ENT

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1.

Pinna is supplied by all, EXCEPT:

a. Greater auricular N
b. Auriculotemporal N
c. Jacobson's Nerve
d. Vagus Nerve
2. The area of middle ear cleft around the tympanic
orifice of the eustachian tube is also called as :
a. Epitympanum
b. Mesotympanum
c. Hypotympanum
d. Protympanum
3. Site of predilection for stapedial type of
otospongiosis is from:
a. Fissula Ante fenestram
b. Fissula Post fenestram
c. Foramen of Huschke
d. Fissures of Santorini
4. Suprameatal triangle is landmark for:
a. Middle ear
b. Facial nerve
c. Mastoid antrum
d. Mastoid tip
5. Narrowest part of middle ear is :
a. Hypotympanum
b. Epitympanum
c. Mesotympanum
d. Attic
6. The impedance matching mechanism of the
middle ear is accomplished by all, EXCEPT:
a. Curved membrane effect
b. Lever action of ossicles
c. Hydraulic action of tympanic membrane
d. Phase difference between oval & round
window
7. Tuning fork test used to detect malingering is:
a. Rinne
b. Weber
c. Modified schwabach's test
d. Chimani Moo's test
8. Oto acoustic em issions are :
a. Sounds generated by the cochlea
b. Due to activity of outer hair cells
c. Of two types
d. All of the above
9. Flat tympanogram is a feature of:
a. Otosclerosis
b. Serous otitis media
c. Eustachian tube dysfunction
d. Normal ear
10. Hematoma of the auricle can lead to :
a. Bat ear
b. Singapore ear

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

c. Cauliflower ear
d. Swiimmer's ear
Ram, a 50 year old male is admitted with right ear
discharge, lower cranial nerve palsies and
uncontrolled blood sugar, Most probable
diagnosis:
a. Tropical ear
b. Unsafe CSOM
c. Malignant
d. Glomus jugulare tumour
Muscles related to eustachian tube are all,
EXCEPT:
a. Tensor veli palatini
b. Levator veli palatini
c. Cricopharyngeus
d. Salpingopharyngeus
Ostmann's pad of fat is related to:
a. Middle ear
b. Eustachian tube
c. Oropharynx
d. Maxillary sinus
Eustachian tube patency can be checked by:
a. Toynbee's manouvre
b. Apley's manouvre
c. Cottle's manouvre
d. Particle repositioning manouvre
The causative agent in acute necrotising otitis
media is:
a. Staph. aureus
b.
- hemolytic streptococci
c. Pseudomonas
d. Candida
Tuberculous otitis media, all are true, EXCEPT:
a. Painless ear discharge
b. Multiple perforations
c. Severe hearing loss out of proportion to
symptoms
d. Pink granulations
During mastoidectomy an ENT surgeon found a
cholesteatoma sac which was engulfing the
ossicles. Malleus & incus found to be necrosed
only stapes footplate along with superstructure
presnt. Which type of tympanoplasty can be
planned?
a. Type IV
b. Type III
c. Type VI
d. Type II
Which of the following is not a complication of
CSOM?
a. Citelli's abcess
b. Luc's abscess

ENT
19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

I.S
c. Otitic hydrocephalus
d. BPPV
Not seen in Gradenigo's syndrome:
a. Facial palsy
b. Aural discharge
c. Diplopia
d. Facial pain
Hennebert's sign is seen in all. EXCEPT:
a. Syphilis
b. Meniere's disease
c. Congenitally lax food plate of
d. Otosclerosis
Cerebellar abscess develops as a direct extension
through:
a. Solid triangle
b. Trautmann's triang
c. Mac Ewen's triangle
d. Endolymphatic
Delta sign is seen in :
a. Mastoiditis
b. Extradural abscess
c. Lateral sinus thrombophlebitis
d. Meningitis
Schwartze operation is :
a. Simple mastoidectomy
b. Radical mastoidectomy
c. Modified radical mastoidectomy
d. Ossiculoplasty
Cortical mastoidectomy was first described by:
a. Stake
b. Schwartz
c. Bondy
d. Lempert
A child comes with chronic foul smelling ear
discharge & facial paresis since few days. On
examination external auditory canal shows a
polyp. Treatment of choice is:
a. Antibiotic to dry ear & then
mastoidectomy
b. Antibiotic drops
c. Steroid drops
d. Immediate mastoidectomy
Reddish hue seen on promontory through the TM
is seen in:
a. ASOM
b. CSOM
c. Otosclerosis
d. Meniere's disease
NOT seen in otosclerosis:
a. Hearing loss
b. Paracusis willissii
c. Hitselbergers sign

