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17/11/2013

Roll No.:

Test Date:

Centre Code:

Test Booklet Code

TEST No. 2
for

JEE (Main) 2014

ES
RI

ALL

S
H TE
A
K
A
A
ST
IA

SE

IN

PAPER - I

INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATE


1. Read each question carefully.
2. It is mandatory to use Black Ball point PEN to darken the
appropriate circle in the answer sheet.
3. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
4. Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet.
5. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on
answer sheet.
6. Student cannot use log tables and calculators or any other
material in the examination hall.
7. Before attempting the question paper, student should
ensure that the test paper contains all pages and no page
is missing.
8. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator,
candidate should check that Roll No., Centre Code and
Date of Birth have been filled and marked correctly.

9. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over,


the answer sheet to be returned to the invigilator.
10. There are three parts in the question paper A, B and C
consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics
having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each
question is allotted 4 (four) marks for each correct
response.
11. The Test booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum
marks are 360.
12. One fourth () marks will be deducted for indicating
incorrect response of each question. No deduction from
the total score will be made if no response is indicated for
any question in the answer sheet.
13. Pattern of the questions are as under:
Section I : Straight Objective Questions
Section II : Assertion Reason Type Questions

Test No. 2
Paper I

TOPICS OF THE TEST

Physics

Work, Energy & Power, System of Particles and Rotational Motion

Chemistry

States of Matter, Thermodynamics, Equilibrium, Redox Reactions

Mathematics

Permutations and Combinations, Sequences and Series, Matrices,


Determinants

Test - 2 (Paper-I)

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

Time : 3 Hrs.

MM : 360

TEST - 2 (Paper-1)
PART - A (PHYSICS)
3.

SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type Questions
This section contains 25 multiple choice questions
numbered 1 to 25. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),
(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

A block is projected upward from the bottom of an


incline, having inclination , with initial speed u. The
block reaches maximum height and then comes
back to initial position with half speed.

Choose the correct answer :


1.

A system acted on by a force F move along x-axis


from x = 2R to x = R. The force has only
x-component whose variation with x is shown in
figure. The curves are arcs of circle of radius R. Find
the work done on the system

(N)Fx

The distance (L) travelled by the block, while going


up on the incline is

Direction of
motion of system

2R
R

(3)
2.

R 2
4

4.

R 2
(2)
4
(4)

3R 2
4

A 2 kg body moves under the action of force such


that its position x as a function of time t is given by
x = 5t, x is in metre and t in second. Find the work
done by force in the first one second
(1) Zero

(2) 5 J

(3) 2.5 J

(4) 10 J

5u 2
8g sin

(2)

5u 2
16g sin

(3)

4u 2
g sin

(4)

u2
4g sin

x(m)

R
3R 2
(1)
4

(1)

A pendulum bob of mass m with string length l can


swing in a vertical plane. The bob is given an initial
velocity u at the lower most position. At what initial
velocity, tension in thread and velocity of bob
become zero simultaneously
(1)

2g

(2)

4g

(3)

5g

(4)

g

Space for Rough Work

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5.

A block of mass m is released from a height h1


along a smooth track as shown in figure. Find the
safe value of radius of curvature at point 3, so that
the block does not fly off the track (Given
h1 > h2)

Test - 2 (Paper-I)
7.

A small marble ball is released from point A on a


smooth parabolic surface y = x2 as shown in figure.
The velocity of ball at point B is
[g = 10 m/s2]
A
B

hA

1
3

h1

x = 2 m

x = +1 m

h2
(1) 15 m/s

(2)

(3) 2 15 m/s

(4)

2
1
(h1 h2 )
2

(2)

(3) 2(h1 h2)

(4)

(1)

6.

2(h1 h2 )

8.

h1 h2
2

A force acting on a certain particle depends on the


particles position in the xy-plane. This force F is given
by the expression F xyi xyj N/m2 . Where x and
y are expressed in metre. The work done as the
particle moves along the straight line OC is

y(m)
(1, 0)

C (1, 1)

(1, 0)x(m)

O(0, 0)
(1) 2 J
(3)

1
J
2

(2)

3
J
2

(4)

2
J
3

9.

