GATE 2014: ME03 Solutions

ME: Mechanical Engineering

Duration: 180 minutes

Maximum Marks: 100

Read the following instructions carefully.

1. To login, enter your Registration Number and password provided to you. Kindly go through
the various symbols used in the test and understand their meaning before you start the
examination.
2. Once you login and after the start of the examination, you can view all the questions in the
question paper, by clicking on the View All Questions button in the screen.
3. This question paper consists of 2 sections, General Aptitude (GA) for 15 marks and the subject
specific GATE paper for 85 marks. Both these sections are compulsory. The GA section consists
of 10 questions. Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 6 to 10
are of 2-mark each. The subject specific GATE paper section consists of 55 questions, out of
which question numbers 1 to 25 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 26 to 55 are of
2-mark each.
4. Depending upon the GATE paper, there may be useful common data that may be required for
answering the questions. If the paper has such useful data, the same can be viewed by clicking
on the Useful Common Data button that appears at the top, right hand side of the screen.
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suitable number for the numerical answer type questions using the virtual keyboard and mouse.
6. Your answers shall be updated and saved on a server periodically and also at the end of the
examination. The examination will stop automatically at the end of 180 minutes.
7. In each paper a candidate can answer a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks.
8. The question paper may consist of questions of multiple choice type (MCQ) and numerical
answer type.
9. Multiple choice type questions will have four choices against A, B, C, D, out of which only
ONE is the correct answer. The candidate has to choose the correct answer by clicking on the
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will not be any choices. For these questions, the answer should be entered by using the virtual
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multiple choice type questions (MCQ) will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all MCQ questions
a wrong answer will result in deduction of 1/3 marks for a 1-mark question and 2/3 marks for
a 2-mark question.
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GENERAL APTITUDE: GA
Q. 1Q. 5 carry one mark each.
1. India is a country for rich heritage and cultural
diversity
Which one of the following facts best supports the
claim made in the above sentence?

5. In which of the following options will the

expression P<M be definitively true?

(a) India is a union of 28 states and 7 union

territories

Solution. The expression P = A > R > M

describes that P < M.
Ans. (d)
Q. 6Q. 10 carry two marks each.

(b) India has a population of over 1.1 billion.

(c) India is home to 22 official languages and
thousands of dialects.
(d) The Indian cricket team draws players from
over ten states.
Solution. The diversiy can be seen in the form of
different cultures, languages and dialects.
Ans. (c)
2. The value of one U.S. dollar is 65 Indian Rupees
today, compared to 60 last year. The Indian Rupee
has .
(a) depressed

(a) M < R > P > S

(c) Q < M > F = P

(b) M > S > P > E

(d) P = A > R > M

6. Find the next term in the sequence: 7G, 11K, 13M,

(a) 15Q
(b) 17Q
(c) 15P
(d) 17P
Solution. In the series, the numerical value of the
alphabet is followed by the alphabet, so 17Q is the
correct choice.
Ans. (b)
7. The multi-level hierarchical pie chart shows the
population of animals in a reserve forest.

(b) depreciated
Tiger

Beetle

(c) appreciated
Red

(d) stabilized
Solution. Depreciate (verb) means to diminish in
value over a period of time.

Ele

ph

ney

bee

Mammal

an
t

Insect

Ho

Ans. (b)

ant

3. Advice is .

Leo

Reptile

(a) a verb

oc
od

ul

fly

ngo

ile

lb

Dro

Bu

er

tt

Hawk

(d) both a verb and a noun

Bu

(c) an adjective

Snake

Bird

Moth

Cr

(b) a noun

par

Solution. Advice is a noun

Ans. (b)
4. The next term in the series 81, 54, 36, 24, is
.

Solution. In the series, the difference between

81 54 = 27. Now, 27 (2/3) = 18 which is
the difference between 54 and 36. Similarly, the
difference between 36 24 = 12, so, 12 (2/3) = 8
should be the difference between 24 and the next
number. Hence, the next term in the series is
24 8 = 16.
Ans. 16

The correct conclusions from this information are:

(i) Butterflies are birds
(ii) There are more tigers in this forest than red
ants
(iii) All reptiles in this forest are either snakes or
crocodiles
(iv) Elephants are the largest mammals in this
forest
(a) (i) and (ii) only
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) only

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(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

Solution. The conclusion (iv) cannot be drawn
from the chart, though as a fact it is true.
Ans. (d)
8. A man can row at 8 km per hour in still water. If
it takes him thrice as long to row upstream, as to
row downstream, then find the stream velocity in
km per hour.
Solution. Given that mans speed is 8 kmph. If
the speed of the stream is s kmph, then upstream
speed will be 8 s kmph, and downstream speed
will be 8 + s kmph. Given that for a distance d,
d
d
= 3
8s
8+s
8 + s = 3 8 3s
s = 4 kmph

If the company registered a profit of Rs. 10 lakhs

in 2012, at what price (in Rs.) was each air purifier
sold?
Solution. Given that the total expenditure in
labor is Rs. 4,50,000. Using the chart, the total
expenditure (x) will be given by
0.15 x = 4, 50, 000
x = Rs. 30, 00, 000
Given that profit is
p = Rs. 10, 00, 000
So, the total selling price will be
r = x+p
= Rs. 40, 00, 000

