a solution to remove all assignments when the work object is resolved, which one of
the following is most accurate? (Choose One)
A. Put a ticket on all flows
57

B. Put a ticket only on the parent flow
C. Put a ticket on the spinoff flows and the parent flow
D. Call an activity to resolve all the flows
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 159

The "Status" tab on the End flow shape properties panel controls two fields: Flow Result and Work
Status as shown in the picture below.
Which of the following statements best describes those two fields? (Choose One)
A. The Flow Result indicates whether a flow processing ends successfully or with errors whereas
the Work Status indicates in which status to put the work item when the flow ends successfully
B. The Flow Result indicates a returned value from a sub-process to a calling flow and the Work
Status indicates which status the work item should be moved to
C. The Flow Result allows to specify a status for a suspended sub-process and the Work Status
indicates which status the work item should be moved to
D. The Flow Result is used only by spinoff flows to transmit a result to the parent flow and the
Work Status indicates in which status to put the work item when the flow ends successfully
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 160

What is the most appropriate way to ensure that the user's input for the "Social Security #" field
follows the xxx-xx-xxxx format as shown below? (Choose One)
A. Use an Edit Input rule
B. Use a Declare Constraints rule
C. Use an Edit Validate rule
D. Use a Validate rule
Answer: C
Explanation:
58

QUESTION NO: 161
When attempting to update a case process through the case designer, the process flow displays in
read-only mode as shown below. What is the most likely reason for this situation? (Choose One)
A. Process Modeler was used initially to create the process flow
B. You do not hold the appropriate pyCaseDesigner privilege
C. You have not selected the appropriate case
D. You have not clicked on the Edit action
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 162

Which of the following statements is most accurate? (Choose One)
A. Page Lists are preferred over Value Lists as they provide more flexibility
B. Items in a Page Group are iterated through in a consistent order
C. A Page List and a Page Group can have the same subscript
D. A property of type Page is referred to as a top level page
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 163

A propertys Table Edit definition does which of the following? (Choose One)
A. Controls how a field is displayed in a grid
B. Allows you to directly edit the propertys value
C. Maps the property to a column in the database
D. Limits the valid values for the property
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 164

59

A common use of a property qualifier is to __________? (Choose One)
A. define the number of decimal points shown by a decimal property
B. limit the valid values of a property
C. provide design time validation of where a property can be referenced
D. provide client side validation to a property
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 165

What type of property is "Driver" in the following syntax: .Policy.Driver.Name? (Choose One)
A. Single Value
B. Page List
C. Page Group
D. Page
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 166

Which of the following most accurately describes the relationship between a data class and a data
table? (Choose One)
A. Only data classes can be embedded in a work object
B. Data tables must have their instances persisted outside of the PRPC database
C. Only data tables can have instances saved in the database
D. Data tables are data classes that provide a user interface for managing instances
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 167

Which of the following statements is most accurate when using a field value table edit over a local
60

list? (Choose One)
A. Field values can be reused and referenced by other rules
B. Field values perform better than local lists
C. Local lists can be localized and field values cannot
D. Only local lists can be used by UI controls
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 168 CORRECT TEXT

It is recommended to place simulation activities in ________? (Choose One)
Answer: a separate RuleSet that is not moved to the production system

Answer: the same RuleSet as the connector it simulates
Answer: the interface RuleSet of the implementation layer
Answer: the RuleSet of the implementation layer
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 169

Which statements most accurately describes external classes? (Choose Two)
A. External classes do not contain the pzInsKey and pxObjClass properties
B. Inheritance and rule resolution applies to external classes in the same way as they do to
internal classes
C. Each external class has an associated database table instance
D. It is possible to create declare index rules on external classes
E. External classes are always mapped to a database table in a different schema
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 170

In which of the following RuleSets is it most appropriate to define connector rules integrating with
an Enterprise Service Bus? (Choose One)
61

A. The Framework RuleSet (MyCoSelfServiceFW)
B. The Enterprise Int RuleSet (MyCoInt)
C. The Framework Int RuleSet (MyCoSelfServiceFWInt)
D. The Enterprise RuleSet (MyCo)
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 171

If an External SOAP service is modified and some of the elements are modified, deleted, or
added, what is the most appropriate way to implement those changes in the SOAP connector?
(Choose One)
A. Rerun the connector wizard using a new RuleSet version
B. Manually implement the changes
C. Unlock the ruleset, delete the existing rules and rerun the connector wizard
D. Unlock the RuleSet and rerun the connector wizard
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 172

What is the purpose of the Service Package? (Choose Two)
A. Support deployment of services
B. Define access control
C. Group different types of services that are related
D. It is used for migration
E. A namespace attached with the service rule
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 173

Which of the following is the most appropriate way to unit test HTTP Services? (Choose One)
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A. Use the System Management Application
B. Create HTML that is external to PRPC that connects to your service
C. Use the run button on the service activity rule
D. Use the run button on the HTTP service rule
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 174

Which of the following statements regarding Services and Connectors is most accurate? (Choose
One)
A. Mapping the interface properties to a separate data structure is recommended
B. Using interface properties in business rules improves performance
C. It is recommended to save the service rules in the integration RuleSet
D. Connector Accelerators can create simulator rules
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 175

Consider the following inheritance diagram:
When running a flow for the TimeOff worktype, rules applied to which of the following classes
cannot be executed? (Choose One)
A. @baseclass
B. MyCoC. PegaHRFrameworkD. MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work-TimeOff
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 176

