PRACTICE SET

SSC-CGL TIER-I
Part A: General Intelligence
and Reasoning
Directions: In question nos. 1 to 10, select the related
word/letters/number from the given alternatives.
1. DHL : EJO : : KOS : ?
(A) LPV
(B) LQV
(C) LQU
(D) LPU
2. EOSR : ROSE : : NAIP : ?
(A) APIN
(B) PANI
(C) IAPN
(D) PAIN
3. CG: 22 : : FP : ?
(A) 40
(B) 36
(C) 45
(D) 220
4. 17 : 56 : : 20 : ?
(A) 60
(B) 62
(C) 55
(D) 65
5. LMOP : LOMP : : FUVC : ?
(A) FVCU
(B) FCVU
(C) FVUC
(D) FUVC
6. HCEN : BGIP : : DIGN : ?
(A) JMKP
(B) XMKP (C) JMMP
(D) XMLP
7. SQTY : QUQV : : RPPQ : ?
(A) PTLO
(B) OUMP (C) OUMO (D) PTMN
8. Letter : Word : Sentence : : ?
(A) Phrase (B) Typing (C) Paragraph (D) Passage
9. 30 : 42 : : 56 : ?
(A) 62
(B) 68
(C) 72
(D) 75
10. 24 : 60 : : 210 : ?
(A) 504
(B) 343
(C) 336
(D) 330
11. Which of the following sets of letters when sequentially
placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete
it?
ccbab __ caa __ bccc __ a __
(A) bbba
(B) babb
(C) baab
(D) babc
Directions: In question nos. 12 to 17, find out the odd
number/letters/word/pair of words from the given
alternatives.
12. (A) CFI
(B) DGJ
(C) FIM
(D) EHK
13. (A) 8765
(B) 5678
(C) 8476
(D) 8567
14. (A) AEIP
(B) QTYF
(C) FINU
(D) HKPW
15. (A) BFHD
(B) IMOK
(C) PTWR
(D) WACY
16. (A) 72
(B) 45
(C) 81
(D) 28
17. (A) Tree Trunk
(B) Face Eye
(C) Chair Sofa
(D) Plant Flower
Directions (Q. 18): In the following questions is given
a statement followed by two assumptions I and II. Give answer
(A) if only assumption I is implicit.
(B) if only assumption II is implicit.
(C) if neither assumption I nor II is implicit.
(D) if both assumptions I and II are implicit.
18. Statement:
Government has permitted private
schools to increase their fees.

Assumption: I. Government schools do not need to

increase their fee.
II. Private schools are in a financial crisis.
Directions (Q. 19): In the following question is given a
statement followed by two conclusions I and II. Give answer
(A) if only conclusion I follows.
(B) if only conclusion II follows.
(C) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(D) if both conclusions I and II follow.
19. Statement:
The Municipal Corporation of Delhi has
provided relief to the residents of Okhla
by removing the medical waste plant
present over there.
Conclusions: I. The residents of Okhla were having
problems because of the medical
waste plant.
II. The MCD is the only authority that
can take decision on these issues.
Directions: In question nos. 20 and 21 which of the
given responses would form a meaningful order if the
following words are arranged in ascending order?
20. 1. Peon
2. Head clerk
3. Clerk
4. Manager
5. Assistant Manager
(A) 4, 2, 3, 1, 5
(B) 4, 5, 1, 2, 3
(C) 1, 3, 2, 5, 4
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
21. 1. Building
2. District
3. Room
4. Colony
5. Flat
(A) 3, 1, 5, 4, 2
(B) 3, 5, 1, 2, 4
(C) 3, 5, 1, 4, 2
(D) 5, 3, 1, 4, 2
22. Which of the following words will come fourth if they
are arranged according to English Dictionary?
(A) Blue
(B) Bird
(C) Blind
(D) Black
Directions: In question nos. 23 to 25, choose the correct
alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
23. GHIK, HIJL, IJKM, JKLN, ?
(A) BMJH
(B) JHLM
(C) KJIM
(D) KLMO
24. HJK, MOP, RTU, ?
(A) WXZ
(B) WXY
(C) WYZ
(D) WYX
25. 6, 13, 28, ?, 122
(A) 29
(B) 59
(C) 34
(D) 93
26. Find the wrong number in the given number series.
2, 17, 47, 77, 122, 177, 242
(A) 177
(B) 122
(C) 2
(D) 47
27. From the following alternatives select the word which
cannot be formed by using the letters of the given word.
RESIDENTIAL
(A) ALTERS
(B) DENTAL
(C) ARDENT
(D) DIGITAL

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28. If A = 6, B = 7, C = 8, D = 9, then the numbers 7, 23, 20, 25,

13, 10, 23 will give the word
(A) NEITHER
(B) BROTHER
(C) BOUSTER
(D) BRAWLER
29. In a certain code INTRODUCE is written as RTNIOECUD.
In the some code which alternative will be written for
KNOWLEDGE?
(A) GDELOWNKE
(B) WONKLEGDE
(C) WKONLEGDE
(D) WOKNLEGDE
30. If a means plus, b means minus, c means
multiplication, and d means division what will come
at question mark (?) in the given equation?
12 c 8 a 9 b 48 d 6 = ?
(A) 96
(B) 97
(C) 105
(D) 87
31. Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to
replace A and balance the given expression:
40 A 20 A 10 A 2 A 4
(A) =
(B) =
(C) =
(D) =
Directions: In question nos. 32 to 34 select the missing
number from the given responses.
32.

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6
8
2
96

5
7
?
105

4
8
7
224

(A) 3
(C) 93
33.

8
12
19

8
48
4
10

27
31
38

46
?
57

(B) 50
(D) 43

3
27
10
19

15
75
21
?

(A) 21
(B) 25
(C) 26
(D) 27
35. Some equations are solved on the basis of a certain
system. On the same basis find out the correct answer
for the unsolved equation.
If 5 7 = 5, 7 6 = 2, 12 8 = 6 then what should 17 9 be?
(A) 9
(B) 8
(C) 17
(D) 3
36. How many triangles are there in the given figure?

(A) 18

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(B) 5
(D) 89

(A) 49
(C) 40
34.

37. Reena introduces Radha, saying, She is the wife of the

grandson of the father of my father. How is Radha related
to Reena?
(A) Sister
(B) Daughter-in-law
(C) Sister-in-law
(D) Granddaughter
38. In the evening Raman faces the sun and walks for ten
kilometres. He then turns left and walks for 20 km. Then
he turns left again and walks for 10 km. In which direction
is Raman standing with respect to the starting point?
(A) South
(B) North
(C) East
(D) West
39. My sisters age is thrice my age, and 7 years less than
my brothers age. If my age is 13 years, then what was the
age (in years) of my brother at the time of my birth?
(A) 76
(B) 69
(C) 33
(D) 56
40. Rohit starts from his school and walks 10 km west, turns
north and walks 25 km, turns east and walks 5 km, turns
south and walks 10 km, and finally turns east and walks
5 km. How far is Rohit from his school?
(A) 5 km
(B) 10 km
(C) 15 km
(D) 25 km
41. Which of the following diagrams best depicts the
relationship among Zebra, Tiger and Animal?

