Professional Documents
Culture Documents
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Syndrome?
Shigella
IBD
&URKQV
Chlamydia
Yersina
Reiter & Crohn Saw Yersina and got
Chlamyia
Hydralazine
INH
Phenytoin
Procainamide
Penicillamine
Ethosuximide
H I PPPE
Serum Sickness
PSGN
SLE
SBE
Cryoglobinemia
MPGN II
INH
Dapsone
Spirolactones
Macrolides
Amiodarone
Cimetidine
Ketoconazole
Quinilones
Warfarin
Estrogen
Phenytoin
Theophylline
Digoxin
Necatur americanis
Enterobius vermicularis
Ankylostoma duodenale
Trichuris trichurium
Ascaris lumbercoides
Strongyloides
Hooks AS NEAT
Please
Check
Before
Going
Home
PKU
CAH(Congential
Adrenal Hyperplasia)
Biotinidase
Galactosemia
Hypothyroidism
HLA-Antigens
HLA-DR2= 1DUFROHSV\$OOHUJ\*RRGSDVWXUHV
MS
HLA-DR3= DM, Chronic Active Hepatitis,
6MRJUHQV6/(&HOLDF6SUXH
HLA-DR3 & 4= IDDM(Type I)
HLA-DR4= Rheumatoid Arthritis, Pemphigus
Vulgaris
HLA-DR5= JRA, Pernicious Anemia
HLA-DR7= Nephrotic Syndrome(Steroid induced)
HLA-Antigens
HLA-DR 3 & B8=Celiac Disease
HLA-A3= Hemochromatosis(chromo. 6, point
mut.-cysteine>tyrosine)
HLA-B8=MG
HLA-B13= Psoriasis
HLA-B27= Psoriais(only if w/arthritis) Ankylosing
6SRQG\OLWLV,%'5HLWHUV3RVWJRQRFRFFDO
Arthritis
HLA-BW 47= 21 alpha Hydroxylas def.(Vit.D)
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anaerobes?
Strep bovis
Clostridium melanogosepticus
Bacteriodes fragilis
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Clindamycin
Metranidazole
Cefoxitin
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associated with colon cancer?
Strep. Bovis
Clostridium melanogosepticus
BP?
Increases
Some
Strange
Killers
Have
Pretty
Nice
Capsules
Salmonella
Strep. Pneumo (gr+)
Klebsiella
H. influenza
Pseudomonas
Neisseria
Cryptococcus
Hep B,C,D
Aflatoxin
Vinyl chloride
Ethanol
Carbon Tetrachloride
Anyline Dyes
Smoking
Hemochromatosis
Benzene
Schistomiasis
Measles
Mumps
Rubella
Oral Polio (sabin)
Rotavirus
Small pox
BCG
Yellow fever
Varicella
Salk (polio)
Influenza
Rubella
Hepatitis A
PCN
-methyldopa
Cephalosporins
Sulfa
PTU
Anti-malarials
Dapsone
Troponin I
Appears
Peaks
Gone
2 hrs
2 days
7 days
nd
What is the 2
appear?
CK-MB
Appears
Peaks
Gone
MI enzyme to
6 hrs
12 hrs
24 hrs
rd
What is the 3
appear?
LDH
Appears
Peaks
Gone
MI enzyme to
1 day
2 days
3 days
Ototoxicity
Hypokalemia
Dehydration
Allergy
Nephritis (interstitial)
Gout
Decrease on
TR
VSD
inspiration (^exp)
Increase on
inspiration
Decrease on
inspiration (^exp)
Brain
Lung
Liver
Spleen
Kidney
Lymph nodes
Skin
Bone
CT
Mircoglia
Type I pneumocyte
Kupffer cell
RES
Mesangial
Dendritic
Langerhans
Osteoclasts
Histiocytes or
Giant cells or
Epithelioid cells
Ceftriaxone
250 mg im
Cefixime
400 mg po
Cefoxitin
400 mg po
Ciprofloxacin
500 mg po
Ofloxacin
400 mg po
Gatifloxacin
400 mg im
Phosphorylase (Pi)
Debranching enzyme
Alpha-1,6 Glucosidase
Phosphatase
)DEU\V
.UDEEHV
*DXFKHUV
Niemann Pick
Tay-Sachs
Metachromatic
leukodystrophy
+XUOHUV
+XQWHUV
galactosidase
Galactosylceramide
glucocerebrosidase
Sphingomyelinase
Hexosaminidase
Arylsulfatase
L iduronidase
Iduronidase sulfatase
:KDWG]VDUHDVVRFLDWHGZLWK+/$
B27?