15
m/s
2

A single conservative force F(x) acts on a 1.0 kg


particle that moves along the x-axis. The potential
energy U(x) is given by U(x) = 20 + (x 2)2, where
x is in meters. At x = 5.0 m the particle has a
kinetic energy of 20 J. Find the greatest value of x1
up to which particle can move
(1) 8.37 m

(2) 3.38 m

(3) 7.38 m

(4) 5.24 m

In the given figure mass of block A is m and that of


B is 2m. They are attached at the ends of a spring
and kept on a smooth horizontal surface. Now, the
spring is compressed by x 0 and released. Find
displacement of block B by the time compression of
x
the spring is reduced to 0
2
A
B
m
2m

x0
(1)
3

x0
(2)
2

x0
(3)
6

x0
(4)
4

Space for Rough Work

2/14

15
m/s
2

Test - 2 (Paper-I)

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

10. Two blocks of masses m and 2m are connected by


a relaxed spring with a spring constant K. The blocks
rest on a smooth horizontal table. At t = 0, the block
on the right is given a sharp impulse J towards the
left, and the blocks begin to slide along the table.
Find the maximum compression in the spring

2m

2
(1) J
3 mk

(3) J

12. A block of mass m is released at the top of a


hemispherical wedge of mass M as shown in figure.
Find the displacement of wedge, when the block
reaches the angular position . All surfaces are
smooth
m

R
M

1
(2) J
6 mk

3
2 mk

(4) J

6
mk

11. Mass A of 2m and mass B of m are connected with


an inextensible string of length  lie on a smooth
horizontal plane. A is given a velocity of v m/s along
the ground perpendicular to line AB as shown in
figure. Find the tension in string during their
subsequent motion

(1)

mR sin
mM

(2)

mR cos
mM

(3)

MR sin
mM

(4)

MR cos
mM

B(m)

13. A block B of mass m is projected with velocity v as


shown. The ground is smooth but there is friction
between A and B. The resulting collision is elastic.
Assume that A does not fall off B, the final common
velocity of A and B is

A(2m)

B
m

(1)

3mv 2
2

(2)

mv 2
2

(3)

2mv 2
3

(4)

mv 2
3

A
m
v

B 2m

(1)

v
2

(2)

v
3

(3)

4v
9

(4)

3v
4

Space for Rough Work

3/14

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014


14. Two identical discs initially at rest are in contact on
a table. A third disc of same mass but of double
radius strikes them symmetrically and itself comes
to rest after impact. The speed of any of the smaller
disc after impact is

m
m
2R

Test - 2 (Paper-I)
16. Initial angular velocity of the system is 0 and frame
length is a. System is rotating on the vertical axle
and frame has negligible mass as compared to the
four masses each of mass m. Due to an internal
mechanism the spokes in the frame lengthen to 2a.
Find new angular velocity of the system

m
m
(1)

v
2

(2)

3v
2

(3)

2v
4

(4)

3v
4 2

m
(1) 0

(2)

30
4

0
2

(4)

0
4

(3)

17. A particle of mass 2 kg is just dropped from a certain


height. At the same time another particle of mass
1 kg is projected upwards with velocity 60 m/s. After
2 second, find the velocity of centre of mass (Take
g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 10 SI Units

15. Angular momentum of projectile, about point of


projection, when it strikes the ground is

(2) 20 SI Units
(3) Zero
(4) 15 SI Units

18. A particle of mass 2 kg has a velocity v1 t 2 j and

x
R Range on ground

(1) muR sin k


(2) muR sin k
(3) muR cos k
(4) muR cos k

another particle of mass 1 kg has a velocity v 2 2t i .