(B) 36

(C) 20

(D) 28

42. In a row of boys Rahim is 9th from the right and Pankaj is
12th from the left. If they interchange their positions
Pankaj becomes 25th from the left. How many boys are
there in the row?
(A) 17
(B) 34
(C) 35
(D) 33
Directions: In question nos. 43 to 44, in each question
below are given two statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to take the given two statements
to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly
known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which
of the given conclusions logically follows from the given
statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give
answer
(A) if only conclusion I follows.
(B) if only conclusion II follows.
(C) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(D) if both conclusions I and II follow.
43. Statements: All pens are markers.
Some markers are ink.
Conclusions: I. Some pens are ink.
II. Some inks are markers.
44. Statements: All books are copies.
No copy is a paper.
Conclusions: I. Some copies are books.

II. Some papers are books.

45. Which of the answer figures is exactly the mirror image
of the given figure, when the mirror is held on the line
AB as shown below?
Questions Figure

49. Which of the Answer Figures is exactly the water image

of the given Question Figure?
Question Figure

Answer Figures
Answer Figures

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
46. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the
question figures. From the given Answer Figures, indicate
how it will appear when opened.
Question Figures

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
50. From the following alternatives select the word which
cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.
INSIGNIFICATION
(A) FOCAS
(B) CAUSE
(C) FICTION
(D) SING

Part B: General Awareness

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Answer Figures

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
47. Select the answer figure in which the question figure is
hidden/imbedded.
Question Figure

Answer Figures

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
48. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the
Question Figure?
Question Figure

Answer Figures

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

51. Which of the following folk dances is associated with

Nagaland?
(A) Chong (B) Rakhal
(C) Suggi
(D) Chakri
52. SONAR works on the principle of
(A) motion of charged particles in electromagnetic fields
(B) reflection of ultrasonic waves
(C) thin film optical interference
(D) detection of cosmic radio waves
53. What is the nature of electromagnetic force?
(A) Always attractive
(B) Always repulsive
(C) Attractive or repulsive
(D) None of these
54. Which of the following is not the common manifestation
of atmospheric pressure?
(A) Vacuum cleaner
(B) Fountain pen
(C) Aircraft flying
(D) Dynamic lift
55. Light Emitting Diode (LED) converts
(A) electrical energy into light energy
(B) light energy into electrical energy
(C) optical radiation into electricity
(D) thermal energy into electrical energy
56. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
List I
List II
(a) Malaria
1. Fungi
(b) Polio
2. Bacteria
(c) Tuberculosis
3. Virus
(d) Ringworm
4. Protozoa
Codes:
a
b
c
d
(A)
4
3
2
1
(B)
4
3
1
3
(C)
3
4
1
2
(D)
3
4
2
1

57. Which of the following is not an example of TRUE fruit?

(A) Mango
(B) Apple
(C) Banana
(D) Tomato
58. The theory of Origin of Species is based primarily on
(A) the process of biological evolution
(B) the process of natural selection
(C) the germplasm theory
(D) the evolution of man from apes
59. Which of the following statements are true about the
commercially used automobile battery?
I. It is usually a lead-acid battery
II. It has six cells with a potential of 2 volts each.
III.Its cells work as galvanic cells while discharging
power.
IV. Its cells work as electrolytic cells while recharging.
(A) I, II, III and IV
(B) I, II and III
(C) II and IV
(D) III and IV
60. Synthetic Detergents are sodium salts of
(A) Carboxylic acids
(B) Sulphonic acids
(C) Fatty acids
(D) Royal water
61. Which of these international tennis events is played on
a grass court?
(A) US Open
(B) French Open
(C) Wimbledon
(D) Australian Open
62. Which of the following is an ore of silver?
(A) Dolomite
(B) Malachite
(C) Cinnabar
(D) Argentite
63. The radioactive isotope of hydrogen is
(A) Protium
(B) Deuterium
(C) Tritium
(D) Both (A) and (B)
64. Match the following
Alloy
Composition
(a) Bronze
1. Lead, Antimony, Tin
(b) Brass
2. Copper, Zinc, Nickel
(c) German Silver
3. Copper, Zinc
(d) Type Metal
4. Copper, Tin
Codes:
a
b
c
d
(A)
2
1
3
4
(B)
2
1
4
3
(C)
3
2
1
4
(D)
4
3
2
1
65. The percentage of lead in lead pencils is
(A) Zero
(B) 20
(C) 40
(D) 60
66. Which of the following writs is not specifically provided
in the Constitution of India?
(A) Prohibition
(B) Mandamus
(C) Quo warranto
(D) Injunction
67. District Judges are appointed by
(A) the Chief Justice of Supreme Court
(B) the State Public Service Commission
(C) the Chief Minister of a State
(D) the Governor of a State
68. The first Lokpal bill was introduced in the parliament in

69.

70.

71.

the year
(A) 1971
(B) 1968
(C) 1972
(D) 1983
Barium in a suitable form is administered to patients
before an x-ray examination of the stomach, because
(A) Barium allows x-rays to pass through the stomach
on account of its transparency to x-rays.
(B) Barium compound like magnesium sulphate helps
in cleaning the stomach before x-ray examination.
(C) Barium is a good absorber of x-rays and this helps
stomach to appear clear in contrast to the other
regions in the picture.
(D) Barium salts are white in colour and this helps the
stomach appear clear in contrast to other regions in
the picture.
The principle involved in paper chromatography is
(A) Adsorption
(B) Partition
(C) Volatility
(D) Solubility
Match the following features of the Indian Constitution
and their sources from which they have been
incorporated.
List-1
List 2
a) Bill of Rights and Judicial Review
1) England
b) Parliamentary system of democracy 2) Ireland
c) Directive Principles
3) USA
d) Residuary powers of the centre
4) Canada
Codes:
a
b
c
d
(A)
4
1
2
3
(B)
1
2
3
4
(C)
3
4
2
1
(D)
3
1
2
4
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(A) The Comptroller and Auditor General controls all
disbursements and audits the accounts of both the
Union and the State Governments.
(B) He annually submits a report to the President relating
to the accounts of the Union.
(C) The annual report of the Comptroller and Auditor
General is considered by Public Accounts Committee
of Parliament.
(D) No money by the Union and the State government
can be spent without prior approval of the
Comptroller and Auditor General.
Where is Titicaca, the highest lake in the world, located?
(A) Russia and Central Asian countries
(B) US and Canada border
(C) South Africa
(D) Peru and Bolivia border
The headquarters of International Atomic Energy
Agency (IAEA) is located in
(A) Geneva
(B) Washington DC
(C) Vienna
(D) London
Which of the following indicates the correct
chronological order of the given events?
(A) August Offer Cripps Mission Simla Conference

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72.

73.

74.

75.

76.

77.

