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BHARAT SANCHAR NIGAM LIMITED

(A Government of India Enterprise)
KERALA CIRCLE
Limited Departmental Competitive Examination for
Promotion to the Cadre of

JUNIOR TELECONFOFFICER
JUNE 2013
Maximum Marks: 150

Time allowed: 3 Hours

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1.

Candidates should ensure that all the information with regard to their Name,
Roll No, HRMS NO etc are written correctly in the space provided for that
purpose in the OMR answer sheet.

2.

Use BLACK BALLPOINT PEN ONLY. Gel Pens/Pencils are not allowed

3.

Do not put any stray marks anywhere on the OMR answer sheet

4.

The Paper consists two sections

PARTI GENERAL ENGLISH AND GENERAL STUDIES

(Objective Multiple choice questions)
PART ii Technical Paper (Specialization) (Objective Multiple choice
questions)
5.
There are One hundread fifty questions
PART -I 50 Questions of ONE MARK EACH
PART all- 100 Questions of ONE MARK EACH
6.

Candidates have to answer all questions.

7.

Candidates should darken only one circle for each question. in case more than
one circle is darkened against any question, the answer will be treated as
incorrect and will be marked accordingly.

8.
that

There will be negative marking. For each wrong answer 25% of the mark of
question will be deducted. (le 1/4 marks for each question will be deducted for
each wrong answer)

9.
the

Rough work must not be done on the I MR answer sheet. Use Rough Sheets in
blank space of the question booklet
1

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PART- I
GENERAL ENGLISH & GENERAL STUDIES (50 Marks)
GENERAL ENGLISH (25 Marks)
COMPREHENSION I
1. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given
below:
The Chinese proverb 'Without rice, even the cleverest women cannot cook' is true
even for innumerable Indians too. Eaten simply, boiled rice is the world's most
important staple food and it's also had as delectable pulav, biriyani, idly, appam,
pudding or kheer and the grain is available in amyriad of varieties the world over.
Contrary to the urban myths, scientists and diet experts know that rice is good for
you and cannot make you heavier. It mainly comprises of carbohydrates that do not
add kilos if consumed in moderation. "Rice is not fattening" avers Richa Anand,
Chief dietician at Dr. L H Hiranandan Hospital,Mumbai. "An average 100 gms
serving of rice has only about 0.4 gms of fat". Intact this serving has no more than 100
calories. And, writes noted culinary expert Tarala Dalai, "rice has approximately
same calorie as whole wheat and hence is not fattening".
Rice kanji is a home remedy for diarrhoea. Infact kanji with a few
accomplishments like coconut chutney and boiled beans makes a healthy meal that
millions in Kerala enjoy.
White or brown? Unpolished brown rice may not be as popular as white, but is
a good source ot complex carbohydrates providing starch and fibre. It takes relatively
more time to digest allowing the body to consume the energy released over an
extended period. Brown rice is also richer in B and E vitamins and minerals like
manganese an selenium which makes it more nutritious than white rice.
Since rice has no cholesterol or sodium, it is safe for those suffering from
hypertension. Diabetics who prefer rice could choose brown (but check with your
Doctor first).
1.

Rice is the world's most important staple food because

(a) It is low in fats
(b) It has medicinal value in some cases
(c) It makes meal beautiful (d) All the above

Diarrhoea can be treated with

(a) Rice-husk
(b) Rice pudding
(c)
Rice-kanji
(d) Tea-leaves

3.

The word that does not mean same as delectable is

(a)
Delightful
(b) Charming
(c) Staple
(d) Pleasant

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4.

5.

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Urban myth' referred in the passage says

(a)That rice is poor source of nutrition
(c)That rice sharpens your memory

(b) That rice is fattening

(d) That rice has good taste

Rice may be safe and wholesome meal for a patient suffering from
(a) Anaemia (b) Hypertension
(c) Blood sugar
(d) Asthma
COMPREHENSION II

II)Complete the passage by choosing the correct options from those given in
brackets:
Virendra Sehwag, the Indian opener is capable (6) ruthless (7) ... .....
His(8) ......... reputation in test matches, is based (9)..several big, brisk innings,
two of
them racy triple hundreds. Sehwag, now wants to bring into ODI's an element of
(10)..from the classical format, while retaining his original tempo.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.