Find the net force on centre of mass at 2 s
(1) 8 units
(2) 10 units
(3) 2 units
(4)
Space for Rough Work

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68 units

Test - 2 (Paper-I)

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

19. The body is released from A. Length AB in the figure


shown is 5 m. Friction is sufficient for pure rolling to
take place. Find the maximum time which any
uniform body (which can roll) can take to reach the
bottom is

21. The disc rolls without slipping on a smooth horizontal


surface as shown. The speed of the centre C is v.
The speed of point A on the disc at the instant
shown is
(1) v

C A

(2) vcos

(3)

2v

(4) vsec

5m

22. A small sphere of mass 1 kg is rolling without


slipping with linear speed v

= 30
B
(1) 2 s

(2) 3 s

(3) 1 s

(4) 4 s

20. A solid sphere of mass 2 kg and radius 1 m is


moving on a smooth ground with linear velocity
v0 = 4 m/s and angular velocity 0 = 9 rad/s as
shown in figure

the inclined plane at point C. Find the kinetic energy


at top just before leaving the inclined plane
neglecting any impact at B and assuming no slipping
anywhere.

1m
v

m = 2 kg

0
v0
R = 1m

It collides elastically with a rough wall of coefficient


of friction and after collision with the wall rolls
without slipping in opposite direction. Find the
coefficient of friction

200
m/s . It leaves
7

30
B
100
J
7

(1) 20 J

(2)

(3) 10 J

(4) 15 J

23. The moment of inertia of a straight wire about an axis


perpendicular to the wire and passing through one of
its end is I. This wire is framed into a circle (a ring)
of single turn. The moment of inertia of this ring
about an axis passing through centre and
perpendicular to its plane would be

(1)

3
4

(2)

3
5

(1)

I
3 2

(2)

I
4 2

(3)

1
4

(4)

1
2

(3)

4I
3 2

(4)

3I
4 2

Space for Rough Work

5/14

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014


24. As shown in figure a small block of mass m = 1kg
is placed over a wedge of mass M = 4 kg. All
surfaces are smooth. Mass m is released from rest
from top position of wedge. Find the velocity of block
at the instant, it is leaving the wedge.

4m
M = 4 kg

2m

Test - 2 (Paper-I)

SECTION - II
Assertion Reason Type Questions
Directions : Questions number 26 to 30 are AssertionReason type questions. Each of these questions
contains two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and
Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has
four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct
answer. You have to select the correct choice.
26. Statement-1 : The net work done by the nonconservative forces in an isolated system equals the
change in the system's total mechanical energy.
Wnoncon = (K + U)

(1)

and

Statement-2 : The total work done by all forces


(conservative + non-conservative) equals the change
in the kinetic energy of the system.

(2) 4
(3) 4 2 m/s

Wcons + Wnoncons = K

(4) 2
25. Three identical rods of mass M and length L are
placed on one another on the table so as to produce
the maximum overhang as shown in figure. The
maximum possible overhang will be

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;


Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
27. Statement-1 : The work done by spring force
depends on the initial and final state of spring only.
and

(1)

2L
3

(2)

11L
12

L
(3)
3

(4)

13L
12

Statement-2 : The net work done by the spring force


is zero for any path that returns to the initial position.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
Space for Rough Work

6/14

Test - 2 (Paper-I)

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

28. Statement-1 : In an oblique collision between two


smooth balls, along tangential axis (along tangent to
surfaces in contact) velocity of each particle remains
unchanged.
and
Statement-2 : No contact force acts along tangential
axis for oblique collision between smooth surface.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
29. Statement-1 : The angular velocity of a rotating body
is the same relative to any point on it.
and
Statement-2 : The sense of angular velocity and
angular acceleration is always same.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;


Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
30. Statement-1 : When a wheel rolls on a horizontal
surface, any point on its circumference moves along
a curved path called cycloid.
and
Statement-2 : Distance moved by the centre in one
revolution, when a wheel rolls on a horizontal surface
is 2r.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

PART - B (CHEMISTRY)
32. Fe0.94O Fe+3, equivalent weight of reactant will
be (molecular mass of Fe0.94O is M)

SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type Questions
This section contains 25 multiple choice questions
numbered 31 to 55. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),
(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

(1)

M
2

(2)

M
3

Choose the correct answer :

(3)

3M
8

(4)

M
0.82

31. When Cr 2O 72 ion acts as an oxidant in acidic


medium, Cr3+ ion is formed. The number of mole of
Sn +2 that are oxidised to Sn +4 by one mole of
Cr2O72 ion would be
(1) 3
(3)