Cabinet Mission Plan

(B) Simla Conference Cabinet Mission Plan August
Offer Cripps Mission
(C) August Offer Cabinet Mission Plan Simla
Conference Cripps Mission
(D) Simla Conference Cripps Mission August Offer
Cabinet Mission Plan
In Buddhist literature, Milindapanha appears in
Question-Answer form between Nagasena and
(A) Kanishka
(B) Menander
(C) Euthidemus
(D) Alexander
Match the following
Dynasty
Kingdom
(a) Chalukyas
1. Kanchipuram
(b) Pallavas
2. Badami
(c) Pandyas
3. Vengi
(d) Satvahanas
4. Madurai
Codes:
a
b
c
d
(A)
2
1
4
3
(B)
2
4
1
3
(C)
3
4
1
2
(D)
3
1
4
2
Which of the following contains the famous Gayatri
mantra?
(A) Rigveda
(B) Samveda
(C) Yajurveda
(D) Atharvaveda
The Brihadeeshvara temple was built by
(A) Rajaraja
(B)Rajendra Chola
(B) Vira Rajendra
(C) Kulottunga
Mahatma was added before Gandhijis name during the
(A) Champaran Satyagraha
(B) Rowlett Satyagraha
(C) Amritsar Session of INC in 1919
(D) Initial stages of Khilafat movement
Which organisation regulates Mutual Funds in India?
(A) SEBI
(B) RBI
(C) Ministry of Finance, Govt of India
(D) IRDA
Who is the chairman of the National Development
Council (NDC)?
(A) Finance Minister
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Lok Sabha Speaker
(D) Vice-president
Who has been awarded the Jnanpith Award for the year
2011?
(A) Chandrasekhara Kambara
(B) Pratibha Ray
(C) Amar Kant
(D) Mahashveta Devi
Which of the following would have occurred if the earth
had not been inclined on its own axis?
(A) All the seasons would have been of the same
duration.
(B) The seasons would not
have changed.

85.

86.

87.

88.

(C) The summers would have been of longer duration.

(D) The winters would have been of longer duration.
Who among the following invented Disc Brake.
(A) F Lanchester
(B) EG Otis
(C) HW Seely
(D) JB Dunlop
Which of the following market structures has a Kinked
Demand Curve?
(A) Perfect competition
(B) Monopoly
(C) Oligopoly
(D) Monopolistic competition
The terms Micro and Macro in economics were first
coined and used by
(A) Adam Smith
(B) Ragnar Frisch
(C) Alfred Marshall
(D) Lionel Robbins
Why do rain-bearing clouds look black?
(A) All light is scattered by them.
(B) They reflect the sunlight back into the atmosphere.
(C) The large number of water droplets in them absorb
all the sunlight.
(D) There is a lot of dust condensed on the water vapour
in these clouds.
Which of the following is the venue of the 17th Asian
Games to be held in 2014?
(A) Incheon, South Korea (B) New Delhi, India
(C) Tokyo, Japan
(D) Hiroshima, Japan
Which is the only internal organ of the human body
capable of regenerating its lost tissues?
(A) Lungs
(B) Kidney
(C) Liver
(D) Brain
In which of the following years did the government of
India devalue its currency twice?
(A) 1949
(B) 1966
(C) 1991
(D) 1949 and 1991
Who is the Chairman of the 14th Finance Commission of
India?
(A) Vijay Kelkar
(B) YV Reddy
(C) Urjit Patel
(D) DK Jain
With reference to a computer, an assembler is a
(A) Symbol
(B) Language
(C) Program
(D) Person who assembles the parts
Which of the following is not a trans-Himalayan river?
(A) Satluj
(B) Indus
(C) Brahmaputra
(D) Ganga
National Girl Child Day is observed on
(A) January 25
(B) January 24
(C) February 28
(D) February 24
The Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries
(OPEC) consists of how many member countries?
(A) Eleven
(B) Twelve
(C) Thirteen
(D) Ten
Which of the following is Multi-Barrel Rocket System?
(A) Akash
(B) Pinaka
(C) Nirbhay
(D) AWACS
The term Cryogenics is associated with

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78.

79.

80.

81.

82.

83.

84.

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

96.

97.

98.

(A) Low temperature

(B) High temperature
(C) Low pressure
(D) High Pressure
99. What does the acronym LAF stand for?
(A) Liquidity Adjustment Fund
(B) Liquidity Adjustment Facility
(C) Liquidity Adjustment Finance
(D) Liquidity Adjustment Factor
100. National Rural Livelihood Mission was launched in
(A) 2010
(B) 2009
(C) 2012
(D) 2011

Part C: Quantitative Aptitude

101. If 3y +

1
3y
= 4, then the value of
is
2y
3y(2y 7) 28y 1

3
1
1
1
(B)
(C)
(D)
19
19
57
6
102. Find the greatest four-digit number which when divided
by 3, 9, 12, 21 and 24 leaves the same remainder 2 in each
case.
(A) 9978
(B) 9576
(C) 9578
(D) 9958
103. 24 mango trees, 48 apple trees and 64 orange trees have
to be planted in rows such that each row contains the
same number of trees of one variety only. The minimum
number of rows in which the above trees can be planted
is
(A) 17
(B) 8
(C) 24
(D) Cant be determined
104. A and B invest in a business in the ratio 7 : 6. If 15% of
the total profit goes to charity and Bs profit share is
`6300, the total approximate profit is (`)
(A) `15000
(B) `17000
(C) `15060
(D) `16060
105. If 8126 is divided by 63, the remainder will be
(A) 2
(B) 5
(C) 1
(D) 3
106. Which of the following numbers does not fit into the
series?
13
20
34
63
118
230
(A) 34
(B) 63
(C) 20
(D) 13
107. The length of rectangle is twice its breadth. If its length
is decreased by 8 cm and breadth is increased by 8 cm,
the area of the rectangle is increased by 64 cm2. The
length of the rectangle is
(A) 24 cm
(B) 16 cm
(C) 32 cm
(D) 12 cm

(A) Area OPM = Area OMR = Area OPR

(B) 2 NO = OM
1
Area PRM
6
(D) The perpendiculars drawn from O to the three sides
of PRM are of equal length.
110. In the figure given below, O is the centre of the circle. If
OAB = 25 and OCB = 35, what is the measure of
AOC?

(C) Area OSM =

(A)

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2

108. If x +

1
x

= 51, find the value of x

1
x

.
3

(A) 7
(B) 343
(C) 364
(D) 264
109. If three medians PQ, RS and MN of PRM meet at O as
shown in the given figure, which of the following
statements is not correct?

(A) 110
(B) 60
111. Find the value of (0 <
2 cos
1 sin
(A) 60

if

112. If sin =

2 cos
=8
1 sin
(B) 45

(C) 35
90)

(D) 180

(C) 90

(D) 30

3
2 sec
, then the value of
5
1 tan

is

7
10
1
5
(B)
(C)
(D)
10
7
7
7
113. If sec 4A = cosec (A + 20), where 4A is an acute angle,
find the value of A.
(A) 9
(B) 28
(C) 14
(D) 7
114. The altitude PQ of a MNP in which P is obtuse

(A)

angle is 10 cm. If MQ = 10 cm and QN = 10 3cm , find

P.
(A) 110
(B) 120
(C) 115
(D) 105
115. A person standing on the bank of a river observes that
the angle of elevation of the top of a tree standing on the
opposite bank is 60. When he moves 30 metres away
from the bank, he finds the angle of elevation to be 30.
Find the height of the tree.
(A) 20 3m

(B) 15 3m

(C) 30 3m
(D) None of these
116. AB and CD are two parallel chords of a circle whose
centre is O and radius is 13 cm. If AB = 24 cm and CD = 10
cm, find the distance between AB and CD, if they lie on
the same side of the centre O.
(A) 12 cm
(B) 5 cm
(C) 7 cm
(D) 13 cm
117. An exterior angle of a triangle is 105 and one of the
interior angles is 45, find the other two angles of the

triangle.
(A) 65, 75
(B) 45, 75
(C) 105, 60
(D) 60, 75
118. Point M divides the line segment joining the points

(A) 1

AM K
. If M lies on
BM 1
the line x y + 2 = 0, find the value of K.