Psoriasis
Ankylosing spondylitis
IBD (Ulcerative colitis)
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Glucose 6 phosphate
3RPSHV
1 4 glucosidase
&RULV
Debranching enzyme
0F$UGOHV
Glycogen phosphorylase
Pyruvate?
Glycine
Alanine
Serine
Acetyl CoA ?
Phenylalanine
Isoleucine
Threonine
Tryptophan
Lysine
Leucine
Alpha-KG ?
Glutamate
Glutamine
Succinyl CoA?
Phenylalanine
Tryptophan
Tyrosine
Fumerate ?
Proline
Oxaloacetate?
Aspartate
Asparigine
Decreased
pCO2?
Decreased
PCWP?
Decreased EFLWVDSUHVVXUHSUREOHP
Respiratory Rate?
Increased
pH?
Increased
SZ?
Increased
ACTH
ADH
PTH
TSH
ANP
Anti-smith
Anti cardiolipin
Anti-ds DNA
SLE
Pemphigus vulgaris
Bullous pemphigoid
Cervical CA
EBV?
Burkitts
Nasopharyngeal CA
HepB & C?
Liver CA
HIV?
.DSRVLV6DUFRPD
Inflamed glomeruli?
Glumerulo nephritis
Clot in papilla?
Papillary necrosis
Interstitial nephritis
Necator americanus
Ankylostoma duodenale
Shistosomiasis
Strongyloides
Ascaris lumbricoides
Immunocompromised
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susceptable to pseudomonas and
staph infxns?
Burn patients
Cystic fibrosis
DM
Neutropenic patients
Blood transfusion
Increased Tidal Volume
Giving O2
Right sided heart failure
Pregnancy due to increase volume
IV fluids
ASD/VSD
Deep breathing
Hypernateremia
SIADH
Pulmonary regurge
Pulmonary stenosis
Right bundle branch block
Intracranial
Mediastinum
Pleural cavity
Thighs
Retroperitoneum
Abdominal cavity
Pelvis
Gram +
Basement membrane suppressor
Works on simple anaerobes
The #1 cause of anaphylaxis
Causes interstial nepritits
Causes nonspecific rashes
Acts as a hapten causing hemolytic anemia
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Granuloma
Ileum
Fistula
Transmural
Skip Lesion
1-3 weeks
Why is there a prodromal period?
Because must switch to positive stranded
before replication
What is Plan F?
TPP Thiamin B1
Lipoic Acid B4
CoA Pantothenic acid B5
FAD Riboflavin B2
NAD Niacin B3
%UXWRQV$JDPPDJOREXOLQHPLD
CGD (NADPH def)
DMD
Color Blindness
G6PD
Hemophilia
Lesch-Nyhan
Vit D resist. Rickets (X-linked dominant)
Fabrys
Hunters
Tumor Markers/Oncongenes I
L-myc?
Small cell lung Ca
C-myc?
3URP\HORF\WLFOHXNHPLD%XUNLWWVO\PSKRPD
N-myc?
Neuroblastoma
Small cell lung CA
C-able?
CML
ALL
Tumor Markers/Oncongenes II
C-myb?
Colon CA
AML
C-sis ?
Osteosarcoma
Glioma
Fibrosarcoma
Tumor Markers/Oncongenes IV
Erb-B2?
Breast CA
Ovarian CA
Gastric CA
Ret?
Medullary CA of thyroid
Men II & III
Papillary carcinoma
Tumor Markers/Oncongenes V
Ki-ras?
Lung CA
Colon CA
Bcl-2?
Burkitts
Follicular lymphoma
Erb?
Retinoblastoma
Colon CA
Any visceral CA
End organ damage
Erythema nodosum?
Anything granulomatous
NOT assoc. w/ bacteria
Cholesterol
from periphery to liver
LDL
Machinery murmur
Elbow?
