Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Preface
PREFACE
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Dear Reader www.pmptools is excited to have published PMP: Exam Cram Test Bank,
what we believe is the first of its kind in the field or project management.
Just as the project Management Institute is committed to establishing
measurable standards for certifying project management professional with
the PMP Exam, www.pmptools.com is happy to help assist professionals
with the knowledge needed to meet those standards.
This test bank assumes you have at least read the Guide to the Project
Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK) and the PMP Exam Cram
and have some general project management skills. While this book will
assist you in preparing for the PMP Exam, it will not act as substitute to
the PMBOK only a complement. We highly recommend that you obtain
the PMBOK if you do not currently have a copy.
Preface
COPYRIGHT INFORMATION
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Preface
S AMPLE T EST 1
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1. Project risk is characterized by three factors: _____.
A. Severity of impact, duration of impact and cost of impact
B. Identification, type of risk category and probability of impact
C. Risk event, risk probability and the amount at stake
D. Occurrence, frequency and cost
2. Contingency planning is a means to _____ risks to the project through a formal process and
provides the resources to meet the risk events.
A. Address
B. Classify
C. Assign
D. Resolve
3. Which of the following situations describes a violation of the PMP Professional Code of
Conduct?
A. Accepting a gift that is within the customary guidelines of the country or province you are
currently working in.
B. Use of confidential information to advance your position or influence a critical decision.
C. Complying with laws and regulations of the state or province in which project management
services are provided
D. Disclosing information to a customer about a situation that may have an appearance of
impropriety.
4. Which of the following is a tool or technique used in integrated change control?
A. Organizational procedures
B. Performance reports
C. Project plan updates
D. Performance measurement
5. _____________ invloves using statitical relationship between historical data and other variables .
A. Analogous estimating
B. Life-cycle costing
C. Parametric estimating
D. Bottom up estimating
S A M P L E TE S T 1
6. One of your employees is up for promotion. If the promotion is granted, the employee will be
reassigned elsewhere causing a problem for you on your project. You can delay the promotion until
your project is completed. You should:
A. Support the promotion but work with the employee and the employee's new
management to develop a good transition plan
B. Ask the employee to refuse the promotion until your project is completed.
C. Arrange to delay the promotion until the project is completed
D. Tell the employee that it is his responsibility to find a suitable replacement so that the
project will not suffer
7. The primary characteristic that distinguishes between external and internal risk areas is the
_____________.
A. Magnitude of the impact on the project
B. Project manager's perception of risk
C. Project manager's ability to influence the risk
D. Use of more or less contractors
8. Which is an input to resource planning?
A. Historical information
B. Cost baseline
C. Cost management plan
D. Chart of accounts
9. _____________ involves allocating the overall costs to individual work items in order to establish
a cost baseline for measuring project performance.
A. Resource planning
B. Cost estimating
C. Cost budgeting
D. Cost control
10. Your project is running out of cash and significant work remains. You are directed by senior
management to instruct your people to use another project's charge numbers while working on
your project. You should:
A. Follow instructions
B. Inform the corporate auditors
C. Understand the background of management's instructions before taking any action
D. Try to close down the project
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S A M P L E TE S T 1
11. Risk event is the precise description of what might happen to the _____ of the project.
A. Manager
B. Detriment
C. Schedule
D. Budget
12. _____________ /top-down estimating is generally the least accurate.
A. Using stakeholders to predict cost
B. Parametric modeling
C. Analogous estimating
D. Computerized estimating
13. Using a contractor to perform a high risk task is which form of risk response?
A. Mitigation
B. Acceptance
C. Transference
D. Avoidance
14. _____________ is developing an approximation of the costs of the resources needed to complete
project activities.
A. Resource planning
B. Cost estimating
C. Cost budgeting
D. Cost control
15. The integrity of the project manager is often challenged by stakeholders who attempt to use
personal power or influence to change the scope of an agreed upon deliverable. In these situations
the project manager's most appropriate response would be:
A. Refer the stakeholder to the process for change documented in the approved contract.
B. Agree to the change because customer satisfaction is the goal regardless of cost.
C. Contact the legal department and suspend all further project work
D. Determine the risks and rewards for implementing the change before taking any action.
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S A M P L E TE S T 1
16. During project implementation the client interprets a clause in the contract to mean the he is
entitled to a substantial refund for work recently completed. You review the clause and disagree
with the client's conclusion. As the project manager which of the following actions should be
taken?
A. Disregard the customer's conclusion and continue to process invoices
B. Document the dispute and refer to the provisions of the contract that address
interpretations and disputes
C. Advise the customer that ambiguous information in contracts is always interpreted in
favor of the contractor
D. Immediately correct the clause to remove any possible misinterpretation by the
customer
17. The most rapid cost estimating technique is:
A. Square foot estimating
B. Template estimating
C. Computerized estimating
D. Analogous estimating
18. In order to balance the needs of the many stakeholders involved in your project the most desirable
method to achieve resolution of conflicts would be:
A. Compromise
B. Forcing
C. Controlling
D. Confrontation
19. As the leader of a project team, the project manager may be required to assess the competencies of
his or her team members. Occasionally, some weaknesses or areas for improvement will be
identified. The project manager should:
A. Remove any team members who have demonstrated weaknesses in critical knowledge
areas
B. Communicate those weaknesses and establish a performance improvement program
C. Hire additional resources to compensate for weak areas
D. Wait for the team members to fail in an assignment to justify termination
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S A M P L E TE S T 1
Sample Test 1
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S A M P L E TE S T 1
25. Tool and techniques for Risk Identification include all but:
A. Checklists
B. Delphi technique
C. Triggers
D. Interviewing
26. What are the inputs to Project Plan Execution?
A. Project plan, work breakdown structure, organizational policies, preventive action and
corrective action.
B. Project plan, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and corrective
action.
C. Project plan, work results, change requests, preventive action and corrective action.
D. Project skills, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and lessons
learned.
27. Change control requests:
A. Must be relayed in writing
B. Provide the baseline against which changes will be controlled
C. Are always initiated externally
D. Are inputs to integrated change control
28. Cost control is concerned with:
A. Managing changes when they occur
B. Resource rates
C. Chart of accounts
D. Organizational policies
29. _____________ is another term for top down estimating.
A. Analogous estimating
B. Life-cycle costing
C. Parametric modeling
D. Bottom up estimating
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S A M P L E TE S T 1
30. You receive a contract to perform testing for an external client. After contract award, the customer
provides you with the test matrix to use for your 16 tests. The vice president for engineering says
that the customer's test matrix is wrong, and she will use a different test matrix, which should give
better results. This is a violation to the SOW. Suppose your sponsor is also the vice president for
engineering. You should:
A. Use the customer's test matrix.
B. Use the engineering test matrix without telling the customer.
C. Use the engineering test matrix and inform the customer.
D. Tell your sponsor that you want to set up a meeting with the customer to resolve the
conflict.
31. Project risk is defined as the cumulative effect of chances of _____ which will adversely affect
project objectives.
A. Likely events
B. Complex activities
C. Complex schedules
D. Uncertain occurrences
32. A person who is attempting to fulfill the need for safety has already satisfied which needs?
A. Esteem
B. Self-Actualization
C. Physiological
D. Social
33. Which of the following choices would indicate that your project was 10% under budget?
A. The BCWS was 110, and the BCWP was 100
B. The ACWP was 100, and the BCWP was 110
C. The BCWS was 100, and the ACWP was 110
D. The ACWP was 110, and the BCWP was 100
34. Meeting with prospective sellers prior to preparation of a proposal is
A. Bidder Negotiations
B. Bidder Auction
C. Bidder Conference
D. Bidder Selection
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S A M P L E TE S T 1
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41. While reviewing the estimates from the functional managers assigned to your project you discover
that one cost estimate is clearly higher than those submitted for previous projects. You should:
A. Reject the estimate and remove the functional manager from the project
B. Request the supporting details for the estimate to ensure it has been properly prepared.
C. Accept the estimate and plan to use the additional funding as a reserve.
D. Question each functional manager for information about this estimate.
42. For project "B," with a triangular distribution, what is the project mean?
Project "B" Activities
LOW
MOST LIKELY
HIGH
Gather requirements
40
45
80
Write specifications
35
50
100
Review specifications
10
15
30
Build model
18
25
50
Inspect model
10
20
40
10
25
60
Resolve defects/issues
15
20
40
A. 216
B. 225
C. 246
D. 400
43. Name the ethical code you'll be required to adhere to as a PMP.
A. Project Management Policy of Ethics
B. Project Management Professional Standards
C. Project Management Code of Professional Ethics & Standards
D. Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct
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S A M P L E TE S T 1
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S A M P L E TE S T 1
49. The objective with which the project team will measure the effectiveness of its execution of the
risk response plan is based on the?
A. Overall risk ranking for the project
B. Probability rating
C. Risk assessment score
D. Acceptable threshold for risk
50. Project risk should be identified and assessed during the planning phase. Once the implementation
phase starts, it may be too late to objectively assess risk and select the more attractive alternatives.
During the implementation phase, some indications of riskiness (i.e., failure to meet the project's
objectives. may be:
A. Instability of project progress information
B. Loss of focus on the work by line supervisors
C. Conflict between project manager and customer
D. All of the above
51. Parametric cost estimating involves:
A. Using the work breakdown structure as the basis for estimating
B. Defining the parameters of the project life cycle
C. Calculating individual cost estimates for each work package
D. Using rates and other factors based on lesson learned/historical data to estimate costs
52. _____________ includes the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation,
collection, dissemination, storage and ultimate disposition of project information.
A. Project communication management
B. Quality standards
C. Process control
D. Project quality control
53. Simulation uses a representation or model of a system to analyze the behavior or performance of
the system. The results of a schedule simulation will not quantify the risk of:
A. Risk management plan
B. Different project strategies
C. Different network paths
D. Individual activities
S A M P L E TE S T 1
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S A M P L E TE S T 1
59. Your executives, in appreciation for the success of your project, have given you a $10,000 bonus to
be disbursed among your five-team members. One of the five, who is a substandard worker and
accomplished very little on your project, is in your car pool. You should:
A. Provide everyone with an equal share
B. Provide everyone a share based upon their performance
C. Ask the workers to decide among themselves how the bonus should be subdivided
D. Ask the sponsor to make the decision
60. Inputs to risk quantification include which of the following?
A. Stakeholder risk tolerance
B. Sources of risk
C. Potential risk events
D. Historical data
61. In which organizational structure is the project manager likely to have the most authority?
A. Functional
B. Weak Matrix
C. Projectized
D. Strong Matrix
62. In order for the project manager to fully and effectively understand a stake holder's personal
concerns or grievances it may necessary to:
A. Ask for a written description of the problem and submit it through the project office
B. Schedule a project review session with the entire project team
C. Attempt to empathize with the stakeholder
D. Involve the project sponsor as an arbitrator
63. The contract type that represents the lowest risk to the buyer is:
A. CPIF
B. FPI
C. FFP
D. CPFF
64. Which is a document is not used to solicit proposals from potential buyers?
A. IFQ
B. IFB
C. RFP
D. RFQ
S A M P L E TE S T 1
65. With triangular distribution, the low, likely and high values are 15, 20 and 40, respectively. The
mean is _____.
A. 20.0
B. 22.5
C. 25.0
D. 27.5
66. Risk of property loss may be transferred to an insurance company. The project manager can
calculate the ratio of insurance premium to the Expected value of a loss, to make an informed
decision about buying insurance. For example, if the insurance premium is $10,000, value of the
property is $200,000 and probability of loss is 4%, the insurance:
A. Is desirable because it will cost less than the probable losses
B. Is undesirable because it costs more than the probable losses
C. Depends upon the project's attitude toward risk
D. Is indeterminable because of insufficient data
67. Project Managers can contribute to their organization's knowledge base and to the profession of
project management most effectively by:
A. Developing and implementing a project review and lessons learned process
B. Establishing strict guidelines for protecting intellectual property
C. Promote the use of ad hoc project management
D. Ensuring that all project plans are developed before the project team is formed
68. The output from resource planning includes:
A. Salary options
B. Job descriptions and responsibilities
C. Resources required
D. Current job openings
69. _____________ is controlling changes to the budget.
A. Resource planning
B. Cost estimating
C. Cost budgeting
D. Cost control
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S A M P L E TE S T 1
70. A major assumption of all network scheduling methods is that activity durations must be _____.
A. Statistically dependent
B. Variance distributed
C. Statistically independent
D. Deterministic
71. Your schedule has shown that your project has a high likelihood of experiencing a schedule
overrun. You know this because the BCWP is much:
A. High than the ACWP
B. Higher than the BCWS
C. Lower than the ACWP
D. Lower than the BCWS
72. Project cost management includes all of the following functions except:
A. Resource planning
B. Resource leveling
C. Cost estimating
D. Cost budgeting
73. Which is not a process included in Project Risk Management:
A. Risk identification
B. Qualitative risk analysis
C. Quantitative risk analysis
D. Risk control management
74. As part of your project plan you must develop an effective method of communication for your
multinational team of stakeholders. You have several choices of media available. The appropriate
action to take in the development of the communication plans would be to:
A. Discuss the available options with the stakeholders and obtain their input
B. Use the standard media that has been in effect for your previous projects
C. Use multiple forms of media to ensure that everyone receives the information
D. Obtain additional funding from the project sponsor and develop a project specific
communications infrastructure.
S A M P L E TE S T 1
75. The project is one with many hazards that could easily injure one or more persons and there is no
method of avoiding potential for damages. The project manager should consider _____ as a means
of deflecting the risk.
A. Abandoning the project
B. Buying insurance for personal bodily injury
C. Establishing a contingency fund
D. Establishing a management reserve
76. Which is a phased budget used to measure and monitor cost performance on the project?
A. Cost baseline
B. Project schedule
C. Cost management plan
D. EAC
77. _________ is the formal procedure for sanctioning project work to ensure it is done at the right
time.
A. Work-authorization system
B. Organizational procedures
C. Status review
D. Project planning
78. Tools and techniques used in Quantitative Risk analysis include all of the following except?
A. Interviewing
B. Sensitivity analysis
C. Decision tree analysis
D. Avoidance
79. In risk analysis, expected value can be used as a means of determining the weighted outcome of
alternatives. The formula for this weighted outcome is:
A. Probability of outcome divided by the outcome in dollars
B. Probability of outcome multiplied by the outcome in dollars
C. Desired outcome multiplied by the outcome in dollars
D. Desired outcome divided by the outcome in dollars
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80. You are negotiating with a contractor to provide the installation and integration of a computer
system with data links. The data links must access three different computer protocols and provide a
common data communication. The integration of data protocols has never been accomplished
before. Attempting to avoid risk, you would like to award a _____ contract and the contractor will
sign only a _____ contract.
A. Letter, formal
B. Fixed price, cost plus
C. Cost plus, fixed price
D. No-fault, no obligation
81. Project risk through liability comes in two forms: breach of contract and tort. Breach of contract is
essentially a failure to perform the service or provide the required product. A tort is a personal
wrong and includes _____.
A. An automobile accident
B. An accident on commercial premises
C. Slander or libel
D. All of the above
82. For Christmas, you give your government client a leather brief case. You are in violation of the
responsibility to:
A. Comply with the law.
B. Comply with regulations.
C. Provide accurate information.
D. Protect conflict of interest.
83. Earned value can be described as:
A. The value of the equipment that has been installed as of the current date
B. The sum of the labor costs that have been incurred on the project date
C. A method of measuring project performance
D. A method of measuring the amount of money that has been spent to date
84. You have just changed jobs and discovered that your new employer routinely violates OSHA/EPA
and affirmative action requirements on projects. You should:
A. Do nothing; it's not your problem
B. Start by asking management if they are aware that regulations are being violated
C. Talk to the corporate legal department
D. Inform the appropriate government agencies about the violations
S A M P L E TE S T 1
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S A M P L E TE S T 1
91. The project manager must be an effective communicator to ensure that project stakeholders receive
and understand project related information and status. Prior to delivering information to the
stakeholders the project manager should attempt to:
A. Research and understand the region of experience of the stakeholder before
transmitting information
B. Identify only those stakeholders that have a the same background experience as the
project manager
C. Filter the information to remove any details
D. Restrict information to specific technical details
92. During your assignment as project manager you add a new member to your project team. This new
team member was recently hired from a competitor and offers to share a substantial amount of
proprietary information from his previous company. This information could put you and your team
in a very strong position for future business. You are aware of a non-compete clause in the new
hire's condition of employment. You should:
A. Accept the information and agree to keep it confidential between you and the new hire.
B. Review the condition of employment with the new hire and advise her to reconsider the
offer.