2
3

33. Which of the following gas has higher value of the


van der Waals constant 'b'?
(1) N2

(2) 2

(2) O2

3
2

(3) O3

(4)

(4) B2
Space for Rough Work

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34. Which of the following options is correct regarding
van der Waal's constants a and b?
(1) aNH3 aN2 and bNH3 bN2
(2) aNH3 aN2 and bNH3 bN2

(4) aNH3 aN2 and bNH3 bN2

(3) 0.232 gm

(4) 0.123 gm

36. At constant pressure what would be the percentage


decrease in the density of an ideal gas for an
increase in the temperature by 10%
(1) 9.1%

(2) 8.1%

(3) 7.1%

(4) 6.1%

o
Hogas of a liquid is 1.437 kcal mol1 and Sm
is
1
5.26 cal mol K, melting point will be

(1) 0C

(2) 273C

(3) 273C

(4) 0 K

(1) 464 kJ mol1

35. A vessel containing 1.0 gm of oxygen at a pressure


of 10 atm and a temperature of 47C. The pressure
5
drops to th of its original value and temperature
8
falls to 27C due to leakage of the gas, then mass
of oxygen leaked out will be
(2) 0.333 gm

39.

40. The enthalpy of combustion of H2(g) at 298 K to give


H2O(g) is 249 kJ mol1 and bond enthalpies of
H H and O = O are 433 kJ mol1 and 492 kJ mol1
respectively. The bond enthalpy of O H would be

(3) aNH3 aN2 and bNH3 bN2

(1) 0.432 gm

Test - 2 (Paper-I)

(2) 464 kJ mol1


(3) 232 kJ mol1
(4) 232 kJ mol1
41. The maximum work done by the gas, when pressure
on 10 g of H2 is reduced from 20 atm to 2 atm at
a constant temperature 300 K reversibly is (the gas
behaves ideally)
(1) 2.872 J

(2) 28.72 kJ

(3) 28.72 kcal

(4) 28.72 erg

42. The difference in H and U for combustion of


benzoic acid (solid) at 300 K is equal to
(1) +1.247 kJ

37. The molar heat capacity of water in equilibrium with


ice at constant pressure is
(1) Zero

(2) 1.247 kJ
(3) 1.99 kJ
(4) +1.99 kJ

(2) Infinity ()

43. In standardisation of Na2S2O3 using K2Cr2O7 by


iodometry, the equivalent mass of K2Cr2O7 is (At.
mass K = 39, Cr = 52, O = 16)

(3) 40.45 kJ K1mol1


(4) 75.48 J K1mol1
38. One mole non-ideal gas undergoes change of state
(1 atm, 2 L, 90 K) (2 atm, 3 L, 300 K) with a
change in internal energy 35 L atm. H for the
change will be

(1) 147

(2) 94

(3) 49

(4) 74

44. If a 0.1 M solution of HCN is 0.01% ionised, the


ionisation constant for HCN is

(1) 29

(2) 39

(1) 105

(2) 106

(3) 49

(4) 59

(3) 1 108

(4) 1 109

Space for Rough Work

8/14

Test - 2 (Paper-I)

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

45. The solubility product of a salt having general


formula MX2 in water is 4 1012. The concentration
of M+2 ions in the aqueous solution of the salt is


(MX2 
 M+2 + 2X)
(1) 2 106 M
(2) 1

104

(3) 6

104

(4) 4

1018

acid

ionisation

constant

for



Zn2 H2O 
 Zn(OH)2 H is 1 10 the pH
of 0.001 M solution ZnCl2 is

(1) 4

(2) 6

(3) 8

(4) 9

51. Which salt has highest extent of hydrolysis?


(1) CH3COONa

(2) NH4Cl

46. Which of the following buffer solution turns invalid on


addition of 10 ml of 1 M HCl?
(1) 100 ml having 0.15 M NH3 and NH4Cl each
(2) 100 ml having 0.2 M NH3 and NH4Cl each
(3) 100 ml having 0.2 M NH3 and 0.1 M NH4Cl each
(4) 100 ml having 0.05 M NH3 and NH4Cl each
47. At the half way in titration of a weak acid with strong
base the pH was measured as 5. What is the pH of
the weak acid solution that is 0.01 M is the acid?
(1) 4.2