(a) off
(a) acceleration
(a) fearful
(a) on
(a) endurance

(b) of
(b) accelerating
(b) feared
(b) in
(b) endure

(c) in
(d) to
(c) accelerated (d) accelerative
(c) fearsome (d) fearing
(c) at
(d) of
(c), enduring (d) endures

VOCABULARY
Choose the option nearest in meaning to the word in bold:
11. envy
(a) jealousy

(b) pride

(c) ego

12. gradual
(a) slow

(b) infrequent

(c) occasional (d) casual

13. cautious
(a) serious

(b) dangerous

(c) careful

(d) desire

(d) awful

Choose the option opposite in meaning to the word in bold

14. lethargic
(a) active

(b) energetic

(c) provocative (d) lazy

15. nervous
(a) active

(b) alert

(c) bold

(d) smart

16. harsh
(a) tough

(b) sincere

(c) gentle

(d) shrewd

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17.

Choose the correct option to fill in the blanks:

He had to undergo some tests to ----------------------- cause of his illness.
(a) see

18.

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(b) assure (c) feel

(d) diagnose

They could not come to a.. even after three hours deliberations
(a) decision ( b) opinion

(c) determination

(d) out come

Choose the word closest in meaning to the one underlined in the sentences
19.
The election in one of the constituencies in our locality was cancelled on
account of bogus voting.
(a) inferior
(b) extra
(c) late (d) false
20.

His parochial remarks created tension in the community.

(a) foolish
(b) narrow
(c) irrelevant (d) critical
GRAMMAR

Choose the correct options to fill in the blanks in the given sentences:
21
22.
23.
24.
25.

Antibiotics give protection ---------- infection

(a) with
(b) for (c) against
(d) at
They have an old house
(a) haven't they
(b) didn't they (c) won't they (d) hadn't they
Amit looked ill today morning, and looks now.
(a) worst
(b) worse
(c) worser
(d) can I
I can work----------in winter than in summer.
(a) harder
(b) more hard (c) hardest
(d) much hard
All students should report to school by 8.30 a.m.------(a) at the last (b) at the latter (c) at the latest (d)
at the later
PART-A GENERAL STUDIES(25 MARKS)
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

26

Who is the author of the book "FREEDOM BEHIND BARS"?

(a) Sheik Abdullah
(c) Nelson Mandela

(b) Kiran Bedi

(d) Chetan Bhagat

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27.

World Health Day is celebrated on 7th April to mark the anniversary of the
founding of WHO in 1948. Each year a theme is selected for World Health
Day that highlights the priority area of public health concern in the world. The
theme for the year 2013 is
(a) Cancer
(b) HIV
(c) Diabetes (d) Hypertension

28

Best Malayalam Film which was awarded at 60th National Film Award (a) Uspad Hotel
(b) Annayum rasoolum
(c) Kadhalil Sodappuvadhu Eppadi (d) Celluoid

29

Who is the top scorer in IPL 2012 ?

(a) Chris Gayle
(b) Virender Sehwag
(c) Ajinkya Rahane
d) Shikar Dhawan

30

Who invented Mobile Phone?

(a) Graham Bell (b) Thomas Alva Edison
(c) Dr. Martin Cooper (d) Eric Nixon

31.

Which country is also known as the 'Rainbow Nation'?

(a) Australia (b) United Kingdom (c) Switzerland

32.

(d) South Africa

'Playground of Europe' is the nickname of which European country?

(a) Greece
(b) Monaco
(c) Germany (d) Switzerland

33.

What name is given to the study or collection of money, coins or often medals?
(a) Lotology (b) Philately (c) Numismatics (d) Philography

34.

Pyongyang is the capital city of which Asian country?

(a) Thailand (b) North Korea(c) South Korea
(d) Indonesia
Who is generally considered as the inventor of the 'Periodic Table', a tabular
method of displaying the chemical elements ?
(a) Gregor Mendel
(b) James Chadwick (c) Dmitri Mendeleev (d) Ernest
Rutherford
CURRENT AFFAIRS
Renowned playback singer who on 26th Jan 2013 refused to accept the
prestigious "Padma Bhushan Award"?
(a) SP Balasubramanyam
(b) S Janaki
(c) Yesudoss K J
(d) K S Chitra

35.

36

37

Who is the present Chief Justice of India?

(a) V K Sabarwal
(b) S H Kapadia
(b) K G Balakrishnan (d) Altamas Kabir

38

Which Bollywood actress was appointed as Goodwill ambassador for UN

program on HIV /AIDS (UNAIDS)
(a) Aishwarya Rai
(b) Katrina Kaif c) Kareena Kapoor (d) Vidya Balan
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39.
40.
41.

42.