63

Given the following classes for an Human Resources Application, what is considered the bestpractice Applies To Class of SelfService Application service rules? (Choose One)
A. MyCo-FWB. MyCo-IntC. MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work
D. MyCo-HR-SelfService-IntE. MyCo-ServiceAnswer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 177

There is a requirement for users of an application to support two different product lines. Much of
the applications functionality is specific to the product line, and must be deployed into production
at different times. Given these requirements, what specialization approach would be most
appropriate? (Choose One)
A. Each product would be represented by a separate ruleset and the same class
B. Each product would be represented by a separate class in the same ruleset
C. Each product would have its own class and ruleset pair
D. All rules will be circumstanced by product in the same ruleset
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 178

Which of the following are valid reasons to consider classes over circumstancing when
specializing rules by location? (Choose Two)
A. Complex user interfaces are difficult with circumstancing
B. Reporting and persistence flexibility is required
C. Security requirements differ by location
D. Classes perform significantly better than circumstances at runtime
E. Circumstanced rules cannot be delegated
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
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QUESTION NO: 179

There is a requirement for the functionality of an application to be different based on the value of a
"Salary" property. Specifically, the behavior should change depending on whether .Salary is less
than or greater than 200000. What rule is likely used to support this requirement? (Choose One)
A. A multivariate circumstanced rule, a circumstance definition, and a circumstance template
B. A multivariate circumstanced rule and a when rule
C. A single property circumstanced rule and a when rule
D. A single property circumstanced rule
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 180

Consider the following steps of an activity:
Consider the locks being properly held. What would be the value of the variable Total once the
activity is run, knowing Total is calculated using properties from SecondPage with this formulA.
.Total = .Quantity * .Price? (Choose One)
A. 900
B. 700
C. 400
D. 0
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 181

Which of the following is the least accurate regarding PRPC Code Generator? (Choose One)
A. The Code Generator checks PRPC caches for rules already assembled
B. The Code Generator can use data from both Clipboard and parameter pages to generate the
65

java code
C. The Code Generator runs on every node
D. The Code Generator does not differ based on the rule type
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 182

Which of the following statements most accurately describes the PRPC threading model? (Choose
One)
A. PRThreads are simply Java Threads running within PRPC context
B. PRThreads are essentially namespace for requestor clipboard pages
C. PRPC constantly runs multiple PRThreads concurrently
D. All of the above
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 183

How does PRPC determine in which table to persist a specific work object? (Choose One)
A. By using both the user access group and the DB-Admin-DB-Table record for the class group of
the object
B. By using both the RuleSet the object applies to class belongs to and the Data-Admin-DB-Table
definitions
C. The Data-Admin-DB-Table record associated to the class group the work object belongs to
D. All work objects are stored in the pc_work table
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 184

Each of the following data points are available for reporting via standard process execution,
except: (Choose One)
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A. Total elapsed time an assignment existed
B. If the assignment is passed its goal time
C. The performing time of a specific flow action
D. The total time an operator spends reviewing a work object
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 185

From the report browser, a manager creates a standard report and shared category, and
configures the report in the shared category. How many rules were created from this process?
(Choose One)
A. 0: Only developers can create rules
B. 1: A report definition only
C. 2: A report definition and shortcut
D. 4: A report definition, category, and 2 shortcuts
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 186

Which of the following is least likely to impact the runtime experience of a report? (Choose One)
A. Disabling Paging
B. Column Exposure
C. Changing filter criteria
D. Including a class join
E. The order of the columns in the report
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 187

A report definition can be referenced by all of the following rule types, except? (Choose One)
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A. Sections
B. Declare Pages
C. Report Definitions
D. Data Transforms
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 188

In a report definition, an architect would like to treat a datetime property as having an equal sort
value for the same date, regardless of the time. What is the best mechanism to implement this?
(Choose One)
A. Applying and configuring a format for the column
B. Calling a function alias, such as the Day function
C. Set the default format on the property form to Date
D. Selecting the Ignore Timestamp option
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 189

Consider two classes in an Employee Human Resources application: an Employee class, and a
TimeOff class. The TimeOff class has an EmployeeID column that points to records in the
Employee class. An Employees with No TimeOff report must be created. What is the most likely
approach? (Choose One)
A. Create reports in both classes, and set the TimeOff report as a subreport of the Employee
report
B. Create reports in both classes, and set the Employee report as a subreport of the TimeOff
report
C. Create a report in the Employee class, with a class join to the TimeOff class
D. Create a report in the TimeOff class, with a class join to the Employee class
Answer: A
Explanation:
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QUESTION NO: 190
Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of the Data-Admin-AuthService?
(Choose One)
A. The AuthService defines the password requirements
B. The AuthService defines how PRPC services are authenticated
C. The AuthService maps a Servlet to the appropriate authentication and timeout activities
D. The AuthService is used only when using LDAP authentication
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 191

Using standard approaches, PRPC authentication can be configured in the following ways,
except? (Choose One)
A. To use token based Single-SignOn (SSO)
B. To authenticate against LDAP
C. To store usernames and passwords in the PRPC database
D. To use the application servers password file
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 192

Regarding authentication, which of the following statements is least accurate? (Choose One)
A. PRPC Supports Single-SignOn(SSO) through the PRCustom authentication type
B. An access group can be associated with multiple roles
C. If LDAP is used for authentication it must also be used for authorization
D. PRPC roles (Rule-Access-Role-Name) are used regardless of the authentication scheme
Answer: C
Explanation:
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QUESTION NO: 193
An operators role ___________. (Choose One)
A. defines what privileges and access the operator has
B. determines how the operator is authenticated in PRPC
C. determines which RuleSets are in the operators RuleSet stack
D. determines which access groups the operator belongs to
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 194