C. Review the information and only accept only what may have a direct impact on the
project's financial status.
D. Ignore the offer to share and move forward with the project
93. Before reporting a perceived violation of an established rule or policy the project manager should:
A. Determine the risks associated with the violation
B. Ensure there is a reasonably clear and factual basis for reporting the violation
C. Ignore the violation until it actually affects the project results
D. Convene a committee to review the violation and determine the appropriate response
94. Communication technology factors that may affect the project include:
A. Learning upgrades of new system
B. The immediacy of the need for information
C. The availability of technology
D. All of the above
S A M P L E TE S T 1
95. Project "A" has experienced difficulties in the deliveries of one of its key suppliers. It has been
estimated by the project team that, if the supplier is one week late for the next scheduled delivery,
it will cost $10,000. The probability of the supplier being late is 50 %, based on the fact that this
has happened before on the project. What is the expected monetary value of this risk event
occurring:
A. $3,500
B. $4,000
C. $5,000
D. $7,500
96. Outputs to Risk Response Planning include all of the following except?
A. Risk response plan
B. Corrective action plan
C. Contractual agreements
D. Residual risks
97. ____________ generates, gathers, and disseminates information to formalize phase or project
completion.
A. Project plan completion model
B. Performance reporting
C. Administrative closure
D. Process control
98. The contingency allowances established to cover unforeseen costs on your project have been set at
8% of total project cost. The total dollars in the contingency allowances are _____ as the project
nears completion.
A. Retained at the remaining dollar level
B. Reduced to reflect a percentage of the remaining work
C. Decreased to reduce the accounting work
D. Spent to ensure there is no extra money shown in the budget
99. _____________ is the cost estimating technique used most frequently in the early stages of a
project.
A. Analogous estimating
B. Life-cycle costing
C. Parametric modeling
D. Bottom up estimating
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S A M P L E TE S T 1
100. Project "A," a fast-track design-build, has a probability of scope change of 85 %, and the
probability of the project being terminated is less than 15 %. What is the probability the project
will have scope changes and not be terminated?
A. 13 %
B. 6 %
C. 100 %
D. 72%
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S AMPLE T EST 2
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1. _____________ is the most accurate cost estimating technique.
A. Computerized
B. Bottom up estimating
C. Analogous estimating
D. Square foot
2. A product life cycle is a series of phases whose name and number is determined by the
organization's needs regarding control of the project.
A. True
B. False
3. In the phase sequence defined by project life cycles, a phase is not begun until all
deliverables are approved from the preceding phase.
A. True
B. False
4. _____________ involves using project characteristics in a mathematical model.
A. Analogous estimating
B. Life-cycle costing
C. Parametric modeling
D. Bottom up estimating
5. Project risk is defined as the cumulative effect of chances of _____ which will adversely
affect project objectives.
A. Likely events
B. Complex activities
C. Complex schedules
D. Uncertain occurrences
Test 2
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S A M P L E TE S T 2
26. _________ recognizes that a project or phase should begin and commits the organization
to do so.
A. Initiating process
B. Solicitation process
C. Scoping process
D. Planning process
27. An output of scope definition is:
A. Work breakdown structure
B. Scope statement
C. Scope management plan
D. Corrective action
28. Risk event is the precise description of what might happen to the _____ of the project.
A. Manager
B. Detriment
C. Schedule
D. Budget
29. A RAM is defined as:
A. Random access memory
B. Rapid air movement
C. Responsibilities and methods
D. Responsibility assignment matrix
30. A key barrier to team development is:
A. When team members are accountable to both functional and project managers.
B. A strong matrix management structure.
C. When major problems delay the project completion date or budget targets.
D. When formal training plans cannot be implemented.
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31. Contingency planning is a means to _____ risks to the project through a formal process
and provides the resources to meet the risk events.
A. Address
B. Classify
C. Assign
D. Resolve
32. ____________ devises and maintains a worktable scheme to accomplish the business
need that the project was undertaken to address.
A. Development process
B. Scoping process
C. Planning process
D. Information development process
33. Staffing requirements do not define:
A. What types of skills are required
B. What time frames
C. What kinds of individuals or groups
D. What type of resource planning is required
34. A major assumption of all network scheduling methods is that activity durations must be
_____.
A. Statistically dependent
B. Variance distributed
C. Statistically independent
D. Deterministic
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S A M P L E TE S T 2
40. The outputs of Contract Administration are correspondence, contract changes, and
payment requests.
A. True
B. False
41. The _____________ documents the characteristics of the product or service that the
project was undertaken to create.
A. Resource plan
B. Project charter
C. Project description
D. Scope statement
42. Outputs from the initiation process are:
A. Project manager identified/assigned
B. Constraints
C. Assumptions
D. All of the above
43. A _______ is a series of actions bringing about a result.
A. Project plan
B. Process
C. Schedule
D. Flowchart
44. _____________ involves determining what quantities are to be used to perform project
activities.
A. Resource planning
B. Cost estimating
C. Cost budgeting
D. Cost control
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S A M P L E TE S T 2
59. Which is a phased budget used to measure and monitor cost performance on the project?
A. Cost baseline
B. Project schedule
C. Cost management plan
D. EAC
60. Project risk is characterized by three factors: _____.
A. Severity of impact, duration of impact and cost of impact
B. Identification, type of risk category and probability of impact
C. Risk event, risk probability and the amount at stake
D. Occurrence, frequency and cost
61. A project is defined in the PMBOK as:
A. A process of considerable scope that implements a plan
B. A group of ideas managed in a coordinated way to obtain a desired outcome
C. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service
D. A collection of activities with a beginning and an end
62. Which of the following is best for handling cross-functional project needs for a large,
complex project?
A. A strong matrix organization
B. A project coordinator
C. A project expeditor
D. Direct executive involvement
63. Project Stakeholders are defined as:
A. Individuals and organizations who use the project's product
B. Individuals and organizations whose interest may be positively or negatively affected
as a result of project execution or successful project completion
C. Individuals and organizations who provide the financial resources
D. All of the above
Test 2 2-43
S A M P L E TE S T 2
64. The tools and techniques used in the initiation process are:
A. Product analysis
B. Project schedule development
C. Expert judgment
D. Project budget
65. Likely schedule durations for activity duration estimating are available from historical
information that is derived from the following sources except:
A. Commercial duration databases
B. Project files
C. Project team knowledge
D. Outside consultants
66. _____________ is developing an approximation of the costs of the resources needed to
complete project activities.
A. Resource planning
B. Cost estimating
C. Cost budgeting
D. Cost control
67. ____________ must be measured regularly to identify variances from the plan.
A. Stakeholder requirements
B. Project performance
C. Schedule control
D. Project controls
68. _____________ is ensuring all features and functions are included in a product or service
A. Project scope
B. Project verification
C. Project control
D. Product scope
2-44
Test 2
.....
S A M P L E TE S T 2
Test 2 2-45
S A M P L E TE S T 2
74. A regulation is a document that lays down provisions with which compliance is
mandatory.
A. True
B. False
75. Lessons learned are most often based upon project historical records. Lessons learned can
be used to:
A. See what mistakes others have made
B. See how others have solved problems
C. "Predict trends, highlight problems and identify alternatives"
D. All of the above
76. The major project scope management processes include:
A. Change order control
B. Initiation
C. Program evaluation
D. Scope statement
77. A graphic display of resource usage hours is:
A. Organizational chart
B. Responsibility matrix
C. WBS
D. Histogram
78. Which is an input to resource planning?
A. Historical information
B. Cost baseline
C. Cost management plan
D. Chart of accounts
2-46
Test 2
.....
S A M P L E TE S T 2
Test 2 2-47
S A M P L E TE S T 2
2-48
Test 2
.....
S A M P L E TE S T 2
88. What is not among the tools and techniques of Organizational Planning?
A. Staffing management plan
B. Templates
C. Human resource practices
D. Organizational theory
89. ____________ formalizes the acceptance of the project or phase and bringing it to an
orderly end.
A. Punch list
B. Closing process
C. Project completion checklist
D. Stakeholder buyoff
90. Cost control is concerned with:
A. Managing changes when they occur
B. Resource rates
C. Chart of accounts
D. Organizational policies
91. Resource leveling allocates scarce resources to critical path activities first.
A. True
B. False
92. The closing process scope includes:
A. Contract closeout
B. Final reporting
C. Punch list
D. Exit interview
Test 2 2-49
S A M P L E TE S T 2
2-50
Test 2
.....
S A M P L E TE S T 2
Test 2 2-51
S A M P L E TE S T 2
ANSWERS
ANSWERS
....................................................
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
2-52
Test 2
B. Bottom up estimating
B. False
B. False
C. Parametric modeling
D. Uncertain occurrences
C. Analogous estimating
D. None of the above
A. Reduced to reflect a percentage of the remaining work
D. All of the above
D. Developing a new product or service
A. A group of projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits not available
from managing them individually
D. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
A. Improvements in amount of overtime worked
A. Cost management plan
D. Executing process
A. Procurement planning
C. A technique that uses sequential network logic for schedule development
A. Scope definition, Resource planning, Cost estimating, Schedule development, Activity
definition
D. Cost control
D. All of the above
B. Resource Planning
B. Lessons learned
B. Project scope management
B. False
B. What are the resources are available, at what times and in what patterns
A. Initiating process
A. Work breakdown structure
B. Detriment
D. Responsibility assignment matrix
A. When team members are acountable to both functional and project managers.
ANSWERS
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
.....
S A M P L E TE S T 2
A. Address
C. Planning process
D. What type of resource planning is required
C. Statistically independent
D. All of the above
B. Lessons learned
A. Impacts of weather
B. Contract negotiation
A. True
A. True
C. Project description
D. All of the above
B. Process
A. Resource planning
A. Initiation
A. Analogous estimating
C. Describes the processes required to ensure that the project will satisfy the needs for
which it was undertaken
B. Identifying, analyzing and responding to
D. Market conditions
A. True
B. Scope planning
D. All of the above
B. A task oriented family tree of the project.
A. Closeout
C. Cost budgeting
B. Contract
D. "Any undertaking with a definable time frame, well-defined objectives, and consumes
both human and non-human resources with certain constraints."
D. All of the above
A. Cost baseline
C. Risk event, risk probability and the amount at stake
C. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service
A. A strong matrix organization
D. All of the above
Test 2 2-53
S A M P L E TE S T 2
ANSWERS
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
C. Expert judgment
D. Outside consultants
B. Cost estimating
B. Project performance
B. Project verification
B. Solicitation
A. Project scope
C. 25.0
D. All of the above.
D. All of the above
A. True
D. All of the above
B. Initiation
D. Histogram
A. Historical information
C. Expert judgment
D. The Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct is published by
PMI, and PMPs are expected to adhere to its standards.
81. B. Controlling process
82. D. None of the above
83. C. Constructing a building or facility
84. B. Reward and recognition systems
85. D. Dedicated project team
86. A. Finish-to-start
87. C. Payment system
88. A. Staffing management plan
89. B. Closing process
90. A. Managing changes when they occur
91. A. True
92. A. Contract closeout
93. A. Product description
94. B. Developing a written scope statement as the basis for future project decisions
95. B. Product description
96. B. Staff age
97. B. Bottom up estimating
2-54
Test 2
ANSWERS
.....
S A M P L E TE S T 2
Test 2 2-55
2-56
Test 2
S A M P L E TE S T 2
ANSWERS
S AMPLE T EST 3
.....
...................................
1. Project "A" has experienced difficulties in the deliveries of one of its key suppliers. It has
been estimated by the project team that, if the supplier is one week late for the next
scheduled delivery, it will cost $10,000. The probability of the supplier being late is 50
%, based on the fact that this has happened before on the project. What is the expected
monetary value of this risk event occurring:
A. $3,500
B. $4,000
C. $5,000
D. $7,500
2. Project Procurement Management includes:
A. Procurement planning
B. Solicitation planning
C. Solicitation
D. All of the above
3. ________________ involves collecting and disseminating performance information in
order to provide stakeholders with information about how resources are being used to
achieve project objectives.
A. Monthly update reports
B. Executive top-down reporting
C. Performance reviews
D. Performance reporting
Test 3
3-57
S A M P L E TE S T 3
4. Project quality management must address both the _____________ of the project, and the
_____________ of the project.
A. Quality, schedule
B. Objectives, organization
C. Management, product
D. Customer requirements stakeholders
5. Staffing requirements do not define:
A. What types of skills are required
B. What time frames
C. What kinds of individuals or groups
D. What type of resource planning is required
6. Key Management skills include:
A. Leading
B. Communicating
C. Negotiating
D. All of the above
7. The Risk Management Plan does not include:
A. Risk management procedures
B. Risk identification
C. Alternative strategies
D. Allocation of reserves
8. Project Stakeholders are defined as:
A. Individuals and organizations who use the project's product
B. Individuals and organizations whose interest may be positively or negatively affected
as a result of project execution or successful project completion
C. Individuals and organizations who provide the financial resources
D. All of the above
3-58
Test 3
.....
S A M P L E TE S T 3
9. What document outlines the action steps to be taken if an identified risk event should
occur:
A. Risk management plan
B. Project plan
C. Corrective action plan
D. Contingency plan
10. Outputs to Risk Response Development do not include:
A. Reserves
B. Corrective action plan
C. Contractual agreements
D. Risk management plan
11. What is not among the tools and techniques of Organizational Planning?
A. Staffing management plan
B. Templates
C. Human resource practices
D. Organizational theory
12. A project is defined in the PMBOK as:
A. A process of considerable scope that implements a plan
B. A group of ideas managed in a coordinated way to obtain a desired outcome
C. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service
D. A collection of activities with a beginning and an end
13. Descriptions of potential risk events should include estimates of the following:
A. Probability that the risk event will occur
B. Alternative possible outcomes
C. Expected timing of the event
D. All of the above
Test 3 3-59
S A M P L E TE S T 3
3-60
Test 3
.....
S A M P L E TE S T 3
Test 3 3-61
S A M P L E TE S T 3
3-62
Test 3
.....
S A M P L E TE S T 3
28. _______________ ensures that project objectives are met by monitoring and measuring
progress and taking corrective action when necessary.
A. Project controls
B. Controlling process
C. Control logs
D. Project chart
29. A RAM is defined as:
A. Random access memory
B. Rapid air movement
C. Responsibilities and methods
D. Responsibility assignment matrix
30. Project information that may be distributed using a variety of methods including project
meetings, hard copy document distribution, shared access to networked electronic
databases, fax, electronic mail, voice mail and video conferencing is called:
A. Project controls
B. Project information management systems (PIMS)
C. Informational distribution systems
D. Project distribution systems
31. The process that is not a part of time management is:
A. Activity Definition
B. Resource Planning
C. Schedule Development
D. Activity Sequencing
32. ____________ must be measured regularly to identify variances from the plan.
A. Stakeholder requirements
B. Project performance
C. Schedule control
D. Project controls
Test 3 3-63
S A M P L E TE S T 3
3-64
Test 3
.....
S A M P L E TE S T 3
39. Which is a phased budget used to measure and monitor cost performance on the project?
A. Cost baseline
B. Project schedule
C. Cost management plan
D. EAC
40. ____________ makes the needed information available to project stakeholders in a timely
manner.