Ans. 4
9. A firm producing air purifiers sold 200 units
in 2012. The following pie chart presents the
share of raw material, labour, energy, plant
and machinery, and transportation costs in the
total manufacturing cost of the firm in 2012. The
expenditure on labour in 2012 is Rs. 4,50,000. In
2013, the raw material expenses increased by 30%
and all other expenses increased by 20%.
Transportation

10%

Labour
15%

Plant and
machinery
30%

Raw material
20%

Total numbers of units sold is 200, thus, price of

each unit is r/200 = Rs. 20, 000.
Ans. 20,000

10. A batch of one hundred bulbs is inspected by

testing four randomly chosen bulbs. The batch
is rejected even if one of the bulbs is defective.
A batch typically has five defective bulbs. The
probability that the current batch is accepted is
.
Solution. The probability for atleast one bulb not
to be defective is 95/100 = 0.95. The probability
that none of the bulbs is defective will be

Energy
25%

P = 0.954
= 0.8145

Ans. 0.8145

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

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MECHANICAL ENGINEERING: ME
Q. 1Q. 25 carry one mark each.
1. Consider a 3 3 real symmetric matrix S such that
two of its eigenvalues are a 6= 0, b 6= 0 with
respective eigen vectors

Value at (1, 1, 1) will be

#
F = 2+1+2
=5
Ans. (c)

x1
y1

x 2 , y2
x3
y3

4. A group consists of equal number of men and

women. Of this group 20% of the men and 50% of
the women are unemployed. If a person is selected
at random from this group, the probability of the
selected person being employed is .

If a 6= b, then x1 y1 + x2 y2 + x3 y3 equals
(a) a
(c) ab

(b) b
(d) 0

Solution. Given that

Solution. Since the matrix is symmetric with

distinct eigen values, so the eigen vectors of the
matrix are orthogonal. So,

x1
y1

x 2 y2 = 0
x3
y3
x 1 y1 + x 2 y2 + x 3 y3 = 0

Ans. (d)
2. If a function is continuous at a point,
(a) the limit of the function may not exist at the
point

P (M ) = 0.5
P (W ) = 0.5
P (U/M ) = 0.2
P (U/W ) = 0.5
The probability of selecting an unemployed person
is
P (U ) = P (M ) P (U/M ) + P (W ) P (U/W )
= 0.5 0.2 + 0.5 0.5
= 0.35
So, the probability of selecting an employed person
is
P (E) = 1 P (U )
= 1 0.35
= 0.65

(b) the function must be derivable at the point

(c) the limit of the function at the point tends to
infinity
(d) the limit must exist at the point and the value
of limit should be same as the value of the
function at that point
Solution. A function f (x) is said to be continuous
at x = a if limxa f (x) exists such that
lim f (x) = f (a)

Ans. 0.65
R3
5. The definite integral 1 (1/x) dx is evaluated using
Trapezoidal rule with a step size of 1. The correct
answer is .
Solution. Given that step size h = 1. The values
of x and (1/x) are tabulated below:

xa

Ans. (d)
3. Divergence of the vector field x2 zi + xyj yz 2 k at
(1, 1, 1) is
(a) 0
(c) 5

(b) 3
(d) 6

Solution. Divergence of the vector is given by

#
F =
(xy) +
x2 z +
yz 2
x
y
z
= 2xy + x 2yz

ln x

0.5

0.33

Using Trapezoidal rule,

"
#
Z b
n1
X
h
f (x) dx =
f (x0 ) + f (xn ) + 2
f (xk )
2
a
k=1
Z 3
1
ln (1/x) dx = [1 + 0.33 + 2 (0.5)]
2
1
= 1.165

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Ans. 1.165
4 of 19

6. A rotating steel shaft is supported at the ends.

It is subjected to a point load at the center. The
maximum bending stress developed is 100 MPa.
If the yield, ultimate and corrected endurance
strength of the shaft material are 300 MPa, 500
MPa and 200 MPa, respectively, then the factor of
safety for the shaft is .

Using
=

Ratio of shear stresses for the same value of torque

on both shafts will be
1
23
= 3
2
1
=8

Solution. Given that

b
y
u
e

= 100
= 300
= 500
= 200

MPa
MPa
MPa
MPa

Ans. 8

The rotating shaft is subjected to dynamic loading

in which minimum load will be zero. Therefore,

8. Consider a single degree-of-freedom system with

viscous damping excited by a harmonic force.
At resonance, the phase angle (in degree) of the
displacement with respect to the exciting force is
(a) 0
(c) 90

100 + 0
2
= 50 MPa
100 0
v =
2
= 50 MPa

a =

(a) Soderberg line criteria:

a v
1
+
=
y e
N
50
50
1
+
=
300 200
N
N = 2.4

9. A mass m1 of 100 kg travelling with a uniform

velocity of 5 m/s along a line collides with a
stationary mass m2 of 1000 kg. After the collision,
both the masses travel together with the same
velocity. The coefficient of restitution is
(a) 0.6
(c) 0.01

a v
1
+
=
u e
N
50
50
1
+
=
500 200
N
N = 2.8
Thus, factor of safety can be taken between 2.4
and 2.8.
Ans. 2.4 to 2.8
7. Two solid circular shafts of radii R1 and R2 are
subjected to same torque. The maximum shear
stresses developed in the two shafts are 1 and 2 .
If R1 /R2 = 2, then 2 /1 is .