Using multiple roles can be useful for which of the following reason? (Choose One)
A. It can improve reuse and eliminate dual maintenance of role definitions
B. It is the only way to create managers who also do work
C. It improves run-time performance by reducing the number of caches
D. It eliminates the need for privilege
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 195

Which of the following performance tools can be used for checking all database queries that are
executed? (Choose One)
A. Tracer
B. PAL
C. My Alerts
D. SMA
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 196

70

When the production system is reported to have unusual performance issues between 4:00 pm
and 5:00 pm on Monday, what will be the most likely tool to be used to identify the issue? (Choose
One)
A. Use the PAL stats saved in the log file
B. View the Log-Usage reports to see the PAL stats on that time
C. Run PLA to interpret the alert logs
D. Use the tracer output that is captured on that time
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 197

Guardrail reports are useful in identifying ___________? (Choose One)
A. when an activity invokes an utility function
B. if the report definition is using a column that is not optimized
C. when a data table does not have any instances
D. when a report definition uses columns that do not have indexes created in database
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 198

Which of the following tools display the details in real-time? (Choose One)
A. PLA
B. Log-Usage
C. Performance Profiler
D. Tracer
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 199
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Given a PEGA0001 (4 seconds) and a PEGA0020 (3.7 seconds) alerts for the same user
interaction, which of the following statements is most accurate? (Choose One)
A. The PEGA0001 is the root cause as it is the most severe alert
B. The PEGA0020 is the root cause as 3.7 seconds of the 4 seconds are accounted for in the
PEGA0020
C. The PEGA0001 is the root cause as it has the longest elapsed time
D. More details are needed to determine the root cause
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 200

Where does the label "Reject" come from? (Choose One)
A. Set on the assignment shape of the flow
B. The name of the flow action rule
C. The flow action's short description
D. The parameter set in the harness referenced in that assignment
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 201

The portal rule is referenced in the _____________? (Choose One)
A. Access group
B. Harness rule
C. Application rule
D. Starting flow
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 202
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Which of the following tools is the most appropriate to determine which property is displayed on a
screen? (Choose One)
A. Tracer
B. Rules Inspector
C. Clipboard
D. Browser's Source
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 203

A harness rule can be referenced in _________. (Choose Two)
A. a flow
B. a portal
C. another harness
D. a layout
E. a container
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 204

_____________ can be used for restricting the length of a text field? (Choose One)
A. Edit validate rule
B. A setting on the Property rule form
C. pxTextInput Control rule
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 205
73

Which of the following statements is most accurate about PRPC portals? (Choose One)
A. PRPC provides standard Case Manager and Case Worker portals, which can be customized
B. PRPC provides standard portals only for Case Managers
C. PRPC does not provide standard portals for Case Management
D. PRPC provides standard Case Manager and Case Worker portals , which cannot be
customized
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 206

Which of the following cannot be used as a direct source for Repeating Grids? (Choose One)
A. Page lists
B. Page Groups
C. Report Definition
D. Data Table
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 207

Which of the following statements is least accurate regarding Smart Layouts? (Choose One)
A. Smart Layouts are useful in aligning the UI fields
B. Smart Layout widths can be changed in the branding wizard
C. Smart Layout widths can be changed in a section rule
D. Smart Layouts can be converted to free form layouts
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 208

Which of the following statements is least accurate regarding sections? (Choose One)
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A. A harness requires at least one section
B. A flow action can reference only one section in its layout
C. A layout can be converted into a section
D. When including a section, it must be in the same class as its container
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 209