A. Executive management updates
B. Project status reports
C. Information distribution
D. Process control
41. Simulation uses a representation or model of a system to analyze the behavior or
performance of the system. The results of a schedule simulation will not quantify the risk
of:
A. Risk management plan
B. Different project strategies
C. Different network paths
D. Individual activities
Test 3 3-65
S A M P L E TE S T 3
42. _____________ is the overall intentions and direction of an organization with regard to
quality, as formally expressed by top management.
A. Top-down reporting
B. Project management procedure
C. Quality policy
D. Quality assurance
43. Problem solving addresses potential problems on the project.
A. True
B. False
44. Company "A," which is highly profitable, is willing to spend $250,000 to develop a
proposal for a $1 billion contract; Company "B," which is operating at break-even, is not.
This is defined as:
A. Sources of risk
B. Potential risk events
C. Stakeholder risk tolerances
D. Expected monetary value
45. __________ coordinates people and other resources to carry out the plan.
A. Work Breakdown Structure
B. Resource planning
C. Resource leveling
D. Executing process
46. The optimal organization structure for the project manager is:
A. Functional
B. Weak matrix
C. Projectized
D. Dedicated project team
3-66
Test 3
.....
S A M P L E TE S T 3
Test 3 3-67
S A M P L E TE S T 3
3-68
Test 3
.....
S A M P L E TE S T 3
57. A regulation is a document that lays down provisions with which compliance is
mandatory.
A. True
B. False
58. ____________ devises and maintains a worktable scheme to accomplish the business
need that the project was undertaken to address.
A. Development process
B. Scoping process
C. Planning process
D. Information development process
59. Performance improvements include all but:
A. Improvements in amount of overtime worked
B. Improvements in individual skills
C. Improvements in team behaviors
D. Improvements in team capabilities
60. Project management process can be organized into:
A. Initiating process
B. Planning process
C. Controlling and executing process
D. All of the above
61. The project management team must be careful not to confuse quality with grade. Grade
is:
A. A system to measure operational planning techniques
B. A category for quality improvement
C. A rank given to entities having the same functional use but different requirements for
quality
D. A check list for quality management techniques
Test 3 3-69
S A M P L E TE S T 3
3-70
Test 3
.....
S A M P L E TE S T 3
Test 3 3-71
S A M P L E TE S T 3
Test 3
.....
S A M P L E TE S T 3
Test 3 3-73
S A M P L E TE S T 3
85. For project "B," with a triangular distribution, what is the project mean:
Project "B" Activities
LOW
MOST LIKELY
HIGH
Gather requirements
40
45
80
Write specifications
35
50
100
Review specifications
10
15
30
Build model
18
25
50
Inspect model
10
20
40
10
25
60
Resolve defects/issues
15
20
40
A. 216
B. 225
C. 246
D. 400
3-74
Test 3
.....
S A M P L E TE S T 3
86. _____________ involves comparing actual or planned project practices to those of other
projects in order to generate ideas for improvement and to provide a standard by which to
measure performance.
A. Process adjustments
B. Operational definitions
C. Benchline parameters
D. Benchmarking
87. _____________ allocating the overall costs to individual work items in order to establish
a cost baseline for measuring project performance.
A. Resource planning
B. Cost estimating
C. Cost budgeting
D. Cost control
88. _____________ can be shared by team members through a variety of methods including
manual filing systems, electronic text databases, project management software, and
systems which allow access to technical documentation such as engineering drawings.
A. Informational retrieval systems
B. Informational distribution systems
C. Project records
D. Project informational systems
89. Project Scope Management includes which processes:
A. Initiation
B. Project Plan Execution
C. Overall Change Control
D. Performance Reporting
Test 3 3-75
S A M P L E TE S T 3
3-76
Test 3
.....
S A M P L E TE S T 3
95. _____________ includes the process required to ensure that the project will satisfy the
needs for which it was undertaken.
A. Quality planning
B. Quality standards
C. Process control
D. Project quality management
96. Characteristics of project phases are:
A. Milestones
B. Deliverables
C. Activities
D. All of the above
97. A _______ is a series of actions bringing about a result.
A. Project plan
B. Process
C. Schedule
D. Flowchart
98. _________ recognizes that a project or phase should begin and commits the organization
to do so.
A. Initiating process
B. Solicitation process
C. Scoping process
D. Planning process
99. Inputs to contract administration do not include:
A. Contract
B. Change requests
C. Work results
D. Market conditions
Test 3 3-77
S A M P L E TE S T 3
3-78
Test 3
ANSWERS
.....
S A M P L E TE S T 3
ANSWERS
....................................................
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
C. $5,000
D. All of the above
D. Performance reporting
C. Management, product
D. What type of resource planning is required
D. All of the above
C. Alternative strategies
D. All of the above
D. Contingency plan
B. Corrective action plan
A. Staffing management plan
C. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service
D. All of the above
C. Payment system
C. Checklist
C. Scope statement
B. Quality assurance
A. Managing changes when they occur
B. Solicitation
C. Quality control
A. Operational
D. All of the above
D. The Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct is published by
PMI, and PMPs are expected to adhere to its standards.
B. Bottom up estimating
C. Constructing a building or facility
D. Checklists
C. Design of experiments
B. Controlling process
D. Responsibility assignment matrix
C. Informational distribution systems
Test 3 3-79
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
3-80
Test 3
S A M P L E TE S T 3
ANSWERS
B. Resource Planning
B. Project performance
B. Reward and recognition systems
B. False
A. When team members are accountable to both functional and project managers.
B. Expert judgment
D. 72 %
A. Procurement planning
A. Cost baseline
C. Information distribution
A. Risk management plan
C. Quality policy
B. False
C. Stakeholder risk tolerances
D. Executing process
D. Dedicated project team
B. Contract
A. Scope definition, Resource planning, Cost estimating, Schedule development, Activity
definition
B. Staff age
A. Impacts of weather
C. Role and responsibility assignments
C. Administrative closure
A. A group of projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits not available
from managing them individually
A. Comprehensive checklists
C. Parametric modeling
A. Performance reviews
A. True
C. Planning process
A. Improvements in amount of overtime worked
D. All of the above
C. A rank given to entities having the same functional use but different requirements for
quality
A. Closeout
ANSWERS
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
.....
S A M P L E TE S T 3
Test 3 3-81
97.
98.
99.
100.
3-82
Test 3
S A M P L E TE S T 3
ANSWERS
B. Process
B. Solicitation process
D. Market conditions
B. Buyer
S AMPLE T EST 4
.....
...................................
1. For project "B," with a triangular distribution, what is the project mean?
Project "B" Activities
LOW
MOST LIKELY
HIGH
Gather requirements
40
45
80
Write specifications
35
50
100
Review specifications
10
15
30
Build model
18
25
50
Inspect model
10
20
40
10
25
60
Resolve defects/issues
15
20
40
A. 216
B. 225
C. 246
D. 400
2. ____________ formalizes the acceptance of the project or phase and bringing it to an
orderly end.
A. Punch list
B. Closing process
C. Project completion checklist
D. Stakeholder buyoff
Test 4
4-83
S A M P L E TE S T 4
3. What are the tools and techniques for project plan development?
A. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management
information system (PMIS) and the work breakdown structure
B. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management
information system (PMIS) and historical information
C. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management
information system (PMIS) and the project plan
D. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management
information system (PMIS) and earned value management (EVM)
4. The primary characteristic that distinguishes between external and internal risk areas is
the _____.
A) Magnitude of the impact on the project
B) Project manager's perception of risk
C) Project manager's ability to influence the risk
D) Use of more or less contractors
5. The contingency allowances established to cover unforeseen costs on your project have
been set at 8% of total project cost. The total dollars in the contingency allowances are
_____ as the project nears completion.
A) Retained at the remaining dollar level
B) Reduced to reflect a percentage of the remaining work
C) Decreased to reduce the accounting work
D) Spent to ensure there is no extra money shown in the budget
6. Tools and techniques for Team Development include all except:
A. Team-building activities
B. General management skills
C. Role and responsibility assignments
D. Rewards and recognition systems
4-84
Test 4
.....
S A M P L E TE S T 4
Test 4 4-85
S A M P L E TE S T 4
10. As the leader of a project team, the project manager may be required to assess the
competencies of his or her team members. Occasionally, some weaknesses or areas for
improvement will be identified. The project manager should:
A. Remove any team members who have demonstrated weaknesses in critical knowledge
areas
B. Communicate those weaknesses and establish a performance improvement program
C. Hire additional resources to compensate for weak areas
D. Wait for the team members to fail in an assignment to justify termination
11. Which is not a part of the cost budgeting process?
A. Project Schedule
B. Cost estimates
C. Resource requirements
D. WBS
12. _______________ ensures that project objectives are met by monitoring and measuring
progress and taking corrective action when necessary.
A. Project controls
B. Controlling process
C. Control logs
D. Project chart
13. Staffing requirements do not define:
A. What types of skills are required
B. What time frames
C. What kinds of individuals or groups
D. What type of resource planning is required
4-86
Test 4
.....
S A M P L E TE S T 4
14. What are the tools & techniques of Project Plan Execution?
A. General Management skills, product skills and knowledge, work authorization system,
status review meetings, project management information system (PMIS) and
organizational procedures
B. General Skills, product skills and knowledge, work authorization system, status review
meetings, project management information system (PMIS) and organizational procedures
C. General management skills, project skills and knowledge, work authorization system,
lessons learned, project management information system (PMIS) and organizational
procedures
D. General management skills, product skills and knowledge, work authorization system,
status review meetings, project management information system (PMIS) and lessons
learned based on historical information
15. You are working in a country where it is customary to exchange gifts between contractor
and customer. Your company code of conduct clearly states that you cannot accept gifts
from any client. Failure to accept the gift from this client may result in termination of the
contract. The action to take in this case would be:
A. Provide the customer with a copy of your company code of conduct and refuse the
gifts.
B. Exchange gifts with the customer and keep the exchange confidential
C. Contact your project sponsor and /or your legal office for assistance.
D. Ask the project sponsor or project executive to exchange gifts.
Test 4 4-87
S A M P L E TE S T 4
PV
EV
AC
$10,000
$12,000
$15,000
A. -$3,000
B. $5,000
C. $3,000
D. -$2,000
17. As part of your project plan you must develop an effective method of communication for
your multinational team of stakeholders. You have several choices of media available.
The appropriate action to take in the development of the communication plans would be
to:
A. Discuss the available options with the stakeholders and obtain their input
B. Use the standard media that has been in effect for your previous projects
C. Use multiple forms of media to ensure that everyone receives the information
D. Obtain additional funding from the project sponsor and develop a project specific
communications infrastructure.
18. Which of the following is not one of the Risk Management processes?
A. Risk identification
B. Risk quantification
C. Risk assessment
D. Risk response planning
4-88
Test 4
.....
S A M P L E TE S T 4
19. A fundamental tenet of modern quality management holds that quality is most likely to be
achieved by:
A. Planning it into the project
B. Developing final inspections for quality
C. Striving to do the best job possible
D. Conducting quality circle activities
20. Which of the following is a primary motivational tool of McGregor's Theory X?
A. Trust
B. Safety
C. Self Esteem
D. Self Actualization
21. Cost estimating is:
A. Assessing how much the organization will charge for the product or service
B. Assessing how much it will cost the organization to provide the product or service
C. Establishing a baseline to use in measuring project performance
D. Analyzing positive and negative variances
22. Which of the following are outputs from Project Plan Development?
A. Supporting plan and the WBS
B. Project plan and historical information
C. Project Plan and supporting detail
D. Supporting detail and lessons learned
23. When negotiating what is meant by fait accompli?
A. Pretending to show interest in the other side
B. Claiming this issue has already been decided when it hasn't
C. Means the same as acting in good faith
D. Compromised agreement
Test 4 4-89
S A M P L E TE S T 4
4-90
Test 4
.....
S A M P L E TE S T 4
Test 4 4-91
S A M P L E TE S T 4
34. The most crucial time for project risk assessment is:
A. When a problem surfaces
B. After the schedule is published
C. During the close-out phase
D. During the planning phase
35. Which of the following is not part of a modern quality management concept?
A. Performance standard is zero defects
B. Quality must be inspected in
C. 85% of failures occur because of the process, not the worker
D. Quality is a 4 cycle process - plan/do/check/act
36. An example of a conflict of interest would be:
A. As a public official you make a decision about a contract award that will benefit you
personally
B. You and a functional manager disagree with a task cost estimate
C. Your sponsor decides to cancel your project because it no longer supports the company
strategy
D. Your personality conflicts with that of a key member of your project team.
37. Core processes:
A. Can interact differently with one-another, depending on the nature of the project
B. Have clear dependencies
C. Must be preformed simultaneously
D. Are managed by the same staff members throughout the project
38. Poor scope definition may cause all but:
A. Rework
B. Increased productivity
C. Schedule delays
D. Low morale
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39. Your project is running out of cash and significant work remains. You are directed by
senior management to instruct your people to use another project's charge numbers while
working on your project. You should:
A. Follow instructions
B. Inform the corporate auditors
C. Understand the background of management's instructions before taking any action
D. Try to close down the project
40. The main difference between the two types (ADM and PDM) of the critical path method
of scheduling is the:
A. Arrow diagramming method is a more accurate method
B. Precedence diagramming method is a more accurate method
C. Placement of the activity on the logic diagram line
D. There is no difference
41. Collocation can mean:
A. All team members are moved to a central physical location for the life of the team
B. Team members work better at different locations
C. Multiple locations are connected by local area networks
D. None of the above
42. The Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) method of scheduling differs
from the Critical Path Method because the PERT method:
A. Uses bar charts instead of logic diagrams to portray the schedule
B. Uses "free float" instead of "total float" in the schedule calculations
C. Uses "dummy" activities to represent logic ties
D. Uses weighted averages of activity durations to calculate project duration
43. A key barrier to team development is:
A. When team members are accountable to both functional and project managers.
B. A strong matrix management structure.
C. When major problems delay the project completion date or budget targets.
D. When formal training plans cannot be implemented.
PMP Exam Cram Test Bank
Test 4 4-93
S A M P L E TE S T 4
4-94
Test 4
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S A M P L E TE S T 4
49. You have just changed jobs and discovered that your new employer routinely violates
OSHA/EPA and affirmative action requirements on projects. You should:
A. Do nothing; it's not your problem
B. Start by asking management if they are aware that regulations are being violated
C. Talk to the corporate legal department
D. Inform the appropriate government agencies about the violations
50. You've been engaged to manage a project with an estimated cost of $1,000,000 that has
been publicly approved by the project's sponsor. Your earned value calculations indicate
that the project will be completed on time and under budget by $200,000. Based on this
calculation, your personal profit will decrease by $2,000. You should plan to:
A. Invoice for the full amount because the budget has been made public
B. Inform the project sponsor of the projected financial outcomes
C. Add features to improve the quality without exceeding the public budget
D. Inform the end-user that you can add features without exceeding the budget
51. Possible socioeconomic influences on the project include
A. Budgetary considerations
B. Internationalization
C. Activity based costing
D. Matrix organization
52. You are negotiating with a contractor to provide the installation and integration of a
computer system with data links. The data links must access three different computer
protocols and provide a common data communication. The integration of data protocols
has never been accomplished before. Attempting to avoid risk, you would like to award a
_____ contract and the contractor will sign only a _____ contract.
A) Letter, formal
B) Fixed price, cost plus
C) Cost plus, fixed price
D) No-fault, no obligation
Test 4 4-95
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Test 4 4-97
S A M P L E TE S T 4
62. Your schedule has shown that your project has a high likelihood of experiencing a
schedule overrun. You know this because the BCWP is much:
A. High than the ACWP
B. Higher than the BCWS
C. Lower than the ACWP
D. Lower than the BCWS
63. Which is not another term for contract?
A. Agreement
B. Purchase Order
C. Proposal
D. Memorandum of Understanding
64. Which of the following is not an output of the initiation process?
A. Project charter
B. Constraints
C. Alternatives identification
D. Assignment of the PM
65. When there is uncertainty associated with one or more aspects of the project, one of the
first steps to take is to:
A. Revise project plan
B. Conduct a risk-benefit analysis
C. Conduct a needs analysis
D. Increase the estimated cost
66. A precise description of a deliverable includes a:
A. Specification
B. Baseline
C. Work package
D. WBS element
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67. Acceptance of work results is crucial to what phase of the scope management process
A. Initiation
B. Scope planning
C. Scope Change Control
D. Scope verification
68. The optimal organization structure for the project manager is:
A. Functional
B. Weak matrix
C. Projectized
D. Dedicated project team
69. Meeting with prospective sellers prior to preparation of a proposal is
A. Bidder Negotiations
B. Bidder Auction
C. Bidder Conference
D. Bidder Selection
70. The lowest level of the WBS is:
A. Control account
B. Code of accounts
C. Work Package
D. Deliverable
71. Hertzberg divided motivation factors into two classes: satisfiers and dissatisfiers.
Examples of satisfiers are:
A. Fringe benefits
B. More vacation time
C. Completion bonus
D. A sense of personal achievement
Test 4 4-99
S A M P L E TE S T 4
72. Inputs used during scope planning include all of the following except:
A. Constraints
B. Project charter
C. Product description
D. Budget/cost analysis
73. To decrease the total project duration for the least cost is called?
A. Duration compression
B. Crashing
C. Program evaluation and review technique
D. Perform either a forward and backward pass to determine the critical path
74. Change control requests:
A. Must be relayed in writing
B. Provide the baseline against which changes will be controlled
C. Are always initiated externally
D. Are inputs to integrated change control
75. Using the current date, your project schedule has a BCWS of 100. The BCWP is 110.
This tells you that your project is currently 10 percent:
A. Behind schedule
B. Over budget
C. Ahead of schedule
D. Under budget
76. Which of the following are inputs to Project Plan Development?
A. Assumptions, constraints, organizational policies, project plan and stakeholder skills
B. Assumptions, constraints, organizational policies, historical information and other
planning outputs
C. Assumptions, constraints, supporting detail, project plan and change requests
D. Assumptions, constraints, project planning methodology, project plan, supporting
detail
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77. Project sponsors have the greatest influence on the scope, quality, time, and cost of the
project during the:
A. Closeout phase
B. Development phase
C. Execution phase
D. Concept phase
78. The process of performance reporting includes all of the following except:
A. Product analysis
B. Status reporting
C. Progress reporting
D. Forecasting
79. The primary outputs of team development are:
A. Improved project performance
B. Improved team morale
C. Better performance appraisals
D. Better working conditions
80. Problem solving addresses potential problems on the project.
A. True
B. False
81. There may be implied warranties associated with a contract which are not specifically
detailed. These represent future costs for failure to meet the contract requirements, and
are a risk to the contractor. Implied warranties are usually those associated with _____, as
required in common law and legislation.
A) Operability and durability
B) Lawful use of the product and safety of use
C) Regulatory agency requirements and environmental pollution
D) Merchantability and fitness for purpose
Test 4
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Test 4
4-103
S A M P L E TE S T 4
92. Which of the following is not part of the quality assurance process?
A. Operational definitions
B. Quality policy
C. Quality audits
D. Quality improvement
93. The project schedule is not used to determine:
A. The project's budget
B. The float of the project
C. Occasional changes to the activity listing
D. The starting and finishing dates of the activities
Test 4
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S A M P L E TE S T 4
97. While reviewing the estimates from the functional managers assigned to your project you
discover that one cost estimate is clearly higher than those submitted for previous
projects. You should:
A. Reject the estimate and remove the functional manager from the project
B. Request the supporting details for the estimate to ensure it has been properly prepared.
C. Accept the estimate and plan to use the additional funding as a reserve.
D. Question each functional manager for information about this estimate.
98. Constructive team roles include:
A. Investigator, clarifier, and closer
B. Compromiser, blocker, and closer
C. Initiator, encourager, and gatekeeper
D. Investigator, recognizer, and summarizer
99. What are the inputs to project Plan Execution?
A. Project plan, work breakdown structure, organizational policies, preventive action and
corrective action
B. Project plan, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and
corrective action
C. Project plan, work results, change requests, preventive action and corrective action
D. Project skills, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and lessons
learned
100. Project Stakeholders are defined as:
A. Individuals and organizations who use the project's product
B. Individuals and organizations whose interest may be positively or negatively affected
as a result of project execution or successful project completion
C. Individuals and organizations who provide the financial resources
D. All of the above
Test 4
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S A M P L E TE S T 4
ANSWERS
ANSWERS
....................................................
1. C. 246
2. B. Closing process
3. D. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management
information system (PMIS) and earned value management (EVM)
4. C) Project manager's ability to influence the risk
5. B) Reduced to reflect a percentage of the remaining work
6. C. Role and responsibility assignments
7. A. Project plan, performance reports and change request
8. A. Used to make sure that all work required, and only the work required, is included in
order to complete the project successfully
9. B. Review the condition of employment with the new hire and advise her to reconsider
the offer.
10. B. Communicate those weaknesses and establish a performance improvement program
11. C. Resource requirements
12. B. Controlling process
13. D. What type of resource planning is required
14. A. General management skills, product skills and knowledge, work authorization system,
status review meetings, project management information system (PMIS) and
organizational procedures
15. C. Contact your project sponsor and /or your legal office for assistance.
16. A. -$3,000
17. A. Discuss the available options with the stakeholders and obtain their input
18. C. Risk assessment
19. A. Planning it into the project
20. B. Safety
21. B. Assessing how much it will cost the organization to provide the product or service
22. C. Project plan and supporting detail
23. B. Claiming this issue has already been decided when it hasn't
24. D. workers are inherently unmotivated and need strong guidance
25. B) Intuitive expert opinion
26. D. Resource planning
27. C. $29.12
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Test 4
ANSWERS
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
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S A M P L E TE S T 4
C. $5,287
A. Project organization charts, staffing management plan and project templates
C. Scope definition
A. Developing and implementing a project review and lessons learned process
D. The Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct is published by
PMI, and PMPs are expected to adhere to its standards.
D. Developing a new product or service
D. During the planning phase
B. Quality must be inspected in
A. As a public official you make a decision about a contract award that will benefit you
personally
B. Have clear dependencies
B. Increased productivity
C. Understand the background of management's instructions before taking any action
C. Placement of the activity on the logic diagram line
A. All team members are moved to a central physical location for the life of the team
D. Uses weighted averages of activity durations to calculate project duration
A. When team members are accountable to both functional and project managers.
C. Change Control Management
D) All of the above
A. Project plan updates, corrective action and lessons learned
B. Is an effective way of expanding the list of potential bidders
A. Formal procedure
B. Start by asking management if they are aware that regulations are being violated
B. Inform the project sponsor of the projected financial outcomes
B. Internationalization
B) Fixed price, cost plus
C. Risk qualification
A. Research and understand the region of experience of the stakeholder before
transmitting information
D. A and B
C) Depends upon the project's attitude toward risk
A. Economic models & comparative approaches
B. 34.13
D. It uniquely identified each element of the WBS
Test 4
4-107
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
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ANSWERS
ANSWERS
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S A M P L E TE S T 4
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
Test 4
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4-110
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S A M P L E TE S T 4
ANSWERS
S AMPLE T EST 5
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Test 5
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11. What is not among the tools and techniques of Organizational Planning?
A. Staffing management plan
B. Templates
C. Human resource practices
D. Organizational theory
12. Performance improvements include all but:
A. Improvements in amount of overtime worked
B. Improvements in individual skills
C. Improvements in team behaviors
D. Improvements in team capabilities
13. The purpose of the PMBOK is to identify and describe knowledge and practices that must
be applied uniformly on all projects.
A. True
B. False
14. Project risk is characterized by three factors: _____.
A. Severity of impact, duration of impact and cost of impact
B. Identification, type of risk category and probability of impact
C. Risk event, risk probability and the amount at stake
D. Occurrence, frequency and cost
15. A _______ is a series of actions bringing about a result.
A. Project plan
B. Process
C. Schedule
D. Flowchart
Test 5
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21. ____________ devises and maintains a worktable scheme to accomplish the business
need that the project was undertaken to address.
A. Development process
B. Scoping process
C. Planning process
D. Information development process
22. The closing process scope includes:
A. Contract closeout
B. Final reporting
C. Punch list
D. Exit interview
23. An output of the scope change control process is:
A. Scope statement
B. Lessons learned
C. Formal acceptance
D. Work breakdown structure
24. Constraints do not include:
A. Impacts of weather
B. Organizational structure of the performing organization
C. Collective bargaining
D. Expected staff assignments
25. The optimal organization structure for the project manager is:
A. Functional
B. Weak matrix
C. Projectized
D. Dedicated project team
Test 5
5-115
S A M P L E TE S T 5
26. With triangular distribution, the low, likely and high values are 15, 20 and 40,
respectively. The mean is _____.
A. 20.0
B. 22.5
C. 25.0
D. 27.5
27. The WBS is:
A. An organization oriented family tree of the project.
B. A task oriented family tree of the project.
C. A cost centered structure of the project.
D. Only required on large complex projects where separately identifiable work packages
are difficult to construct.
28. _____________ is not one of the tools and techniques used in Contract Administration:
A. Contract change control system
B. Contract negotiation
C. Payment system
D. Performance rating
29. What are the tools and techniques of the Quantitative Risk Analysis process?
A. Checklists, flowcharting, interviewing
B. Interviewing, sensitivity analysis, decision tree analysis, simulation
C. Checklists, sensitivity analysis, decision tree analysis, information gathering
techniques
D. Interviewing, checklists, assumption analysis, risk probability impact
30. General Management encompasses all but:
A. Finance and accounting
B. Strategic planning
C. Sales and marketing
D. Developing a new product or service
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55. Risk event is the precise description of what might happen to the _____ of the project.
A. Manager
B. Detriment
C. Schedule
D. Budget
56. Which tools or techniques are not used in activity sequencing:
A. Precedence diagramming method (PDM)
B. Arrow diagramming method (ADM)
C. Expert judgment
D. Network templates
57. _________ recognizes that a project or phase should begin and commits the organization
to do so.
A. Initiating process
B. Solicitation process
C. Scoping process
D. Planning process
58. When the project team directs staff assignments, what is not considered in the selection of
a staff?
A. Previous experience
B. Staff age
C. Availability
D. Personal interest
59. The _____________ are typically defined in terms of the product and can cover the full
range of possible management concerns.
A. Resource breakdown structures
B. Change requests
C. Project selection criteria
D. Performance measurements
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60. _____________ allocating the overall costs to individual work items in order to establish
a cost baseline for measuring project performance.
A. Resource planning
B. Cost estimating
C. Cost budgeting
D. Cost control
61. Which process is not included in Project Time Management?
A. Activity definition
B. Activity sequencing
C. Schedule development & schedule control
D. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
62. A major assumption of all network scheduling methods is that activity durations must be
_____.
A. Statistically dependent
B. Variance distributed
C. Statistically independent
D. Deterministic
63. Fast Tracking is defined as:
A. A method of project scheduling
B. Linking of a project to the ongoing operations of the performing organization
C. The overlapping of project phases
D. A method of construction
64. The outputs of Contract Administration are correspondence, contract changes, and
payment requests.
A. True
B. False
Test 5
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80. A product life cycle is a series of phases whose name and number is determined by the
organization's needs regarding control of the project.
A. True
B. False
81. _____________ involves estimating the cost of individual work items:
A. Computerized
B. Bottom up estimating
C. Analogous estimating
D. Square foot
82. Characteristics of project phases are:
A. Milestones
B. Deliverables
C. Activities
D. All of the above
83. _____________ is the cost estimating technique used most frequently in the early stages
of a project.
A. Analogous estimating
B. Life-cycle costing
C. Parametric modeling
D. Bottom up estimating
84. The process of developing a written scope statement as the basis for future project
decisions is called:
A. Scope development
B. Scope planning
C. Project development
D. Project selection
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90. The contingency allowances established to cover unforeseen costs on your project have
been set at 8% of total project cost. The total dollars in the contingency allowances are
_____ as the project nears completion.
A. Reduced to reflect a percentage of the remaining work
B. Increased to meet the unidentified surprises
C. Decreased to reduce the accounting work
D. Spent to ensure there is no extra money shown in the budget
91. The major project scope management processes include:
A. Change order control
B. Initiation
C. Program evaluation
D. Scope statement
92. ____________ must be measured regularly to identify variances from the plan.
A. Stakeholder requirements
B. Project performance
C. Schedule control
D. Project controls
93. The _____________ documents the characteristics of the product or service that the
project was undertaken to create.
A. Resource plan
B. Project charter
C. Project description
D. Scope statement
94. _____________ is developing an approximation of the costs of the resources needed to
complete project activities.
A. Resource planning
B. Cost estimating
C. Cost budgeting
D. Cost control
PMP Exam Cram Test Bank
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95. _____________ is the process of formally recognizing that a new project exists or that an
existing project should continue into its next phase.
A. Project Scheduling
B. Strategic planning
C. Initiation
D. Project verification
96. Likely schedule durations for activity duration estimating are available from historical
information that is derived from the following sources except:
A. Commercial duration databases
B. Project files
C. Project team knowledge
D. Outside consultants
97. Risk management is defined as the art and science of _____ risk factors throughout the
life cycle of a project.
A. Researching, reviewing and acting on
B. Identifying, analyzing and responding to
C. Reviewing, monitoring and managing
D. Identifying, reviewing and avoiding
98. Name the ethical code you'll be required to adhere to as a PMP.
A. Project Management Policy of Ethics
B. Project Management Professional Standards
C. Project Management Code of Professional Ethics & Standards
D. Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct
99. The _____________ task relationship is defined by the activity duration:
A. Start-to-start
B. Finish-to-finish
C. Start-to-finish
D. None of the above
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Test 5
5-131
S A M P L E TE S T 5
ANSWERS
ANSWERS
....................................................
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
B. Closing process
A. Procurement planning
C. Computerized estimating
B. Solicitation
A. True
B. What are the resources are available, at what times and in what patterns
B. Scope Planning
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
A. Staffing management plan
A. Improvements in amount of overtime worked
B. False
C. Risk event, risk probability and the amount at stake
B. Process
B. Buyer
A. True
D. Histogram
B. Resource Planning
A. Cost baseline
C. Planning process
A. Contract closeout
B. Lessons learned
A. Impacts of weather
D. Dedicated project team
C. 25.0
B. A task oriented family tree of the project.
B. Contract negotiation
B. The Quantitative Risk Analysis process has four tools and techniques: interviewing,
sensitivity analysis, decision tree analysis, and simulation.
30. D. Developing a new product or service
31. B. Developing a written scope statement as the basis for future project decisions
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32. A. A group of projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits not available
from managing them individually
33. C. Constructing a building or facility
34. B. Bottom up estimating
35. C. Payment system
36. B. False
37. A. Closeout
38. A. Project scope
39. B. Project scope management
40. A. True
41. A. Historical information
42. D. "Any undertaking with a definable time frame, well-defined objectives, and consumes
both human and non-human resources with certain constraints."
43. C. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service
44. C. Expert judgment
45. D. Responsibility assignment matrix
46. A. Analogous estimating
47. D. All of the above.
48. B. Project verification
49. A. Address
50. B. Controlling process
51. D. All of the above
52. C. Describes the processes required to ensure that the project will satisfy the needs for
which it was undertaken
53. D. Executing process
54. D. What type of resource planning is required
55. B. Detriment
56. C. Expert judgment
57. A. Initiating process
58. B. Staff age
59. C. Project selection criteria
60. C. Cost budgeting
61. D. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
62. C. Statistically independent
63. C. The overlapping of project phases
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ANSWERS
64. A. True
65. A. Scope definition, Resource planning, Cost estimating, Schedule development, Activity
definition
66. A. A strong matrix organization
67. C. Parametric modeling
68. A. Cost management plan
69. D. All of the above
70. A. When team members are accountable to both functional and project managers.
71. D. Market conditions
72. B. Revisions
73. D. Uncertain occurrences
74. B. Contract
75. C. Analogous estimating
76. D. Cost control
77. A. Managing changes when they occur
78. D. All of the above
79. D. All of the above
80. B. False
81. B. Bottom up estimating
82. D. All of the above
83. A. Analogous estimating
84. B. Scope planning
85. C. A technique that uses sequential network logic for schedule development
86. B. False
87. A. Work breakdown structure
88. A. Resource planning
89. A. True
90. A. Reduced to reflect a percentage of the remaining work
91. B. Initiation
92. B. Project performance
93. C. Project description
94. B. Cost estimating
95. C. Initiation
96. D. Outside consultants
97. B. Identifying, analyzing and responding to
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ANSWERS
S AMPLE T EST 6
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1. The purpose of the PMBOK is to identify and describe knowledge and practices that must
be applied uniformly on all projects.