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How many spokes are there in our National Emblem ASHOKA CHAKKARA?
(a) 26 (b) 24 (c) 23 (d) 25
Which among the following is the regulatory body for Insurance in India
(a) RAI
(b) THAI
(c) IRDA
(d) AMFI
Who among the following has participated in all three round table conferences?
(a) MX Gandhi
(b) B RAmbedkar
(c) Sardar Vallabhai Patel
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Name the astronaut of Indian American origin who took over the command of
International Space station
(a) Rakesh Sharma (b) Kalpana Chawla (c) Sunita Williams (d) Tessy
Thomas
MENTAL ABILITY

43.

Which number should come in the place of Question mark in the following
series 9, 20, 33, 48, ?, 84, 105
(a) 60
(b) 65
(c) 62
(d) 66

44.

In certain code language POWER is written as 61452 and COULD is written

as 81379. How will you write COUPLE in that code language
(a) 913765
(b) 831657
(c) 813675
(d) 813567

45.

If 27 X 29 = 783 then 0.27 X 290

(a) 7830
(b) 783 (c) 78.3
(d) 7.83

46.

Find the value of (7) + (8)

(a) 15 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 2

47

A man sells an article for Rs. 330/- at a gain of 10%. What is the Cost Price?
(a) 300
(b) 340
(c) 330
(d) 360

48, 49,50. What is Most essential component for ? (3 Marks)

48.

Desert

(a) Camel
(b) Sand
(c) Watermelon
(d) Wind
(e)Heat

49. Agriculture
(a) Labourer
(b) Land
(c) Tractor
(d) Water
(e) Seed

50. Newspaper
(a) Advertisement
(b) Date
(c) News
(d) Editor
(e) Article

7
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Part- II Technical Paper(Specializationlil 00 Marks ot oi le mark each

(Objective Multiple choice Questions)
1

The QWERTY keyboard

a. is the most popular keyboard
c. is rarely used
b. is the fastest keyboard
d. uses Dvorak layout
An interrupt which can be temporarily ignored by the counter is known as
a. vectored interrupt
c. low priority interrupt
b. non-maskable interrupt
d.high priority interrupt

3.

The bus which is used to transfer data from main memory to peripheral device
is the
a. data bus b. input bus
c. DMA bus d. output bus

4.

A 32-bit microprocessor has word length equal to

a. 2 bytes b. 1 byte
c. 4 bytes
d. 8 bytes

5.

The language which a computer can understand is

a. high level language
b. assembly language
c. machine language
d) all of the above

A beam of light used to record and retrieve data on optical disk is known as
a.
polarized light
b)unpolarized light
c.
laser
d.coloured light

7.

A control of structure used to create loops is

a. sequence
b. choiceb.
c. iteration
d. None of the above

8.

C programming language provides operation which deal directly with objects

such as
a. strings and sets
b.lists and arrays
c. characters, integers and floating point numbers
d. All of the above

9.

Which of the following relationship operators in C means "not equal to"?

a. = =
b.
!=
c.
>=
d.
<=

10.

Which of the following is true when a text file (in Pascal) is opened for
reading?
I.
eof is set to false
II.
eoln is set to false
III.
eof is undefined
a)
I
b)
II
c)
III
d)
I and II
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11.

A linker
a. is a software programme
b. combines part of a programme
c. is a programme used to load monitor into main memory
d. Both (a) and (b)

12.

The following translates source programmes into object programmes

a. Assembler b. Interpreter c. Compiler d. Absolute assemble

13.

Which of the following is not correct?

a. Bus is a group of wires.
b. Bootstrap is a technique or device for loading first instruction
c. An instruction is a set of hits that defines a computer operation
d. An interrupt signal is required at the start of every programme

14.

Algorithm is used
a. to bring itself into desired state by its own action
b. to perform logarithmic operations
c. to describe set of procedure by which given result is obtained
d. none of these
An assembler in a computer system prepares
a. machine-language programme from a symbolic language programme
b. object programme
c. assembles computer instructions and data in the machine
d. None of these

15.

16.

The process of executing several programs simultaneously by use of more

than one processing unit is called
a. multiprogramming
b. multiprocessing
c. time sharing
d. batch processing

17.

The operating system manages

a. memory
b. processor
c. disk and I/O devices
d. all of the above

18.

Which of the following sorting methods is stable?

a. Straight insertion sort
b.
Binary insertion sort
c. Shell sort
d. Heap sort.

19.

ASCII stands for

a. All Purpose Scientific Code for Information Interchange
b. American Security Code for Information Interchange
c. American Scientific Code for information Interchange
d. American Standard Code for Information Interchange

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20.