A (1, 3) and B (9, 8) such that

4
2
3
1
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
3
3
2
2
119. If P(5, 1), Q(3, 2) and R (1, 8) are vertices of triangle
PQR, find the length of the median through P and the coordinates of the centroid.

(A)

(C)

1 5
65unit , 3 , 3
2 5
55units , 3 , 3

(B)

(D)

5 4
75 units , 3 , 3
1 4
45 units , 3 , 3

(B) 2
2

128. If
2
3

1
4
3
5
1
1
1

(A)

1
7

(A) 0

(C) 2 2

is

(D) 3 3

= x, then the value of x is

1
4

(B)

129. The value of

127. If x = 3 + 2 2 , then the value of

3
7

(C) 1

(D)

8
7

( x y ) 3 ( y z) 3 ( z x ) 3
is equal to
9( x y )( y z )(z x )

(B)

1
9

(C)

1
3

(D) 1

K
KUNDAN

120. Given that sin (A + B) = sinA.cosB + cosA.sinB, find the

value of sin105.
3 1
(A)
2 2

130. The value of

3 1
(B)
2 2

(A)

2( 3 1)
(C)
2 2

(D)

121. Find the value of

3 1
3 1

5 sin 2 60 cos 2 454 tan 2 30

2 cos 30 . sin 60 tan 45

6
7
4
(B)
(C) 2 3
(D)
7
6
5
122. In triangles ABC and PQR, A = P = 60.
AB : PQ = AC : RP and R = 55. Then B is
(A) 60
(B) 55
(C) 75
(D) 65
123. If each interior angle of a regular polygon is 8 times its
exterior angle then the number of sides of the polygon is
(A) 22
(B) 18
(C) 16
(D) 36
124. PQR is an acute-angle triangle in which PQR = 60. If O
be the orthocentre of triangle PQR, then OPR + ORP
equals to
(A) 30
(B) 60
(C) 150
(D) 120
125. In a quadrilateral PQRS, Q = 90 and PS2 = PQ2 + QR2 +
RS2, then PRS is equal to
(A) 90
(B) 60
(C) 100
(D) 30
126. In the following figure, MP = 8 cm, PD = 4 cm and CD =
3 cm. Find the length of MN.

(B) 4 cm

(C) 4.5 cm

(C) 5 3

(A)

(A) 3 cm

3 2
4 3
6

6 3
6 2
8 12

(D) 3.5 cm

(B) 3

(D) 1

1
kmph in still water and finds that it
3
takes him thrice as much time to row upstream as to row
downstream the same distance in the river. What is the
speed of the stream?

131. A man can row 9

(A) 4

2
km/hr
3

(B) 7

3
km/hr
2

3
1
km/hr
(D) 6 km/hr
4
3
132. The traffic lights at three different road crossings change
every 21 seconds, 63 seconds and 105 seconds respectively. If they all change simultaneously at 9 : 15 : 00 AM,
at what time will they again change simultaneously?
(A) 9 : 20 : 15 AM
(B) 8 : 20 : 30 AM
(C) 9 : 17 : 36 AM
(D) 9 : 18 : 15 AM
133. In an examination a student scores 7 marks for every
correct answer and loses 1 mark for every wrong answer.
If he attempts all 150 questions and scores 400 marks,
the number of questions he attempts incorrectly is
(A) 70
(B) 40
(C) 50
(D) 60
134. A and B can do a piece of work individually in 9 and 18
days respectively. Both started working but A stopped 3
days before finishing. In how many days will the work
be completed?
(A) 13 days (B) 8 days
(C) 6 days
(D) 5 days

(C) 2

line graph gives the percentage profit earned by two companies X and Y during the period 2006-2011. Study the graph
and answer the questions that are based on it.
The percentage profit earned by two companies X and Y
over the given years
% profit =

Income Expenditure
100
Expenditure
Company X

Profit %

135. The inner circumference of a circular race track 14m wide

is 440m. Find the radius of the outer circle.
(A) 21m
(B) 12m
(C) 84m
(D) 20m
136. The volumes and radii of a right circular cylinder and a
sphere are equal. If H is the height of the cylinder and D
is the diameter of the sphere, then what is the relation
between H and D?
(A) H = D
(B) 2H = D (C) 2H = 3D (D) 3H = 2D
3
137. A, B and C jointly started a business. A got
of the
5
profit. The remaining profit is distributed equally between B and C. If C gets `400 less than A, then find the
profit.
(A) `1600
(B) `1200
(C) `1000
(D) `800
138. A, B and C enter into a partnership with a total capital of
`8200. As capital is `1000 more than Bs and `2000 less
than Cs. What is Bs share at the end of the year in a
profit of `2460?
(A) `420
(B) `480
(C) `540
(D) `620
139. The percentage profit earned by selling an article for
`1920 is equal to the percentage loss incurred by selling
the same article for `1280. At what price should the article be sold in order to make 25% profit?
(A) `2000
(B) `2200
(C) `2400
(D) `2600
140. A man bought a horse and a carriage for `3000. He sold
the horse at a gain of 20% and the carriage at a loss of
10%, thereby gaining 2% on the whole transaction. Find
the cost of the horse.
(A) `1500
(B) `1200
(C) `1600
(D) `1750
141. A man travelled from a village to the post office at the
rate of 25 kmph and walked back at the rate of 4 kmph. If
the whole journey took 5 hours 48 minutes, find the distance of the post office from the village.
(A) 20 km
(B) 25 km
(C) 30 km
(D) 40 km
142. If the annual rate of simple interest increases from 10%

70
60
50
40
30
20
10
0

Company Y
60

55
45
40

2006

65
55

45
50

50

50

50

2008

2009

2010

2011

35

2007

K
KUNDAN

1
to 12 % , a mans yearly income increases by `1250.
2
His principal (in `) is
(A) 45000
(B) 50000
(C) 60000
(D) 65000
143. A cube of edge 5 cm is cut into cubes each of edge 1 cm.
The ratio of the total surface area of one of the small
cubes to that of the large cube is equal to
(A) 1 : 5
(B) 1 : 25
(C) 1 : 125
(D) 1 : 625
1
144. If the compound interest on a sum for 2 years at 12 %
2
per annum is `510, the simple interest on the same sum
at the same rate for the same period of time is
(A) `400
(B) `450
(C) `460
(D) `480
145. Three pipes A, B and C can fill a tank in 6 hours. After
working together for 2 hours, C is closed and A and B
can fill the remaining part in 7 hours. The number of
hours taken by C alone to fill the tank is
(A) 10 hrs
(B) 12 hrs
(C) 14 hrs
(D) 16 hrs
Directions: In question nos. 146 to 150 the following

Year

146. If the expenditure of Company Y in the 2007 was `220

crore, what was its income in the year 2007?
(A) `312 crore
(B) `297 crore
(C) `283 crore
(D) `275 crore
147. If the incomes of the two companies were equal in 2009,
what was the ratio of expenditure of Company X to that
of Company Y in the year 2009?
(A) 6 : 5
(B) 5 : 6
(C) 11 : 6
(D) 16 : 15
148. The incomes of Company X and Y in 2010 were in the
ratio of 3 : 4. What was the ratio of their expenditures in
the year 2010?
(A) 7 : 22
(B) 14 : 19
(C) 15 : 22
(D) 27 : 35
149. If the expenditures of Company X and Y in 2006 were
equal and the total income of the two companies in the
year 2006 was `342 crore, what was the total profit of the
two companies together in the year 2006?
(A) `240 crore
(B) `121 crore
(C) `120 crore
(D) `102 crore
150. The expenditure of Company X in the year 2008 was
`200 crore and the income of Company X in 2008 was
the same as its expenditure in 2011. The income of Company X in the year 2011 was `
(A) `465 crore
(B) `385 crore
(C) `295 crore
(D) `335 crore

Part-D: English Comprehension

Directions: In question nos. 151-155, some parts of the
sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which
par of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle
[ ] corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C). If
there is no error, blacken the rectangle [ ] corresponding
to (D) in the Answer Sheet.