A. True
B. False
2. Company "A," which is highly profitable, is willing to spend $250,000 to develop a
proposal for a $1 billion contract; Company "B," which is operating at break-even, is not.
This is defined as:
A. Sources of risk
B. Potential risk events
C. Stakeholder risk tolerances
D. Expected monetary value
3. Project "A," a fast-track design-build, has a probability of scope change of 85 %, and the
probability of the project being terminated is less than 15 %. What is the probability the
project will have scope changes and not be terminated?
A. 13 %
B. 6 %
C. 100 %
D. 72 %
4. A project is defined in the PMBOK as:
A. A process of considerable scope that implements a plan
B. A group of ideas managed in a coordinated way to obtain a desired outcome
C. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service
D. A collection of activities with a beginning and an end
Test 6
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Test 6
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Test 6
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20. A regulation is a document that lays down provisions with which compliance is
mandatory.
A. True
B. False
21. Inputs to contract administration do not include:
A. Contract
B. Change requests
C. Work results
D. Market conditions
22. Cost control is concerned with:
A. Managing changes when they occur
B. Resource rates
C. Chart of accounts
D. Organizational policies
23. Project "A" has experienced difficulties in the deliveries of one of its key suppliers. It has
been estimated by the project team that, if the supplier is one week late for the next
scheduled delivery, it will cost $10,000. The probability of the supplier being late is 50
%, based on the fact that this has happened before on the project. What is the expected
monetary value of this risk event occurring:
A. $3,500
B. $4,000
C. $5,000
D. $7,500
24. _____________ evaluates overall project performance on a regular basis to provide
confidence that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards.
A. Quality planning
B. Quality assurance
C. Quality control
D. Process control
PMP Exam Cram Test Bank
Test 6
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S A M P L E TE S T 6
25. ____________ devises and maintains a worktable scheme to accomplish the business
need that the project was undertaken to address.
A. Development process
B. Scoping process
C. Planning process
D. Information development process
26. Constraints do not include:
A. Impacts of weather
B. Organizational structure of the performing organization
C. Collective bargaining
D. Expected staff assignments
27. Tool and techniques for Risk Identification include all but:
A. Checklists
B. Risk assessment
C. Flowcharting
D. Interviewing
28. Which is not a tool or technique for Source Selection:
A. Contract negotiation
B. Weighting system
C. Payment system
D. Screening system
29. A key barrier to team development is:
A. When team members are accountable to both functional and project managers.
B. A strong matrix management structure.
C. When major problems delay the project completion date or budget targets.
D. When formal training plans cannot be implemented.
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Test 6
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35. A product life cycle is a series of phases whose name and number is determined by the
organization's needs regarding control of the project.
A. True
B. False
36. The project management team must be careful not to confuse quality with grade. Grade
is:
A. A system to measure operational planning techniques
B. A category for quality improvement
C. A rank given to entities having the same functional use but different requirements for
quality
D. A check list for quality management techniques
37. Problem solving addresses potential problems on the project.
A. True
B. False
38. _____________ can be shared by team members through a variety of methods including
manual filing systems, electronic text databases, project management software, and
systems which allow access to technical documentation such as engineering drawings.
A. Informational retrieval systems
B. Informational distribution systems
C. Project records
D. Project informational systems
39. __________ coordinates people and other resources to carry out the plan.
A. Work Breakdown Structure
B. Resource planning
C. Resource leveling
D. Executing process
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Test 6
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50. _______________ ensures that project objectives are met by monitoring and measuring
progress and taking corrective action when necessary.
A. Project controls
B. Controlling process
C. Control logs
D. Project chart
51. In the phase sequence defined by project life cycles, a phase is not begun until all
deliverables are approved from the preceding phase.
A. True
B. False
52. _____________ is a structured tool, usually industry- or activity-specific, used to verify
that a set of required steps has been performed.
A. Process control model
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Checklist
D. Project plan
53. Name the ethical code you'll be required to adhere to as a PMP.
A. Project Management Policy of Ethics
B. Project Management Professional Standards
C. Project Management Code of Professional Ethics & Standards
D. Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct
54. _____________ monitors specific project results to determine if they comply with
relevant quality standards and identifies ways to eliminate causes of unsatisfactory
performance.
A. Quality planning
B. Quality assurance
C. Quality control
D. Process control
Test 6
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65. ____________ makes the needed information available to project stakeholders in a timely
manner.
A. Executive management updates
B. Project status reports
C. Information distribution
D. Process control
66. Which is not input to Risk Identification:
A. Historical information
B. Cost estimates
C. Product information
D. Checklists
67. What is not among the tools and techniques of Organizational Planning?
A. Staffing management plan
B. Templates
C. Human resource practices
D. Organizational theory
68. _____________ is an analytical technique which helps identify which variables have the
most influence on the overall outcome.
A. Critical path method
B. Contemporaneous scheduling
C. Design of experiments
D. Benchmarking
69. _____________ is the most accurate cost estimating technique.
A. Computerized
B. Bottom up estimating
C. Analogous estimating
D. Square foot
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70. For project "B," with a triangular distribution, what is the project mean:
Project "B" Activities
LOW
MOST LIKELY
HIGH
Gather requirements
40
45
80
Write specifications
35
50
100
Review specifications
10
15
30
Build model
18
25
50
Inspect model
10
20
40
10
25
60
Resolve defects/issues
15
20
40
A. 216
B. 225
C. 246
D. 400
71. An input to the quality assurance process is:
A. Customer satisfaction
B. Quality management plan
C. Product description
D. Standards and regulations
72. What document outlines the action steps to be taken if an identified risk event should
occur:
A. Risk management plan
B. Project plan
C. Corrective action plan
D. Contingency plan
Test 6
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Test 6
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83. Tools and techniques for Risk Response Development do not include:
A. Procurement
B. Expert judgment
C. Insurance
D. Alternative strategies
84. A program is defined in the PMBOK as:
A. A group of projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits not available
from managing them individually
B. A number of subprojects divided into manageable components enabling a project team
to ensure the completion of a desired outcome
C. A project plan developed by key management personnel to obtain a desired outcome
D. The means to subdivide the project into manageable segments
85. _____________ are meetings held to assess project status or progress.
A. Performance reviews
B. Status reviews
C. Weekly progress meetings
D. Progress informational update meetings
86. Outputs to Risk Response Development do not include:
A. Reserves
B. Corrective action plan
C. Contractual agreements
D. Risk management plan
87. An example of a project is:
A. Billing customers
B. Managing an organization
C. Constructing a building or facility
D. Providing technical support
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88. Tools and techniques for Team Development include all except:
A. Team-building activities
B. General management skills
C. Role and responsibility assignments
D. Rewards and recognition systems
89. ____________ must be measured regularly to identify variances from the plan.
A. Stakeholder requirements
B. Project performance
C. Schedule control
D. Project controls
90. Project procurement management is discussed from the perspective of the
_____________ in the project:
A. Owner
B. Buyer
C. Seller
D. Stakeholder and the vendor
91. The outputs of Contract Administration are correspondence, contract changes, and
payment requests.
A. True
B. False
92. Quality is defined as:
A. The totality of characteristics of an entity that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or
implied needs
B. Verifying the customers requirements are met
C. Meeting the project quality checklist without flaws
D. Satisfying the customers' needs within the stakeholders' budget
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93. Project quality management must address both the _____________ of the project, and the
_____________ of the project.
A. Quality, schedule
B. Objectives, organization
C. Management, product
D. Customer requirements stakeholders
94. A key input to quality planning that documents major project deliverables as well as the
project objectives is:
A. Control charts
B. Quality tolerance checklist
C. Scope statement
D. Product description
95. _____________ is the overall intentions and direction of an organization with regard to
quality, as formally expressed by top management.
A. Top-down reporting
B. Project management procedure
C. Quality policy
D. Quality assurance
96. Project Scope Management includes which processes:
A. Initiation
B. Project Plan Execution
C. Overall Change Control
D. Performance Reporting
97. Which of the following is best for handling cross-functional project needs for a large,
complex project?
A. A strong matrix organization
B. A project coordinator
C. A project expeditor
D. Direct executive involvement
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Test 6
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ANSWERS
ANSWERS
....................................................
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
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Test 6
B. False
C. Stakeholder risk tolerances
D. 72 %
C. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service
C. Parametric modeling
A. Cost baseline
A. Risk management plan
D. All of the above
B. Solicitation process
D. What type of resource planning is required
C. The overlapping of project phases
D. Historical data
B. Flowchart
D. All of the above
C. Risk qualification
B. Reward and recognition systems
D. All of the above
D. Performance reporting
D. All of the above
A. True
D. Market conditions
A. Managing changes when they occur
C. $5,000
B. Quality assurance
C. Planning process
A. Impacts of weather
D. Interviewing
C. Payment system
A. When team members are acountable to both functional and project managers.
D. Responsibility assignment matrix
D. Benchmarking
D. Cost control
ANSWERS
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
.....
S A M P L E TE S T 6
Test 6
6-159
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
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S A M P L E TE S T 6
ANSWERS
C. Information distribution
D. Checklists
A. Staffing management plan
C. Design of experiments
B. Bottom up estimating
C. 246
B. Quality management plan
D. Contingency plan
D. All of the above
B. Solicitation
C. Administrative closure
D. All of the above
B. Quality management plan
D. All of the above
D. Project quality management
D. All of the above
C. Alternative strategies
D. All of the above
B. Expert judgment
A. A group of projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits not available
from managing them individually
A. Performance reviews
B. Corrective action plan
C. Constructing a building or facility
C. Role and responsibility assignments
B. Project performance
B. Buyer
A. True
A. The totality of characteristics of an entity that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or
implied needs
C. Management, product
C. Scope statement
C. Quality policy
A. Initiation
A. A strong matrix organization
ANSWERS
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S A M P L E TE S T 6
Test 6
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6-162
Test 6
S A M P L E TE S T 6
ANSWERS
S AMPLE T EST 7
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Test 7
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S A M P L E TE S T 7
9. A packing process results a product with a mean weight of 8 ounces. The process has a
standard deviation of 0.5 ounce. What percentage of samples will weigh between 7.5 and
8 ounces?
A. 31.74
B. 34.13
C. 68.26
D. 95.46
10. Which type of cost estimate is based on individual activities?
A. Top-down
B. Bottom-up
C. Parametric
D. Analogous
11. _____________ is generally the least accurate.
A. Using stakeholders to predict cost
B. Parametric modeling
C. Analogous estimating
D. Computerized estimating
12. Which of the following is an input to the team development process?
A. General management skills
B. Inputs to performance appraisals
C. Staffing pool description
D. External feedback
13. Cost control is concerned with:
A. Managing changes when they occur
B. Resource rates
C. Chart of accounts
D. Organizational policies
Test 7
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33. You receive a contract to perform testing for an external client. After the contract is
awarded, the customer provides you with the test matrix to use for your 16 tests. The vice
president for engineering says that the customer's test matrix is wrong, and she will use a
different test matrix, which should give better results. This is a violation to the SOW. You
should:
A. Use the customer's test matrix
B. Listen to your boss because youre worried he might fire you
C. Use the matrix your boss suggested and not discuss further with the customer
D. Ask your sponsor for clarification, assuming that the vice president is not your sponsor
34. Project management process can be organized into:
A. Initiating process
B. Planning process
C. Controlling and executing process
D. All of the above
35. ____________ formalizes the acceptance of the project or phase and bringing it to an
orderly end.
A. Punch list
B. Closing process
C. Project completion checklist
D. Stakeholder buyoff
36. In order to balance the needs of the many stakeholders involved in your project the most
desirable method to achieve resolution of conflicts would be:
A. Compromise
B. Forcing
C. Controlling
D. Confrontation
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37. In which organizational structure is the project manager likely to have the most authority?
A. Functional
B. Weak Matrix
C. Projectized
D. Strong Matrix
38. Which theory specifies money as an important employee motivator?
A. Theory X
B. Theory Y
C. Theory Z
D. Theory Q
39. Which of the following is not part of the quality assurance process?
A. Operational definitions
B. Quality policy
C. Quality audits
D. Quality improvement
40. Project Scope Management is:
A. Used to make sure that all work required, and only the work required, is included in
order to complete the project successfully
B. The features to be included in a product or service
C. Is synonymous with change control management
D. Is conducted primarily by external stakeholders
41. The contract type that represents the greatest risk to the buyer is:
A. CPPC
B. FPI
C. CPIF
D. CPFF
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42. Which of the following is not part of a modern quality management concept?
A. Performance standard is zero defects
B. Quality must be inspected in
C. 85% of failures occur because of the process, not the worker
D. Quality is a 4 cycle process - plan/do/check/act
43. Inputs to Integrated Change Control include:
A. Project plan, performance reports and change request
B. Project plan, performance reports and lessons learned
C. Project plan, project reports and change request
D. Product plan, performance reports and change request
44. Which is not a facilitating process?
A. Solicitation planning
B. Quality planning
C. Communications planning
D. Resource planning
45. The outputs of Contract Administration are correspondence, contract changes, and
payment requests.
A. True
B. False
46. The lowest level of the WBS is:
A. Control account
B. Code of accounts
C. Work Package
D. Deliverable
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47. __________ coordinates people and other resources to carry out the plan.
A. Work Breakdown Structure
B. Resource planning
C. Resource leveling
D. Executing process
48. Fast Tracking is defined as:
A. A method of project scheduling
B. Linking of a project to the ongoing operations of the performing organization
C. The overlapping of project phases
D. A method of construction
49. The integrity of the project manager is often challenged by stakeholders who attempt to
use personal power or influence to change the scope of an agreed upon deliverable. In
these situations the project manager's most appropriate response would be:
A. Refer the stakeholder to the process for change documented in the approved contract.
B. Agree to the change because customer satisfaction is the goal regardless of cost.
C. Contact the legal department and suspend all further project work
D. Determine the risks and rewards for implementing the change before taking any action.
50. _____________ is controlling changes to the budget.
A. Resource planning
B. Cost estimating
C. Cost budgeting
D. Cost control
51. Based on the life cycle model of the typical project, which stage is expected to experience
the highest resource usage?
A. Initial phase(s)
B. Intermediate phase(s)
C. Closing phase(s)
D. Staffing phase(s)
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56. Project Managers can contribute to their organization's knowledge base and to the
profession of project management most effectively by:
A. Developing and implementing a project review and lessons learned process
B. Establishing strict guidelines for protecting intellectual property
C. Promote the use of ad hoc project management
D. Ensuring that all project plans are developed before the project team is formed
57. What are outputs of Project Plan Execution?
A. Work results and status review meetings
B. Work results, change requests and lessons learned
C. Work results and project knowledge
D. Work results and change requests
58. Company "A," which is highly profitable, is willing to spend $250,000 to develop a
proposal for a $1 billion contract; Company "B," which is operating at break-even, is not.
This is defined as:
A. Sources of risk
B. Potential risk events
C. Stakeholder risk tolerances
D. Expected monetary value
59. Using the chart below, what is the cost variance?
PV
EV
AC
$10,000
$12,000
$15,000
A. -$3,000
B. $5,000
C. $3,000
D. -$2,000
Test 7
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64. ____________ must be measured regularly to identify variances from the plan.