(b) 0.1
(d) 0

Solution. Given that

m1
u1
m2
u2
v1

(b) Goodman line criteria:

R1
=2
R2

(b) 45
(d) 135

Solution. At resonance, the displacement vector

makes 90 with respect to the exciting force.
Ans. (c)

Factor of safety (N ) can be calculated in the

following ways

Solution. Given that

16T
d3

= 100 kg
= 5 m/s
= 1000 kg
=0
= v2

The coefficient of restitution is calculated as

v2 v1
e=
u2 u1
=0
Ans. (d)
10. Which one of following is not correct?
(a) Intermediate principal stress is ignored when
applying the maximum principal stress theory
(b) The maximum shear stress theory gives the
most accurate results amongst all the failure
theories
(c) As per the maximum strain energy theory,
failure occurs when the strain energy per unit
volume exceeds a critical value

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(d) As per the maximum distortion energy theory,

failure occurs when the distortion energy per
unit volume exceeds a critical value

Angular speed of gear 5 will be given by

T2 T4

T3 T5
= 300 rpm (ccw)

N5 = N2

Solution. Of all the theories dealing with ductile

behavior, the distortion energy theory agrees best
with experimental data.
Ans. (b)
11. Gear 2 rotates at 1200 rpm in counter-clockwise
direction and engages with Gear 3. Gear 3 and
Gear 4 are mounted on the same shaft. Gear 5
engages with Gear 4. The numbers of teeth on
Gears 2, 3, 4 and 5 are 20, 40, 15 and 30,
respectively.

2 20 T
3
4

Ans. (a)
12. Consider a long cylindrical tube of inner and outer
radii, ri and ro , respectively, length, L and thermal
conductivity, k. Its inner and outer surfaces are
maintained at Ti and To , respectively (Ti >
To ). Assuming one-dimensional steady state heat
conduction in the radial direction, the thermal
resistance in the wall of the tube is
(a)

ln (ri /ro )
2kL

(b)

1
2ri kL

(c)

ln (ro /ri )
2kL

(d)

ln (ri /ro )
4kL

Solution. Thermal resistance of the wall of the

tube is given by
Rth =

15 T

40 T

30 T

The angular speed of Gear 5 is

(b) 300 rpm clockwise

(c) 4800 rpm counterclockwise
(d) 4800 rpm clockwise
Solution. Given that
= 1200 rpm
= 20
= 40
= 15
= 30

The directions of rotation of the gears are shown

in the figure:

2 20 T

40 T

15 T

Solution. For irreversible engines (using Clausius

theorem),
I
Q > 0
I
Q
<0
T
Ans (a)

3
4

Ans. (c)
13. Which one of the following pairs of equations
describes an irreversible heat engine?
I
I
Q
(a)
Q > 0 and
<0
T
I
I
Q
(b)
Q < 0 and
<0
T
I
I
Q
(c)
Q > 0 and
>0
T
I
I
Q
(d)
Q < 0 and
>0
T

(a) 300 rpm counterclockwise

N2
T2
T3
T4
T5

ln (ro /ri )
2L

30 T

14. Consider the turbulent flow of a fluid through a

circular pipe of diameter, D. Identify the correct
pair of statements.
I. The fluid is well-mixed
II. The fluid is unmixed

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III. ReD < 2300

absolute humidity (in gram) of water vapour per

kg of dry air is .
Solution. Given that

IV. ReD > 2300

(a) I, III
(c) II, III

(b) II, IV
(d) I, IV

p = 85 kPa
DBT = 30 C
ps = 4.24 kPa
= 65%

Solution. In turbulent flow through circular pipe,

the fluid get well-mixed and Reynolds number is
greater than 2300.
Ans. (d)

Using
pv
ps
pv = 0.65 4.24
= 2.756
=

15. For a gas turbine power plant, identify the correct

pair of statements.
P. Smaller in size compared to steam power plant
for same power output
Q. Starts quickly compared to steam power plant
R. Works on the principle of Rankine cycle
S. Good compatibility with solid fuel
(a) P, Q
(c) Q, R

(b) R, S
(d) P, S

Solution. Gas turbine power plants are smaller

and start quickly compared to the steam power
plants (boiler) for same power output. Gas power
plants work on Brayton cycle while steam power
plants work on Rankine cycle. Gas power plants
use liquid fuel (kerosene, diesel, petrol) while
steam power plants use solid fuel (coal).
Ans. (a)
16. A source at a temperature of 500 K provides 1000
kJ of heat. The temperature of environment is
27 C. The maximum useful work (in kJ) that can
be obtained from the heat source is .
Solution. Given that

T1 = 500 K
Q1 = 1000 kJ
T2 = 27 C = 300 K

Absolute humidity is calculated as

pv
w = 0.622
p pv
2.756
= 0.622
85 2.756
= 0.0208 kg/kg of dry air
= 20.8 g/kg of dry air
Ans. 20.8 g/kg of dry air
18. The process of utilizing mainly thermal energy for
removing material is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

ultrasonic machining
electrochemical machining
abrasive jet machining
laser beam machining

Solution. Laser beam machining, a thermoelectric

process, is accomplished largely by material
evaporation in a controlled manner using highly
focused and high energy density of laser.
Ans. (d)
19. The actual sales of a product in different months
of a particular year are given below:

The maximum useful work of the heat source will

be
T1 T2
W =
Q1
T1
= 400 kJ
Ans. 400 kJ

Sep

Oct

Nov

Dec

Jan

Feb

180

280

250

190

240

The forecast of the sales, using the 4-month

moving average method, for the month of February
is .
Solution. Forecast of sales for month of February,
using 4-month moving average method will be
given by