(2) 6.7

(3) 3.5

(4) 7.6

48. Which of the following is most soluble?


(1) Bi2S3 (Ksp = 1

50. The

1020)

(3) NH4CN
(4) NaCl
52. For the process H2O(l) (1 bar, 373 K) 


 H2O(g)
(1 bar, 373 K), the correct set of thermodynamics
parameters is
(1) G = 0, S = +ve

(2) G = ve, S = ve

(3) G = +ve, S = +ve (4) G = 0, S = ve


53. For, N2 NH3, the equivalent weight of N2 is
(M is the mol.wt. of N2)
(1)

M
3

(2)

M
4

(3)

M
6

(4)

M
8

(2) MnS (Ksp = 7 1016)

54. 10 ml of H2O2 solution (vol. strength x) required

(3) CuS (Ksp = 8 1037)

10 ml of
N MnO4 solution in acidic medium.
0.56
Hence x is

(4) Ag2S (Ksp = 6 1051)


49. The percentage of dissociation of 0.5 M NH3 at 25C
in a solution of pH = 12 is
(1) 2%
(2) 20%

(1) 0.56

(2) 5.6

(3) 0.1

(4) 10

55. Which of the following can be oxidised further with


a strong oxidising agent?

(3) 4%

(1) SO3

(2) MnO2

(4) 40%

(3) Al2O3

(4) CrO3

Space for Rough Work

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SECTION - II
Assertion Reason Type Questions
Directions : Questions number 56 to 60 are AssertionReason type questions. Each of these questions
contains two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and
Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has
four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct
answer. You have to select the correct choice.
56. Statement-1 : Absolute zero is the theoretically
minimum possible temperature.
and
Statement-2 : At any temperature, less than
absolute zero, the volume of an ideal gas becomes
negative, which is impossible.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
57. Statement-1 : There is no change in enthalpy of an
ideal gas during compression at constant
temperature.

Test - 2 (Paper-I)
58. Statement-1 : Enthalpy and entropy of any perfectly
crystalline substance in the standard states are
taken as zero.
and
Statement-2 : At absolute zero, particle of the
perfectly crystalline substance become completely
motionless.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
59. Statement-1 : The value of van der Waal's constant
'a' is larger for NH3 than PH3.
and
Statement-2 : Hydrogen bonding is present in NH3.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
60. Statement-1 : NaCl can be hydrolysed.

and
Statement-2 : Enthalpy of an ideal gas is a function
of temperature and pressure.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1

and
Statement-2 : It is a salt of strong acid and strong
base.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;


Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;


Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

Space for Rough Work

10/14

Test - 2 (Paper-I)

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

PART - C (MATHEMATICS)
65. The number of distinct 6 digit number between 1 and
300000 which are divisible by 4 and obtained by
rearranging the digits of 11 22 33 is

SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type Questions
This section contains 25 multiple choice questions
numbered 61 to 85. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),
(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
61. The number of integers lying between 3000 and 8000
(including 3000 and 8000) which have at least two
digits equal is
(1) 4384

(2) 2755

(3) 1977

(4) 2481

62. Let x ky z = 0, kx y z = 0, x + y z = 0.
If x = 1 is one of solution then the value of k is
(1) 2, 1

(1) 12

(2) 15

(3) 18

(4) 90

66. A student preparing for IIT-JEE at Aakash Institute is


given 6 targets numbered for 1 to 6 of each subject
Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics, He or she
keeps all his books in different shelves (for each
subject) in order. Number of ways to select all 18
books one by one such that books of each subject
must be selected in order (i.e. all books of one
subject to the selected one after another, then of
second subject and then of third subject) is
(1)

18!
6!6!6!

(2)

18!
3!
6!6!6!

(3)

6!6!6!
3!

(4)

18!
6!6!6!3!