Where does the label "Create Quick Correspondence" come from? (Choose One)
A. Set on the Assignment shape on the flow
B. Set by the short description of the flow action
C. Set by the usage on the history tab of the flow action
D. Is the name of the flow action rule
Answer: B
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1. We can improve the reusability of a rule in PRPC in following ways (Choose Three)
a. By using Application Profiler
b. By following naming conventions and Documentation
c. By using Availability feature in the Rule form
d. By using parameters in the rules where possible
e. By completing the history tab
2. When starting a new application, classes should by default be built into the framework layer because
(choose one)
a. Framework rules are cached in preference to implementation rules
b. Incorrect, unless specifically intended for reuse you should build classes in the implementation
layer
c. Building from the framework layer encourages reuse and improves application consistency
d. Implementation rules must directly inherit from a framework rule
3. Reuse by copy of rules within different RuleSets, classes and circumstances provides a number of benefits
for applications developed with PRPC. Which of the following statements is true? (Choose one)
a. Debugging the application is made faster by reusing rules in this manner
b. This accelerate the creation of a CoE
c. This is not the correct approach for reuse
d. New developers for the project can be more productive with less training because of this type of
reuse.
4. Can you define a circumstance of a rule if a base rule does not exist?
a. Yes
b. No
5. What rule will PRPC select if no circumstances do match the current clipboard data?
a. The base rule
b. It will fail to find a rule match and throw a general not found exception.
c. It will choose the last version created as the best match.
d. A @baseclass default activity is called that returns no value and logs the failure of the attempted
call.
6. MyCo Insurance division has an existing application, PersonalLine, built on a Customer-Built Framework
(CBF). The division plans to build a new application for the commercial line-of-business that leverages
existing rules. Which of the following should they employ to maximize reusability?
I.
Document the usage of rules on the History tab.
II.
Create a new CBF and save generic rules from the existing CBF into the Enterprise Reuse layer so
that the rules can be shared across both Framework layers and applications.
III.
Reuse the existing CBF and save implementation rules from the PersonalLine application into the
CBF layer so that the rules could be shared with the new application.
IV.
Parameterize rules where applicable.
Choose one of the following:
a. 1, 2, and 4.
b. 1, 3, and 4.
c. 1 and 4.
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7. Documenting the usage of rules provide other developers a clear description of how to and why use a
rule.
The Enterprise Class Structure is designed to allow for different types of reuse:
Enterprise Reuse layer: Allows organizations to build rules shared across multiple applications and
frameworks.
Framework layer: Defines reusable rules for generic business processes.
Implementation layer: Allows for specialized modifications for each business unit.
An activity rule has multiple circumstanced instances. All instances are in Rule Set Xray:01-01-01 and are
Availability = Yes. Each rule has a date as-of circumstance and a Date Range. The bananaGrownDate
property of the work object is 12th September 2008 and the system date is 20th September 2008. Which of
the following rules would be selected by rule resolution?
a. .bananaGrownDate - Date Circumstance (as-of) 09/12/2009, Date Range 01/01/2009 to
12/31/2009
b. .bananaGrownDate - Date Circumstance (as-of) 09/13/2008, Date Range 09/21/2008 to
09/30/2008
c. .bananaGrownDate - Date Circumstance (as-of) 09/01/2008, Date Range 08/01/2008 to
09/20/2008
d. None of the above the base rule would be selected
8. Why does PRPC lock work objects? (Choose One)
a. To enable soft-lock feature for the work object
b. To provide explicit write access to an operator.
c. To allow all the operators to review the work object.
d. To help in distributed transaction.
9. Where is prconfig.xml located in an EAR deployment involving polling listeners (Choose one)
a. APP-INF\classes
b. WEB-INF\lib\pega\prresrources.jar
c. WEB-INF\classes
d. APP-INF\lib\pega\prresrources.jar
e. None of the above
10. Which of the following is false regarding the PRPC threading model? (Choose two)
a. PRThreads are similar to Java threads and the types include STANDARD, DEVELOPER, and
OPENPORTAL.
b. A PRThread is essentially a namespace which allows a Requestor to have separate clipboard pages
that do not interact with each other.
c. Multiple PRThreads can be executed concurrently depending on whether multi-threading is
enabled.
11. Which columns in a table are mandatory for it to be accessible by an Obj- method?
a. pzInsKey.
b. pxInsName
c. pxObjClass.
d. pzpvStream.
e. None of the Above
12. Correct configuration of PRPC caches can drastically affect the performance of your application. Which of
the following are factors to consider when analysing poor cache performance? (choose four)
a. Number of rulesets in your application
b. Users running with Check-out privileges
c. Database indexes
d. JVM garbage collection strategies
e. Maximum size of the Rules Assembly cache
f. Length of time that the JVM has been active
g. Number of different ruleset list in use
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13. The synchronization of the contents of the in-memory rule cache on a node with the rules stored in the
PegaRULES database is called PULSE. Where can the time and date of the most recent Pulse be seen?
a. PAL
b. SMA
c. PLA
d. It is run by the Pega-RULES agent and cant be seen
14. A certain customer implementation necessitates the usage of message-driven beans. Which of these
platforms can the solution be deployed on?
a. JBoss (EAR Deployment).
b. Weblogic (WAR Deployment).
c. WebSphere (EAR Deployment).
d. Tomcat (WAR Deployment).
e. All of the above
15. A multiple node PRPC installation has 3 nodes. An agent rule has a single agent listed which takes data
from an external system. It would cause contention issues if it ran on more than one node. How would you
ensure it only runs on one node in the cluster? (Pick one)
a. Delete the Agent Schedule on two nodes
b. Disable the agent schedule on two of the nodes, either from the Agent Schedule rule form or
using the System Management Application
c. Disable the master agent on two nodes
16. Which of the following is NOT provided by Declarative Expression Testing Tool: (Choose two)
a. Complete view of entire non-dependency network
b. Visual indication of input properties versus calculated properties
c. The ability to manually set both input and target properties
d. The ability to step through the various levels of the calculation manually
e. The ability to add pages to a list or group for aggregate calculations
17. Which of the following may utilize Function Aliases? (Choose four)
a. Decision Tree
b. Decision Table
c. When Rule
d. Map Value
e. Declare-Expression
f. Declare-Constraint
g. Declare-Trigger
h. Declare-OnChange
18. What is the only declarative rule that use backward chaining?
a. Constraint
b. Expressions
c. Index
d. OnChange
e. Trigger
19. You cannot pick the activity that you just created for use in the OnChange rule. What is the most likely
cause of this problem? (Choose one)
a. A miss configuration in the ruleset order
b. The activity type is not Used by declarative
c. The activity type is not OnChange
d. OnChange do not reference an activity
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20. What are the Declarative Rule Types? (Choose four)
a. Expressions
b. Declare Activity
c. Declare Triggers
d. OnChange
e. Declare Index
f. OnDelete
21. How do you delegate a rule to specific group of users? (Choose Two)
a. By adding this rule to System-User-MyRules through the Favorites and specifying the access
group
b. By creating a link to that rule in the portal
c. By making sure security and portal configuration for this group of user is appropriate