A. Stakeholder requirements
B. Project performance
C. Schedule control
D. Project controls
65. Which of the following are outputs from Project Plan Development?
A. Supporting plan and the WBS
B. Project plan and historical information
C. Project Plan and supporting detail
D. Supporting detail and lessons learned
66. You have been assigned as the project manager to two projects. Because of the nature of
the projects, you have a conflict of interest. You should:
A. Do nothing and tell no one
B. Ask to be removed from one of the projects
C. Inform your clients and ask them to settle it
D. Inform your sponsor and ask for his advice
67. ____________ devises and maintains a worktable scheme to accomplish the business
need that the project was undertaken to address.
A. Development process
B. Scoping process
C. Planning process
D. Information development process
68. The process of identifying and defining a product or service is called:
A. Procurement planning
B. Source selection
C. Contract administration
D. Contract closeout
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74. _____________ involves determining what quantities are to be used to perform project
activities.
A. Resource planning
B. Cost estimating
C. Cost budgeting
D. Cost control
75. A RAM is defined as:
A. Random access memory
B. Rapid air movement
C. Responsibilities and methods
D. Responsibility assignment matrix
76. Tools & techniques for risk identification include
A.. Decision tree analysis, information-gathering techniques, checklists, assumptions
analysis, diagramming techniques
B. Documentation reviews, information-gathering techniques, checklists, assumptions
analysis, diagramming techniques
C. Periodic risk response audits, information-gathering techniques, checklists,
assumptions analysis, diagramming techniques
D. Risk probability and impact, information-gathering techniques, checklists,
assumptions analysis, diagramming techniques
77. Project Stakeholders are defined as:
A. Individuals and organizations that use the project's product
B. Individuals and organizations whose interest may be positively or negatively affected
as a result of project execution or successful project completion
C. Individuals and organizations that provide the financial resources
D. All of the above
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Test 7
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Test 7
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ANSWERS
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S A M P L E TE S T 7
ANSWERS
....................................................
1. B. Assumptions, constraints, organizational policies, historical information and other
planning outputs
2. B. Assessing how much it will cost the organization to provide the product or service
3. B. Corrective action plan
4. D. Dedicated project team
5. B. Internationalization
6. C. Parametric modeling
7. A. A group of projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits not available
from managing them individually
8. B. Controlling process
9. B. 34.13
10. B. Bottom-up
11. C. Analogous estimating
12. D. External feedback
13. A. Managing changes when they occur
14. D. What type of resource planning is required
15. A. Cost management plan
16. C. Resource requirements
17. C. Transference
18. D. Stakeholder analysis
19. C. Duration compression
20. D. Administrative closure
21. A. IFQ
22. B. False
23. B. Training
24. B. Safety
25. C. Scope definition
26. C. Contact your project sponsor and /or your legal office for assistance.
27. B. Process
28. A. Cost baseline
29. C. Risk qualification
30. B. Planning facilitating processes
31. C. Change Control Management
PMP Exam Cram Test Bank
Test 7
7-185
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
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ANSWERS
.....
S A M P L E TE S T 7
ANSWERS
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
C. Physiological
B. Project performance
C. Project plan and supporting detail
D. Inform your sponsor and ask for his advice
C. Planning process
A. Procurement planning
A. Managing a project in terms of its objective through the concept, development,
implementation, and termination phases of a project.
C. FFP
C. Matrix
C. Quality control
B. Solicitation process
A. Resource planning
D. Responsibility assignment matrix
B. Documentation reviews, information-gathering techniques, checklists, assumptions
analysis, diagramming techniques
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
D. Interviewing
B. False
C. Fast tracking
B. False
A. The totality of characteristics of an entity that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or
implied needs
C. Budgeted value of work actually accomplished
D. Developing a new product or service
B. Have clear dependencies
D. All of the above
C. Risk assessment
D. Temporary, unique
C. Proposal
B. Project plan, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and
corrective action
B. Contract negotiation
C. $5,287
Test 7
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ANSWERS
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Test 7
S AMPLE T EST 8
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...................................
1. Which of the following is not a considered a failure cost?
A. Rework
B. Training
C. Rejects
D. Scrap
2. Change control requests:
A. Must be relayed in writing
B. Provide the baseline against which changes will be controlled
C. Are always initiated externally
D. Are inputs to integrated change control
3. Hertzberg divided motivation factors into two classes: satisfiers and dissatisfiers.
Examples of satisfiers are:
A. Fringe benefits
B. More vacation time
C. Completion bonus
D. A sense of personal achievement
4. Tools and techniques for Team Development include all except:
A. Team-building activities
B. General management skills
C. Role and responsibility assignments
D. Rewards and recognition systems
5. Project Stakeholders are defined as:
A. Individuals and organizations who use the project's product
B. Individuals and organizations whose interest may be positively or negatively affected
as a result of project execution or successful project completion
C. Individuals and organizations who provide the financial resources
D. All of the above
Test 8
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11. ___________ ensures that project objectives are met by monitoring and measuring
progress and taking corrective action when necessary.
A. Project controls
B. Controlling process
C. Control logs
D. Project chart
12. To decrease the total project duration for the least cost is called?
A. Duration compression
B. Crashing
C. Program evaluation and review technique
D. Perform either a forward and backward pass to determine the critical path
13. The main difference between the two types (ADM and PDM) of the critical path method
of scheduling is the:
A. Arrow diagramming method is a more accurate method
B. Precedence diagramming method is a more accurate method
C. Placement of the activity on the logic diagram line
D. There is no difference
14. Which of the following are outputs from Project Plan Development?
A. Supporting plan and the WBS
B. Project plan and historical information
C. Project Plan and supporting detail
D. Supporting detail and lessons learned
15. What is the Delphi forecasting technique?
A) Regression analysis on historical information
B) Intuitive expert opinion
C) Simulation models
D) Probabilistic sensitivity analysis
Test 8
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19. For project "B," with a triangular distribution, what is the project mean?
LOW
MOST LIKELY
HIGH
Gather requirements
40
45
80
Write specifications
35
50
100
Review specifications
10
15
30
Build model
18
25
50
Inspect model
10
20
40
10
25
60
Resolve defects/issues
15
20
40
A. 216
B. 225
C. 246
D. 400
20. A project is a _____________ effort undertaken to create a _____________ product or
service.
A. Unique, temporary
B. Significant, necessary
C. Organized, profitable
D. Temporary, unique
21. Possible socioeconomic influences on the project include
A. Budgetary considerations
B. Internationalization
C. Activity based costing
D. Matrix organization
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22. You are negotiating with a contractor to provide the installation and integration of a
computer system with data links. The data links must access three different computer
protocols and provide a common data communication. The integration of data protocols
has never been accomplished before. Attempting to avoid risk, you would like to award a
_____ contract and the contractor will sign only a _____ contract.
A) Letter, formal
B) Fixed price, cost plus
C) Cost plus, fixed price
D) No-fault, no obligation
23. An example of a conflict of interest would be:
A. As a public official you make a decision about a contract award that will benefit you
personally
B. You and a functional manager disagree with a task cost estimate
C. Your sponsor decides to cancel your project because it no longer supports the company
strategy
D. Your personality conflicts with that of a key member of your project team.
24. Intellectual property rights assigned to an individual by means of a patent or copyright
have value to the owner. Any infringement on those rights during the implementation of a
project can have the following affect:
A) Cause a lawsuit to be initiated for damages
B) Cause the project to be halted pending a legal determination of property rights
C) Cause damages to be awarded to the holder of a patent
D) All of the above
25. Characteristics of a code of account are:
A. It includes work packages
B. It is a numbering system
C. It is the same as a cost account
D. It uniquely identified each element of the WBS
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41. Acceptance of work results is crucial to what phase of the scope management process
A. Initiation
B. Scope planning
C. Scope Change Control
D. Scope verification
42. Problem solving addresses potential problems on the project.
A. True
B. False
43. Which of the following is not part of a modern quality management concept?
A. Performance standard is zero defects
B. Quality must be inspected in
C. 85% of failures occur because of the process, not the worker
D. Quality is a 4 cycle process - plan/do/check/act
44. The scope management plan includes:
A. An assessment of the stability of the project scope
B. How changes will be integrated into the project
C. A clear description of how scope changes will be identified and classified
D. All of the above
45. The process of performance reporting includes all of the following except:
A. Product analysis
B. Status reporting
C. Progress reporting
D. Forecasting
46. ____________ formalizes the acceptance of the project or phase and bringing it to an
orderly end.
A. Punch list
B. Closing process
C. Project completion checklist
D. Stakeholder buyoff
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57. Using the current date, your project schedule has a BCWS of 100. The BCWP is 110.
This tells you that your project is currently 10 percent:
A. Behind schedule
B. Over budget
C. Ahead of schedule
D. Under budget
58. Which is not a part of the cost budgeting process?
A. Project Schedule
B. Cost estimates
C. Resource requirements
D. WBS
59. Scope change is defined as:
A. Change in project personnel
B. Change in technical specifications
C. Modification to the agreed upon project scope as defined in the WBS
D. Modification to the project product as defined in the WSB
60. Based on the life cycle model of the typical project, which stage is expected to experience
the highest resource usage?
A. Initial phase(s)
B. Intermediate phase(s)
C. Closing phase(s)
D. Staffing phase(s)
61. Which of the following is not one of the Risk Management processes?
A. Risk identification
B. Risk quantification
C. Risk assessment
D. Risk response planning
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80. The most crucial time for project risk assessment is:
A. When a problem surfaces
B. After the schedule is published
C. During the close-out phase
D. During the planning phase
81. Inputs to Integrated Change Control include:
A. Project plan, performance reports and change request
B. Project plan, performance reports and lessons learned
C. Project plan, project reports and change request
D. Product plan, performance reports and change request
82. Project Managers can contribute to their organization's knowledge base and to the
profession of project management most effectively by:
A. Developing and implementing a project review and lessons learned process
B. Establishing strict guidelines for protecting intellectual property
C. Promote the use of ad hoc project management
D. Ensuring that all project plans are developed before the project team is formed
83. Project risk through liability comes in two forms: breach of contract and tort. Breach of
contract is essentially a failure to perform the service or provide the required product. A
tort is a personal wrong and includes _____.
A) An automobile accident
B) An accident on commercial premises
C) Slander or libel
D) All of the above
84. Procurement documents should be structured to:
A. Describe the desired form of response
B. Include a complete statement of work
C. Outline cost criteria
D. A and B
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D. Budget/cost analysis
90. Using the chart below, what is the cost variance?
PV
EV
AC
$10,000
$12,000
$15,000
A. -$3,000
B. $5,000
C. $3,000
D. -$2,000
91. Meeting with prospective sellers prior to preparation of a proposal is
A. Bidder Negotiations
B. Bidder Auction
C. Bidder Conference
D. Bidder Selection
92. Project sponsors have the greatest influence on the scope, quality, time, and cost of the
project during the:
A. Closeout phase
B. Development phase
C. Execution phase
D. Concept phase
93. A fundamental tenet of modern quality management holds that quality is most likely to be
achieved by:
A. Planning it into the project
B. Developing final inspections for quality
C. Striving to do the best job possible
D. Conducting quality circle activities
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94. Your schedule has shown that your project has a high likelihood of experiencing a
schedule overrun. You know this because the BCWP is much:
A. High than the ACWP
B. Higher than the BCWS
C. Lower than the ACWP
D. Lower than the BCWS
95. Assigning values of risk for a project is best accomplished through structured
methodologies that ensure all project elements are evaluated. The project tool that is best
suited to start the structured analysis of project risk is the _____.
A) Contract
B) Specification
C) Statement of work
D) Work breakdown structure
96. What are the tools and techniques for project plan development?
A. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management
information system (PMIS) and the work breakdown structure
B. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management
information system (PMIS) and historical information
C. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management
information system (PMIS) and the project plan
D. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management
information system (PMIS) and earned value management (EVM)
97. Benefit measurement methods for selecting a project include:
A. Economic models & comparative approaches
B. Economic models & linear programming methods
C. Linear programming methods & cost basis models
D. Linear programming models & economic models
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98. Risk of property loss may be transferred to an insurance company. The project manager
can calculate the ratio of insurance premium to the Expected value of a loss, to make an
informed decision about buying insurance. For example, if the insurance premium is
$10,000, value of the property is $200,000 and probability of loss is 4%, the insurance:
A) Is desirable because it will cost less than the probable losses
B) Is undesirable because it costs more than the probable losses
C) Depends upon the project's attitude toward risk
D) Is indeterminable because of insufficient data
99. What are the outputs of Project Plan Execution?
A. Work results and status review meetings
B. Work results, change requests and lessons learned
C. Work results and project knowledge
D. Work results and change requests
100. Outputs of Integrated Change Control include:
A. Project plan updates, corrective action and lessons learned
B. Project plan updates, performance updates and lessons learned
C. Project plan updates, corrective action and work breakdown structure
D. Project plan updates, corrective action and progress meetings
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ANSWERS
....................................................
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
B. Training
D. Are inputs to integrated change control
D. A sense of personal achievement
C. Role and responsibility assignments
D. All of the above
C. Is used to manage project execution
A. The project's budget
C. Understand the background of management's instructions before taking any action
B. Communicate those weaknesses and establish a performance improvement program
B. Increased productivity
B. Controlling process
B. Crashing
C. Placement of the activity on the logic diagram line
C. Project plan and supporting detail
B) Intuitive expert opinion
D. Developing a new product or service
C. $29.12
C. Contact your project sponsor and /or your legal office for assistance.
C. 246
D. Temporary, unique
B. Internationalization
B) Fixed price, cost plus
A. As a public official you make a decision about a contract award that will benefit you
personally
D) All of the above
D. It uniquely identified each element of the WBS
B. Assumptions, constraints, organizational policies, historical information and other
planning outputs
B. False
D. Dedicated project team
D. Resource planning
D) Merchantability and fitness for purpose
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31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
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ANSWERS
C. Scope definition
D. Increase the estimated cost
B. Quality policy
D. workers are inherently unmotivated and need strong guidance
C. Alternatives identification
C. All of the above
D. Uses weighted averages of activity durations to calculate project duration
C. Risk qualification
B. 34.13
B. Claiming this issue has already been decided when it hasn't
D. Scope verification
B. False
B. Quality must be inspected in
D. All of the above
A. Product analysis
B. Closing process
C. Proposal
D. What type of resource planning is required
C. Initiator, encourager, and gatekeeper
B. Assessing how much it will cost the organization to provide the product or service
A. All team members are moved to a central physical location for the life of the team
C. The overlapping of project phases
A. Project organization charts, staffing management plan and project templates
B. Is an effective way of expanding the list of potential bidders
B. Review the condition of employment with the new hire and advise her to reconsider
the offer.