Which one of the following is not system software

a. MS DOS b. UNIX
C. Windows d. JAVA

21.

A group of computers connected through a media within a room or office or a

building is called
a. LAN
b. WAN
c.MAN
d. None
Name the device which is used to connect two Qetworks which may or may
not similar
a. Hub b. Router
C. Modem
d. Ethernet

22

23

Speed of Fast Ethernet (FE) Port is

a. 64 Kbps
b. 2 Mbps
c. 10 Mbps

d. 100 Mbps

24.

Which of the following IF Address is reserved for the private Network

a. 172.16.0.0/12
b.10.0.0.0/8 c.192.168.0.0/16 d. All of the above

25.

TCP is
a.Reliable and connection oriented b. Unreliable but connection oriented
c.Reliable but connectionless
d. Unreliable and connectionless

26.

OSPF stands for

a. Open Secondary Path First b. Open Short Path First
c. Open Secret Path First
d. None of these

27.

IP address of a host is a part of----------- layer

a. Transport b. Datalink
c. Network
d. Depends on Network configuration

28.

The default value of TTL field in IP datagram is

a. 255 b. 64 C. 32 d. 256
The default sub net mask for class B IP Address is
a. 255.0.0.0 b. 255.255.255.0
c. 255.255.0.0

29.

d. 255.255.225.10

30.

The address size of IPv6 addressing has been increased to

a.64 bits
b. 128 bits
C. 256 bits
d. 512 bits

31.

A router decides the route to which a packet has to be forwarded based on the
information available in
a. Routing table
b. Interfaces C. Ports
d. None of these

32.

Information Security ensures

a. Availability of data
b. Integrity of data
c. confidentiality of data
d. All of the above

33.

The speed of a dc motor is

a. always constant
b. directly proportional to back emf
c.directly proportional to flux
d. inversely proportional to the product of back emf and flux
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34.

It the supply voltage to a shunt motor is increased by 25% which of the

following will decrease?
a. starting torque
b. full load speed c. full load current d. none of these

35.

The starting resistance of a dc motor is usually

a.
infinitely large b.
large C.
about 100 ohm d. small

36.

The function of commutator in a dc machine is

a. to improve commutation b. to change dc voltage into ac voltage
c. to change ac voltage into dc voltage
d. to provide easy speed control

37. The yoke of a dc generator is made of cast iron because

a. it is cheaper
b. at completes the magnetic path
c. it gives mechanical protection to the machine
d. all of these
38.

The secondary of a transformer is never kept open circuited under actual

operating conditions to
a. provide safety to human beings
b. protect the primary circuit
c. avoid saturation of core
d. avoid high voltage insulation

39.

Alternator works on the principle of

a. mutual induction b. Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction
c. self mutual induction
d. self and mutual induction

40.

Single phase induction motor can be made self starting by

a. adding series combination of capacitor and auxiliary winding in parallel
with the mainwinding
b. adding an auxiliary winding in parallel with the main winding
c. adding an auxiliary winding in series with a capacitor and the main winding
d. none of these

41.

A transformer operates
a. always at unity power factor
b. has its own constant power factor
c. at a power factor always below 0.8
d. at a power factor depending on the power factor of the load

42.

If a single phase motor runs hot, the probable cause may be

a. overload
b. low voltage
c. high voltage d. any of the above

43.

Which of the following Boolean expression is true?

a. (A+B) (A+C) = AC + BC b. (A+B) (A+C) = AB +C
c. (A+B) (A+C) = A + BC d. (A+B)(A+C) - AC+B

44.

Simplified form of Boolean expression (A+B+AB) (A+C) is

a. Ai-B+C
b. AB+BC
c. A+BC
d. AC+B
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45.

An AND gate maybe visualized as

a. switches connected in series
c. MOS transistors connected in series

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b. switches connected in parallel

d. None of the above

46.

The resistance of a semiconductor with temperature

a. increases b. decreases c. can't say
ft none of the above

47.

The decimal equivalent of the hexadecimal number 1AF is

a.1000
b. 431
c. 768
d. 323
The dual of Boolean Theorem A(B+C) AB+AC is
a. A+(B+C)=AB+AC
b. A(B+C)=(A+B)(A+C)
c. A+BC=(A+B)(A+C)
d. None of these
The 2's complement of the binary number 11 011 00 is
a.1101101
b. 0010011
c.
0011101
d. 0010100

48.

49.

50.