151. In Mahabharata we have an account of over three

(A)
generations of people bound together by the whole web
(B)
(C)
of kinship. No error
(D)
152. Hold this position for thirty seconds, release and repeat
(A)
(B)
on the other side again. No error
(C)
(D)
153. Our parents chose to come here with the hope of bettering
(A)
(B)
(C)
themselves. No error
(D)
154. Are you hundred per cent sure its your neighbour?
(A)
(B)
(C)
No error
(D)
155. More than one boys has been singing since morning.
(A)
(B)
(C)
No error
(D)
Directions: In question nos. 156 to 160 sentences are
given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s).
Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose
the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by
blackening the appropriate rectangle [ ] in the Answer-Sheet.
156. He despised him ________ the similar views they both
held.
(A) in the wake of
(B) for the sake of
(C) nevertheless
(D) notwithstanding
157. She said the government had made ______
arrangements before the start of winter.
(A) ample
(B) adequate
(C) entire
(D) basic
158. Every nation writes its own autobiography ________
the actions or inactions of its citizens.
(A) through
(B) with
(C) for
(D) around
159. My parents were in kitchen when I ________ collected
all my books and suddenly disappeared and ran away
from my home without telling anybody.
(A) fraudulently
(B) ghostly
(C) clandestinely
(D) deliberately
160. The buggy ________ and Nancy was thrown out.
(A) turned away
(B) turned over
(C) turned down
(D) turned about
Directions: In question nos. 161 to 165, out of the four
alternatives choose the one which best expresses the
meaning of the given word and mark it in your AnswerSheet.
161. Haughty
(A) arrogant
(B) hot
(C) ability
(D) insanity

162. Loathe
(A) delegate
(B) detest
(C) lame
(D) heavy
163. Picturesque
(A) grapple
(B) painting
(C) vivid
(D) morsel
164. Graduate
(A) slow
(B) calibrate
(C) moderate
(D) bachelor
165. Swindle
(A) pilfer
(B) twist
(C) pounce
(D) defraud
Directions: In question nos. 166 to 170, choose the word
opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the
Answer-Sheet.
166. Motion
(A) transit
(B) stationary
(C) speed
(D) disposition
167. Fabricate
(A) concoct
(B) construe
(C) sew
(D) destruct
168. Nadir
(A) zenith
(B) seize
(C) mount
(D) adroit
169. Charlatan
(A) canyon
(B) innocent
(C) benevolent
(D) patriot
170. Mitigate
(A) ameliorate
(B) moderate
(C) accentuate
(D) vindicate
Directions: In question nos. 171 to 175, four alternatives
are given for the idiom/phrase and bold-italicised in the
sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the
meaning of the idiom/phrase and mark it in the AnswerSheet.
171. The time for work has come and so we should make hay
while the sun shines.
(A) hang clothes in the sun
(B) use the opportunity
(C) keep the husk in the sun
(D) make bad things better during the day
172. A leader should respect the opinion of rank and file.
(A) great leaders
(B) saints and intellectuals
(C) judiciary
(D) common man
173. India voiced her protest in black and white.
(A) streets
(B) writing
(C) Africa and England
(D) media
174. There was a rift when lenders set people by the ears.
(A) listened to public carefully
(B) ignored public demands
(C) instilled a sense of hatred in public
(D) praised the ideas of common men

K
KUNDAN

175. Even college students very often play truant.

(A) participate in drama competition
(B) remain absent
(C) cheat common man
(D) neglect the advice of their parents
Directions: In question nos. 176-180, a part of the
sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the
underlined part at (A), (B) and (C) which may improve the
sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no
improvement is needed your answer is (D). Mark your
answer in the Answer-Sheet.
176. Whenever a body part becomes dysfunctional or falls
sick it starts effecting the entire body, until it is diagnosed
and treated.
(A) effecting the entire body unless
(B) affecting the entire body unless
(C) affecting the whole body till
(D) No improvement
177. Indias diversity of language, habits and religions hardly
can a reason be for the chronic underdevelopment.
(A) can hardly be a reason
(B) hardly can be a reason
(C) can be hardly a reason
(D) No improvement
178. Increased investment in primary education, health care
and infrastructure would release productive forces to
get rid of poverty and bring prosperity.
(A) to get alleviated of
(B) to null and void
(C) in driving away
(D) No improvement
179. The sad truth is that most evil is done by those who
never make out his mind to be good or evil.
(A) make out their mind (B) make out their minds
(C) make up their minds (D) No improvement
180. Tolerance in the point for absurdity is not a virtue but
cowardice.
(A) into the point of
(B) beyond the point of
(C) about the point of
(D) No improvement
Directions: In question nos. 181 to 185, out of the four
alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the
given words/sentence.
181. A person, animal or plant having both male and female
sexual characteristics
(A) ambidextrous
(B) amorphous
(C) amphibians
(D) androgynous
182. A person who sees the bright aspect of a thing
(A) a fortune teller
(B) palmist
(C) optimist
(D) ophthalmologist
183. To denigrate the objects or beliefs of a particular religion
(A) blasphemy
(B) demystify
(C) scoff
(D) sanctify
184. A just punishment for wrong doing
(A) capital punishment
(B) nemesis
(C) electrocution
(D) castration
185. Fear of being enclosed in a small closed space
(A) hydrophobia
(B) xenophobia

(C) euphoria
(D) claustrophobia
Directions: In question nos. 186 to 190, four words are
given in each question, out of which only one word is correctly
spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and indicate it in the
Answer Sheet by blackening the appropriate rectangle.
186. (A) vaccum
(B) vacuum
(C) vacumm
(D) vaccume
187. (A) rennaissance
(B) renaisance
(C) renaisanse
(D) renaissance
188. (A) rendezvous
(B) renzdevous
(C) reindezevus
(D) rendevous
189. (A) occurence
(B) occurrence
(C) occurrance
(D) ocurrence
190. (A) miscellanius
(B) misscellaneous
(C) miscelleneous
(D) miscellaneous
PASSAGE I (Question Nos. 191 to 195)
When we are concerned with regeneration of women
in India, we are already aware of their degeneration. It does
not imply degeneration of all women, but a very large section
thereof is placed in a disadvantaged position. Many of them
are subjected to injustice, oppression and exploitation in
many ways. If we say that woman suffers from injustice from
cradle to grave it would be still an understatement. For, the
span of injustice against woman extends far beyond. It begins
before her birth and lasts beyond her death. Modern
technology enables us to determine the sex of the child before
birth. In spite of the enactment of the Prenatal Diagnostic
Techniques (Regulation and Prevention of Misuse) Act (1994),
some unscrupulous parents still resort to female foeticide
with the connivance of some unscrupulous surgeons. Thus
injustice against women begins before birth. Moreover, when
parents are dead, most people take pride in mentioning the
name of their father and rarely, if ever, of their mother. This is
an example of injustice against woman after death. Then the
illegal practice of female infanticide still persists in some cases.
While birth of a son is celebrated with great fanfare, birth of
a daughter is hardly welcome to some people. Discrimination
against girls in the distribution of food, clothing, toys, etc,
the curse of child marriage, purdah, desertion and divorce of
women without solid reasons, etc still widely persist. All these
practices must be strictly curbed and abolished to restore
the dignity and rights of women.
191. What has been the effect of the Prenatal Diagnostic
Techniques (Regulation and Prevention of Misuse) Act
1994?
(A) It has successfully checked female foeticide.
(B) This act has been proved to be complete failure.
(C) Some parents still resort to sex determination and
female foeticide.
(D) This act allows sex determination in some select
cases.
192. The expression from cradle to grave means
(A) from wood to soil
(B) from love to hatred
(C) from baby till old