B. Safety
C. Ahead of schedule
C. Resource requirements
C. Modification to the agreed upon project scope as defined in the WBS
B. Intermediate phase(s)
C. Risk assessment
A. Specification
A. Research and understand the region of experience of the stakeholder before
transmitting information
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ANSWERS
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4. Which of the following statements are true about the work breakdown structure?
a. Each level represents an increasing level of detail
b. The work breakdown structure is deliverable oriented
c. The work breakdown structure is a detailed management process
d. None of the above
5. Examples of team building activities include:
a. Establishing ground rules for dealing with conflict.
b. Regular progress reviews.
c. Periodic social events for team members.
d. All of the above
6. Resource planning involves determining what ____________ resources and what
_______________ of each should be used and when they would be needed to perform project
activities.
a. Physical resources, quantities
b. Quantities, physical resources
c. Dynamic resources, parametric modeling technique
d. Parametric modeling, dynamic resources
7. _________ is the formal procedure for sanctioning project work to ensure it is done at the right
time.
a. Organizational procedures
b. Status review
c. Work-authorization system
d. Project planning
8. Inputs to Integrated Change Control include:
a. Project plan, performance reports and lessons learned
b. Project plan, project reports and change request
c. Product plan, performance reports and change request
d. Project plan, performance reports and change request
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9. A tool and technique of quality control that keeps errors from reaching the client is
a. Corrective action
b. Inspection
c. Product scope management
d. Product quality management
10. The risk management plan us a major component of
a. The procurement plan
b. The project charter
c. The project plan
d. The project scope
11. Characteristics of a code of accounts are
a. It uniquely identified each element of the work breakdown structure
b. It includes work packages
c. It is a numbering system
d. All of the above
12. Procurement planning is the process of identifying which project needs can best be met by
procuring products or services outside the project organization. When should this effort be
accomplished?
a. After contract negotiation
b. During the scope definition effort
c. During the cost definition effort
d. While creating the work breakdown structure
13. Inputs to contract closeout include
a. Contract documentation
b. Contract Updates
c. Procurement audits
d. Procurement management plans
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19. When the project does not obtain products and services from outside the performing
organization, the processes from solicitation planning through contract closeout would
a. Still be performed
b. Would not be performed
c. Would be performed in stages
d. Would be associated with the work breakdown stages
20. The SPI, which is used to estimate project completion date, is calculated by?
a. EV/PV
b. EV/AC
c. ACWS/PV
d. PV/EV
21. The overall duration of the project schedule is not influenced by:
a. Using the arrow diagramming method instead of the precedence diagramming method
(PDM) of scheduling.
b. Using discretionary dependencies as constraints.
c. The availability of the resources which are assigned to perform the work.
d. The capabilities of the resources which are assigned to perform the work.
22. Response development is sometimes referred to as
a. Response planning & risk mitigation
b. Reponses planning and risk control
c. Risk control and response mitigation
d. Risk mitigation and response control
23. The terms strong matrix, balanced matrix, and weak matrix when applied to the matrix structure
in project organization refer to thea. Ability of the organization to achieve its goals
b. Degree of authority the project manager has over team resources
c. Physical proximity of project team members to one another and to the project manager
d. Degree to which team members bond together
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29. The main difference between the two types (ADM and PDM) of the critical path method (CPM)
of scheduling is the:
a. Arrow diagramming method (ADM) is a more accurate method.
b. Arrow diagramming method (ADM)-a deterministic method whereas the precedence
diagramming method (PDM) is a probabilistic method.
c. Precedence diagramming method (PDM) is a deterministic method whereas the arrow
diagramming method (ADM) is a probabilistic method.
d. Placement of the activity on the logic diagram line.
30. Tools and techniques of performance reporting include
a. Performance reviews, variance analysis, trend analysis, earned value analysis, information
distribution tools and techniques
b. Performance reviews, trend analysis, earned value analysis, information distribution tools
and techniques, work breakdown structure
c. Performance reviews, variance analysis, earned value analysis, external information,
information distribution tools and techniques
d. Performance reviews, variance analysis, trend analysis, earned value analysis, information
retrieval systems
31. Inputs to scope definition include
a. Scope requests, constraints, assumptions, other planning outputs, historical information
b. Scope statements, scope statement updates, other planning outputs, historical information
c. Scope statements, constraints, assumptions, other planning outputs, historical information
d. Scope statements, scope measurement plan, other planning outputs, historical information
32. Contracts may be called a. An agreement, a subcontract, a purchase request, memorandum of understanding
b. An agreement, a subcontract, a purchase order, understanding of purchasing request
c. An agreement, a request, a purchase order, memorandum of understanding
d. An agreement, a subcontract, a purchase order, memorandum of understanding
33. A scope change is defined as
a. Change in technical specifications
b. Modification to the agreed upon project scope as defined in the work breakdown structure
c. Change in product description
d. Change in the personnel authorization system
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46. Which of the following is not a tool or technique of project plan execution?
a. PM Information system
b. Organizational procedures
c. General management skills
d. Change control system
47. During your assignment as project manager you add a new member to your project team. This
new team member was recently hired from a competitor and offers to share a substantial
amount of proprietary information from his previous company. This information could put you
and your team in a very strong position for future business. You are aware of a non-compete
clause in the new hire's condition of employment. You should:
a. Accept the information and agree to keep it confidential between you and the new hire.
b. Review the information and only accept only what may have a direct impact on the project's
financial status.
c. Ignore the offer to share and move forward with the project
d. Review the condition of employment with the new hire and advise her to reconsider the offer.
48. Tools and techniques for scope planning include
a. Performance measurement, product analysis, benefit/cost analysis, alternative identification,
expert judgment
b. Performance reports, performance measurement, alternative identification, expert judgment
c. Project analysis, benefit/cost analysis, alternative identification, and expert judgment
d. Product analysis, benefit/cost analysis, alternative identification, expert judgment
49. What is the preferred method of verifying scope?
a. Work results
b. Inspection
c. Acceptance
d. Lessons learned
50. One way to shorten your project schedule is to assign three developers to each activity in the
project design phase instead of two. Although you are considering this approach, your design
phase project team would double in size as a result. This approach tends to a. Reduce productivity
b. Increase productivity
c. Reduce the need for quality auditing, thereby reducing overall resource costs
d. Improve production proportionately more than the increase in resources
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60. As a project manager your responsible for maintaining and ensuring integrity for all of the
following except
a. Personal integrity
b. Project integrity
c. Product integrity
d. Integrity of others
61. During closeout, many project managers tend to delay personnel reassignment because a. The team members do not want to move on to new assignments
b. They believe that no one will want to leave the project
c. The functional managers do not want the team members to return
d. They are reluctant to confront any interpersonal conflicts that may occur in the process
62. Monte Carlo analysis is
a. Not accurate
b. Rarely used
c. The basis for most schedule simulations
d. Is an estimate of the probability that a given risk will happen within a certain time frame.
63. Inputs to risk management include
a. Project charter, project plan, defined roles and responsibilities, stakeholder risk tolerance,
templates for the organization's risk management plan, and the work breakdown structure
b. Project plan, organizational risk management policies, defined roles and responsibilities,
stakeholder risk tolerance, templates for the organization's risk management plan, and the work
breakdown structure
c. Project charter, organizational risk management policies, defined roles and responsibilities,
stakeholder risk tolerance, templates for the organization's risk management plan, and the work
breakdown structure
d. Project charter, organizational risk management policies, responsibility assignment matrix,
stakeholder risk tolerance, templates for the organization's risk management plan, and the work
breakdown structure
64. The chances for successful completion of a multidisciplinary project are increased if project
team members area. Focused on individual project activities
b. Politically sensitive to top management's needs
c. Problem oriented
d. Focused on customer demands
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65. Your lead engineer estimates that a work package will most likely require 50 weeks to
complete. It could be completed in 40 weeks if all goes well, but it could take 180 weeks in the
worst case. What is the PERT estimate for he expected duration of the work package?
a. 65 weeks
b. 70 weeks
c. 75 weeks
d. 80 weeks
66. A work authorization system is a _________________ for sanctioning project work to ensure
that work is done at the right time and in the proper sequence.
a. Informal procedure
b. Exchange procedure
c. Formal procedure
d. Monitoring procedure
67. The work breakdown structure which is an output of scope definition is
a. A object-oriented grouping of project components that organizes and defines the total scope
of the project
b. A multi-oriented grouping of project components that organizes and defines the total scope
of the project
c. A deliverable-oriented grouping of project components that organizes and defines the total
scope of the project
d. Is a listing of items outside the scope management plan which will need to be included in the
project planning phase/requirements
68. Tools and techniques of procurement planning include
a. Scope statement, Product description, Procurement resources, and market conditions
b. Make-or-buy analysis, expert judgment, contract type selection
c. Make-or-buy analysis, expert judgment, contract type selection, contract
d. Scope statement, Correspondence, contract file, contract
69. Common causes of variances are a result of all of the following except:
a. Variances that are random
b. Variances that are always present
c. Variances that are predictable
d. Variances that are special
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76. Quality audits when preformed correctly will provide the following benefit(s)
a. The product of the project is fit for use and meets safety standards
b. Allow for applicable laws and standards not to adhered to
c. Corrective action is implemented continuously throughout the project
d. Quality improvements need not be identified
77. Outputs from response development could include all except?
a. Risk management plan
b. Insurance policies
c. Contingency plan
d. Corrective action
78. In dealing with the client/customer, the project manager should always a. Do whatever it takes to satisfy the customer and win additional business
b. Develop a friendly, honest, and open relationship
c. Try to maximize profits by encouraging scope creep
d. Be honest to the extent that the project organization is protected from litigation
79. The level of authority of the project manager:
a. Is dependent on corporate policies.
b. Varies considerably from company to company.
c. Is delegated by senior management.
d. All of the above.
80. You are the project manager and responsible for quality audits. You have been accused of being
a fanatic because of your practice of conducting not one, but multiple, quality audits on a
project. Which one of the following types of audits is not an example of a quality audit?
a. Internal
b. System
c. Baseline
d. Scope
81. Activity A has a duration of 3 days and begins on the morning of Monday the 4th. The
successor activity, B, has a finish-to-start relationship with A. The finish-to-start relationship
has 3 days of lag, and activity B has a duration of 4 days. Sunday is a non-workday. What can
be determined from these data?
a. Calendar time between the start of A to the finish of B is 7 days.
b. Calendar time between the start of A to the finish of B is 11 days.
c. Calendar time between the start of A to the finish of B is 12 days.
d. Calendar time between the start of A to the finish of B is 14 days.
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82. In organizing a project, a project manager must deal with conflict. Which statement is true
regarding conflict in projects?
a. Strong matrix project managers have few human resource conflicts, because they can dictate
their needs to functional managers.
b. Sources of conflict include project priorities, PERT/CPM schedules, contract administrative
procedures, and type of contract.
c. Conflict is to be avoided whenever possible.
d. A matrix form of organization can produce a lack of clear role definitions and lead to
ambiguous jurisdictions between and among functional leaders and project managers.
83. Design of experiments is an analytical technique which helps
a. Determine how various statistical data will interrelate based on results
b. Anticipate the probability that something will fail
c. Identify which variables have the most influence on the overall out come
d. Allow for random sampling
84. A scope change control defines the procedures by which the project scope may be changed. It
includes
a. Performance measurement, tracking systems, and appropriate approval level for authorizing
changes
b. Paperwork, project management information system (PMIS), and appropriate approval level
for authorizing changes
c. Paperwork, tracking systems, and appropriate approval level for authorizing changes
d. Project management information system (PMIS), change requests modification system, and
appropriate approval level for authorizing changes
85. Which of the following is true regarding schedule variances?
a. The always impact the schedule and never the cost
b. The always impact the cost
c. They sometimes impact the schedule
d. They sometimes impact the schedule and always the cost
86. When choosing the most appropriate form of project organization, the first step is toa. Produce an initial project plan and determine the functional areas responsible for each task
b. Develop a project schedule, including a top-down flowchart, and identify the functional areas
to perform each task
c. Refer to the project charter developed by top management
d. Create the WBS and let it determine the project organizational structure
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96. The project manager, when communicating with an action-oriented person shoulda. Be as brief as possible
b. Provide options, including the pros and cons
c. Remain patient
d. Speak as quickly to ensure that all the information is conveyed
97. What are the tools and techniques for project plan development?
a. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management
information system (PMIS) and the work breakdown structure
b. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management
information system (PMIS) and historical information
c. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management
information system (PMIS) and the project plan
d. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management
information system (PMIS) and earned value management (EVM)
98. The diagram which ranks defects in the order of frequency of occurrence, using a histogram to
depict 100 percent of the defects is called:
a. Bar chart
b. Critical path
c. Network chart
d. Pareto chart
99. Team development is based on thea. Individual development of each team member
b. Training provided to the project team
c. Project's organizational climate of cooperation, open communication, and trust
d. Organizational structure of the project
100. You are ready to enter a negotiating session with a group that is from Russia. The Russians have
been known to be aggressive and assertive people who like to talk much more than they like to
listen. To earn your bonus, you must not be at a disadvantage in your negotiations with them.
Therefore, you must concentrate ona. Active listening
b. Earning the trust on the other side of the negotiating table
c. Seating arrangements in the negotiating room
d. Setting and following strict time limits at each step of the negotiating process
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1. b. Documentation reviews, information-gathering techniques, checklists, assumptions
analysis, diagramming techniques
2. d. Document the dispute and refer to the provisions of the contract that address
3. c. Fast-tracking
4. b. The work breakdown structure is deliverable oriented
5. d. All of the above
6. a. Physical resources, quantities
7. c.
8. d. Project plan, performance reports and change request
9. b. Inspection
10. c. The project plan
11. d. All of the above
12. b. During the scope definition effort
13. a. Contract documentation
14. d. A sampling of a given lot must have 20 percent or fewer defects
15. c. Risk
16. b. Procurement management plan and statement of work
17. b. Screening system
18. b. Quality policy, product description, scope statement, product description standards and
regulations
19. b. Would not be performed
20. a. EV/PV
21. a. Using the arrow diagramming method instead of the precedence diagramming method
(PDM) of scheduling.
22. a. Response planning & risk mitigation
23. b. Degree of authority the project manager has over team resources
24. a. Initiation
25. d. Increased conflict
26. a. Free float is commonly referred to as "slack time," whereas total float is commonly referred
to as "float time."
27. a. Communicate those weaknesses and establish a performance improvement program
28. b. Performance measurement
29. d. Placement of the activity on the logic diagram line.
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ANSWERS
30. a. Performance reviews, variance analysis, trend analysis, earned value analysis, information
distribution tools and techniques
31. c. Scope statements, constraints, assumptions, other planning outputs, historical information
32. d. An agreement, a subcontract, a purchase order, memorandum of understanding
33. b. Modification to the agreed upon project scope as defined in the work breakdown structure
34. b. Communication requirements, communications technology, constraints, assumptions
35. d. Triggers
36. d. Ensure there is a reasonably clear and factual basis for reporting the violation
37. c. Manager external to project
38. c. Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct
39. a. Pareto like Scatter diagrams use two variables
40. b. Work results, product documentation, work breakdown structure, scope statement, project
plan
41. c. Each side may misinterpret what the other side has said
42. a. Project plan updates, corrective action and lessons learned
43. d. Risk response planning
44. a. Potential risk events
45. d. Performance reporting tools and techniques, project reports, project presentations
46. d. Change control system
47. d. Review the condition of employment with the new hire and advise her to reconsider the offer.
48. d. Product analysis, benefit/cost analysis, alternative identification, expert judgment
49. b. Inspection
50. a. Reduce productivity
51. d. As the basis for organizing and defining the total scope of the project
52. d. All of the above
53. d. All of the above
54. d. Project plan, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and corrective
action
55. a. Acceptance of the work results while quality control is primarily concerned with the
correctness of the work results.
56. c. Inspection, control charts, Pareto diagrams, statistical sampling, flow-charts, trend analysis
57. c. Hold a performance review
58. d. Moving beyond cultural stereotyping and seeing people as individuals with unique
personality traits and experiences
59. a. Subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components
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60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
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d. Integrity of others
d. They are reluctant to confront any interpersonal conflicts that may occur in the process
c. The basis for most schedule simulations
c. Project charter, organizational risk management policies, defined roles and responsibilities,
stakeholder risk tolerance, templates for the organization's risk management plan, and the work
breakdown structure
c. Problem oriented
b. 70 weeks
c. Formal procedure
c. A deliverable-oriented grouping of project components that organizes and defines the total
scope of the project
b. Make-or-buy analysis, expert judgment, contract type selection
d. Variances that are special
c. Scope definition
d. The project's budget.
d. All of the above
a. On a regular basis throughout project lifecycle
d. Work breakdown structure, resource requirements, resource rates, activity duration estimates,
estimating publications, historical information, chart of accounts, risks
c. It is a summary task at the lowest level of the Work breakdown structure
a. The product of the project is fit for use and meets safety standards
d. Corrective action
b. Develop a friendly, honest, and open relationship
d. All of the above
d. Scope
b. Calendar time between the start of A to the finish of B is 11 days.
82. d. A matrix form of organization can produce a lack of clear role definitions and lead to
ambiguous jurisdictions between and among functional leaders and project managers.