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

d. Tinnitus
Otosclerosis best treatment is:
a. Sodium fluoride
b. Stapedectomy with piston
c. Stapedotomy with piston
d. Observation
In mastoid surgery, the important landmark for
lowering the facial ridge is:
a. Facial recess
b. Chorda tympani
c. Processus cochleariform is
d. Lateral semicircular canal
Not seen in Rosenthal Melkersson's syndrome is:
a. Facial paralysis
b. Hearing loss
c. Lip swelling
d. Fissured tongue
Not a topodiagnostic tests for facial nerve is:
a. Schirmer's test
b. Stapedial reflex
c. Parotid salivary flow test
d. Submandibular salivary flow test
Frey's syndrome follows damage to:
a. Facial nerve
b. Auriculotemporal nerve
c. Trigeminal nerve
d. Glossopharyngeal
Not a Variant of Meniere's disease:
a. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
(BPPV)
b. Vestibular hydrops
c. Tumarkins otolithic crisis
d. Lermoyez syndrome
Donaldson's line is landmark for:
a. Lateral semicircular canal
b. Superior semicircular canal
c. Endolymphatic sac
d. Petrous apex.
Brown's sign is positive in :
a. Glomus jugulare tumors
b. Acoustic neuroma
c. Cholesteatoma
d. Malignancy
Phelp's sign is seen in :
a. Carcinoma of external ear
b. Glomus tumour
c. Hyrtle's fistula
d. Branchial fistula
NOT an early sign of acoustic neuroma is:
a. Hypo aesthesia of posterior meatal wall
b. Dysdiadochokinesia
c. Loss of taste

ENT
38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

I.S
d. Decreased lacrimation
Gamma knife is used in treatment of:
a. Otosclerosis
b. Meniere's disease
c. Acoustic neuroma
d. BPPV
In case of temporal bone fracture with facial palsy,
exploratory surgery and facial nerve
decompression is indicated if patient has:
a. Delayed onset of facial palsy
b. Incomplete facial palsy
c. Complete but delayed onset of facial
palsy
d. Sudden onset complete facial palsy
Costen's syndrome refers to neuralgia originating
in:
a. Optic foramen
b. Meatal foramen
c. Temporomandibular joint
d. Temporomaxillary joint
A 25 year old woman suffering from bilateral
hearing loss for 6 years aggravated during
pregnancy on tympanograph which of the
following curve is obtained?
a. Ad
b. As
c. B
d. A
Which of the following conditions casues the
maximum hearing loss?
a. Ossicular disruption with intact tympanic
membrane
b. Disruption of malleus & incus as well as
tympanic membrane
c. Partial fixation of the stapes footplate
d. Otitis media with effusion
Hyperaccusis in Bells palsy is due to paralysis of
following muscle:
a. Tensor tympani
b. Levator veli palatine
c. Tensor veli palantini
d. Stapedius
Complete facial Nr. Palsy is commonly associated
with which of the following?
a. Longitudinal # of temporal bone
b. Transverse # of temporal bone
c. Ethmoid #
d. Parietal bone #
Which of the following is not the site for
paraganglioma?
a. Carotid bifurcation
b. Jugular foramen