K
KUNDAN

(D) from beginning to end

193. What lesson do we learn from the given passage? Select
the best answer from the given options.
(A) All women should not be treated equally as some of
them are much better than others.
(B) Injustice against women continues from their birth
till death.
(C) The condition of women is very deplorable and it
must be curbed at any cost.
(D) The doctors who violate the Prenatal Diagnostic
Techniques (Regulation and Prevention of Misuse)
Act 1994 should be punished severely.
194. Which of the following is correct in the context of the
passage?
(A) Majority of the women are subjected to injustice,
oppression and exploitation.
(B) Child marriage and purdah system are the matter of
bygone years.
(C) Injustice against women does not extend beyond
birth and death.
(D) Now, due to increasing awareness, people have
stopped discriminating between boys and girls.
195. Injustice against women begins before birth. What does
this mean?
(A) It means people get involved in sex determination
well before the birth of a girl child.
(B) If it is found that the foetus is that of a female it is
aborted at the earliest.
(C) No healthcare facility is provided to women when
they are pregnant.
(D) All the above
PASSAGE II (Question Nos. 196-200)
Human resources management has replaced the
traditional concept of labour welfare and personnel
management. Human Resources Management (HRM) in its
present form has evolved from a number of significant interrelated developments which date back to the era of industrial
revolution. The emergence of trade union movement led to
the need of a person who could act as an effective link between
the owners and workers. Thus the concept of labour welfare
officer came into being. His role was limited to the bare minimum
welfare activities of employees. In fact, he was looked down
by both the workers and the owners.
With the introduction of factory system, thousands of
persons began to be employed under one roof. The job of
hiring people for the organisation was given to one man,
who later on was assigned the responsibility of recruitment,

selection and placement of personnel. This led to the

emergence of personnel officer in the first place and the
personnel manager later on.
Human-relations approach recognises human factor as
the most important instrument of success in an organisation.
Fast-changing technological developments, however,
necessitated new skill development and training employees.
People came to be recognised as a valuable resource which
can be further developed. Increase in scope of the work led
to the replacement of personnel manager with human
resources manger.
196. What is the passage about?
(A) Industrial revolution
(B) Emergence of trade union
(C) Emergence of personnel manager
(D) Development of HRM
197. Which of the following statements is false?
(A) Due to the emergence of trade union movement the
concept of labour welfare officer came into being.
(B) Industrial revolution is the root cause of the
development of HRM.
(C) It is the introduction of factory system which made
it possible for many people to get employed under
one roof.
(D) None of these
198. The phrase looked down here means
(A) to think that you are better than somebody.
(B) to be ignored by somebody.
(C) to be looked at with contempt by somebody.
(D) to be appreciated by somebody.
199. Which of the following is regarded as the most important
factor for the success of an organisation as far as the
human-relations approach is concerned?
(A) Technological developments
(B) Human factor
(C) Financial health of an organisation
(D) Punctuality and discipline of employees
200. What was the impact of the emergence of the trade union
movement?
(A) The concept of labour welfare officer came into
existence.
(B) The labour welfare officer was responsible for the
welfare of the organisation.
(C) Workers as well as owners welcomed the role of the
labour welfare officer.
(D) The labour welfare officer had nothing to do with
the welfare of owners.

K
KUNDAN

K
KUNDAN

Answers

11. B; ccba / bbca / aabc / ccba / b

1. B;

12. C;

Similarly D
K
2. D;

E, H
L, O

J, L
Q, S

O
V

13. C; 8 + 7 + 6 + 5 = 26
5 + 6 + 7 + 8 = 26
8 + 4 + 7 + 6 = 25
8 + 5 + 6 + 7 = 26
14. A;

3. A; CG = (72 33) = (49 27) = 22

FP = (162 63 ) = (256 216) = 40
4. D; 17 3 + 5 = 56
20 3 + 5 = 65
5. C;

15. C;

6. B;

H
D

6
6

B, C
X, I

4
4

G, E
M, G

4
4

I, N
K, N

P
2

7. D;

S
R

2
2

Q, Q
P, P

4
4

U, T
T, P

3
3

Q, Y
M, Q

3
3

V
N

8. C; The first goes on to make the second.

9. C; 5 6 = 30
6 7 = 42
7 8 = 56
8 9 = 72
10. C; 33 3 = 24
Thus, 43 4 = 60
63 6 = 210
73 7 = 336

16. D; All others are multiples of 9.

17. C; In all others, the second is a part of the
first.
18. C; The statement may not have been given
with govt schools in mind. Hence I is not
implicit. Again, fees need not be increased only
in a financial crisis. Hence II is not implicit.
19. C; Note that conclusion I is in fact an
assumption.
20. C; Peon
Clerk
Head Clerk
Assistant Manager
Manager
21. C; Room
Flat
Building
Colony
District
22. A; Bird, Black, Blind, Blue

23. D;

24. C;

25. B; 6 2 + 1 = 12 + 1 = 13
13 2 + 2 = 26 + 2 = 28
28 2 + 3 = 56 + 3 = 59
59 2 + 4 = 118 + 4 = 122
26. D; 2 + 15 = 17
17 + 25 = 42
42 + 35 = 77
77 + 45 = 122
122 + 55 = 177
177 + 65 = 242
27. D; There is no G in the given word.
28. B; A = 6 means 1 + 5 = 6
B = 7 means 2 + 5 = 7
C = 8 means 3 + 5 = 8
D = 9 means 4 + 5 = 9

29. B;

30. B;

12 8 + 9 48 6
= 96 + 9 8 = 97
31. B; 40 20 = 10 2 4
32. A; 6 8 2 = 96
5 7 3 = 105
4 8 7 = 224
33. B; 8 + 19 = 27 / 27 + 19 = 46
12 + 19 = 31 / 31 + 19 = 50
19 + 19 = 38 / 38 + 19 = 57
34. C;

27
3

48
8

4 6 4 10 ;

10 9 10 19 ;

75
15

21 5 21 26

35. D;

36. B

37. C

38. A;

Now,

3y
3y(2 y 7) 28y 1

3y
6y

6y

21y 28 y 1

3y
8 y 49 y

1 49 y

or,

3y
2

3y
57 y

1
19

102. C; LCM of 3, 9, 12, 21, 24 = 504

Now, greatest number of four digits = 9999
When 9999 is divided by 504, the remainder is
423. Hence, the greatest number of four digits
exactly divisible by each of the numbers 3, 9,
12, 21 and 24 = 9999 423 = 9576
Reqd no. = 9576 + 2 = 9578
103. A; HCF of 24, 48 and 64 = 8