d. By providing developer access to restricted set of users in that group
22. A financial institution wants to stop the processing of a share trade pending a documented independent
review process if a customers dynamically calculated risk score goes above a specified limit. This is a good
example of when to use:
a. Declare Trigger Rule
b. Declare OnChange Rule
c. Declare Expression
23. Which of the following are true of Declarative Pages?
a. Values may be updated by activity of type Utility.
b. Can be refreshed automatically based on configuration on rule form.
c. Can be saved to database.
d. Thread Declare pages are found under User Pages on the clipboard.
e. Thread and Node pages may utilise the Refresh Page When option to refresh the page.
24. Declarative rules can help your PRPC application in which way? (select 2)
a. They can ensure that properties are only evaluated when they are needed
b. They will improve your applications performance
c. They will guarantee that data is synchronized between different nodes
d. They enable data sharing between requestors
25. In the context of Declarative Expressions for the Change Tracking option, identify the statement(s) that
are false?
a. Option is Whenever inputs change, the target property is recomputed when one of the
expressions inputs change
b. Option is Whenever used, the target property is computed only if it is not on the
clipboard.
c. Option is When used, if property is missing, the target property is always recomputed.
d. Option is When used, if no value present, the target property is computed ONLY if it is not
on the clipboard.
26. A Rule-Declare-Page Declare_RichieTest is of page scope Thread. It has a Refresh period of 5 minutes and
no timeout. There is also a Page is fresh when rule CodIsInStock based on a True/False property
CodStock
Consider this sequence of events:
Declare_RichieTest is first accessed and loaded at 14:34
CodStock is set to false at 14:38
Declare_RichieTest is next accessed at 14:45
When is Declare_RichieTest loaded again? (Pick one)
a. 14:45
b. 14:39
c. 14:38
d. Never
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27. Not all connectors can be run in parallel. Which of the following can be run in a parallel mode? (Choose
five)
a. Connect-EJB
b. Connect-FTP
c. Connect-File
d. Connect-JMS
e. Connect-Soap
f. RDB-Open
g. Any RDB-* method (List/Open/Save/Delete)
h. None of the above all can be run in parallel mode
28. Which of the following is the best way to detect long-running services and connectors in a production
PRPC environment: (Choose one)
a. Use PAL.
b. Use SMA.
c. Use Tracer.
d. Use the system logs
e. Use the alerts logs
f. There is no way to detect long-running services or connectors.
29. In the context of PRPC Services and Connectors, identify the statement(s) that are true? (Choose two)
a. Service Package is used to generate the WSDL file for an end client that wishes to use a
SOAP service.
b. The JMS integration interface supports both point-to-point and publish/subscribe
messaging models.
c. The service package locates the service rule and then assembles a response message from the
input properties.
d. Connector rules are used within PRPC to provide services to external systems.
30. Which of the following are listeners in PRPC (Choose five)
a. JMS
b. JMS MDB
c. MQ
d. Email
e. File
f. SOAP
g. HTTP
h. XML
31. EJBs are packaged as a jar file and deployed inside an ear file. There are three kinds of Beans; Session ,
Entity and Message Driven Beans. Session Beans have following (Choose two)
a. Home Interface
b. Message Listener Interface
c. Remote Interface
d. ORM tool
32. Simulators may be used for debugging purposes. A Service Simulator is made of which following parts?
a. An instance of Data-Admin-IS-Simulation.
b. An activity that provides the kind of data that the service provides..
c. The pyISSimulation page.
d. They dont exist.
33. An extremely cost-conscious client uses Tomcat servers but need services exported from PRPC. Can you
implement Rule-Service-EJB?
a. Yes
b. No
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34. Which of the following statements are true? Service packages (Choose two)
a. are instances of the data class Data-Admin-ServicePackage
b. do not need to be deployed to other environments
c. assess incoming messages and writes input parameter values to the clipboard.
d. represent the service as an application.
35. Which of these statements about Obj-* methods are correct? (Choose 2)
a. Obj- methods can only access internal classes
b. Obj- methods must be used if OOTB PRPC locking is to be used
c. Obj- methods require that the referenced database table contains a column named pzPvStream
d. Specifying WriteNow on an Obj-Save method will always commit regardless of other transactional
settings
e. Specifying WriteNow on an Obj- method is discouraged in favour of allowing PRPC dictate
commit points as part of flow execution.
36. You are unit testing your flow and have meticulously clicked Add Reading at every transition. The result
is below
Is this a fair reflection of the likely performance of your flow? (Choose one)
a. Yes Theres nothing wrong with it
b. No It shows clear performance issues
c. No You should run it again
37. From which version is the Application Profiler designed to run on a single requestors session? (Choose
one)
a. 4.2 SP6
b. 5.1 SP1
c. 5.2 GA
d. 5.3 SP1
38. Which of the following statement about logging is false? (Choose one)
a. All log messages are written to either Alert log or Pega log.
b. Log severity level can be configured for rules, rule types, activities, classes and packages .
c. The alert threshold settings are configured in prlogging.xml instead of log4j.xml from V4.2
SP6
d. The severity levels of logging are: fatal, error, alert, warn, info and debug.
e. Daily rolling logs are configured in prlogging.xml
39. Using DBTrace you can find following except? (Choose Two)
a. Query that was run against the database.
b. Time taken to Execute a query.
c. Memory occupied by the returned data.
d. Top 10 slow queries.
e. Number of bytes returned from BLOB.
f. Bytes sent to browser.
g. Cache Access report of executed rules.
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40. A customer has reported that an application is suffering poor performance. Upon reviewing the alert log,
you see a large number of the following alerts:
PEGA0001 HTTP interaction time exceeds limit
PEGA0027 Number of rows exceeds database list limit
PEGA0005 Query time exceeds limit
PEGA0026 Time to connect to database exceeds limit
PEGA0004 Quantity of data received by database query exceeds limit
Which one of the following options is the most likely root cause? (Choose one)
a. The size of the connection pool is too small
b. The database is badly tuned and requires more indexing
c. The application is storing all its data in pc_work
d. Users are executing unbounded queries
e. Work objects are too complex with large BLOB columns
f. The network connection between the application server and the database is congested
41. Identify all statements that are true in the context of the SMA? (Choose two)
a. The SMA is available in both the prweb.war and prpc_j2ee14.ear deployment files.
b. Using SMA, you can get the PegaRULES build information.
c. Using SMA, you can manage the JDBC connection pool size.
d. Using SMA, you can see all the integration service listeners and their individual status.
e. Size of the Rules Assembly Cache and Database Cache can be seen in the Memory Management
option.
f. SMA cannot be configured to access multiple nodes.
42. To begin looking for design time warnings, What tool you should start with ?
a. PAL tool
b. PLA tool
c. Tracer tool
d. Profiler tool
e. DB Tracer tool
f. PreFlight tool
43. What is true about logging? (Choose one)
a. Logging level can only be changed in configuration files
b. Logging level can be changed from the developer portal using Tools -> Logging Level
Settings
c. Changing the logging level will never lead to displaying log messages from PRPC classes only
application level will be logged.
44. Which of the following features about flow shape are true? (Choose three)
a. Assignment shapes may or may not contain FlowAction rules depending on the flow type