83. c. Identify which variables have the most influence on the overall out come
84. c. Paperwork, tracking systems, and appropriate approval level for authorizing changes
85. c. They sometimes impact the schedule
86. a. Produce an initial project plan and determine the functional areas responsible for each task
87. b. Definition, setting completion time, resource allotment, quality standards.
88. b. To install the plumbing and electrical work at the same time on a single family dwelling.
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ANSWERS
89. c. Discuss the available options with the stakeholders and obtain their
90. c. Improve quality in every aspect of project performance
91. b. Scope statement, Product description, Procurement resources, market conditions, other
planning outputs, constraints and assumptions
92. d. All of the above
93. d. Developed a communications plan
94. a. Performing organization
95. a. Contracts, work results, change request and seller invoices
96. a. Be as brief as possible
97. d. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management
information system (PMIS) and earned value management (EVM)
98. d. Pareto chart
99. a. Individual development of each team member
100. a. Active listening
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10
1. As the leader of a project team, the project manager may be required to assess the competencies
of his or her team members. Occasionally, some weaknesses or areas for improvement will be
identified. The project manager should:
a. Communicate those weaknesses and establish a performance improvement program
b. Remove any team members who have demonstrated weaknesses in critical knowledge areas
c. Hire additional resources to compensate for weak areas
d. Wait for the team members to fail in an assignment to justify termination
2. Scope definition is necessary to
a. Improve the accuracy of cost, time, and resource estimates
b. Facilitate clear responsibility assignments
c. Define a baseline for progress measurement and control
d. All of the above
3. Inputs to quality planning include
a. Quality policy, historical information, scope statement, product description standards and
regulations
b. Quality policy, product description, scope statement, product description standards and
regulations
c. Quality policy, quality management plan, operational definitions, product description
standards and regulations
d. Quality policy, checklists, quality management plan, product description standards and
regulations
4. What is the work breakdown structure typically used for?
a. To define the project schedule
b. To define who is responsible for completing a task
c. To manage scope change
d. As the basis for organizing and defining the total scope of the project
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5. Your lead engineer estimates that a work package will most likely require 50 weeks to
complete. It could be completed in 40 weeks if all goes well, but it could take 180 weeks in the
worst case. What is the PERT estimate for he expected duration of the work package?
a. 65 weeks
b. 70 weeks
c. 75 weeks
d. 80 weeks
6. Residual and secondary risks are outputs from
a. Risk management planning
b. Risk identification
c. Quantitative risk analysis
d. Risk response planning
7. The level of authority of the project manager:
a. Is dependent on corporate policies.
b. Varies considerably from company to company.
c. Is delegated by senior management.
d. All of the above.
8. You are managing a project to develop nutritional soda for the "under 20" market. You have
recently heard that the client calls your progress reports the "Code of Crap" because they seem
to be written in a foreign language and incomprehensible. This situation could have been
avoided bya. Informing the client at the start of the project of the types of reports they will receive
b. Using risk management techniques to identify client issues
c. Hiring an expert report writer to prepare standard reports
d. Developed a communications plan
9. A work authorization system is a _________________ for sanctioning project work to ensure
that work is done at the right time and in the proper sequence.
a. Informal procedure
b. Exchange procedure
c. Formal procedure
d. Monitoring procedure
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16. When choosing the most appropriate form of project organization, the first step is to a. Produce an initial project plan and determine the functional areas responsible for each task
b. Develop a project schedule, including a top-down flowchart, and identify the functional areas
to perform each task
c. Refer to the project charter developed by top management
d. Create the WBS and let it determine the project organizational structure
17. Characteristics of a code of accounts are
a. It uniquely identified each element of the work breakdown structure
b. It includes work packages
c. It is a numbering system
d. All of the above
18. One of the outputs of risk identification is
a. Potential risk events
b. Corrective actions
c. Alternate strategies
d. Alternative action
19. A person's negotiating skills/temperament certainly is influenced by his/her culture. However,
other factors, such as education and experience, also are at work. And over time, an individual
who is living in a culture that is different from his or her own may take on characteristics of the
new culture. This person may behave from a new frame of reference. With respect to
negotiation, this illustrates the importance ofa. Always looking at those with whom you are negotiating as members of a particular cultural
group
b. Becoming overly dependent on cultural knowledge as the cornerstone for all negotiations
c. Recognizing that cultural stereotyping should be used as a starting point for all international
negotiations
d. Moving beyond cultural stereotyping and seeing people as individuals with unique
personality traits and experiences
20. Team development is based on thea. Individual development of each team member
b. Training provided to the project team
c. Project's organizational climate of cooperation, open communication, and trust
d. Organizational structure of the project
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26. Resource planning involves determining what ____________ resources and what
_______________ of each should be used and when they would be needed to perform project
activities.
a. Physical resources, quantities
b. Quantities, physical resources
c. Dynamic resources, parametric modeling technique
d. Parametric modeling, dynamic resources
27. The main difference between the two types (ADM and PDM) of the critical path method (CPM)
of scheduling is the:
a. Arrow diagramming method (ADM) is a more accurate method.
b. Arrow diagramming method (ADM)-a deterministic method whereas the precedence
diagramming method (PDM) is a probabilistic method.
c. Precedence diagramming method (PDM) is a deterministic method whereas the arrow
diagramming method (ADM) is a probabilistic method.
d. Placement of the activity on the logic diagram line.
28. The work breakdown structure which is an output of scope definition is
a. A object-oriented grouping of project components that organizes and defines the total scope
of the project
b. A multi-oriented grouping of project components that organizes and defines the total scope
of the project
c. A deliverable-oriented grouping of project components that organizes and defines the total
scope of the project
d. Is a listing of items outside the scope management plan which will need to be included in the
project planning phase/requirements
29. The SPI, which is used to estimate project completion date, is calculated by?
a. EV/PV
b. EV/AC
c. ACWS/PV
d. PV/EV
30. Outputs of Integrated Change Control include:
a. Project plan updates, corrective action and lessons learned
b. Project plan updates, performance updates and lessons learned
c. Project plan updates, corrective action and work breakdown structure
d. Project plan updates, corrective action and progress meetings
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56. Quality audits when preformed correctly will provide the following benefit(s)
a. The product of the project is fit for use and meets safety standards
b. Allow for applicable laws and standards not to adhered to
c. Corrective action is implemented continuously throughout the project
d. Quality improvements need not be identified
57. Tools and techniques of performance reporting include
a. Performance reviews, variance analysis, trend analysis, earned value analysis, information
distribution tools and techniques
b. Performance reviews, trend analysis, earned value analysis, information distribution tools
and techniques, work breakdown structure
c. Performance reviews, variance analysis, earned value analysis, external information,
information distribution tools and techniques
d. Performance reviews, variance analysis, trend analysis, earned value analysis, information
retrieval systems
58. During project implementation the client interprets a clause in the contract to mean the he is
entitled to a substantial refund for work recently completed. You review the clause and disagree
with the client's conclusion. As the project manager which of the following actions should be
taken?
a. Disregard the customer's conclusion and continue to process invoices interpretations and
disputes
b. Advise the customer that ambiguous information in contracts is always interpreted in favor of
the contractor
c. Immediately correct the clause to remove any possible misinterpretation by the customer
d. Document the dispute and refer to the provisions of the contract that address
59. Your customer wants your project, a process to dump "bad" eggs before it reaches the store
shelves, to be completed 5 months earlier than planned. You believe you can meet this target by
overlapping project activates. The approach you plan to use is known as:
a. Concurrent engineering
b. Crashing
c. Fast-tracking
d. Leveling
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70. ____________ sometimes, called risk symptoms or warning signs, are indications that a risk
has occurred or is about to occur.
a. Assumption analysis
b. Delphi technique
c. Risk
d. Triggers
71. The risk management plan us a major component of
a. The procurement plan
b. The project charter
c. The project plan
d. The project scope
72. Design of experiments is an analytical technique which helps
a. Determine how various statistical data will interrelate based on results
b. Anticipate the probability that something will fail
c. Identify which variables have the most influence on the overall out come
d. Allow for random sampling
73. A scope change control defines the procedures by which the project scope may be changed. It
includes
a. Performance measurement, tracking systems, and appropriate approval level for authorizing
changes
b. Paperwork, project management information system (PMIS), and appropriate approval level
for authorizing changes
c. Paperwork, tracking systems, and appropriate approval level for authorizing changes
d. Project management information system (PMIS), change requests modification system, and
appropriate approval level for authorizing changes
74. Inputs to communication planning include
a. Communication requirements, communications management plan, constraints, assumptions
b. Communication requirements, communications technology, constraints, assumptions
c. Performance measurement documentation, project archives, constraints, assumptions
d. Performance measurement documentation, project archives, performance reports, change
request procedures
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75. To the extent possible, final contract language should reflect all agreements reached. Subjects
usually covered contract financing, price and
a. Responsibilities/authorities
b. Applicable terms and law
c. Technical and business management approaches
d. All of the above
76. Information typically required to determine project communications requirements include
a. Project organization and stakeholder responsibility relations
b. Disciplines, departments, and specialties involved in the project
c. External information needs
d. All of the above
77. Tools and techniques for scope planning include
a. Performance measurement, product analysis, benefit/cost analysis, alternative identification,
expert judgment
b. Performance reports, performance measurement, alternative identification, expert judgment
c. Project analysis, benefit/cost analysis, alternative identification, and expert judgment
d. Product analysis, benefit/cost analysis, alternative identification, expert judgment
78. During closeout, many project managers tend to delay personnel reassignment because a. The team members do not want to move on to new assignments
b. They believe that no one will want to leave the project
c. The functional managers do not want the team members to return
d. They are reluctant to confront any interpersonal conflicts that may occur in the process
79. The terms strong matrix, balanced matrix, and weak matrix when applied to the matrix structure
in project organization refer to thea. Ability of the organization to achieve its goals
b. Degree of authority the project manager has over team resources
c. Physical proximity of project team members to one another and to the project manager
d. Degree to which team members bond together
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80. What are the tools and techniques for project plan development?
a. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management
information system (PMIS) and the work breakdown structure
b. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management
information system (PMIS) and historical information
c. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management
information system (PMIS) and the project plan
d. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management
information system (PMIS) and earned value management (EVM)
81. Procurement planning is the process of identifying which project needs can best be met by
procuring products or services outside the project organization. When should this effort be
accomplished?
a. After contract negotiation
b. During the scope definition effort
c. During the cost definition effort
d. While creating the work breakdown structure
82. ___________ is/are an uncertain event that or condition that, if it occurs, has appositive or
negative effect on a project.
a. Assumption analysis
b. Delphi technique
c. Risk
d. Triggers
83. Risk identification should be done
a. On a regular basis throughout project lifecycle
b. Early in the planning phase
c. In the design phase
d. When creating the work breakdown structure
84. Monte Carlo analysis is
a. Not accurate
b. Rarely used
c. The basis for most schedule simulations
d. Is an estimate of the probability that a given risk will happen within a certain time frame.
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91. Which of the following statements are true about the work breakdown structure?
a. Each level represents an increasing level of detail
b. The work breakdown structure is deliverable oriented
c. The work breakdown structure is a detailed management process
d. None of the above
92. The diagram which ranks defects in the order of frequency of occurrence, using a histogram to
depict 100 percent of the defects is called:
a. Bar chart
b. Critical path
c. Network chart
d. Pareto chart
93. Inputs to contract closeout include
a. Contract documentation
b. Contract Updates
c. Procurement audits
d. Procurement management plans
94. Tools and techniques of procurement planning include
a. Scope statement, Product description, Procurement resources, and market conditions
b. Make-or-buy analysis, expert judgment, contract type selection
c. Make-or-buy analysis, expert judgment, contract type selection, contract
d. Scope statement, Correspondence, contract file, contract
95. Activity A has a duration of 3 days and begins on the morning of Monday the 4th. The
successor activity, B, has a finish-to-start relationship with A. The finish-to-start relationship
has 3 days of lag, and activity B has a duration of 4 days. Sunday is a non-workday. What can
be determined from these data?
a. Calendar time between the start of A to the finish of B is 7 days.
b. Calendar time between the start of A to the finish of B is 11 days.
c. Calendar time between the start of A to the finish of B is 12 days.
d. Calendar time between the start of A to the finish of B is 14 days.
96. Inputs to contract administration include
a. Contracts, work results, change request and seller invoices
b. Contracts, work results, scope request and seller invoices
c. Contracts, work results, contract change control system
d. Contracts, work breakdown structure, change request and seller invoices
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1. a. Communicate those weaknesses and establish a performance improvement program
2. d. All of the above
3. b. Quality policy, product description, scope statement, product description standards and
regulations
4. d. As the basis for organizing and defining the total scope of the project
5. b. 70 weeks
6. d. Risk response planning
7. d. All of the above
8. d. Developed a communications plan
9. c. Formal procedure
10. c. Scope definition
11. d. Integrity of others
12. d. Variances that are special
13. d. Project plan, performance reports and change request
14. a. Response planning & risk mitigation
15. c. Inspection, control charts, Pareto diagrams, statistical sampling, flow-charts, trend analysis
16. a. Produce an initial project plan and determine the functional areas responsible for each task
17. d. All of the above
18. a. Potential risk events
19. d. Moving beyond cultural stereotyping and seeing people as individuals with unique
personality traits and experiences
20. a. Individual development of each team member
21. b. Scope statement, Product description, Procurement resources, market conditions, other
planning outputs, constraints and assumptions
22. d. A sampling of a given lot must have 20 percent or fewer defects
23. c. Scope statements, constraints, assumptions, other planning outputs, historical information
24. d. All of the above
25. a. Active listening
26. a. Physical resources, quantities
27. d. Placement of the activity on the logic diagram line.
28. c. A deliverable-oriented grouping of project components that organizes and defines the total
scope of the project
29. a. EV/PV
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59. c. Fast-tracking
60. d. Work breakdown structure, resource requirements, resource rates, activity duration estimates,
estimating publications, historical information, chart of accounts, risks
61. d. The project's budget.
62. d. All of the above
63. d. An agreement, a subcontract, a purchase order, memorandum of understanding
64. c. They sometimes impact the schedule
65. b. Modification to the agreed upon project scope as defined in the work breakdown structure
66. c. Project charter, organizational risk management policies, defined roles and responsibilities,
stakeholder risk tolerance, templates for the organization's risk management plan, and the work
breakdown structure
67. b. Work results, product documentation, work breakdown structure, scope statement, project
plan
68. d. Review the condition of employment with the new hire and advise her to reconsider the offer.
69. c. Hold a performance review
70. d. Triggers
71. c. The project plan
72. c. Identify which variables have the most influence on the overall out come
73. c. Paperwork, tracking systems, and appropriate approval level for authorizing changes
74. b. Communication requirements, communications technology, constraints, assumptions
75. d. All of the above
76. d. All of the above
77. d. Product analysis, benefit/cost analysis, alternative identification, expert judgment
78. d. They are reluctant to confront any interpersonal conflicts that may occur in the process
79. b. Degree of authority the project manager has over team resources
80. d. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management
information system (PMIS) and earned value management (EVM)
81. b. During the scope definition effort
82. c. Risk
83. a. On a regular basis throughout project lifecycle
84. c. The basis for most schedule simulations
85. c. It is a summary task at the lowest level of the Work breakdown structure
86. d. Change control system
87. a. Initiation
88. b. Procurement management plan and statement of work
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89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
b. Inspection
d. Ensure there is a reasonably clear and factual basis for reporting the violation
b. The work breakdown structure is deliverable oriented
d. Pareto chart
a. Contract documentation
b. Make-or-buy analysis, expert judgment, contract type selection
b. Calendar time between the start of A to the finish of B is 11 days.
a. Contracts, work results, change request and seller invoices
b. Definition, setting completion time, resource allotment, quality standards.
a. Using the arrow diagramming method instead of the precedence diagramming method
(PDM) of scheduling.
99. d. Scope
100. b. Performance measurement
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