17. A sample of moist air at a total pressure of 85 kPa

has a dry bulb temperature of 30 C (saturation
vapour pressure of water = 4.24 kPa). If the
air sample has a relative humidity of 65%, the
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280 + 250 + 190 + 240

4
= 240
=

Ans. 240
7 of 19

20. A straight turning operation is carried out using a

single point cutting tool on an AISI 1020 steel rod.
The feed is 0.2 mm/rev and the depth of cut is 0.5
mm. The tool has a side cutting edge angle of 60 .
The uncut chip thickness (in mm) is .
Solution. Given that

f = 0.2 mm/rev
d = 0.5 mm
= 60
Uncut chip thickness is calculated as
t = f cos
= 0.2 cos 60
= 0.1 mm

(c) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

(d) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3
Solution. Hot tears are the cracks developed in the
metal due to residual stresses in solidified metal
caused by solid shrinkage of the metal. Shrinkage
cavity occurs due to volumetric contractions that
can be avoided using proper riser design. Blow
holes are trappings of air and appear as internal
voids because of poor ventilation. Cold shuts are
caused by mating of two cold streams of metals
moving in opposite directions.
Ans. (b)

Ans. 0.1 mm
21. A minimal spanning tree in network flow models
involves
(a) all the nodes with cycle/loop allowed
(b) all the nodes with cycle/loop not allowed
(c) shortest path between start and end nodes
(d) all the nodes with directed arcs
Solution. Minimum spanning trees have direct
applications in the design of networks. For a
connected but undirected graph, a spanning tree of
that graph is a subgraph that is a tree and connects
all the vertices together. A weight can be assigned
to each edge that indicates a number representing
how unfavorable it is, such as cost, time, distance.
A minimum spanning tree (MST) in an undirected
connected weighted graph is a spanning tree of
minimum weight (among all spanning trees)

23. Cutting tool is much harder than the workpiece.

Yet the tool wears out during the tool-work
interaction, because
(a) extra hardness is imparted to the workpiece
due to coolant used
(b) oxide layers on the workpiece surface impart
extra hardness to it
(c) extra hardness is imparted to the workpiece
due to severe rate of strain
(d) vibration is induced in the machine tool
Solution. Extra hardness is imparted to workpiece
due to higher rate of deformation.
Ans. (c)
24. The stressstrain curve for mild steel is shown in
the figure given below.

Ans. (c)

Group A
P. Hot tears
Q. Shrinkage

1.
2.

R. Blow
holes

3.

S. Cold shut

4.

(a) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4

(b) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

Group B
Improper fusion of two
streams of liquid metal
Low permeability of the
sand mould
Volumetric
contraction
both in liquid and solid
stage
Differential cooling rate

T
b

Stress (N/mm2 )

22. Match the casting defects (Group A) with the

probable causes (Group B).

S
b

Strain (%)
Choose the correct option referring to both figure
and table.

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Point on the
graph

Description of the point

1.

Upper yield point

2.

Ultimate
strength

3.

Proportionality limit

4.

Elastic limit

5.

Lower yield point

6.

Failure

tensile

Given that
u = x2 y 2
Therefore,

v
= 2y
x
v = 2xy + f (y) + c

Thus, out of the given options, (c) is correct.

Ans. (c)

(a) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4, T-5, U-6

27. Consider two solutions x (t) = x1 (t) and x (t) =
x2 (t) of the differential equation

(b) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2, T-6, U-5

(c) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-5, T-2, U-6

d2 x (t)
+ x (t) = 0,
dt2

(d) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2, T-3, U-6

Solution. The sequence of points on the curve is
as follows: proportional limit, elastic limit, upper
yield point, lower yield point, ultimate tensile
strength, failure.

such that
x1 (0) = 1
dx1 (t)
|t=0 = 0
dt
x2 (0) = 0
dx2 (t)
|t=0 = 1
dt

Ans. (c)
25. The hot tearing in a metal casting is due to
(a) high fluidity
(b) high melt temperature
(c) wide range of solidification temperature
(d) low coefficient of thermal expansion
Solution. Hot tears are the cracks developed in the
metal due to residual stresses in solidified metal
caused by solid shrinkage of the metal.
Ans. (c)
Q. 26Q. 55 carry two marks each.

The Wronskian function

#
"
x1 (t) x2 (t)
W (t) = dx1 (t) dx2 (t)
dt

(a) 1
(c) 0

1. If u (x, y) = x2 y 2 , then
where i =
expression for v (x, y) in terms of x, y and a general
constant c would be

2xy + c

Solution.
Hence,

(b) 1
(d) //2

Solution. For the differential equation

d2 x (t)
+ x (t) = 0
dt2
m2 + 1 = 0
m = i

f (z) = u (x, y) + iv (x, y)

(c)

dt

at t = /2 is

26. An analytic function of a complex variable z =

x + iy is expressed as

(a) xy + c

t>0

(b)

x2 + y 2
+c
2

(d)

(x y)
+c
2

The function z = x + iy is analytic.