that it belongs to.
b. A difference between Split-Join and Split-ForEach is when the number of flow to start is defined.
For Split-Join it is at runtime and for Split-ForEach it is at design time.
c. Operator A working on a flow Spin-offs another flow on the same work object. A task in the spinoff flow is picked up by Operator B. Operator A and Operator B will be able to work on their
individual flows simultaneously without any locking conflict.
d. In a screen flow, an assignment cannot be routed to either Worklist or Workbasket.
e. To set a ticket use ActionSetTicket activity or Obj-Set-Tickets method. With the Obj-SetTickets method, the ticket is not automatically removed after having been set.
45. On the Security Tab of an Activity there is a May Start checkbox. In which circumstance would it be
appropriate to leave this box unchecked? (Choose one)
a. You dont want the activity to be used yet as it is still under development.
b. This Activity is to be limited in its scope and is not to start other Activities
c. You would like to promote the security of your application and want to limit what actions
can start this activity
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46. Which of the following is false regarding activity rules? (Choose one)
a. The indirect page mechanism where a page is defined as mode Prompt on the Pages and
Classes tab may be used to pass pages from one activity to another.
b. The Primary page is the page context that the activity runs in and defines the runtime clipboard
page on which the rule operates.
c. The Primary page automatically becomes the Step Page of each step, unless an alternative Step
Page is explicitly defined.
d. The Primary page must always be defined on the Pages and Classes tab.
e. The Security tab allows you to specify the activity type, whether users can start the activity
directly through user input processing, and restrict which users (or other requestors) can execute
the activity.
47. When selecting work from the WorkList the OOTB functionality will be ranked on which of the following?
(Choose one)
a. Work Object urgency value defined by the pySLAName property of your work object and
depending on the assignment urgency
b. Both WorkObject and Assignment Urgency is considered in ranking.
c. Assignment urgency only
d. Neither It works on the FIFO principle.
48. Following are some facts about the way covers are implemented in PRPC. Which ones are false? (Choose
two)
a. A cover should not contain more than 20 covered work objects.
b. Covers and the work objects they contain must belong to the same application classgroup.
c. A cover can cover another cover; likewise, a cover can be covered.
d. A cover is a concrete class derived from Work-Cover- abstract class.
e. By convention the default Work Object ID of a cover starts with a C-, as opposed to that of a
Standard Work Object, which starts with W-.
f. Locking a covered work objects normally do not lock the cover work object as well.
49. Which of these statements are true about Folders (Choose three)?
a. All folders directly inherit from Workb. Folders can contain other folders
c. A folder cannot be resolved with foldered objects still unresolved
d. Folders can contain covers
e. A single work object could be in any number of folders but only one cover.
50. Which of the following statements are true about routing in PRPC? (choose 3)
a. Users should be free to choose their next work assignment from those listed in their workbaskets
b. The GetNextWork algorithm can be amended by modifying a decision tree
c. GetNextWork will always check the users WorkList before any WorkBaskets
d. The behaviour of GetNextWork is controlled by flags set on the Operator ID rule
e. Operators can nominate substitutes to receive their assigned work when they are
unavailable
51. Which of the following is true about OOTB work history tracking in PRPC (Choose three)
a. History is added when SLA is processed by the SLA Agent.
b. Log-Message method can be used to add history to the work object.
c. By default, history is written to database table pc_history_work.
d. Reviewing a work object adds an entry in work history table.
e. Audit Notes on flow shapes are recorded in work history.
f. Level of history recorded cannot be controlled.
52. In the context of Correspondence, identify the statements that are false? (Choose one)
a. Correspondence can only be sent to users who are part of Data-Party-Operator class.
b. You cannot add notify shapes to the Integrator shape in your process for correspondence.
c. Sending emails on a work object is supported out of the box as long as PRPC can connect to a mail
server.
d. It is possible within PRPC for a user to modify the correspondence text within a flow action.
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53. As a part of the new functionality available from PRPC V5.5 a new UI Widget is available called a Smart
Layout. How does this differ to the previous Layout available (its primary benefit) (Choose one)?
a. Property Text will automatically be added as a label for the field.
b. If a property is selected in the Narrow Pane showing the Application Properties, the section
automatically calculates the context.
c. To force vertical alignment even when layouts are nested.
d. None This widget does not exist.
54. Which of the following statements are true? (Choose three)
a. Rule-HTML-Paragraph rule allows to define smart info pop-up using WYSIWYG editor.
b. Rules Inspector tool provides a quick and interactive way to inspect a forms underlying
harness, section, flow action, HTML rules and property rules and property dependency
networks.
c. CSS and Javascript are defined using HTML rules.
d. HTML rule source may contain HTML, CSS, Java Script and JSP tags.
e. Skin rules are used to apply CSS to a portal. One CSS is applied to a portal representing one access
group.
55. In the context of Flow Actions, identify the statements that are true? (Choose three)
a. The likelihood value of Flow actions is used to determine the order of presentation of user
choices on the Perform form.
b. A local flow action may change the status of the work object.
c. Local actions can be displayed when buttons are used for the connector flow actions by default.
d. Two flow action connectors can have the same likelihood values.
56. Assume a screen flow with three assignment shapes, in order: A, B and C. If only A and B are defined as
entry points, and only B has only going back checked, which of the following behaviours are accurate?
(Choose one.)
a. C can only be reached by clicking next from B.
b. Only A can be clicked on directly.
c. Only one screen will have both previous and next enabled.
d. The screen flow will end when finish is clicked on C.
57. Implementing client-side validation on a property on a Harness rule in V5.4SP1 requires you to do:
(Choose three)
a. Create a custom edit validate rule (Rule-Edit-Validate rule type). This allows you to define a
Java routine that tests the validity of a data entry value.
b. Place JavaScript validator code in a Rule-File-Fragment rule named CustomValidators (by
overriding the empty standard HTML fragment with that name.) .
c. Select the Enable Client Side Validation check box on the HTML tab of the Harness forms on
which the property requiring validation appears.
d. Add a JavaScript validator to the Harness form a JavaScript function that, executed in the
browser window, exactly replicates the test performed by the edit validate rule. The
JavaScript validator resides in the Rule-File-Text instance.
58. Which of the following is not true about portals? (Choose two)
a. An operator can have multiple portals.
b. In PRPC 5.5 developers must use Composite portal type.
c. Portal is rule resolved.
d. Portal is specified in Data-Admin-Operator-ID.
e. Skin of the user portal is specified in Portal rule.
59. Portal access is dependent on which of the following? (choose 2)
a. Operator ID
b. Access group
c. Access role
d. Privilege rule
e. Ruleset list
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60. Which if the following shapes (available in the Standard Flow) are also available in a Screen Flow? (Pick 3)
2 = Decision, 3 = Fork, 5 = Assignment