24
48
64
= 3,
= 6 and
=8
8
8
8
Required number of rows = (3 + 6 + 8) = 17
104. D; Let the share of profit of A be 7x and
B be 6x. Then, 6x = 6300
6300
x=
= `1050
6
Now, As share in the profit = 7 1050 = 7350
Total profit earned by A and B = 7350 + 6300
= `13650
Remaining profit = (100 15) = 85%
13650 100
100% =
= 16058.82 16060
85
126
2 63
105. C; 8 = (8 ) = (63 + 1)63 has each term
except 1 63 exactly divisible by 63. Thus, when
8126 is divided by 63, we have remainder 163 = 1
106. B; The series is +7, +14, +28, +56, +112
107. C; Let the breadth be x. Then length = 2x
Now, (x + 8) (2x 8) x 2x = 64
or, 2x2 + 16x 8x 64 2x2 = 64
or, 8x = 64 + 64 = 128

2 cos (1 sin ) 2 cos (1 sin )

8
2
(1 sin )
or, 2cos + 2cos .sin + 2cos 2cos .sin
= 8cos2
or, 8cos2 = 4cos
4
1
cos =
cos 60
= 60
8
2
3
p
112. B; Given sin =
=
5
h
b=

h2 p2 =

4
5
2
= cos

(5) 2 (3) 2 = 4

cos =
Now,

2 sec
1 tan
2
3
5

4
5

cos
(sin

5 2
3 4

cos )

10
7

113. C; We have, sec 4A = cosec (A + 20)

or, sec 4A = sec (90 (A + 20)
or, sec 4A = sec (70 A)
70
or, 4A = 70 A
A=
= 14
5
114. D; MNP is a triangle. Right angle is
formed at Q such that PQ = 10 cm and MQ =
10 cm

K
KUNDAN

39. C; My age is 13 years. Then my sisters

age = 13 3 = 39 years. And my brothers age
is 39 + 7 = 46 years. At the time of my birth
my brothers age was 46 13 = 33 years.
40. C;

Required distance = 25 10 = 15 km
41. A; Both zebra and and tiger are animals.
42. D; Required number of boys in the row =
25 + 9 1 = 33
43. B; All pens are markers (A) + Some markers
are ink (I) = A + I = No conclusion. Hence, I
does not follow. Again, Some markers are ink
conversion
Some inks are markers.
Hence, conclusion II follows.
44. A; All books are copies
conversion
Some copies are books. Hence, conclusion I
follows. But All books are copies (A) + No
copy is a paper (E) = A + E = No book is a
paper. Hence, II does not follow.
45. C
46. D
47. B
48. D
49. D
50. B; Neither U nor E is there
51. A
52. B
53. C
54. D
55. A
56. A
57. B
58. B
59. A
60. B
61. C
62. D
63. C
64. D
65. A
66. D
67. D
68. B
69. C
70. B
71. D
72. D
73. D
74. C
75. A
76. B
77. A
78. A
79. A
80. A
81. A
82. B
83. B
84. B
85. A
86. C
87. B
88. C
89. A
90. C
91. C
92. B
93. C
94. D
95. B
96. B
97. B
98. A
99. B
100. D
1
101. B; Given, 3y 2 y 4
or, 6y2 + 1 = 8y
... (i)

128
or, x =
= 16 cm
8
So, length = 2x = 2 16 = 32 cm

108. C; We know that

1
x

x2

x2

= 51 2 = 49

1
or, x
= 49 = 7
x
Taking cube of both sides, we have

x3

1
x

3
or, x

3 x
1
3

1
x

343

343 21 364

x
109. D
110. D; Let O be the centre of the circle.
OAB = 25, BCO = 35
Join OB in OAB. OA = OB (Radii of the
same circle)
OAB = OBA = 25
... (i)
Similarly OBC = OCB = 35
Adding (i) and (ii), we have
OBC + OBA = 25 + 35 = 60
ABC = 60
Since arc AC subtends AOC at the centre and
ABC at point B on the circumference,
AOC = 2 ABC = 2 60 = 120
2 cos
2 cos
8
111. A; We have,
1 sin
1 sin

In PMQ, let

MPQ =

10
= 1 = tan 45
10
= 45
In PQN, a right-angled triangle,
tan =

10 3
10

Now, tan

QPN =

3 = tan 60

= 60
... (i)
Then QPN = 60
... (ii)
From (i) and (ii), we have
MPQ + QPN = MPQ
MPQ = 60 + 45 = 105
115. B; Let AB be the height of the tree.

h
x

Then, in ABC tan 60 =

or,

3 =

h
x

x=

Now, in ADB, we have

tan 30 =

h
30 x

h
30

h
3

or,

3h = 30 +

h = 15 3 metres

116. C; We have,
OA = OC = 13 cm
AB = 24 cm and CD = 10 cm
or, AM = MB = 12 cm and CN = ND = 5 cm

120. B; Put A = 60 and B = 45. Then, sin

(A + B) = sin(60 + 45)
So, sin(60 + 45) = sin60.cos45 +

3
2

cos60.sin45 =

OM =

OA AM
Again, in CON,

25 = 5 cm

169 144

2
2
OC CN
169 25 = 12 cm
Required distance between AB and CD = MN
= ON OM = 12 5 = 7 cm
117. D; Let ABC be a triangle whose side BC is
produced to form exterior angle ACD = 105
Let B = 45

ON2 =

1
2

1
2

3 1
2 2

AB
PQ

AC AB
or
RP AC

PQ
RP

and A = P,
So, ABC and PQR are similar.
Hence, C = R and B = Q
or C = 55
and B = 180 (60 + 55) = 65
123. B; Let the exterior angle be x.
Then interior angle = 8x
We know that the sum of (interior angle +
exterior angle) = 180
180
or, 8x + x = 180
or, x =
= 20
9
If n is the number of sides of the polygon then
360
180 360
exterior angle =
or,
n
9
n
360 9
18
or, n =
180
124. B;

So, co-ordinates of M are

9K 1 8K 3
,
.
8K 1 K 1

9K 1 8K 3
,
lies on x y + 2 = 0
K 1 K 1
or, 9K 1 8K + 3 + 2K + 2 = 0
2
or, 3K 2 = 0
K=
3
119. A;

PQR = 60, QMR = 90

or, QRM = 180 (90 + 60) = 30
NOR = 180 (90 + 30) = 60
POR = 180 60 = 120
OPR + ORP = 180 POR
= 180 120 = 60
125. A;

PQ2 + QR2 + RS2 = RP2 + RS2 = PS2

PRS = 90
126. C; CP DP = MP NP
or, 7 4 = 8 NP
NP = 3.5 cm
MN = 8 3.5 = 4.5 cm

Let Pm be the median through the vertex P of

triangle PQR., Then M is the mid-point of QR
so the co-ordinates of M are

3 1 2 8
,
, ie (2, 3).
2
2
PM =

3 2

( 6

( 6 3)

3)

4 3

( 6 2)

4 3
( 6 2)
6

2( 2 3 )

3( 3

2)

3 2( 6
3 ) 4 3( 6
2)

(6 3)
(6 2)

2( 6
3) 3( 6
2 ) + 3( 3
2)
131. A; Now,
Let Sup = x kmph, Sdn = 3x kmph
Sman =

1
(3x + x) kmph = 2x kmph
2

K
KUNDAN

Then by theorem of exterior angle,

ACD = B + A
or, 105 45 = A = 60
Again, 60 + 45 + C = 180
C = 180 105 = 75
The other two angles are 60 and 75.
118. D; Given that M divides the line segment
joing A (1, 3) and B (9, 8) in the ratio K : 1.