c. Promontory in middle ear

d. Geniculate ganglion
46. All of the following techniques are used to control
bleeding from bone during mastoid surgery,
EXCEPT:
a. Cutting drill over the bleeding area
b. Diamond droll over the bleeding area
c. Bipolar cautery over the bleeding area
d. Bone wax
47. All of the following steps are done in radical
mastoidectomy, EXCEPT:
a. Lowering of facial ridge
b. Removal of middle ear mucosa &
Tympanic membrane
c. Removal of incus & malleus
d. Maintainance of patency of ET
48. Shyam, a 8 years old male child with otitis media,
not responding to ampicillin presents with high
grade fever & severe otalgia with bulging Tm.
Treatment of choice is:
a. Ciprofloxacin
b. Mastoidectomy
c. Myringotomy
d. Grommet insertion
49.
Since 2 years on testing with 512 Hz tuning fork
the Rinne's test is positive on right ear & negative
on left ear with Weber's test the tone is perceived
louder in left ear. The most likely patient has:
a. Right ear conductive hearing loss
b. Right ear SNHL
c. Left ear SNHL
d. Left ear conductive H. loss
50. Acoustic reflex is mediated by:
a. V & VII nerves
b. V & VIII nerves
c. VII & VI nerves
d. VII & VIII nerves
51. Which of the cartilages of nose are unpaired?
a. Upper lateral cartilage
b. Alar cartilage
c. Sesamoid cartilage
d. Quadrangular cartilage
52. Middle meatus is not related to:
a. Bulla ethmoidalis
b. Infundibulum
c. Onodi cells
d. Hiatus semilunaris
53. Kiesselbach's plexus is formed by all, EXCEPT:
a. Anterior ethmoidal A
b. Posterior ethmoidal A
c. Sphenopalatine A

ENT
54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

I.S
d. Greater palatine A
Eddie air currents in the nose are seen during
which phase of respiration?
a. Inspiration
b. Expiration
c. Both
d. None
Best view for evaluating sphenoid sinus is:
a. Water's view with open mouth
b. Schuller's view
c. Towne's view
d. Lateral view
Nasal mucosa is supplied by :
a. Only external carotid artery
b. Only internal carotid artery
c. Mainly external carotid artery
d. Mainly internal carotid artery
Structure that divides ethmoidal air cells into the
anterior & posterior ethmiodal air cells is:
a. Aggar nasi
b. Haller cells
c. Ground lamella
d. Onodi cells
A patient with complete anosmia on smell testing
would respond to:
a. Soap
b. Coffee
c. Ammonia
d. Tobacco
NOT True for furuncle of nasal vestibule is:
a. Caused by Staph. Aureus
b. Due to trauma from plucking the nasal
vibrissae
c. Can cause cavernous sinus
thrombophlebitis
d. Treatment is wait & watch
Saddle nose is not seen after:
a. Submucous resection
b. Septoplasty
c. Septal abscess
d. Granulomatous diseases of nose
About meningoencephalocele, what is false:
a. It is herniation of brain tissue with
meninges throught a congenital bony
defect
b. Subcutaneous pulsatile swelling in the
midline at the roof of nose
c. Cough impulse present
d. Irreducible
About "potato tumour" what is false?
a. Tumour due to hypertrophy of sebaceous
glands

b.
c.
d.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

Acne rosacea
Malignant
Treatment is debu!king followlnq by reepithelialization or complete excision with
skin grafting
Jarjaway fracture of nasal septum: all are true,
EXCEPT:
a. Due to blows from front
b. Causes deviation of nose
c. Starts from above the anterior nasal spine
of maxilla & runs horizontally backwards
just above the junction of septal cartilage
with vomer
d. Runs vertically from anterior nasal spine
upwards to junction of bony &
cartilaginous dorsum of nose.
Cottle's test is used to detect obstruction due to:
a. Rhinitis medicamentosa
b. Deviated nasal septum
c. Hypertrophied inferior turbinates
d. Rhinosporidiosis
The preferred age for doing septal surgery is:
a. 12 years
b. 17 years
c. 22 years
d. 8 years
Septal hematoma: all are true, EXCEPT:
a. Caused by nasal trauma or septal surgery
b. Fluctuation test positive
c. Treatment is aspiration occasionally
d. Treatment is antibiotics only
Perforation in cartilaginous part is not caused by:
a. Lupus
b. Tuberculosis
c. Syphilis
d. Leprosy
Atrophic rhinitis is caused by all, EXCEPT:
a. Klebsiella ozaenae
b. Diphtheroids
c. Frisch bacillus
d. Staphylococci
Medical management for atrophic rhinitis includes
all, EXCEPT:
a. Injection of placental
b. 25% glucose in glycerin
c. Kemicetine
d. Oestradlol lnjections
Atrophic rhinitis: surgical management includes
all, EXCEPT:
a. Young's surgery
b. Whit Mack's surgery
c. Ragav Saran's surgery

ENT
71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

76.