The complementary and particular solutions will

be written as
xc = a cos t + b sin t
xp = 0
Thus,
x = a cos t + b sin t
Let

u
v
=
y
x
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x1 (t) = cos t
x2 (t) = sin t
9 of 19

The Wronskian function for t = /2 can be

calculated as


 x (t) x (t) 
 1

2
W (t) =  dx1 (t) dx2 (t) 
 dt

dt


 cos t sin t 


=

 sin t cos t 
= cos2 t + sin2 t
=1

Ans. (a)
28. A machine produces 0, 1 or 2 defective pieces in
a day with associated probability of 1/6, 2/3 and
1/6, respectively. The mean value and the variance
of the number of defective pieces produced by the
machine in a day, respectively, are
(a) 1 and 1/3
(c) 1 and 4/3

(b) 1/3 and 1

(d) 1/3 and 4/3

Similarly,
f (x1 )
f (x1 )
5 1 2 cos (0.5632) 1
= 0.5632
5 + 2 sin (0.5632)
= 0.5426

x2 = x1

Similarly,
f (x2 )
f (x2 )
5 1 2 cos (0.5426) 1
= 0.5426
5 + 2 sin (0.5426)
= 0.5425

x3 = x2

In these calculations, unit of angle is radian.

Ans. 0.5425
30. A drum brake is shown in the figure.

Solution. The data can be tabulated as follows:

x

P (x)

1/6

2/3

1/6

1000 N
800
480

Thus,
X

x P (x) = 1
X
x2 P (x) = 4/3
X
2
X
Variance =
x2 P (x)
x P (x)
= 1/3

Ans. (a)
29. The real root of the equation 5x 2 cos x 1 = 0
(up to two decimal accuracy) is .

100
200
Drum
The drum is rotating in anticlockwise direction.
The coefficient of friction between the drum and
shoe is 0.2. The dimensions shown in the figure
are in mm. The braking torque (in N m) for the
brake shoe is .
Solution. Given that

Solution. Given that

F = 1000 N
r = 0.2 m
= 0.2

f (x) = 5x 2 cos x 1

f (x) = 5 + 2 sin x

Using NewtonRaphsons method,

xn+1 = xn

f (xn )
f (xn )

Let x0 = 1 (rad), hence

f (x0 )
f (x0 )
5 1 2 cos (1) 1
= 1
5 + 2 sin (1)
= 0.5632

x1 = x0

Normal reaction (Rn ) at the brake shoe can be

determined as
1000 0.8 Rn 0.48 0.2 Rn 0.1 = 0
Rn = 1600 N
Braking torque for the brake shoe is

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T = Rn r
= 64 N m
Ans. 64 N m
10 of 19

31. A body of mass (M) 10 kg is initially stationary

on a 45 inclined plane as shown in figure. The
coefficient of dynamic friction between the body
and the plane is 0.5. The body slides down the
plane and attains a velocity of 20 m/s.

The beam configuration is shown in the figure:

P

P/2

P/2

P/2
45
SF
The distance travelled (in meter) by the body
along the plane is .
Solution. Given that

P L/4

BM

M = 10 kg
= 45
= 0.5
u = 0 m/s
v = 20 m/s

Maximum shear stress is given by

3
avg
2
3
P/2
=
2 2h h
3P
= 2
8h

max =

Let a be the acceleration of the block. Therefore,

at equilibrium,
ma = mg sin mg cos
a = g (sin cos )
2

= 3.468 m/s

Maximum bending stress is given by

M
z
P/2 50h/2
=
h3 /3
75P
=
2h2

Using third equation of motion,

max =

v 2 u2 = 2as
s = 57.67 m
Ans. 57.67 m
32. Consider a simply supported beam of length, 50h,
with a rectangular cross-section of depth, h, and
width, 2h. The beam carries a vertical point load,
P , at its mid-point. The ratio of the maximum
shear stress to the maximum bending stress in the
beam is
(a) 0.02
(b) 0.10
(c) 0.05
(d) 0.01
Solution. For the given beam configuration,
I=
=
z=
=

2h h3
12
h4
6
h4 /6
h/2
h3
3

P/2

Therefore,
max
3P 2h2
=
max
75P 8h2
= 0.01
Ans. (d)
33. The damping ratio of a single degree of freedom
spring-mass-damper system with mass of 1 kg,
stiffness 100 N/m and viscous damping coefficient
of 25 N s/m is .
Solution. Given that

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m = 1 kg
k = 100 N/m
c = 25 N s/m
11 of 19

Damping ratio is calculated as

What would be the value of x so that the

displacement at A is equal to zero?

c
=
2 km
25
=
2 100 1
= 1.25

(a) 0.5L
(c) 0.33L

(b) 0.25L
(d) 0.66L

Solution. The equivalent configuration of the

beam is shown in the figure:
Ans. 1.25

34. An annular disc has a mass m, inner radius R and

outer radius 2R. The disc rolls on a flat surface
without slipping. If the velocity of the center of
mass is v, the kinetic energy of the disc is
(a)

9
mv 2
16

(c)

13
mv 2
16

(b)

11
mv 2
16

(d)

15
mv 2
16

P (L x)

Using the principle of superposition, the deflection

(downward) at point A is given by
P L3 P (L x) L2

3EI
2EI
3
PL
P L3 P L2 x
=

+
3EI 2EI
2EI
P L3 P L2 x
+
=
6EI
2EI

Solution. Moment of inertia of the disc about

central axis is
n
o
1
2
Ic = m (2R) R2
2
3mR2
=
2

For = 0,
P L2 x
P L3
=
2EI
6EI
L
x=
3
= 0.33L

Moment of inertia about the rolling point is

3mR2
2
+ m (2R)
2
11mR2
=
2

I=

Ans. (c)

Angular speed of the disc is

=

v
2R

36. Consider a rotating disk cam and a translating

roller follower with zero offset. Which one of the
following pitch curves, parametrized by t, lying
in the interval 0 to 2, is associated with the
maximum translation of the follower during one
full rotation of the cam rotating about the center
at (x, y) = (0, 0)?