(2) 1, 0
(3) 1, 0, 1
(4) 1
63. P(x), Q(x), R(x) be polynomials of degree 3, 4, 5

P ( x ) Q( x ) R( x )
respectively and F ( x ) P ( ) Q( ) R( ) , R
P ( ) Q( ) R( )
F(x) = 0 has

(2) At least 3 real roots


(3) Exactly 1 real roots
(4) Exactly 2 real roots
64. Number of values of in [0, 2] for which equation
(cos3)x y + z = 0, (cos2)x + 4y + 3z = 0 and
x + 7y + 7z = 0 has non-trivial solution is

(3) 5

(1) 15
(2) 3
(3) 9
(4) 4

(1) At least 2 real roots

(1) 4

67. Six numbers are in A.P. such that their sum is 3 and
the first number is four times the third number. The
fifth term is equal to

68. Let a 1, a 2, a 3, ....., a n be in A.P., 'd' being the


common difference. Let the arithmetic mean of the
squares of these quantities exceed the square of the
arithmetic mean of these quantities by quantity p
then 'p' is equal to
(1)

n2 1 2
d
12

(2)

n2 1 2
d
12

(3)

nd 2
12

(4)

n2 1
12

(2) 3
(4) 2

Space for Rough Work

11/14

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014


69. If n is multiple of 4, the sum S = 1 + 2i + 3i2 + .....
+ (n +

1)in

where i 1 is
n2
2

(1) 1 i

(2)

n 2 8 4ni
(3)
8

(n 2) ni
(4)
2

70. The number of integers between 1 and 10,000. Both


inclusive which are neither perfect square nor perfect
cube is
(1) 9283

(2) 9883

(3) 9281

(4) 9887

71. Let set 's' be the set of points whose co-ordinates


x, y and z are integers that satisfy 0 x 2, 0 y
3 and 0 z 4. Number of ways to select two
different points such that the mid point of the
segment also belongs to 's' is
(1) 885
(2) 1770
(4) 665

(1) abc

(2) a + b + c

(3) 0

(4) 1

cos x sin x 0
75. If f ( x ) sin x cos x 0 . then A1 is equal to
0
0
1
(1) f(x)

(2) f(x)

(3) f(x)

(4) f(x)

1 2
76. If f(x) = x2 + 4x 5 and A
, then f(A) is
4 3

equal to
0 4
(1)

8 8

1 1
(3)

1 0

72. 10.39C9 30.39C8 is equal to


(1)

42C
9

(2)

(3)

41C
9

(4) 10.40C9

40C
9

8 4
(4)

8 0

73. Sum of the series

74. a, b, c are non real numbers such that the equation


(a 1)x = y + z, (b 1)y = x + z = 0, (c1)z =
x + y has a non-trivial solution, then ab + bc + ca
is equal to

2 1
(2)

2 0

(3) 230

Test - 2 (Paper-I)

..... upto 100 terms is


12 12 22 12 22 32
equal to
(1)

100
0.06

(2)

600
101

(3)

606
100

(4)

101
600

77. There are 100 students in a row. Number of ways to


select 3 students such that at least two student must
be present between is each selected students is
(1)

24C
3

(2)

98C
3

(3)

95C
3

(4)

96C
3

78. The highest power of 18 contained in


(1) 3

(2) 0

(3) 1

(4) 2

Space for Rough Work

12/14

50C
25

is

Test - 2 (Paper-I)

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

79. If 12 + 22 + 32 + ..... + 20142 = x and 1.2014 +


2.2013 + ..... + 2014.1 = y then x is equal to
(1) 2015.10072 y
(2) 1007 20152 y
(3) 1007 20152 + y
(4) 2015.10072 + y
80. If a1 = 0 and a1, a2, a3, ....., an+1 are real number
such that |ai| = |ai 1 + 1| i, then the A.M. of the
number a1, a2, .....an has value x where
(1) x
(2) x

1
2

1
2

x2

x3 1 3x2 2
84. 2 x 1 3 x 2 1 x = A0 + A1x + A2x2 + .....
1
2
0
the value of A1 is