77.

78.

79.

I.S
d. Schwartz surgery
False regarding rhinoscleroma is:
a. It is a granulomatous disease
b. It is fungal in origin
c. Mukulicz cells are seen on biopsy
d. Starts in the nose
Best line of treatment for patients suffering from
rhinosporidiosis is:
a. Dapsone
b. Avulsion of the polypi
c. Young's surgery
d. Surgical excision with base cauterization
Treatment for Wegener's granulomatosis is all,
EXCEPT:
a. Systemic steroids
b. Radiotherapy
c. Cyclophosphamide
d. Azathioprine
Chronic foul smelling & occasionally blood stained
unilateral nasal discharge in a child is highly
suspicious of:
a. Adenoids
b. DNS
c. Meningocele
d. Foreign body
Emergency treatment for bilateral choanal atresia
is:
a. Cottle's manoeuvre
b. McGovern's technique
c. Apley's manoeuvre
d. Transnasal correction
CSF rhinorrhoea is seen in which of the following
types of fractures?
a. Le Fort I maxillary fracture
b. Le Fort II maxillary fracture
c. Tripod fracture
d. Both Le Fort II & III
Best modality to detect site of CSF rhinorrhoea is:
a. MRI
b. CT angiography
c. CT cisternography
d. CSF examination
Steroids sprays used in treatment of allergic
rhinitis are all, EXCEPT:
a. Beclomethasone
b. Fluticasone
c. Dexamethasone
d. Mometasone
Vidian neurectomy is done for treatment of :
a. Allergic rhinitis
b. Vasomotor rhinitis
c. Rhinitis sicca

80.

81.

82.

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

d. Rhinitis caseosa
Symptoms associated with nasal polypi are all,
EXCEPT:
a. Sampter's triad
b. Trotter's triad
c. NARES
d. Kartagener's syndrome
False for Antrochoanal polyp is:
a. Common is adult
b. Infection
c. Solitary
d. Unilateral
Most common cause of epistaxis in an adult is:
a. Trauma
b. Infection
c. Hypertension
d. Asthma
False for nasal bone fracture is:
a. Most common fracture of face
b. Periorbital ecchymosis may be present
c. Crepitus present
d. Treatment is closed or open reduction
Oro-antral fistula can be caused by all, EXCEPT:
a. Dental extraction
b. Caldwell Luc operation
c. Antrochoanal polyp
d. Ca maxilla
All are true regarding fracture zygoma (tripod
fracture), EXCEPT:
a. It is second most commonly fractured
bone
b. Step deformity helps in clinical diagnosis
c. Trismus is seen
d. Open reduction & internal fixation is
treatment for all zygomatic fractures
"Office headache" is seen in:
a. Frontal sinusitis
b. Ethmoid sinusitis
c. Sphenoid sinusitis
d. Maxillary sinusitis
Nerve not involved in superior orbital fissure" are
all, EXCEPT:
a. VI
b. III
c. IV
d. V2
Synonymous with inverted papilloma are all,
EXCEPT:
a. Transitional cell papilloma
b. Schneiderian tumour
c. Ringertz tumour
d. Hemangiopericytoma