Abdomen/Brain?
Lungs?
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acute pancreatitis (at admission)?
Glucose > 200
Age > 55
LDH >350
AST > 250
WBC > 16,000
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acute pancreatitis (at less than
48 hrs)?
Calcium <8 mg/dl
HCT drop > 10%
O2 < 60 (PaO2)
Base deficit > 4
BUN > 5 mg/dl
Sequestration > 6L
What is dysguzia?
Problem with sense of taste
Diptheria
Salmonella
Has O antigen
Inflammation
Cell-cell interaction
Smoking
Aniline dyes
Benzene
Aflatoxin
Cyclophosphamide
Schistosomiasis
2 diseases:
Von Hippel-Lindau
Tubular sclerosis
Type II
Cytotoxic (Humoral)
Type III
Immune complex mediation
Type IV
Delayed hypersensitivity/Cell mediated
Pancreatic polypeptide
hormones in F-cells
AA amyloid?
Chronic active disease
AL amyloid from Ig light chain?
Myeloma
Beta 2 microglobulin?
Chronic hemodialysis
AA amyloid from SAA?
Nephrotic hereditary forms
eg. Mediterranean fever
Pre-albumin/transthyretin?
Cardiomyopathic hereditary forms
senile systemic amyloidosis
'HVFULEH3LFNVGLVHDVH
Atrophy of frontal and temporal cortex
with sparing of remaining neocortical
regions
Antabuse
disulfiram
-ve charge
+ve charge
What is it used for?
Reversing the effects of heparin
Hemolytic properties of
Streptococcus:
What type of hemolysis is alpha hemolysis?
Partial hemolysis
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Green
What type of hemolysis is beta-hemolysis?
Complete hemolysis
Hemolytic properties of
Streptococcus:
:KDWFRORULVLWV]RQH
Clear
eg. Streptokinase
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Red
Hypokalmia
Patients have NO carbonic anhydrase
Where is it injected?
Injected in different areas of body
18-24 yoa?
Staph saprophyticus
Why?
Because they stick things inside themselves
:K\QR87,VDIWHU"
Because women are use to penises and Staph saprophyticus lives on
penis (becomes part of normal flora).
Because of what?
Collagenase
What is transduction
9LUXVLQMHFWLWV'1$LQWREDFWHULD
What is transformation?
9LUXVLQMHFWVLWV'1$LQWRLWEDFWHULDLQD
hospital or nursing home setting, then
becomes deadly.
Strep. Pneumonia
Herpes simplex virus
Neisseria gonorrhea
Chlyamydia
HHV I causes?
Oral
Trigeminal ganglia
HHV II causes?
Genital
Sacral plexus
HHV IV causes?
EBV
Mononucleosis
%XUNLWWV
HHV V causes?
CMV
Inclusion bodies
HHV VI causes?
Roseola
Duke Disease
Exanthem subitum
Contra-indication?
Can be used during pregnancy because it
does not cross the placenta
molecular-weight heparins?
They act more on Xa
Have better bioavailability
Have 2 to 4 times longer half life
Can be administered subcutaneously and
without laboratory monitoring.
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Diarrhea
Dermatitis
Dementia
Death
Is it Gram +/-?
+
Where and how does it get its exotoxin?
From virus via transduction
Sensitivity
Specificity
PPV
NPV
OR
A/A+C
D/B+D
A/A+B
D/C+D
AD/BC
RR
(A/All)/(C/All)
AR
(A/All)-(C/All)
A+B
C+D
A+C
B+D
ALL
Always in the
numerator
A&D
Ankylosing Spondylities
IBD
Ulcerative Cholitis
5HLWHUV
Post gonococcal arthritis
DZ Associated to HLA-BW 47
21 alpha hydroxylase deficiency
Vit. D
Highest affinity
Memory respond at day 3 five times the concentration
Peaks in 5 years last for 10 years
Opsonizes
Activates complement
2nd to show up in primary response
Only one to show up for secondary respond
Most abundant Ig in newborn
Antigenic differences in heavy chain and site of di-sulfide
bond
4 subclasses G1 to G4
complement fixation
Defenses against bacteria and viruses
B-100
Type II-b (LDL and VLDL problems) enzyme
deficiency for LDL at adipose. Receptor problem
for VLDL. Most common in General Population
What is a Xanthoma?