Kinetic energy of the disc will be

1 11mR2  v 2
T =

2
2
2R
2
11mv
=
16
Ans. (b)
35. A force P is applied at a distance x from the end
of the beam as shown in the figure.
L

P
x
L

(a) x (t) = cos t,

y (t) = sin t

(b) x (t) = cos t,

y (t) = 2 sin t

x (t) =

1
+ cos t,
2

y (t) = 2 sin t

(d) x (t) =

1
+ cos t,
2

y (t) = sin t

(c)
A

Solution. All the four options must be checked

to find out the maximum translation during one
full rotation of the cam, that is, by varying the

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parameter t between 0 and 2, as shown in the

figure:

Hence, each wheel should exert 200/4 = 50 N.

Braking torque on each wheel would be
T = 50 0.2
= 10 N m

2 sin t

Ans. 10 N m
1/2 + cos t

38. A slidercrank mechanism with crank radius 60

mm and connecting rod length 240 mm is shown
in figure.

cos t
0

sin t

60

240

90

It is clear that the pitch curve, shown in option

(c), containing 2 sin t would give the maximum
translational displacement of the follower.

The crank is rotating with a uniform angular

speed of 10 rad/s, counter-clockwise. For the given
configuration, the speed (in m/s) of the slider is
.
Solution. Given that
r = 60 mm
= 0.06 m
l = 240 mm
= 10 rad/s

Ans (c)

37. A four-wheel vehicle of mass 1000 kg moves

uniformly in a straight line with the wheels
revolving at 10 rad/s. The wheels are identical,
each with a radius of 0.2 m. Then a constant
braking torque is applied to all the wheels and the
vehicle experiences a uniform deceleration. For the
vehicle to stop in 10 s, the braking torque (in N m)
on each wheel is .

Crank angle and ratio n are calculated as

240
sin =
2
60 + 2402
= 75.96
l
n=
r
=4

Solution. Given that

mv = 1000 kg
w = 10 rad/s
rw = 0.2 m
t = 10 s
Linear velocity of the vehicle is
v = 10 0.2
= 2 m/s
Acceleration of the vehicle is
2
10
2
= 0.2 m/s

Speed of the slider can be calculated as



sin 2
vp = r sin +
2n


sin (2 75.96 )
= 0.06 10 sin 75.96 +
24
= 0.617 m/s
Ans. 0.617 m/s
39. Consider an objective function
z (x1 , x2 ) = 3x1 + 9x2

a=

and the constraints

Braking force required on the vehicle mass is

F = 1000 0.2
= 200 N
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x1 + x2
x1 + 2x2
x1
x2

8
4
0
0
13 of 19

The maximum value of the objective function is

.
Solution. The coordinates of corner points can be
determined as

Using
F0
x0 = q
2
2
(k m 2 ) + (c)
s 
2
F0
1
2
c=
(k m 2 )

x0

x1 + x2 = 8
x1 + 2x2 = 4
Therefore,

= 10 N s/m

x2 = 4
x1 = 12

Ans. 10 N s/m

The feasible region is shown in the figure:

x1 + x2 = 8

41. A certain amount of an ideal gas is initially

at a pressure p1 and temperature T1 . First, it
undergoes a constant pressure process 1-2 such
that T2 = 3T1 /4. Then, it undergoes a constant
volume process 2-3 such that T3 = T1 /2. The ratio
of the final volume to the initial volume of the ideal
gas is

x2
(0, 8)
z = 72
b

x1 + 2x2 = 4

z = 18 (0, 2)

z = 24
(8, 0)

x1

(4, 0)
z = 12

(12, 4)

(a) 0.25
(c) 1

(b) 0.75
(d) 1.5

Solution. For constant pressure process (1-2),

T2 =

Since, x1 , x2 0, the maximum value of the

objective function is found at (0, 2), z = 18.
Ans. 18
40. A mass-spring-dashpot system with mass m = 10
kg, spring constant k = 6250 N/m is excited by a
harmonic excitation of 10 cos(25t) N. At the steady
state, the vibration amplitude of the mass is 40
mm.

Therefore, using ideal gas equation (v T ),

v2 = v1
=

m = 10 kg
k = 6250 N/m
F = 10 cos (25t) N
F0 = 10 N
= 25 rad/s
x0 = 0.04 m

3v1
4

v3 = v2
3v1
=
4
= 0.75v1

The damping coefficient (c, in N s/m) of the

dashpot is .
Solution. Given that

T2
T1

For constant volume process (2-3)

F = 10 cos (25t)

3T1
4

Ans. (b)
42. An amount of 100 kW of heat is transferred
through a wall in steady state. One side of the wall
is maintained at 127 C and the other side at 27 C.
The entropy generated (in W/K) due to the heat
transfer through the wall is .
Solution. Entropy generated during the process is


1
1
S = 100
+
127 + 273 27 + 273
= 83.33 W/K

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Ans. 83.33 W/K

14 of 19

43. A siphon is used to drain water from a large tank

as shown in the figure below.