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89. Raghu, a 50 year old male has carcinoma of

maxilla involving the orbital periosteum, (best)
line of treatment would be:
a. Maxillectomy
b. Maxillectomy with radiotherapy
c. Maxillectomy with eyeball exentration
d. Maxillectomy with eyeball exentration
and radiotherapy
90. Paranasal sinus malignancy: all are true EXCEPT:
a. Predisposing factors are leather work and
mustard gas
b. Workers of furniture industry develop
adenocarcinoma of ethmoids & nasal
cavity
c. Nickel refining leads to anaplastic &
squamous cell carcinoma
d. 20% are squamous cell variety
91. Regarding ethmoid infundibulum situated in
lateral wall of nose, which of the following
statements are true?
a. It is situated medial to uncinate process
b. It communicates with nasal cavity
through hiatus semilunaris
c. Opening of sphenoid is situated near its
floor
d. It cannot be localized even CT scan
92. A 35 year old woman comes with nasal discharge,
crusting & woody nose, the diagnosis is:
a. Rhinosporidiosis
b. Rhinoscleroma
c. Atrophic rhinitis
d. Ethmoidal polyps
93. Features associated with DNS includes all of the
following, EXCEPT:
a. Epistaxis
b. Atrophy of turbinate
c. Hypertrophy of turbinate
d. Recurrent sinusitis
94. For DNS, surgery is required for all, EXCEPT:
a. Septal spur with epistaxis
b. Prolonged DNS
c. Persistent rhinorrhoea
d. Recurrent sinusitis
95. Percentage of newborns with deviation of nasal
septum :
a. 2%
b. 10%
c. 20%
d. 50%
96. A 4 year old child presents with bleeding from
right side of nose. He also gets purulent discharge
from the same side. The likely diagnosis is:

a. DNS with right maxillary sinusitis

b. Unilateral choanal atresia
c. AC polyp
d. Foreign body
97. In paranasal sinuses, osteoma commonly involves:
a. Frontal sinus
b. Maxillary sinus
c. Ethmoid sinus
d. Sphenoid sinus
98. Antral (Holman-Miller) sign is a feature of:
a. Acoustic Neuroma
b. Glomus Jugulare
c. Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma
d. Coalescent mastoiditis
99. The current treatment of choice for large AC
polyp in 30 year old man is:
a. Intranasal polypectomy
b. Caldwell-Luc operation
c. Endoscopic sinus surgery
d. Lateral rhinotomy & excision
100. Most definitive diagnosis of sinusitis is :
a. X-ray DNS
b. Proof puncture
c. Sinoscopy
d. Transillumination test
101. Pharyngeal wall does not consists of:
a. Mucous membrane
b. Pharyngobasilar fascia
c. Adventitia
d. Buccopharyngeal fascia
102. The external layer of the muscular coat of pharynx
consists of:
a. Superior constrictor
b. Stylopharyngeus
c. Salpingopharyngeus
d. Palatopharyngeus
103. Not true for nasopharyngeal bursa is :
a. Epithelial lined median recess found in
tonsil mass
b. Extends from pharyngeal mucosa to
periosteum of basi-occiput
c. May cause persistent post nasal discharge
d. Can lead to Thornwald's disease
104. Levator palati and eustachian tube pass through:
a. Sinus of His
b. Killian dehiscence
c. Sphenopalatine foramen
d. Sinus of Morgagni
105. Passavant's ridge is formed by:
a. Salpingopharyngeus
b. Palatopharyngeus
c. Stylopharyngeus

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d. Uvula
106. Hypopharynx does not consist of:
a. Pyriform fossa
b. Post cricoid region
c. Epiglottis
d. Posterior pharyngeal wall
107. Structures seen lateral to tonsil are all, EXCEPT:
a. Superior constrictor
b. Styloglossus
c. Medial pterygoid
d. Anterior belly of digastric
108. Blood supply to tonsil is not given by :
a. Dorsal lingual artery
b. Ascending pharyngeal artery
c. Descending pharyngeal artery
d. Descending palatine artery
109. The only abductors of vocal cords are:
a. Posterior crico arytenoids
b. Lateral crico arytenoids
c. Inter arytenoids
d. Thyro arytenoids
110. Mucous glands are absent in :
a. Epiglottis
b. Aryepiglottic fold
c. Rima glottidis
d. Vocal folds
111. Most important function of larynx is:
a. Protection of lower airways
b. Respiration
c. Phonation
d. Fixation of chest
112. Killians dehiscence-false statement is:
a. Exists between thyropharyngeus &
salpingopharyngeus
b. Exits between thyropharyngeus &
cricopharyngeus
c. Called as "gateway of tears"
d. Site for pharyngeal pouch
113. Viral parotitis (mumps) all are true, EXCEPT:
a. Gives life long immunity
b. Can cause epididymo-orchitis,
pancreatitis, and thyroiditis
c. Causes bilateral SN loss
d. Serum amylase is raised
114. Acute suppurative parotitis-false statement is:
a. Commonly seen in elderly, debilitated &
dehydrated patients
b. Dry mouth is a predisposing factor
c. Pseudomonas is the causative organism
d. Stenson's duct is swollen
115. Type of epithelium lining the vocal cord is:
a. Keratinising stratified squamous