Deposition of Cholesterol on elbows
Can cause what?
CAD
What is a Xanthelasma?
Deposition of Triglycerides on eyelids, face
Can cause what?
Pancreatitis
Description of
Rashes
ERYTHEMA MARGINATUM
Little red spots w/ bright red margins
Sandpapery
RF- Jones critera
ERYTHEMIA CHRONICUM
MIGRANS
Lymes disease
Target lesions (bulls eye)
MEASLES
Morbiliform rash
Preceded by cough
conjunctiivitis
ROSEOLA
Fever x 2 day
Followed by rash
ONLY ONE WITH RASH FOLLOWING
FEVER (HHV 6)
ERYTHEMA NODOSUM
Anterior aspect of leg
Redness
Tender nodules
Erythema multiforme
Red macules, target lesions
Causes: allergy, viruses
Mild: MCC virus, #2 drugs (sulfas)
Moderate: Stevens-Johnsons Syndrome
Severe: Toxic epidermal necrolysis , skin
peels off
SEBORRHEIC DERMATITIS
Scaly skin with oily shine on headline
SEBORRHEIC KERATOSIS
Stuck on warts
Due to aging
PSORIASIS
HLA-B27
Extensor surfaces
Silvery white plaques
Scaly skin
Pitted nails
STAGES
Red macules
Papules
Vesicles
Pustules then scabs
Different stages may appear at same
time
DERMATITIS HERPATIFORMIS
Rash and blisters on ant. thighs
Assoc. with diarrhea
Assoc. with flare up of celiac sprue
TYPHOID FEVER
SEEN WITH SALMONEALLA INFXN
Rose spots assoc. with intestinal fire
DERMATOMYOSITIS
Heliotropic rash
ERYSIPELAS
Reddened area on skin w/ raised borders
DOES NOT BLANCH
TINEEA CRURIS
Redness
Itchy groin
PITYRIASIS ROSEA
Herald patch= dry skin patches that follow
skin lines
HHV 7
TINEA VERSICOLOR
Hypopigmented macules on upper back
Presents in a V pattern
A.K.A. upside down christmas tree
Tx: Griseofulvin
T-CELL DEFICIENCY
HIV
Also B-cell but less so
:KDWLVVSHFLDODERXW/'/V"
ONLY ONE THAT CARRIES CHOLESTEROL
Xanthomas
Where are they located?
elbows
20%
:KDWGRHVWKHZLQGRZSHULRG
build in Hepatitis B?
HbE antibody
IgM HbC antibody
What disappears?
HbS antigen
MC infection?
CMV
MCC of death?
PCP
What is p41 used for?
Just a marker
Vitamin A
Vitamin C
Betakertine
Hypoparathyroidism
Decrease Ca+
Increase Phosphate
:KDWLV:HUQLFNHV
Encephalopathy?
Alcoholic thymine deficiency of the
Temporal Lobe
:KDWLV:HUQLFNHV.RUVDNRII"
What is B2
Riboflavin
What is a physical sign of this deficiency?
Angular stomatitis
Angular cheliosis
Corneal Neurovasculazations
What is B3?
Niacin
What is the clue?
Diarrhea
Dermatitis
Dementia
Death
What is B4?
Lipoic acid
What is the deficiency caused by this
vitamin?
Not one
What is B5?
Pantothenic acid
What is the deficiency caused by this
vitamin?
<RXJXHVVHGLWQRWKLQJ
What is B6?
Pyridoxine
What is the deficiency caused by this vitamin?
Neuropathy
Seizures
What is B12?
Cyanocobalamine
What is the deficiency caused by this
vitamin?
Pernicious anemia
Neuropathy
Why?
Because it recycles myelin
:KDWDUHWKH'6RISHOOHJUD"
DIARRHEA
DERMATITIS
DEMENTIA
DEATH
What causes a
NEUROPATHY WHEN
DEFICIENT & also needs
TRANSAMINASE?
PYRIDOXINE B6
Biotin
Panothenic acid
Helps with absorption of B12
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COMPARTMENT SYNDROME?