61. When working with User Interface rules such as Sections, it is possible to save them in the work or
data portions of the class structure hierarchy. Is the following true or false?
Saving Section rules in the data portion of the hierarchy is usually better because the rules can then
be reused wherever its associated data is used, without having to worry about correct property
referencing.
a. True
b. False
62. One common technique for avoid potential performance degradation of the running transactional system,
is to create a replicated database for reporting, and refresh this data as needed. PRPC supports the concept
of a reports database (True or False)
a. True
b. False
63. Name the four categories of Out-Of-The-Box reports as they are shown by default on the WorkManager
portal:
a. Monitor Process Assignments
b. Analyze Work Objects
c. Monitor Processes
d. Analyze Rules
e. Analyze Process Quality
f. Monitor Gavins Behaviour
g. Analyze Performance Thresholds
h. Analyze Process Performance
64. Which of the following are true about Summary View but not for List View. (Choose three)
a. Can have multiple criteria.
b. Can define threshold.
c. Can have paging.
d. Can have charts.
e. Can have trend reporting.
65. Which of the following is false regarding tables in PRPC? (Choose one)
a. pc_work stores work objects
b. pc_history_work stores work object history
c. pr_sys_locks stores PRPC locks
d. pc_link_folder stores associations between work objects and folders
e. pr_ra_cache stores cached rules from rule assembly.
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66. You have a requirement to produce a chart report that charts the monthly volume of work processed by a
particular division over the last five years. What should you consider when designing your list view?
(choose one)
a. All referenced properties should be exposed on the work object
b. The report could involve a lot of processing and access should be restricted to a small group of
users
c. You should show the customer added value by offering him the functionality of drilling down into
the report for more detail
d. Indexes should be created on all columns that are used as selection criteria
e. You would not use a list view to implement this report
67. Your Summary View has received the warning when you ran the Preflight tool
These properties are neither database columns nor scalar properties in database tables and can
adversely impact performance.
The properties are embedded properties. You should:
a. Wait until deployment to rectify as it is a warning and can be ignored in development
b. Use the Modify DB Schema wizard to directly expose the properties
c. Use declarative rules to solve this problem
68. What is the scope of results for standard reports on the Work Manager Portal? (Choose one.)
a. Results are scoped by the application.
b. Results are scoped by the current work pool.
c. Results are scoped by the access group selected.
d. Results are limited to the contents of the pr_work table.
69. Which of the following is false? (Choose one)
a. You can test the persistence connectivity for a class on the class rule form or on the associated
Data-Admin-DB-Table record.
b. All the 4 foundation classes (Rule-Obj-Class, Data-Admin-DB-Table, Data-Admin-DB-Name, DataAdmin-DB-ClassGroup) must be stored in pr4_base table.
c. One can use any tools such as Toad, SQL plus etc to access the PRPC database to read/write
data to the tables without impact on data integrity.
d. Process commander searches Data-Admin-DB-Table using pattern inheritance mechanism to find
the table that stores the instances of a given class.
70. In which of these authentication options will PRPC not have typically to verify the authentication of the
user? (Choose One):
a. PRBasic - Standard Process Commander Authentication
b. PRSecuredBasic Secured Standard Authentication
c. J2EEContext Container-Managed Authentication
d. PRCustom - External Authentication Through Authentication Services (but not controlled by a
content security system)
71. What is the class of the rule that defines a test that the system performs to allow, or disallow, a requestor
to perform an operation on an instance of a specific class. (Choose one)
a. Rule-Obj-When
b. Rule-Access-When
c. Data-Admin-When
72. Native PRPC authentication is rarely used in production. What are the most probable reasons for that
being the case? (Choose two.)
a. SSL is not a PRPC authentication option, only plain text is supported.
b. It performs poorly compared to alternative LDAP based authentication.
c. PRPC authentication is only meant to be a starter option to be used before your final
authentication mechanisms are in place.
d. It would require maintaining the PRPC security database separately, and to keep the PRPC
Operator IDs and passwords in sync as they are added, deleted, and changed in the
corporate security repository..
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73. How would you determine whether a requestor holds a specific privilege?
a. Interrogate the Declare_PrivilegeName page on the clipboard.
b. Make use of the PublicAPI :- tools.GetPrivilege(Requestor).Rolename method.
c. Make use of the function :- @(Pega-RULES:Default).HavePrivilege("tools", privname,
privAppliesTo, pagename).
d. Use a section of Java and utilise the OOTB ListRequestorPrivilege(Role r) method.
74. Using the Access Role editor, you are able to (Choose 3)
a. Quickly add Access Role to Object rules to an Access Role
b. Define new privilege rules
c. Replicate an Access Role rule
d. Apply an Access Role to an access group
e. Apply an Access When rule to a class
f. Apply an Access Deny rule to a class
75. Identify the statement that is true in the context of Access Groups. (Choose one)
a. A Work User can only have one access group.
b. A Work Manager can only have one access group.
c. An access group assigned to an operator ID is overridden by an access group that is specified at the
organization.
d. An Access Group can be assigned to the following objects: Organizations, Operator IDs, and
Requestor Type Definitions.
76. Which of the following is false regarding Ruleset Versioning in PRPC? (Choose one)
a. It is best practice to use only the major and minor version numbers in access groups when
specifying production ruleset.
b. Skimming is a method used to extract rules from the top-most ruleset version.
c. It is a best practice to have only one unlocked Rule-Ruleset-Version per Ruleset for a single release
of a project in development.
d. Ruleset Versions consists of three parts: major, minor, and revision numbers.
77. Multi-phase Deployments The guardrails emphasize taking an iterative approach to development, with
smaller, quicker phases.
Which of the following approach does Pega suggest for iterative development. (choose two)
a. Option would be to plan each phase to have its own major version.
b. Option would be to skim the first phases RuleSet version to the next highest minor version
upon completion of a specific milestone such as a push to UAT.
c. Option would be to plan each phase to have its own minor version
d. Option would be to plan each phase to have its own patch version
78. Why is monitoring log files is important in all phases of project? (Choose three)
a. It can help to identify lazy developers.
b. It can help us address potential performance issues early in dev cycle.
c. It can identify attempts to execute blocked rules.
d. It helps in deployment process by logging import/export actions.
e. It helps in gathering rule usage data.
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24 8 8 26 Questions

