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(1)
We want to show it is also true for n = k + 1, and then well be done. Consider
then:
(cos() + i sin())k+1 = (cos() + i sin())(cos() + i sin())k .
We now use equation (1), and sub in for (cos() + i sin())k on the right hand
side. Then we get
(cos() + i sin())k+1 = (cos() + i sin())(cos(k) + i sin(k)).
= cos() cos(k) + i2 sin() sin(k) + i sin() cos(k) + i sin(k) cos()
= cos() cos(k) sin() sin(k) + i(sin() cos(k) + sin(k) cos())
after expanding the brackets. Now, as you all know (without having to look it
up in your formula booklet, of course), sin (a + b) = sin a cos b + sin b cos a and
cos (a + b) = cos a cos b sin a sin b. So we have
(cos() + i sin())k+1 = cos (k + 1) + i sin (k + 1).
But this is just what we need, right? So by induction weve shown De Moivre to
be true for all positive integers n.
1
x3 x5 x7 x9
+
+
+ ...
3!
5!
7!
9!
x2 x4 x6 x8
+
+
+ ...
2!
4!
6!
8!
x2 x3 x4 x5 x6
ex = 1 + x +
+
+
+
+
+ ...
2!
3!
4!
5!
6!
These are also in the formula booklet. Lets plug in for x in the expressions for
sin x and cos x. And lets multiply the expression for sin x by i, just for fun. We
get:
5
7
9
3
i sin = i i + i i + i + ...
3!
5!
7!
9!
2
4
6
8
cos = 1
+
+
+ ...
2!
4!
6!
8!
Remember that i2 = 1. So, we see i3 = i, i4 = 1, i5 = i, i6 = 1, i7 = i,
i8 = 1, etc. Notice the pattern? So we can write the above expressions as:
cos x = 1
i sin = i + i
3!
+i
5!
+i
7!
+i
9!
+ ...
2
4
6
8
+ i4 + i6 + i8 + ...
2!
4!
6!
8!
Keeping up? Make sure youre happy with what Ive just done before moving on.
We can write these as:
cos = 1 + i2
Adding together the two expressions above (well assume its OK to add together
infinite sums of numbers), we get:
cos + i sin = 1 + (i) +
But if you look back at the Taylor series for ex , we see that this is just ei , i.e.
ei = 1 + (i) +