Thermal resistance of the composite wall is

l
l
+
A 2A
3l
=
2A
3R1
=
2

Rc =

Q
b

P
b

O
ZP

ZQ

through the wall will be

Rate of heat transfer (Q)
constant throughout the composite wall, therefore,

ZO
b

ZR

Datum

600 Ti
600 300
=
Q =
Rc
R1
300 2
600 Ti
=
3R1
R1
Ti = 400 K

Assume that the level of water is maintained

constant. Ignore frictional effect due to viscosity
and losses at entry and exit. At the exit of the
siphon, the velocity of water is
p
p
(a) 2g (ZQ ZR )
(b) 2g (ZP ZR )
p
p
(c)
2g (ZO ZR )
(d) 2gZQ
Solution. Applying Bernoullis equation between
two points P and R:
2
pa pa 02 vR
+
+ (ZP ZR ) = 0
g
2g
p
vR = 2g (ZP ZR )

Ans. 400 K
45. A fluid of dynamic viscosity 2 105 kg/m s and
density 1 kg/m3 flows with an average velocity of 1
m/s through a long duct of rectangular (25 mm
15 mm) cross-section. Assuming laminar flow, the
pressure drop (in Pa) in the fully developed region
per meter length of the duct is .
Solution. Given that

= 2 105 kg/m s
= 1 kg/m
v = 1 m/s

Ans. (b)

44. Heat transfer through a composite wall is shown

in figure.
Ti

600 K

Equivalent diameter (D) of the duct can be

calcualted as

300 K

4A
P
4 0.025 0.015
=
2 (0.025 + 0.015)
= 0.01875 m

D=
Heat flow

Reynolds number of the flow is

l

vD

1 1 0.01875
=
2 105
= 937.5

Both the sections of the wall have equal thickness

(l). The conductivity of one section is and that
of the other is 2. The left face of the wall is at
600 K and the right face is at 300 K. The interface
temperature Ti (in K) of the composite wall is
.
Solution. Let Ti be the intermediate temperature.
Thermal resistance of the left side wall is
l
R1 =
A

Re =

DarcyWeisbach friction factor (4f ) is calculated

as

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64
Re
= 0.0682

4f =

15 of 19

Hence, pressure drop per meter length of the duct

is

For the given condition that axial components of

velocity remain the same,

p
4f v2
=
g
l
D 2g
4f v2

=
D
2
0.0682 12 1
=

0.01875
2
= 1.818 Pa/m

1 = 2 = 32.80
Specific work shall be given by
w = (Vw1 + Vw2 ) u
= (Vr1 cos 1 + Vr2 cos 2 ) u
= 2Vr1 u cos 1
= 2 78 25 cos 32.80
= 3278.2 J/kg

Ans. 1.818 Pa/m

46. At the inlet of an axial impulse turbine rotor, the
blade linear speed is 25 m/s, the magnitude of
absolute velocity is 100 m/s and the angle between
them is 25 . The relative velocity and the axial
component of velocity remain the same between
the inlet and outlet of the blades. The blade inlet
and outlet velocity triangles are shown in the
figure.
100 m/s

Ans. 3278.2 J/kg

47. A solid sphere of radius r1 = 20 mm is placed
concentrically inside a hollow sphere of radius r2 =
30 mm, as shown in the figure.
2

r1

78 m/s
58.6 m/s

r2

25

78 m/s

25 m/s
Assuming no losses, the specific work (in J/kg) is
.
Solution. Given that

(a) 2/3
(c) 8/27

u = 25 m/s
V1 = 100 m/s
V2 = 58.6 m/s
= 25
Vr1 = 78 m/s
Vr2 = 78 m/s

78

=1

00 m

m/

/s

r2

Using

2
1

/s
8m

25

m/s

F11 + F12 = 1
F12 = 1
Using reciprocating law,

8.6

F11 = 0

=5

(b) 4/9
(d) 9/4

Solution. For the given surface 1,

V2

Vr

V1

The view factor F21 for radiation heat transfer is

u = 25 m/s

The angles can be determined as

Vr1 sin 1 = V1 sin
78 sin 1 = 100 sin 25
1 = 32.80
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F21 A2 = F12 A1
A1
F12
F21 =
A2
4r12
=
1
4r22
202
= 2
30
4
=
9
Ans. (b)
16 of 19

48. A double-pipe counter-flow heat exchanger transfers heat between two water streams. Tube side
water at 19 l/s is heated from 10 C to 38 C. Shell
side water at 25 l/s is entering at 46 C. Assume
constant properties of water, density is 1000 kg/m3
and specific heat is 4186 J/kg K. The LMTD (in

C) is .
Solution. Given that
m
c
Tci
Tco
m
h
Thi

Therefore, efficiency of diesel cycle is



1
k 1
= 1 1
r
(k 1)


2.61.4 1
1
= 1 0.4
17
1.4 (2.6 1)
= 59.6%
Ans. 59.6%

= 19 l/s
= 10 C
= 38 C
= 25 l/s
= 46 C

50. Consider the given project network, where numbers along various activities represent the normal
time.
2

= 1000 kg/m
cc = ch = 4186 J/kg K

3
2

For energy balance

3
5

m
c cc (Tco Tci ) = m
h ch (Thi Tho )
19 (38 10) = 25 (46 Tho )
Tho = 24.72 C

4
The free float on activity 4-6 and the project
duration, respectively, are

Hence

(a) 2, 13
(c) 2, 13

T1 = Thi Tco
= 8 C
T2 = Tho Tci
= 14.72 C

(b) 0, 13
(d) 2, 12

Solution. Calculations of [ES, LS] and critical path

(double line arrows) are shown in the figure:
[3,3]

LMTD of the heat exchanger is

T1 T2
LMTD =
ln (T1 /T2 )
= 11.02 C

[0,0]
1

Solution. Given that

r=

v1
= 17
v2
kf = 10%
= 1.4

5
3

[2,3]
2

Ans. 11.02 C
49. A diesel engine has a compression ratio of 17 and
cut-off takes place at 10% of the stroke. Assuming
ratio of specific heats () as 1.4, the air-standard
efficiency (in percent) is .