b. Non-keratinising stratified squamous

c. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar
d. Cuboidal
116. Regarding sialoliths false is:
a. 90% of stones are seen in submandibular
glands
b. Formed by deposition of calcium
phosphate
c. Submandibular stones are radiolucent
d. Marsupialisation is the treatment of
choice
117. Investigation of choice for diagnosis of Sjogren's
syndrome is :
a. ESR
b. Rheumatoid factor
c. ANA
d. Labial biopsy
118. What is true regarding Warth in's Tumour:
a. It is more common in females
b. It is invariably benign tumour
c. It occurs commonly in minor salivary
glands
d. It occurs in early childhood
119. Frey's syndrome follows damage to:
a. Facial nerve
b. Auriculotemporal nerve
c. Trigeminal nerve
d. Glossopharyngeal
120. Ludwigs angina false statement is:
a. H. influenza & E. coli are the causative
organism
b. Premolar infection leads to sublingual
space infection
c. Molar infection leads to submaxillary
space infection
d. Can cause laryngeal edema
121. In Diphtheria tonsillitis patient presents with all
these symptoms, EXCEPT:
a. Toxemia
b. Markedly enlarged lymph nodes (bull
neck)
c. High grade fever
d. Membrane over tonsil which separates
with difficulty and bleeds on removal
122. True for quinsy are all, EXCEPT:
a. Mostly affects adults
b. Can cause Quinke's edema
c. Parapharyngeal abscess is a complication
d. Hot tonsillectomy is treatment of choice
123. Persistent bucconasal membrane results in :
a. Cleft lip
b. Choanal atresia

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c. Cleft palate
d. T. O. fistula
124. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a. Parapharyngeal abscess produces lateral
pharyngeal swelling
b. Parapharyngeal abscess is drained
transorally
c. Marked trismus mandates tracheostomy
d. Acute laryngeal oedema is a
complication of para pharyngeal abscess
125. Behcet's syndrome does not consist of :
a. Aphthous ulcer
b. Uveitis
c. Genital ulcerations
d. Ca esophagus
126. Commonest site for Ca tongue is:
a. Lateral border
b. Tip & undersurface
c. Dorsum
d. Frenulum
127. Commando operation is done for:
a. Ca tongue
b. Ca tonsil
c. Ca gingiva
d. Ca lip
128. Dohlman's surgery is done for:
a. Laryngocele
b. Pharyngeal pouch
c. Puberphonia
d. Spastic dysphonia
129. True for epiglottitis are all, EXCEPT:
a. H. influenza B. is the commonest
causative organism
b. Dyspnoea / stridor is the presenting
symptom
c. Thumb sign seen on XR neck (lateral view)
d. Treatment is tracheostomy
130. True about styloid are all, EXCEPT:
a. Due to elongated styloid process
b. Due to calcification of stylohyoid ligament
c. Towne's view on XR preferred
d. Treatment is conservative
131. True for Paterson Brown Kelly syndrome are all,
EXCEPT:
a. Hypochromic microcytic anemia
b. Common in males
c. Associated with post cricoid Ca
d. Laryngeal crepitus is lost
132. All are true for Laryngomalacia, EXCEPT:
a. Commonest congenital abnormality of
larynx

b.