A Boolean function can be expressed

a. As sum of maxterms or product of minterms
b. As product of maxterms or sum of minterms
c. Partly as product of maxterms and partly as sum of min terms
d. Partly as sum of maxterms and partly as product of min terms

51.

Among the logic families, the one having the lowest power dissipation and
highest noise margin is
a. Schottky TTL
b. TTL
c. ECL d. CMOS

52.

The standard binary code for alpha numeric characters is

a. ASCII
b. GRAY
c. BCD
d. Excess-3
In FM broadcast, the maximum modulation frequency is restricted to
a 5 KHz
b. 10 KHz
c. 15 KHz d. 20 KHz

53

54.
55.

56.

57.

58.

To generate PCM, the signal is sampled and converted into

a. PWM
b. PPM
c. PAM
d. PDM
In PCM, for 128 standard quantizing levels, the maximum error will be
a. 1/128 of the total amplitude range b. 1/256 of the total amplitude range
c. 1/64 of the total amplitude range d. 1/32 of the total amplitude range
In pulse modulation system with any modulation, all the transmitted pulses
have the same
a. Amplitude b. Width
c. Spacing
d. Amplitude, width and spacing
Which one of the following is not an advantage of FM over AM?
a. Better noise immunity is provided
b. Lower bandwidth is required
c. The transmitted power is more useful
d. Less modulating power is
required
In a PCM system each quantization level is encoded into 8 bits. The signal to
quantization noise ratio is equal to
a. (1/256)2
b. 48 dB
C. 64 dB
d. 256 dB
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59

Modems are used tor data transmission telephone lines to

a. increase the transmission capacity
b. improve noise performance
C.incorporate error control coding
d. eliminate dc component in the transmitted signal

60.

The Nyquist sampling rate for the signal g(t) = 10 cos(50 t) cos (150 t)
a. 150 samples per second
b. 200 samples per second
c. 300 samples per second
d. 350 samples per second

61.

In a PCM system, the number of quantization levels are 16 and the maximum
signal frequency is 4 kHz, the bit transmission rate is
a. 64 K bits/sec
b. 16 K bits/sec c. 32 K bits/sec
d. 32 bits / sec

62.

MODEM stands for

a. modulator at transmitting side and detector at the receiving side
b. which deals with analog signals and shows digital information
C. Analog to digital at transmitting side and digital to analog at the receiving
side.
d. a device which deals with digital signals only

63.

Accumulation is a device which

a. stores a number
b. adds two numbers
C. adds and stores previously stored number to another number
d. none of the above

64.

Intel 8085A and 8086A differ in

a. number of address lines
b. number of data lines
c. 8086 can support multiprocessor system while 8085 can't
d. all of the above
The basic elements of a microprocessor are
a. ALU, memory
b. ALU, control unit
C. ALU, memory, I/O device
d. ALU, control unit, memory

65.

66.

Direct-Memory Access Channel (DMA) facilitates data to move into and out
of the system.
a. on first-come first-serve basis
b. with equal time delay
c. without sub-routine d. without program intervention

67

An 'Assembler' for microprocessor is used for

a. assembly of processors in a production line
b. creation of new programs using different modules
c. translation of a program from assembly language to machine language
d. Translation of a higher level language into English text.
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68.

Microwave frequency range extends from

a. 3 MHz to 30 MHz
b. 30 MHz to 300 MHz
C. 300 MHz to 3000 MHz d. 500 MHz to 30000 MHz

69.

Which of the following noise becomes important at microwave frequencies?

a. Short Noise b. Flicker Noise c. Thermal Noise d. Transit Time Noise

70.

Which of the following devices is basically a wide band amplifier?

a. Magnetron
b. Travelling Wave Tube
C. Reflex Klystron
d. None of the above
Helical antenna is used for satellite tracking because of its
a. Circular polarization
b. Broad bandwidth
C. Good front to back ratio d. Small size
The dominant mode in a rectangular waveguide is
a. TE01
b. TMO1
c. TE10
d. TM11

71.

72

73.

Vacuum tubes eventually fail at microwave frequencies because of their

a. Small series inductance in leads b. Increased noise figure
C.Inter electrode capacitances
d. Short transit time

74.

Which of the following is the valid MAC Address?

a. 00-12-34-56-AB-12
b. 001-234-56A-B12
C. 00-12-34-56-AB-12-23 d. None of these

75.