Pain
Pallor
Paresthesia
Pulselessness
Poikilothermia
/HLJKV'LVHDVH
What is another name?
Subacute necrotizing encephalomyelopathy
What are the signs & symptoms?
Progressively decreasing IQ
Seizure
Ataxia
What is the deficiency?
Cytochrome oxidase deficiency
Listeria
What part is toxic?
Lipid A
Does it cross the placenta?
Yes
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:KDWDUHWKH.,1.<$0,12
ACID?
Proline
Where is it from?
LEUKOCYTES
VIRAL REPLICATION AND TUMOR GROWTH
NK ACTVITY
secretes perforins and granzymes to kill infected cell
Where is it from?
T-CELLS & NK CELLS
NK ACTIVITY
MHC CLASS I & II
MACROPHAGE ACTIVITY
CO-STIMULATES B-CELL GROWTH &
DIFFERENTIATION
IgE SECRETION
Where is it from?
MONOCYTES & MACROPHAGES
What is another name for TNF-alpha?
CACHECTIN
INDUCES IL-1
ADHESION MOLECULES & MHC CLASS I ON
ENDOTHELIAL CELLS
PYROGEN
INDUCES IF- SECRETION
CYTOTOXIC/CYTOSTATIC EFFECT
Gauchers
Fabrys
Krabbe
Tay Sachs
Sandhoffs
Hurlers
Hunters
Neiman Pick
Metachromatic Leukodystropy
Where?
Brain
Liver
Bone Marrow
Spleen
Renal Failure
:KDWDUHWKH0DFURF\WLFDQHPLDV"
Folate deficiency
B12 deficiency
Reticulocytosis
ETOH
Hemolytic Anemias
Chemo Treatment
Anticonvulsants
Myelodysplasia
Extravascular
Heridatary Ellitocytosis
Increased RET count
:KDWLVWKH&/8(IRU:LOVRQV
Disease?
Hepato/Lenticular Degeneration
Kayser Fleishner Rings
Copper in eyes
Hepato = Liver
Lenticular = Movement problem
Adrenal Pheochromocytoma
cycle.
Prevents reduction of folic acid needed to
produce THF
Decarboxylation of alpha-ketoacids
requires what?
Thiamine
Synthesis of 1,25-d-
hydroxycholecalciferol requires
what?
Vitamin D
What is CN1?
Olfactory
What is its function?
Sensory for smell
What if lesioned?
Anosmia
Where does it Exit/Enter the Cranium?
Cribriform plate
What does it innervate?
Nasal Cavity
What is CN2?
Optic
What is its function?
Sensory for sight
What if lesioned?
Anopsia
Visual field defect
Cont. CN2
Where does it Exit/Enter the Cranium?
Optic Canal
What does it innervate?
Orbit
What is CN3?
Occulomotor
What are the functions?
Motor
Moves the eyeball in ALL directions
Adduction Most important action (MR)
Constricts the pupil (Spincter Pupillae)
Accomodates (Cililary Muscle)
Raises eyelid (Levator Palpebrae)
Cont. CN 3
What if lesioned?
Diplopia
Loss of parallel gaze
Dilated pupil
Loss of light reflex
Loss of near response
Ptosis
Cont. CN 3
Where does it Exit/Enter the Cranium?
Superior Orbital Fissure
What does it innervate?
Orbit
What is CN 4?
Trochlear
What is its function?
Motor
Superior Oblique
Depresses and abducts the eyeballs
Intorts
Cont. CN 4
What if lesioned?
Weakness looking down w/ adducted eye
Trouble going down stairs
Head tilts away from lesioned side
Where does it Exit/Enter the Cranium?
Superior Orbital Fissure
Cont. CN 4
What does it innervate?
Orbit
What is CN 5?
Trigeminal
What if lesioned?
Loss of general sensation of the forehead/scalp
Loss of blink reflex w/ VII
Where does it Exit/Enter the Cranium?
Superior orbital Fissure
Ophthalmic division
Cont. CN V1
What does it innervate?
Orbit
Scalp
What if lesioned?
Loss of general sensation in skin over
maxilla & maxillary teeth
Cont. CN V2
Where does it Exit/Enter the Cranium?