Implementation and Performance

General PRPC Architecture

The Rule-Set the class belongs to

Which of the following are disk based caches ?(choose two)

Rule Instance Cache

Static Contect Cache

Look up list cache

How can you debug an agent using Tracer(choose one)

There is a way to select the agent and force its execution

Why is allowing instances to be stored in a default table(pr_other) a poor design

Data is purged by the system cleaner

The default table names are too generic

The default table is too small to hold of ur data

JMS message services support need to be provided

Support for two-phase commits is required

Support for EJB services need to be provided

J2EE security is required

JSR-94 support is required

Which two statements are true about RuleSet prerequisites?(Choose 2)

Because the Preflight tool will flag it as bad practice

Pre-requisites Rulesets govern the creation of new rules during development

RuleSet prerequisites are validated during export of application archives

When saving Application rules, Ruleset prerequisites are validated

Which of the following is true about Data-Agent-Queue instance (Choose one)

What does the system pulse do(choose three)

It is used by PRPC to synchronize changes to the Data-Agent-Schedule instances

It synchronizes the lookup list cache deletions and any rule-file-deletes

What does the rollback method do? (Choose one)

It supports incremental rollbacks

Rollback is not supported by PRPC.The only way to do a rollback is by using the

It is used by PRPC to send information to PAL on a weekly basis so that the

Rolls back the entire deferred stack of operation

What is the Rule Assembly Cache? (Choose one)

Which of the following statements are true(Choose 2)

Implementation and Performance

Run PAL on every screen in the application

Ask the DBA to monitor the database

The Pega Log contains messages created by the Application Server

Partition the database

Avoid arithmetic operations or functions in the where clause

Create and use indexes effectively

Avoid using Where clauses

Converting a Map-Value into a decision table

Search and replace of a string in all rules

Merging one ruleset into another

PLA_ PegaRules Log Analyzer

By viewing the XML files from the TEMPDIR\PRGenJava\XML directory

What does PRPC do when executing a blocked rule (choose one)

It writes a message to log4j

The HTML data going to the browser

Any processing of requests and responses via services

Reading and writing data in database

Databse operations pertaining to BLOB

Slower persistence to database as the BLOB needs to be compressed

Garbage collection impacts when object is released

Large clipboard page foot print

Large work objects waste space in the instance cache

Which 3 statemets are true about the Log-Message method

You can force a stack trace

You can add a message that will show up in tracer

It always uses the Debug log level

Where do you configure the thresholds for alerts