A 0.1A ammeter having a resistance of 10 Ohms is to be converted to a 1A

ammeter by using a shunt resistance. Which of the following is the most
appropriate shunt resistance?
a. 0.1 Ohm
b. 1.0 Ohm
c. 1.1 Ohm
d. 1.2 Ohm
Which one of the following is an active transducer?
a. Photo voltaic cell
b. Strain gauge
C. Photo emissive cell
d. synchro

76.

77.

Number of address lines required to address 8K bytes of memory is

a. 13
b. 14
c.15
d. 16

78.

'Creep' is energy meters can be prevented by

a. using extra turns on the voltage coil
b. having two holes on opposite sides of the disc
C. using a stronger brake magnet
d.using steel laminations of high permeability

79.

The meter constant of a single-phase 240 V induction watt-hour meter is 400

revolutions per kWh. The speed of the meter disc for a current of 10 amperes
of 0.8 p.f. lagging will be
a.12.8 rpm
b. 16.02 rpm C.
18.2 rpm
d. 21.1 rpm.

80.

Megger is an instrument for

a. measuring current
b. measuring voltage
C. testing insulation
d. measuring power
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81.

Power of a 100 kW transmitter can be measured by

a. votmeter-ammeter consol meter b. bolometer
c. wattmeter
d. calorimetric method

82

'Piezo-electric quartz crystal can be used to measure

a. temperature
b. velocity
c. acceleration
d. flow

83.

Sensitivity of a voltmeter is expressed as

a. volts/ohm b. ohms/volt c. ohms volt

d. Siemens/volt

84.

Shunt used in measuring instrument should have

a. Zero resistance
b. Very low resistance
C. High resistance
d. Very high resistance

85.

A Kelvin double bridge is best suited for the measurement of

a. Inductance b. Capacitance c. Low resistance d. High resistance

86.

The resolution of Digital Volt Meter with 4 digit display is

a. 1/4
b. 1/1000
c
1/10000
d. 1%

87.

The advantage of electrostatic instruments is that

a. they are cheap, robust and small in size b. their indicating scale is
uniform
C. their operating forces are large
d. their power drain from the mains is
negligible
In Amplitude modulation
a. amplitude of the carrier varies directly as the amplitude of the intelligence
b. amplitude of the carrier varies directly as the frequency of the intelligence
C. intelligence lies in the audio range
d. amplitude of the carrier does not change
Modulation Index (m) of an AM signal
a. depends upon peak amplitude of modulating signal
b. depends upon peak amplitudes of carrier and the modulating signal
C. is a function of carrier frequency
d. cannot be determined unless modulating frequency is known.
"Quantizing noise can be reduced by increasing the No. of samples per
second" Is it true?
a. yes, it is
b. no, it is not C.
not necessarilyd.
none of these
An antenna is a device that
a. converts electromagnetic signal i into RF signal
b. converts RF signal into electromagnetic waves
C. converts guided e.m. waves into free space e.m. waves and vice-versa
d. is located at the output of a transmitter and input of a receiver
Wave in which there is no component of electrical field in the direction of
propagation and the electrical wave is wholly transverse are known as
a. TE waves b. TM waves C. TEM waves
d. none of these

88.

89.

90.

91.

92.

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93.

A Continuous Wave radar

a. can measure both range and direction
b. can measure only the range
C. cannot give any information regarding the range
d. none of these

94.

A geostationary satellite
a.is motionless in space (except for its spin)
b.appears stationary over earth's magnetic pole
C.it is not stationary but orbits the Earth with a 24 hr. period
d. is located at a height of 36,000 kms to ensure global coverage

95.

Frequency modulation technique was used for upward as well as downward

link in a commercial satellite system. FM used here differs from FM used for
commercial radio broadcast in the respect that
a. centre frequency is very high
b. higher frequency deviation is used
c. lesser frequency deviation is used d. none of these

96.

DXC stands for

a. Discrete Cross Connect
c.Digital Cross Circuit

b. Digital Cross Connect

d.
Discrete Cross Circuit

97.

In Passive Optical Network systems wavelengths in use are

a. 1590 nm downstream
b.1310 nm in upstream
C. 1310 nm in downstream
d. 1490 nm in upstream

98.

The basic concept applied in Optic Fibre is

a. Total internal refraction
b.Total internal reflection
c. Pulse amplitude modulation
d. Pulse code modulation

99.

OTDR is an instrument used for

a. Time division multiplexing
c. Splicing of Optic Fibre.

100.

b. Frequency division multiplexing

d. Measuring Optic Fibre characteristics

In analog technique of modulation in satellite system, the most commonly

employed system is
a. AM
b. FM
C. PAM
d. either AM or FM

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