Foramen Rotundum
What does it innervate?
Pterygopalatine
Leaves by openings to face, oral & nasal
cavity
Cont. CN V3
What if lesioned?
Loss of general sensation in skin over
mandible, mandibular teeth, tongue,
weakness in chewing
Jaw deviation to weak side
Trigeminal neuralgia
Intractable pain in V2 or V3 territory
Cont. CN V3
Where does it Exit/Enter the Cranium?
Foramen Ovale
What does it innervate?
Infratemporal Fossa
What is CN VI?
Abducens
What is its function?
Motor
Lateral rectus
Abducts eye
Cont. CN VI
What if lesioned?
Diplopia
Internal strabismus
What is CN VII?
Facial
What is its function?
Mixed
To muscles of facial expression
Posterior belly of diagastric
Stylohyoid & Stapedius
Tastes anterior 2/3 of tongue/palate
Salivates (submandibular & sublingual glands)
Tears (Lacrimal glands)
Makes mucous (nasal & palatine glands)
Cont. CN VII
What if lesioned?
Corner of mouth droops
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&DQWZULQNOHIRUHKHDG
Loss of blink reflex
Hypeacusis
Loss or alteration of taste (ageusia)
Eye dry and red
Bell Palsy
Lesion of nerve in facial canal
Cont. CN VII
Where does it Exit/Enter the Cranium?
Internal Auditory meatus
What does it innervate?
Face
Nasal & oral cavity
Branches leave skull in stylomastoid foramen,
petrotympanic fissure, or Hiatus of facial canal
What is CN VIII?
Vestibulocochlear
What is its function?
Sensory
Hears
Linear acceleration (Gravity)
Angular acceleration (Head Turning)
Cont. CN VIII
What if lesioned?
Loss of Balance
Nystagmus
Where does it Exit/Enter the Cranium?
Internal Auditory Meatus
What does it innervate?
Inner ear
What is CN IX?
Glossopharyngeal
Cont. CN IX
What is its function?
To one muscle only (stylopharyngeus)
What if lesioned?
Loss of Gag Reflex with X
Where does it Exit/Enter the Cranium?
Jugular Foramen
Cont. CN IX
What does it innervate?
Neck
Pharynx/Tongue
What is CN X?
Vagus
What is its function?
Mixed
To muscles of palate & pharynx for swallowing
except tensor palate (V) & Stylopharynegeus
(IX)
To all muscles of Larynx (phonates)
Senses Larynx & Laryngopharynx
Senses Larynx & GI tract
To GI tract smooth muscle & glands in forgut &
midgut
Cont. CN X
What if lesioned?
Nasal speech
Nasal regurgitation
Dysphagia
Palate drop
Uvula points away from pathology
Hoarseness/fixed vocal cord
Loss of gag reflex w/ IX
Loss of cough reflex
Cont. CN X
Where does it Exit/Enter the Cranium?
Jugular Foramen
What does it innervate?
Neck
Pharynx/Larynz
Thorax/Abdo
CN X Sympathetics to Head
What is its function?
Motor
Raises eyelid (superior tarsal muscle)
Dilates pupil
Innervates sweat glands of face & scalp
Constricts blood vessels in head
Cont. CN X
What if lesioned?
Horner syndrome
Eyelid droop (ptosis)
Constricted pupil (miosis)
Loss of sweating (anhydrosis)
Flushed face
Cont. CN X
Where does it Exit/Enter the Cranium?
Carotid canal on internal carotid artery
What does it innervate?
Orbit
Face
Scalp
What is CN XI?
Accessory
What is its function?
Turns head to opposite side
sternocleidomastoid
Cont. CN XI
What if lesioned?
Weakness turning head to opposite side
Shoulder droop
Where does it Exit/Enter the Cranium?
Jugular Foramen
What does it innervate?
Neck
What is CN XII?
Hypoglossal
What is its function?
Moves tongue
What if lesioned?
Tongue points toward pathology on protrusion
What is CN XII?
Where does it Exit/Enter the Cranium?
Hypoglossal Canal
What does it innervate?
Tongue
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CN III
Oculomotor nerve
CN IV
Trochlear nerve
CN VI
Abducens nerve