[5,5]

5
4

5
6

[13,13]
7

[8,8]

4
[2,4]
The network has project duration of 13 days.
Free float of an activity is the delay that can be
permitted in an activity so that the succeeding
activities in the path are not affected. Therefore,
Free float = ESjk EFij
For activity 4 6

Hence, cut-off ratio (k = v3 /v2 ) is calculated as

k = 1 + kf (r 1)
= 1 + 0.1 (17 1)
= 2.6
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Free float = ES67 EF46

= 8 (2 + 4)
=2
Ans. (a)
17 of 19

51. A manufacturer can produce 12,000 bearings

per day. The manufacturer received an order of
8,000 bearings per day from a customer. The
cost of holding a bearing in stock is Rs. 0.20
per month. Setup cost per production run is Rs.
500. Assuming 300 working days in a year, the
frequency of production run should be
(a) 4.5 days
(c) 6.8 days

(b) 4.5 months

(d) 6.8 months

If the riser is of constant volume, then the rate of

solidification in the riser is the least when the ratio
h : d is
(a) 1:2
(b) 2:1
(c) 1:4
(d) 4:1
Solution. Given that riser volume (V ) is a
constant, therefore,
d2 h
4
4V
h=
d2
Surface area for heat transfer in the riser will be
V =

Solution. Given that

p = 12000 units/day
d = 8000 units/day
D = 8000 300 bearings/annum
h = Rs. 0.2 12/bearings per annum
A = Rs. 500/production
Therefore, EOQ shall be
s
2AD
Q =
h (1 d/p)
s
2 500 8000 300
=
0.2 12 (1 8000/12000)
= 54772.25 per order
Number of production orders per annum is
D
Q
8000 300
=
54772.25
= 43.81

n=

d2
+ dh
4
2
4V
d
+ d 2
=
4
d
d2 4V
=
+
4
d
Rate of solidification in the riser will be least
when surface area for heat transfer is minimum,
for which
dA
=0
dd
4V d
2 +
=0
d
2
d3
V =
8
d2 h
d3
=
4
8
1
h
=
d
2
A=

Ans. (a)

Therefore, frequency of production run will be

300
t=
75.89
= 6.84 days

53. The diameter of a recessed ring was measured by

using two spherical balls of diameter d2 = 60 mm
and d1 = 40 mm, as shown in the figure.
Recessed ring

Ans. (c)
H2

52. A cylindrical blind riser with diameter d and height

h, is placed on the top of the mold cavity of a closed
type sand mold, as shown in the figure.

d2
A
b

d
Riser

H1

Sprue basin

d1

Mold cavity
D
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The distance H2 = 35.55 mm and H1 = 20.55

mm. The diameter D (in mm) of the ring gauge is
.

Keeping other parameters constant, reduction

in friction angle (i.e. friction force) will reduce
the cutting force.

Solution. Let XX denote the top surface from

where H1 and H2 are measured. Using the given
dimensions,
60 40
+
2
2
= 50 mm

 

60
40
BC = 35.55 +
20.55 +
2
2
= 25 mm
p
R = AC2 BC2
p
= 502 252
= 43.30 mm

(b) According to Ernst-Merchant formula,

=

AC =

+
4
2

If friction angle () is reduced, shear angle

will increase. Chip thickness ratio is given by
r=

t1
sin
=
t2
cos ( )

Therefore, t2 will reduce with reduction in .

Ans. (d)

Therefore,
60 40
+
2
2
= 93.30 mm

D = R+

Ans. 93.30 mm

55. For spot welding of two steel sheets (base metal)

each of 3 mm thickness, welding current of 10000
A is applied for 0.2 s. The heat dissipated to the
base metal is 1000 J. Assuming that the heat
required for melting 1 mm3 volume of steel is 20
J and interfacial contact resistance between sheets
is 0.0002 , the volume (in mm3 ) of weld nugget
is .
Solution. Given that

54. Which pair of the following statements is correct

for orthogonal cutting using a single-point cutting
tool?
P. Reduction
force
Q. Reduction
force
R. Reduction
thickness
S. Reduction
thickness
(a) P and R
(c) Q and R

h = 3 mm
I = 10000 A
t = 0.2 s
Ed = 1000 J

in friction angle increases cutting

in friction angle decreases cutting

U = 20 J/mm
R = 0.0002

in friction angle increases chip

in friction angle decreases chip

Let v be the volume of the weld nugget. For heat

balance
U v = I 2 Rt Ed

(b) P and S
(d) Q and S

I 2 Rt Ed
U
100002 0.0002 0.2 1000
=
20
2
= 150 mm

v=

Solution. The effect of friction angle can be

examined as follows:
(a) Cutting force is related as
Fc = R cos ( )

Ans. 150 mm2

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