121. B
122. D; Given that

In right-angle triangle OMA

OA2 = OM2 + AM2

129. C; (x y) + (y z) + (z x) = 0
So, (x y)3 + (y z)3 + (z x)3
= 3(x y) (y z) (z x)
3 (x y)(y z)(z x)
1
Given exp. = 9 (x y)(y z)(z x) =
3
130. C;

(5 2) 2

2 2 1 5 2 3 1 1
,
2 1
2 1

1 5
,
3 3

= x

1
(3 2 2)

1
x

128. C; x

1
19
5
1
1
3
5
4

5
19
=1
1
4
3
5

2
kmph
3

7
= 70 m
44
Radius of outer circle = 70 + 14 = 84 m
136. D; Volume of right circular cyclinder =
volume of sphere
or,

= 4

Then, 2 r = 440 or, r = 440

D
2

H =

4
3

D
2

2
3
H D
D
4 D
H
or,
4 6
4
3 8
or, 3H = 2D
137. C
138. A; A = B + 1000 = C 2000
C = B + 3000
Now,
A + B + C = (B + 1000) + B + (B + 3000)
= 8200

or,

1
14
14
2
3

14
3

132. A; Interval of change

= (LCM of 21, 63, 105) = 315 sec
So, the lights will again change simultaneously
after every 315 sec, ie 5 min 15 sec. Hence, next
simultaneous change will take place at
9:20:15 AM.
133. B; Let the number of correct answers be
x. Then, x 4 1 (150 x) = 400
or, 4x 150 + x = 400
or, 5x = 550
x = 110
Incorrect = 150 110 = 40
3 1
134. B; Bs last 3 days work =
18 6
1
5
Rest of the work = 1
=
6
6
1 1 1
(A+B)s 1 days work =
9 18 6
5
work will be done by A and B in 5 days
6
Total number of days = 8 days.
135. C; Let the inner radius be r metres.

2=4

4 =2

or, x =

Sdn Sup

Sstream =

65 units

Let G be the median on PM and divide it in the

ratio 2 : 1.
So, the co-ordinates of G are

= (3 + 2 2 ) +

(1 3)2 =

127. B;

28
3

2x =

or, 3B + 4000 = 8200

B = `1400
1400
2460 = `420
Share of B =
8200
139. A; Let CP be `x.
1900 x
x 1280
100
100
Then,
x
x
or, 1920 x = x 1280
or, 2x = 3200
x = 1600
Required SP = 125% of `1600

125
1600 = `2000
=
100
140. B; Let the CP of the horse be `x.
Then, CP of the carriage = `(3000 x)
20% of x 10% of (3000 x) = 2% of 3000
x (3000 x )

60
or,
5
10
or, 2x 3000 + x = 600
or, 3x = 3600
x = `1200
Hence, CP of the horse = `1200
2 xy
km / hr
x y

2 25 4
200
km / hr =
km/hr
25 4
29
Distance travelled in 5 hours 48 minutes, ie

200 29
4
km = 40 km
hrs =
29
5
5
Distance of the post office from the village

40
= 20 km
2
142. B; Let the sum be `x.
=

1 2
1

6 21 14
C alone can fill the tank in 14 hours.
146. B; Profit percentage of Company Y in
the year 2007 = 35
Income of Company Y in the year 2007
220 135
=
= `297 crore
100
Income of Company Y in the year 2007
= `297 crore
147. D; Let the incomes of each of the two
companies X and Y in the year 2009, be `x
and the expenditure of companies X and Y in
2009 be E1 and E2 respectively.
Then, for Company X we have,

149. D; Let the expenditure of Company X

and Y in 2006 be `x crore. And let the income
of Company X in 2006 be `z crore and that of
Y be `(342 z) crore. Then, for Company X,
we have

So =

x E1
100 = 50
E1

3
150
or, x =
E = E1
... (i)
2
100 1
And for Company Y in the year 2009, we
have,
x E2
100
or, 60 =
E2
60
x
1
or,
100 E 2
8
160
x=
E = E2
100 2 5
From (i) and (ii), we get

40 =

zx
100
x

or, x =

or,

40
100

z
1
x

20
100z
z
=
27
140

Also, for Company Y, we have

or, 45 =

or,

45
100

(342 z ) x
100
x
(342 z )
1
x

or, x =

(342 z ) 100
145

or, x =

(342 z) 20
29

... (ii)

K
KUNDAN

141. A; Average speed =

=

2
21
Cs 1 hours work = (A + B + C)s
one hours work (A + B)s one hours work
(A + B)s 1 hours work =

25 1
x 10 1

Then, x
2 100
100
or, 25x 20x = 250000
or, 5x = 250000
x = 50000

6 1 1
143. B; Required ratio =
6 5 5
144. D; Let the sum be `P. Then
P1

25
2 100

or, P

9
8

3
E1
2

1250

or,

1
1 : 25
25

8
E2
5

E1
E2

8 2
5 3

16 : 15

3x E1
100
E1

or, 65

510

65
or,
100

510
E 1 = 3x

1920 25 2
2 100

20
33

= 3x

20 x
11

For Company Y, we have

510 64
1920
17
Sum = `1920

or, P =

So, SI = `

100
165

= `480

2
1
=
6
3
1
2
Reamaining part = 1
3
3

145. C; Part filled in 2 hours =

(A + B)s 7 hours work =

2
3

or,

4x E 2
100 = 50
E2

or,

4 x 150

E 2 100

or,

3
or, E2 = 4x
2

50
100

2
3

4x
1
E2

8x
3

Required ratio

E1
E2

3x
4x

100
165
100
150

(342 z ) 20
29

z = 168
Substituting z = 168 in (i), we get x = 120
Total expenditure of Company X and Y in
2006 = 2x = 240 crore
Total income of companies X and Y in 2006
= `342 crore
Total profit = `(342 240) crore
= `102 crore
150. A; Let the income of Company X in the
year 2008 be `x crore.

3 150
4 165

15
= 15 : 22
22

x 200
100
200

x = 310
Expenditure of Company X in 2011
= Income of Company X in 2008 = `310 crore
Let the income of Company X in 2011 be `z
crore.
Then, 50 =

3x
1
E1

20
z
27

Then 55 =

148. C; Let the income of companies X and Y

in 2010 be 3x and 4x. And let the expenditures
in 2010 of companies X and Y be E1 and E2 .
Then, for company X we have,

16
15

From (i) and (ii), we get

z 310
100
310

or, z = 465
Income of Company X in 2011 = `465 crore
151. A; Add the before Mahabharata
152. C; Delete again
153. D; No error
154. A; Add a before hundred
155. A; Replace boys with boy
156. D 157. B 158. A 159. C 160. B
161. A 162. B 163. C 164. B 165. D
166. B 167. D 168. A 169. B 170. C
171. B 172. D 173. B 174. C 175. B
176. B 177. A 178. D 179. C 180. B
181. D 182. C 183. A 184. B 185. D
186. B 187. D 188. A 189. B 190. D
191. C 192. D 193. C 194. A 195. B
196. D 197. D 198. C 199. B 200. A