Stridor increases on crying & decreases in

prone position
c. Omega shaped epiglottis
d. Treatment is tracheostomy
133. True for bilateral abductor paralysis are all,
EXCEPT:
a. Neuritis or surgical traumas are the most
important cause
b. Vocal cords are in median/Paramedian
position
c. Voice is good
d. Respiration is normal
134. Treatment for bilateral abductor paralysis are all,
EXCEPT:
a. Arytenoidectomy
b. Cordectomy
c. Fat injection
d. Thyroplasty
135. About vocal Nodules- all are true, EXCEPT:
a. Voice abuse is common cause
b. Junction of anterior 1/3rd & posterior
c. Junction of anterior 2/3rd & posterior
1/3rd of vocal cord
d. Long standing cases require surgery
136. Juvenile laryngeal papillomas, false is:
a. Viral origin
b. Patient presents with hoarseness &
stridor
c. Excision by laryngo fissure
d. Interferon therapy is used to prevent
recurrence.
137. Treatment of choice for Ca glottis T1NoMo is:
a. Surgery
b. Radiotherapy
c. Surgery + Radiotherapy
d. Radiotherapy + chemotherapy
138. Supraglottic larynx drains into:
a. Pretracheal nodes
b. Upper deep cervical nodes
c. Lower deep cervical nodes
d. Prelaryngeal nodes
139. Structures removed in radical neck dissection are
all, EXCEPT:
a. Lymph nodes
b. Internal jugular vein
c. Submandibular gland
d. Phrenic nerve
140. All of the following about Ca esophagus are true,
EXCEPT:
a. Risk factors are smoking & alcohol
b. Barrets esophagus is premalignant
c. Most common is adenocarcinoma

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d.

Plummer Vinson syndrome is

predisposing factor
141. Pharyngeal diverticula occur through:
a. Oblique & transverse fibres of superior
constrictor
b. Fibers of stylopharyngeus
c. Oblique & transverse fibres of inferior
constrictor
d. None of above
142. Radiation of pain to ear in tonsillitis is :
a. Along X nerve
b. Along XI nerve
c. Along XII nerve
d. Along IX nerve
143. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia is characterized by all
EXCEPT:
a. Carbamazepine is of help
b. Pain is bilateral
c. Intermittent paroxysms of pain
d. Areas of pain are base of tongue, ear &
fauces
144. All following are true about adenoids, EXCEPT:
a. Present at birth
b. Covered by ciliated epithelium
c. Bounded by capsule
d. Does not contain crypt
145. Treatment of choice for nasopharyngeal
carcinoma is :
a. Radiotherapy
b. Surgery
c. Immunotherapy
d. Chemotherapy
146. A hard swelling in tonsillar bed after tonsillectomy
suggest:
a. Elongated styloid process
b. Tonsillar Tag
c. Tonsillolith
d. Peritonsillar abscess
147. Fatal complication of epiglottitis is :
a. Asphyxia
b. Tonsillitis
c. Otitis media
d. Haemorrhage
148. On examination, vocal cords do not approximate
on phonation but comes together when patient
coughs Diagnosis is:
a. Functional aphonia
b. Syphilis
c. Diabetic neuropathy
d. Myasthenia gravis
149. Laryngo tracheo bronchitis is most often due to:
a. Para influenza virus

b. H. influenza
c. Herpes virus
d. Coxsackie virus
150. Treatment of Laryngocele is :
a. Excision
b. Laryngoplasty
c. Medical treatment
d. Mastery inactivity

ENT

I.S

Ans ENT 1
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.

3
4
1
3
3
4
4
4
2
3
3
3
2
1
2
4
2
4
1
4
2
3
1
2
4
3
3
3
4
2
3
2
1
3
1

10

36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.

2
2
3
4
3
2
1
4
2
4
1
4
3
4
4

Ans ENT 2
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.

4
3
2
2
1
3
3
3
4
2
4
3
4
2
2
4
3
3
4
4
2
4

ENT

I.S

23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.

2
4
2
4
3
3
2
2
1
3
4
3
4
1
4
4
4
4
2
2
2
2
3
4
1
3
3
3

Ans ENT 3
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.

3
1
1
4
2
3
4
3
1
4
1

11

12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.

1
3
3
2
3
4
2
2
1
3
4
2
2
4
1
2
2
4
4
2
4
4
3
3
3
2
2
4
3
3
4
2
3
1
1
1
1
1
1