(1) 2

(2) 1

(3) 0

(4) 3

85. Letters of word 'NEWTON' is arranged in all possible


ways and written as a dictionary. The rank of word
'NEWTON' is
(1) 76

(2) 84

(3) 82

(4) 80

SECTION - II

1
(3) x
2

Assertion Reason Type Questions

(4) x 1
81. Ai(xi, yi), i = 1, 2, ....., n are n points on the curve

y 2 x . If x1, x2, ....., xn are in G.P. with x1 = 1,


x2 = 2 then yn =
(1) ( 2)n

(2) ( 2)n1

(3) 2n

(4) 2n1

100 0
82. For any 2 2 metrix A, if A(adjA) =
,
0 100
then |A| is equal to

(1) 1000
(2) 10
(3) 100
(4) 10000
83. If A = [aij]44 and |A| = 10, N = |adjadjadjA|. Number
of divisors of N which is perfect square is

Directions : Questions number 86 to 90 are AssertionReason type questions. Each of these questions
contains two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and
Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has
four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct
answer. You have to select the correct choice.
86. Statement-1 : Let f(x) = (x)75 (3 x)25, x(0, 3) then
9
f(x) is maximum at x .
4
and
Statement-2 : a 1 , a 2 , ....., a n > 0 then
a1 a2 ..... an
(a1.a2.a3 ....., an )1/ n .
n
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1

(1) 256

(2) 225

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(3) 196

(4) 169

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True


Space for Rough Work

13/14

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

Test - 2 (Paper-I)

87. Statement-1 : x = 7 is a root at equation

89. Statement-1

2 5
2 x 5 0
2 5 x
and

37

The

value

C4 42J C3 is equal to
j 1

of

expression

42C .
4

and
Statement-2 :
r + 1 n.

Statement-2 : If x = a makes m rows or m columns


of determinant (x) = 0 identical then (x a)m1 is its
factor.

nC

nC

r+1

n+1 C

r+1 ,

0 r,

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;


Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;


Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;


Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;


Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False


(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

90. Statement-1 : Let N 21 32 53 . Number of positive

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

integers p, q such that L.C.M. of p, q is N, is


(21 1)(2 2 1).(23 1) 1
.
2

a 2
3
88. Statement-1 : If A
and |A | = 1728 then a
2 a

= 4

and

and

Statement-2 : Number of ordered pairs of (p, q) such


that L.C.M. of p, q is N, is (21 + 1) (22 + 1)
(23 + 1).

Statement-2 : det(AB) = detA.detB.


(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;


Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;


Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;


Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

Space for Rough Work

14/14

Test - 1 (Paper-I) (Answers & Hints)

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2014

TEST - 1 (Paper-I)
ANSWERS
PHYSICS

CHEMISTRY

MATHEMATICS

1.

(4)

31.

(2)

61.

(3)

2.

(3)

32.

(3)

62.

(3)

3.

(4)

33.

(1)

63.

(1)

4.

(3)

34.

(2)

64.

(3)

5.

(3)

35.

(4)

65.

(4)

6.

(1)

36.

(3)

66.

(4)

7.

(1)

37.

(1)

67.

(2)

8.

(2)

38.

(3)

68.

(3)

9.

(2)

39.

(2)

69.

(1)

10.

(2)

40.

(4)

70.

(3)

11.

(1)

41.

(3)

71.

(2)

12.

(1)

42.

(2)

72.

(3)

13.

(3)

43.

(3)

73.

(1)

14.

(2)

44.

(3)

74.

(4)

15.

(3)

45.

(2)

75.

(3)

16.

(3)

46.

(4)

76.

(4)

17.

(4)

47.

(1)

77.

(1)

18.

(1)

48.

(4)

78.

(2)

19.

(1)

49.

(4)

79.

(2)

20.

(3)

50.

(1)

80.

(1)

21.

(2)

51.

(4)

81.

(3)

22.

(2)

52.

(2)

82.

(3)

23.

(1)

53.

(3)

83.

(3)

24.

(2)

54.

(1)

84.

(3)

25.

(2)

55.

(3)

85.

(2)

26.

(4)

56.

(1)

86.

(3)

27.

(1)

57.

(3)

87.

(4)

28.

(3)

58.

(4)

88.

(3)

29.

(2)

59.

(2)

89.

(1)

30.

(4)

60.

(1)

90.

(4)

1/10

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